220 701final

Exam(s): Final
Exam Name: A+ Essentials

Total Number of Weekly Questions: 275
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QID: 20400010
Q: Which of the following socket types utilizes a zero insertion force (ZIF) connector
Answer 1: 478
Answer 2: 775
Answer 3: 959
Answer 4: Slot A
Correct Answer: 1
Explanation:
Socket 478 is 478 contact CPU ZIF socket used for Intel's Pentium 4 and Celeron series CPUs. Socket
478 was phased out with the launch of LGA 775
Book Reference: Comptia A+ Certification All-In-One Exam Guide, Seventh Edition (Exam 220-701
& 220-702) Chapter 5
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QID: 20400020
Q: Which of the following allows a secure connection between two points?
Answer 1: HTTP
Answer 2: VPN
Answer 3: FTP
Answer 4: WAN
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:
A virtual private network (VPN) is a computer network that is implemented in an additional software
layer (overlay) on top of an existing larger network for the purpose of creating a private scope of
computer communications or providing a secure extension of a private network into an insecure
network such as the Internet. The links between nodes of a virtual private network are formed over
logical connections or virtual circuits between hosts of the larger network. The Link Layer protocols of
the virtual network are said to be tunneled through the underlying transport network. One common
application is to secure communications through the public Internet, but a VPN does not need to have
explicit security features such as authentication or traffic encryption. For example, VPNs can also be
used to separate the traffic of different user communities over an underlying network with strong
security features, or to provide access to a network via customized or private routing mechanisms
& 220-702) Chapter 25, 26
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QID: 20400030
Q: Which of the following BEST describes virtual memory ?
Answer 1: Flash memory used to hold temporary files before deletion.

Answer 2: Data written to a disk located in a paging file that would not fit into the system’s RAM.
Answer 3: The maximum amount of memory a given system can potentially have.
Answer 4: A portion of physical RAM that is mirrored to the hard drive for redundancy.
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:
Virtual memory is a computer system technique which gives an application program the impression
that it has contiguous working memory (an address space), while in fact it may be physically
fragmented and may even overflow on to disk storage. Systems that use this technique make
programming of large applications easier and use real physical memory (e.g. RAM) more efficiently
than those without virtual memory. Virtual memory differs significantly from memory virtualization in
that virtual memory allows resources to be virtualized as memory for a specific system, as opposed to a
large pool of memory being virtualized as smaller pools for many different systems
& 220-702) Chapter 6
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QID: 20400040
Q: A technician is asked to add a PCMCIA bus card to a laptop that will allow the laptop high-speed
wireless capability. Which of the following provides the BEST solution?
Answer 1: 16-bit card

Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:
CardBus are PCMCIA 5.0 or later (JEIDA 4.2 or later) 32-bit PCMCIA devices, introduced in 1995
and present in laptops from late 1997 onward. CardBus is effectively a 32-bit, 33 MHz PCI bus in the
PC Card form factor. CardBus supports bus mastering, which allows a controller on the bus to talk to
other devices or memory without going through the CPU. Many chipsets, such as those that support
Wi-Fi, are available for both PCI and CardBus
& 220-702) Chapter 21
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QID: 20400050
Q: Which of the following has the HIGHEST cost of implementation in a small office home office
(SOHO) environment?
Answer 1: DSL
Answer 2: Broadband
Answer 3: Satellite
Answer 4: Fiber
Correct Answer: 4
Explanation:
In short distance and relatively low bandwidth applications, electrical transmission is often preferred
over Fiber Optic Cable because of its: Lower material cost, where large quantities are not required ,
Lower cost of transmitters and receivers. Capability to carry electrical power as well as signals (in
specially-designed cables). Ease of operating transducers in linear mode. Optical Fibers are more
difficult and expensive to splice.
& 220-702) Chapter 23
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QID: 20400060
Q: Which of the following is a true statement regarding optical drives and backward compatibility?
Answer 1: DVD drives can read Blu-Ray media, DVD media, but not CD media.
Answer 2: Blue-Ray drives can read Blue-Ray media, DVD media, and CD media.
Answer 3: Blu-Ray drives can read Blu-Ray media, DVD media, but not CD media.
Answer 4: DVD drives can read Blu-Ray media, DVD media, and CD media.
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:
Blu-ray Disc (BD), sometimes called "Blu-ray", is an optical disc storage medium designed to
supersede the standard DVD format. Its main uses are for storing high-definition video, PlayStation 3
video games, and other data, with up to 25 GB per single layered, and 50 GB per dual layered disc. The
disc has the same physical dimensions as standard DVDs and CDs.
& 220-702) Chapter 11
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QID: 20400070
Q: Which of the following protocols uses port 80?
Answer 1: SMTP
Answer 2: HTTP
Answer 3: HTTPS
Answer 4: FTP
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:
An HTTP session is a sequence of network request-response transactions. An HTTP client initiates a
request. It establishes a Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) connection to a particular port on a host
(typically port 80; see List of TCP and UDP port numbers). An HTTP server listening on that port
waits for a client's request message. Upon receiving the request, the server sends back a status line,
such as "HTTP/1.1 200 OK", and a message of its own, the body of which is perhaps the requested
resource, an error message, or some other information.
& 220-702) Chapter 23
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QID: 20400080
Q: Which of the following is a Class C address?
Answer 1: 65.102.1.120
Answer 2: 192.168.1.1
Answer 3: 125.32.3.132
Answer 4: 134.28.1.120
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:
Class C was designed for smaller networks. The default network portions for Class C networks is the
first 24 bits, leaving 8 bits for host identification. The 3 high-order bits are always binary 110, and the
remaining 21 bits are used by IANA to define 2,097,152 networks, but each network can have a
maximum of only 254 hosts. Examples of Class C networks are the 256 private networks ranging from
192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.0.Class C networks are still available.
& 220-702) Chapter 23
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QID: 20400090
Q: Which of the following BEST describes how an impact printer works?
Answer 1: Heat from the printhead boils a water-based ink.

Answer 2: Small wires strike and transfer ink from a ribbon.
Answer 3: Heat from the printhead melts the ink onto the paper.
Answer 4: Toner sticks to photoconductive areas on a drum.
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:
Each dot is produced by a tiny metal rod, also called a "wire" or "pin", which is driven forward by the
power of a tiny electromagnet or solenoid, either directly or through small levers (pawls).
& 220-702) , Chapter 22
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QID: 20400100
Q: Which of the following addresses would be assigned by APIPA?
Answer 1: 169.254.0.15
Answer 2: 10.0.0.25
Answer 3: 172.16.1.15
Answer 4: 192.168.0.15
Correct Answer: 1
Explanation:
The technique is called Link-Local address assignment in RFC 3927. However, Microsoft refers to this
as Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) or Internet Protocol Automatic Configuration (IPAC)
(supported since at least Windows 98 . In the absence of a DHCP server, network clients get issued an
APIPA Address by the Operating System to participate in the local workgroup.
& 220-702) , Chapter 23
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QID: 20400110
Q: Which of the following is used to control access to a broadcasted wireless network based on a user
supplied key?
Answer 1: NAT
Answer 2: WEP
Answer 3: SSID
Answer 4: MAC
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:
Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) is a deprecated algorithm to secure IEEE 802.11 wireless networks.
Wireless networks broadcast messages using radio and are thus more susceptible to eavesdropping than
wired networks. When introduced in 1997,[1] WEP was intended to provide confidentiality comparable
to that of a traditional wired network.
& 220-702) , Chapter 23, 24
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QID: 20400120
Q: A technician is informing a customer about the finding of any specific computer problem. Which of
the following is the BEST approach to tell the customer what is going on?
Answer 1: Use non-technical terms.

Answer 2: Use email so that everything is in writing.
Answer 3: Use technical jargon.
Answer 4: Use the proper acronyms
Correct Answer: 1
Explanation:
Use proper language and avoid using jargon, abbreviations, and acronyms. Every field has its own
language, and outsiders feel lost when they start hearing it. Put yourself in the position of someone not
in the field and explain what is going on by using words they can relate to.
& 220-702) , Chapter 27
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QID: 20400130
Q: How many characters are used in a 128-bit WEP encryption key?
Answer 1: 10
Answer 2: 12
Answer 3: 26
Answer 4: 28
Correct Answer: 3
Explanation:
The 128 bit WEP key is a higher level of encryption (compared to 64 bit WEP). It uses a 104 bit (26
Hex Character) "secret key", and a 24 bit IV. (1)
& 220-702) , Chapter 24, 26
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QID: 20400140
Q: Which of the following types of media is considered optical?
Answer 1: Floppy
Answer 2: Blu-Ray
Answer 3: Biometric device
Answer 4: Tape
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:
Blu-ray Disc uses a "blue" (technically violet) laser, operating at a wavelength of 405 nm, to read and
write data. The diodes are InGaN (Indium Gallium Nitride) lasers that produce 405nm photons directly,
that is, without frequency doubling or other nonlinear optical mechanisms. Conventional DVDs and
CDs use red and near-infrared lasers, at 650 nm and 780 nm, respectively.
& 220-702) , Chapter 11
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QID: 20400150
Q: A technician is called in to repair a 2.4GHz wireless access point that drops connections. Which of
the following would MOST likely cause the connection drops?
Answer 1: The access point is next to a speaker

Answer 2: Electrostatic Discharge (ESD)
Answer 3: Cordless phones
Answer 4: Incandescent lighting
Correct Answer: 3
Explanation:
Many cordless telephones and baby monitors in the United States and Canada use the 2.4 GHz
frequency, the same frequency at which Wi-Fi standards 802.11b, 802.11g and 802.11n operate. This
can cause a significant decrease in speed, or sometimes the total blocking of the Wi-Fi signal when a
conversation on the phone takes place. There are several ways to avoid this though, some simple, and
some more complicated.
& 220-702) , Chapter 23
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QID: 20400160
Q: Which of the following is the purpose of the voltage selector switch?
Answer 1: To allow the power supply to operate at different voltages

Answer 2: To change the voltage coming from the wall
Answer 3: To allow alternating current to be used instead of direct current
Answer 4: To change the output voltage to meet the needs of the motherboard
Correct Answer: 1
Explanation:
A modern computer power supply is a switched-mode supply designed to convert 110-240 V AC
power from the mains supply, to several output both positive (and historically negative) DC voltages in
the range + 12V,-12V,+5V,+5VBs and +3.3V. The first generation of computers power supplies were
linear devices, but as cost became a driving factor, and weight became important, switched mode
supplies are almost universal.
& 220-702) , Chapter 2, 10
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QID: 20400170
Q: Which of the following should be plugged into a UPS located at a user’s desk? (Select THREE).
Answer 1: Laser Printer
Answer 2: Monitor
Answer 3: Laptop AC Adapter
Answer 4: Portable Heater
Answer 5: Vacuum Cleaner
Answer 6: Computer
Correct Answer: 2, 3, 6
Explanation:
Laser printers, portable heater and Vacuum cleaners omit high power surge and aren't meant to be
powered by UPSes; in fact, about once every hour or two (depending on the model), many printers turn
on a very high-wattage lamp called the "fuser" whose purpose is to melt toner onto the paper. A UPS
can't handle the sudden power surge, and in fact might be severely damaged by it. So, your best bet is
to plug your laser printer in separately and allow it to lose power if the lights go out.
& 220-702) , Chapter 2, 17
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QID: 20400180
Q: A technician is on a service call and notices that a friend is calling. Which of the following is the
BEST course of action?
Answer 1: Ask the customer for permission before answering the call.
Answer 2: Ignore the call and call back afterwards.
Answer 3: Answer the call and then resume work.
Answer 4: Step outside and answer the call.
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:
Personal calls take up valuable time that should be devoted to completing job assignments on a timely
basis, It also causes distraction for you and the customer.
& 220-702) , Chapter 27
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QID: 20400190
Q: Which of the following boot process files communicates hardware changes to the Windows XP
operating system?
Answer 1: Smss.exe
Answer 2: Ntldr
Answer 3: Ntbootdd.sys
Answer 4: Hal.dll
Correct Answer: 4
Explanation:
If an NT-based OS is selected, then NTLDR runs ntdetect.com, which gathers information about the
computer's hardware. (If ntdetect hangs during hardware detection there is a debug version called
ntdetect.chk which can be found on Microsoft support
& 220-702) , Chapter 17
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QID: 20400200
Q: A user reports that after a stop error appeared the PC started to reboot in a continuous loop. Which
of the following is MOST likely the cause of the problem?
Answer 1: The system cannot connect to the network.

Answer 2: The automatically restart feature in System Failure is on.
Answer 3: The hard drive is faulty and needs to be replaced.
Answer 4: The system does not have enough free hard drive space.
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:
In Startup and Recovery console under System failure select Automatically restart.
& 220-702) , Chapter 17
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QID: 20400210
Q: Which of the following cable types is LEAST affected by electromagnetic interference (EMI)?
Answer 1: Coaxial
Answer 2: UTP
Answer 3: Plenum
Answer 4: Fiber
Correct Answer: 4
Explanation:
Electromagnetic Interference is a common type of noise that originates with one of the basic properties
of electromagnetism. Magnetic field lines generate an electrical current as they cut across conductors.
The flow of electrons in a conductor generates a magnetic field that changes with the current flow.
Electromagnetic Interference does occur in coaxial cables, since current does cut across the conductor.
Fiber optics are immune to this EMI since signals are transmitted as light instead of current. Thus, they
can carry signals through places where EMI would block transmission.
& 220-702) , Chapter 23
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QID: 20400220
Q: Which of the following best summarizes computer intrusion detection?
Answer 1: An alert at logon when an unknown user has tried to logon

Answer 2: An alert when the computer case has been opened
Answer 3: A set of firewalls and anti-virus programs protecting the computer
Answer 4: A motion sensitive web cam recording the room
Explanation:
An intrusion detection system is used to detect several types of malicious behaviors that can
compromise the security and trust of a computer system. This includes network attacks against
vulnerable services, data-driven attacks on applications, host-based attacks such as privilege escalation,
unauthorized logins and access to sensitive files, and malware (viruses, trojan horses, and worms).
& 220-702) , Chapter 16, 17, 24
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QID: 20400230
Q: Which of the following is BEST used to cool down the CPU?
Answer 1: Case fan

Answer 2: Heat sink
Answer 3: Power supply
Answer 4: Decreased RAM
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:
Active heat sink cooling uses the same principle as passive cooling , with the addition of a fan that is
directed to blow over or through the heat sink. The moving air increases the rate at which the heat sink
can exchange heat with the ambient air. Active heat sinks are the primary method of cooling a modern
processor or graphics card.
& 220-702) , Chapter 5, 9
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QID: 20400240
Q: A Windows XP computer does not load all of the services required when it is booted normally.
Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the issue?
Answer 1: MSCONFIG was used to execute the win.ini file.

Answer 2: MSCONFIG was used to disable the computer services.
Answer 3: MSCONFIG was used to execute the system.ini file.
Answer 4: MSCONFIG was used to enable the computer services.
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:
If you're seeing errors on startup relating to a program or directory not being found, the MSCONFIG
startup list is one place to look. If any of the startup entries reference programs or service that you no
longer have, you can most likely safely uncheck them so that Windows doesn't try to run the program
that doesn't exist any more
& 220-702) , Chapter 15
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QID: 20400250
Q: After installing a program, a computer is getting stop errors. The technician has uninstalled the
program, but the stop errors continue. Which of the following would get the computer back to the
operational state it was before the install?
Answer 1: Debugging Mode

Answer 2: Last known Good Configuration
Answer 3: Safe Mode
Answer 4: Systems Restore
Correct Answer: 4
Explanation:
Use System Restore if:
Problems started to occur after you installed an application, Windows Update, or a driver or you
accidentally removed or modified an important system file that is causing the system not to function
properly.
Use Last Known Good Configuration if:

The last time you started Windows you didn’t have any issues. You installed a new device driver,
restarted Windows, and the computer will no longer boot.
By reverting back to the Last Known Good Configuration you will restore the settings so that they
point back to the old driver. You disable a driver that turns out to be more critical to the operation of
Windows. By reverting back to the Last Known Good Configuration you will restore the settings back
to when the driver was still enabled
& 220-702) , Chapter 17
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QID: 20400260
Q: 26. Which of the following cable types would be used in a 10Base T network?
Answer 1: UTP
Answer 2: ThinNet
Answer 3: Fiber
Answer 4: Coaxial
Correct Answer: 1
Explanation:
Unshielded Twisted Pair is the ordinary copper wire that connects home and many business computers
to the telephone company. To reduce crosstalk or electromagnetic induction between pairs of wires,
two insulated copper wires are twisted around each other. Each signal on twisted pair requires both
wires. Since some telephone sets or desktop locations require multiple connections, twisted pair is
sometimes installed in two or more pairs, all within a single cable. For some business locations, twisted
pair is enclosed in a shield that functions as a ground.
& 220-702) , Chapter 23
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QID: 20400270
Q: A technician is replacing fifteen 21" CRTs with 19" LCDs. The storage room is on the other side of
the building. Which of the following safety measures should the technician take?
Answer 1: Wear a back brace when lifting and carrying the CRTs to the storage room.
Answer 2: Wear anti-static wrist straps to prevent ESD in the new monitors.
Answer 3: Recycle the monitors after removing the capacitors for use in other monitors.
Answer 4: Ask several technicians for help in lift the CRT monitors and use a cart for transporting
them.
Correct Answer: 4
Explanation:
Under ideal conditions, 90% of males and 75% of females can safely lift up to 51 lbs as long as safe
lifting practices are followed. The average 21", 19" computer monitor weighs over 51 lbs and, as a
result, should not be lifted alone.
& 220-702) , Chapter 2
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QID: 20400280
Q: Which of the following IEEE 802.11 standards operates at a maximum speed of 11Mbps?
Answer 1: 802.11b
Answer 2: 802.11n
Answer 3: 802.11g
Answer 4: 802.11a
Correct Answer: 1
Explanation:
The theoretical bandwidth of an 802.11b Wi-Fi wireless connection is 11 Mbps. However, this level of
performance is never realized in practice due to network overhead and other factors
& 220-702) , Chapter 23
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QID: 20400290
Q: Aero is a feature of which operating system?
Answer 1: Windows Vista Basic

Answer 2: Windows XP Home
Answer 3: Windows XP Media Center
Answer 4: Windows Vista Ultimate
Correct Answer: 4
Explanation:
Windows Aero is the graphical user interface and the default theme in Windows Vista Ultimate and
Windows 7 , operating systems released by Microsoft. It is also available in Windows Server 2008. Its
name is a backronym for Authentic, Energetic, Reflective and Open.[1] Intended to be a cleaner, more
powerful, more efficient and more aesthetically pleasing user interface than the previously used theme
(Luna), it includes new translucency, live thumbnails, live icons, animations and eye candy. Aero also
encompasses a set of user interface design guidelines for Microsoft Windows.
& 220-702) , Chapter 14, 17
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QID: 20400300
Q: Which of the following components prevents a motherboard from making electrical contact with the
case it is in?
Answer 1: Riser cards

Answer 2: Standoffs
Answer 3: Screws
Answer 4: Daughterboard
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:
Motherboard Plastic standoffs are used to separate the main circuit board from the case. Plastic snap in
units push through the main board and slide into Case attachment slots. This part is the Most Common
Variety Plastic Standoff used and originated on the IBM AT Systems. Sometimes called Motherboard
Spacers. Kit Includes 4 of Regular Standoffs used for holes on MB Case Mounting Plate. 2 of the Cut
off Standoffs used to keep board off Mounting Plate.
& 220-702) , Chapter 9
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QID: 20400310
Q: A technician is trying to change the boot order on a laptop in order to install Windows Vista from a
DVD. Where would be the proper place to configure this?
Answer 1: PXE Boot Rom

Answer 2: BOOT.INI file
Answer 3: BIOS
Answer 4: Hard Disk MBR
Correct Answer: 3
Explanation:
Step 1. Different computers have different ways to enter the BIOS (setup).
Turn on your computer and then look on the screen for some text that says something similar to "Press
‘X’ to Enter Startup", where X is generally the F2 key or the DEL key.
Step 2. Look for a setting that says Boot Order, Boot Sequence, First Boot Device, Boot Management,
or something similar and select it.
Step 3. The screen will show a list of devices that your computer can boot from. You need to change
the order of these devices so WipeDrive will run. Change this setting to have either the CD-ROM or
Floppy drive as first in the list.
& 220-702) , Chapter 14
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QID: 20400320
Q: In Windows XP, which of the following can the technician use to stop a program from loading at
startup? (Select TWO).
Answer 1: Event Viewer

Answer 2: Registry
Answer 3: Performance Monitor
Answer 4: MSCONFIG
Answer 5: Net stop
Correct Answer: 2, 4
Explanation:
A program can be loaded at startup from various places. By knowing where these are located, you have
more direct control over them. How to edit and control startup program launching is different in
various versions of Windows. MSCONFIG and REGEDIT each can be launched by clicking Start,
then Run, typing in the program name, and clicking OK.
& 220-702) , Chapter 14
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QID: 20400330
Q: Which of the following Windows operating systems has a different user folder path than the rest?
Answer 1: Windows XP Media Center Edition

Answer 2: Windows XP Home
Answer 3: Windows Vista Ultimate
Answer 4: Windows 2000 Professional
Correct Answer: 3
Explanation:
Windows Vista makes a few fundamental changes in the default folders used to store personal data. For
starters, the Documents and Settings folder is gone, replaced by the Users folder, which is located in
the root of the system drive (usually C:). Each user account has its own profile folder here, which
contains 11 folders, each devoted to a different type of data.
& 220-702) , Chapter 4, 14
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QID: 20400340
Q: A technician needs to provide a customer with a new computer running Windows Vista. The
customer has required all personal information be migrated to the new computer including favorites,
cache website credentials and desktop preferences. Which of the following can the technician do to
ensure all settings are moved to the new computer?
Answer 1: Use the USMT to export the data from the old system, and import it to the new system.
Answer 2: From Windows Explorer, copy the user’s profile from the old system to the new system.
Answer 3: Use regedit to export the user data to the new system.
Answer 4: In the advanced settings of system properties go to the user profile settings and copy the
customer’s profile to the new system.
Correct Answer: 1
Explanation:
Microsoft® Windows® User State Migration Tool (USMT) version 3.0.1 migrates user files and
settings during deployments of Microsoft Windows XP and Windows Vista. You can use USMT to
perform unattended migrations and to migrate files and settings for computers with multiple users.
Also, with USMT you have the ability to encrypt and compress the store. USMT 3.0.1 is intended for
administrators who are performing automated deployments. This tool includes two command-line tools
named ScanState and LoadState. ScanState creates an intermediate store that contains the user files and
settings from the source computer. LoadState restores these files and settings to the destination
computer. USMT 3.0.1 also has three default migration rule (.xml) files named MigApp.xml,
MigUser.xml, and MigSys.xml. You can alter the default .xml files and you can also create
customized .xml files. Depending on what you want to migrate, you can specify all or none of the
default .xml files on the command line. The entire migration process is controlled by the .xml rules,
which you can modify, and logic that is built into the tool. When using USMT for automated migration,
in almost all cases, you should modify the migration .xml files for your unique situation.
& 220-702) , Chapter 14
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QID: 20400350
Q: A user calls and reports that after the cleaning crew left they started hearing beeping from under
their desk. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause?
Answer 1: A new security update is available for download.

Answer 2: The default printer is out of paper or offline.
Answer 3: The speaker wires were disconnected while cleaning.
Answer 4: The UPS is disconnected from the wall.
Correct Answer: 4
Explanation:
Anytime a Back-UPS determines that the input power is not safe for your computer equipment, it will
transfer to battery power and the UPS will begin to beep. The unit will beep once every 5 seconds for
as long as it remains on battery. If your utility voltage is chronically low, it is advisable to raise the
issue with your local utility company. It may be possible to adjust your Back UPS so that it will accept
a lower input voltage, thus preventing the UPS from constantly operating on battery power. However,
occasional transfers to battery should not be a matter for concern and should be regarded as normal
operation. The UPS is just trying to provide safe, reliable power to your sensitive equipment
& 220-702) , Chapter 2, 17
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QID: 20400360
Q: Which of the following memory modules has the HIGHEST transfer rate?
Answer 1: PC2100
Answer 2: DDR333
Answer 3: DDR400
Answer 4: PC2700
Correct Answer: 3
Explanation:
Dual Channel DDR400 is the highest performing PC platform memory architecture available in the
market today. Intel designed the 875P, 865G, and 865PE chipsets to take full advantage of this new
memory architecture by developing a dual channel memory interface on MCH that is optimized to be
used by Pentium 800MHz FSB. With up to 6.4GB/s data transfer rates capability, Dual Channel
DDR400 memory architecture balances the bandwidth capability of Intel Pentium 4 with 800 MHz
FSB. The result is a balanced platform that is optimizes for memory demanding applications such as
3D graphics in advanced games, 3D modeling, high resolution video editing and playback in addition
to other multi application and multitasking applications
& 220-702) , Chapter 6
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QID: 20400370
Q: A dual core CPU has:
Answer 1: has two error correcting and checking units.

Answer 2: double the number of pins.
Answer 3: two separate processing units.
Answer 4: twice the amount of cache.
Correct Answer: 3
Explanation:
Explanation: Dual-processor (DP) systems are those that contains two separate physical computer
processors in the same chassis. In dual-processor systems, the two processors can either be located on
the same motherboard or on separate boards. In a dual-core configuration, an integrated circuit (IC)
contains two complete computer processors. Usually, the two identical processors are manufactured so
they reside side-by-side on the same die, each with its own path to the system front-side bus. Multi-
core is somewhat of an expansion to dual-core technology and allows for more than two separate
processors.
In a dual core processor each core handles incoming data strings simultaneously to improve efficiency.
Just as two heads are better than one, so are two hands. Now when one is executing the other can be
accessing the system bus or executing its own code. Adding to this favorable scenario, both AMD and
Intel's dual-core flagships are 64-bit.
& 220-702) , Chapter 5
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QID: 20400380
Q: A technician goes to a client site where there are some language barrier issues. Which of the
following is the BEST method to overcome the issues at hand?
Answer 1: Get a language to language conversion dictionary to help understand what is being said.
Answer 2: Ask to get an interpreter to assist in the language barrier.
Answer 3: Restate the issues to the customer for validation.
Answer 4: Inform the client the service must be rescheduled with a different technician.
Correct Answer: 3
Explanation:
Explanation: In today’s fast paced business environment, interpretation has become a necessity for
companies that need or desire to transcend the language barriers between them and their limited
English-speaking customers.
& 220-702) , Chapter 27
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QID: 20400390
Q: An end user reports that they hear a clicking noise that becomes more frequent when they save files.
Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the noise?
Answer 1: Power supply warming or cooling

Answer 2: Error correcting memory making data adjustments
Answer 3: Hard drive is failing
Answer 4: System fan is rubbing against the fan’s housing
Correct Answer: 3
Explanation:
Click of death is a term that became common in the late 1990s referring to the clicking sound in disk
storage systems that signals the device has failed, often catastrophically. The "click of death" can also
be an informal warning system before the data on a data drive is lost.
& 220-702) , Chapter 11
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QID: 20400400
Q: A technician is working on a computer with periodic shutdown problems. It has been in service for
four years and is located in a copier room. Which of the following is MOST likely causing the
shutdown issues?
Answer 1: Power supply to the room is not great enough for both the copy machine and the computer.
Answer 2: Power supply on the computer is going bad.
Answer 3: Improper ventilation from dust buildup inside the computer.
Answer 4: Electromagnetic interference due to the copy machine in the room.
Correct Answer: 3
Explanation:
Explanation: You should dust your computer every three to six weeks, if possible. By avoiding dust
build-up, you are making sure your computer stays healthy over time. The more dust that builds up, the
higher the odds are your fans will fail and your system will overheat and shut down. Taking the time to
dust is one of the easiest ways to ensure the longevity of your system.
& 220-702) , Chapter 17
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QID: 20400410
Q: Which of the following commands will automatically reconnect a network drive as F: after a reboot
in Windows XP?
Answer 1: net use \\ComputerName\ShareName/persistent:NO :F

Answer 2: net use F: \\ComputerName\ShareName/persistent:NO
Answer 3: net use \\ComputerName\ShareName/persistent:YES :F
Answer 4: net use F: \\ComputerName\ShareName/persistent :YES
Correct Answer: 4
Explanation:
Make all future connections persistent (auto-reconnect at login)
NET USE /Persistent:Yes

or
NET USE /P:Yes
& 220-702) , Chapter 23
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QID: 20400420
Q: A technician has replaced a failed keyboard that was full of debris. The technician then explained to
the customer the importance of keeping a clean area around their computer. Which of the following
should be the technician’s NEXT troubleshooting step?
Answer 1: Ask another technician to verify that the findings are correct.
Answer 2: Document the issue including findings, actions taken and the outcome.
Answer 3: Report the incident to the customer’s manager.
Answer 4: Follow up with the customer at a later date, to ensure that the keyboard is still functioning.
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:
Lots of people can fix problems. But the key is whether you can remember what you did. When you
fixed a problem a month ago. Maybe. Can one of your co-workers remember something you did to fix
the same problem on that machine a month ago? Unlikely. Always document your work so that you or
someone else can learn from that experience. Good documentation of past troubleshooting can save
hours of stress in the future.
& 220-702) , Chapter 17
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QID: 20400430
Q: Which of the following below is a valid default subnet mask for a Class A network?
Answer 1: 255.255.0.0
Answer 2: 255.255.0.1
Answer 3: 255.0.0.0
Answer 4: 255.255.255.0
Correct Answer: 3
Explanation:
The Class A networking address scheme is designed for the government and large institutions needing
a great deal of unique nodes. Although the Class A network has only 254 unique network addresses, it
can contain approximately 17 million unique nodes, which can make subnetting such a network a
nightmare.
& 220-702) , Chapter 23
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QID: 20400440
Q: A system is malfunctioning and the technician has asked the user about any recent changes to the
system. Before the technician performs diagnostics which of the following actions should the
technician take?
Answer 1: Run a power supply test.

Answer 2: Run a backup routine.
Answer 3: Apply the latest service pack.
Answer 4: Boot into Safe Mode.
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:
A backup or the process of backing up refer to making copies of data so that these additional copies
may be used to restore the original after a data loss event. These additional copies are typically called
"backups." Backups are useful primarily for two purposes. The first is to restore a state following a
disaster (called disaster recovery). The second is to restore small numbers of files after they have been
accidentally deleted or corrupted. Data loss is also very common. 66% of internet users have suffered
from serious data loss.
& 220-702) , Chapter 11, 17
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
QID: 20400450
Q: Which of the following BEST describes a worm?
Answer 1: Malicious software that is self-replicating and self-propagating

Answer 2: Malicious software that changes the user’s home page
Answer 3: Malicious software attached to another piece of software
Answer 4: Malicious software that monitors Internet surfing habits
Correct Answer: 1
Explanation:
A computer worm is a self-replicating computer program. It uses a network to send copies of itself to
other nodes (computers on the network) and it may do so without any user intervention. Unlike a virus,
it does not need to attach itself to an existing program. Worms almost always cause at least some harm
to the network, if only by consuming bandwidth, whereas viruses almost always corrupt or devour files
on a targeted computer.
& 220-702) , Chapter 16, 24
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QID: 20400460
Q: A technician is late getting to a service call first thing in the morning. Which of the following is the
BEST course of action to take care of the appointments during that day?
Answer 1: Skip the first appointment, continue on with the rest of the day as scheduled and then try to
fit in the skipped customer at the end of the day.
Answer 2: Call the customers scheduled that day and reschedule all the appointments to different days.
Answer 3: Contact the customers and inform them of the change in schedule and give an appropriate
time frame to make the service calls.
Answer 4: Go to the first scheduled appointment late, explain the reasoning to the client, and make the
repairs as quick as possible to try to catch up on the schedule.
Correct Answer: 3
Explanation:
Punctuality is important and should be a part of your planning process before you ever arrive at the site:
If you tell the customer you will be there at 10:30 a.m., you need to make every attempt to be there at
that time. If you arrive late, you have given her false hope that the problem will be solved by a set time.
That false hope can lead to anger when you arrive late and appear not to be taking her problem
seriously. Punctuality continues to be important throughout the service call and does not end with your
arrival.
& 220-702) , Chapter 27
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QID: 20400470
Q: A customer reports that a printer is printing blank pages. Which of the following is the solution?
Answer 1: The fuser unit is defective.

Answer 2: The pick-up roller is defective.
Answer 3: The toner cartridge is defective.
Answer 4: The feed roller is defective.
Correct Answer: 3
Explanation:
A blank page is proof that the printer's mechanical mechanisms work, so there's some good news. To
get a blank page, one of these is missing. No image on the drum No toner on the image No charge to
pull the image onto the paper. The first one can come from the computer if you don't send an image,
you won't get one. It also can happen if the laser scanner is bad. The second one would come from
being out of toner or the most common blank page you didn't pull the strip from the toner cartridge.
The third would be a broken corona wire, or could be a high voltage connection problem. More good
news.. In practice, a blank page is almost always a sign of a toner cartridge problem.
& 220-702) , Chapter 17,22
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QID: 20400480
Q: Which of the following audio/video devices have the ability to decode NTSC/PAL signals from an
external source?
Answer 1: TV tuner card

Answer 2: Graphics card
Answer 3: Video capture card
Answer 4: Sound card
Correct Answer: 3
Explanation:
Video capture cards are a class of video capture devices designed to plug directly into expansion slots
in personal computers and servers. Models from many manufacturers are available; all comply with
one of the popular host bus standards including PCI, newer PCI Express (PCIe) or AGP bus interfaces.
These cards typically include one or more software drivers to expose the cards' features, via various
operating systems, to software applications that further process the video for specific purposes. As a
class, the cards are used to capture baseband analog composite video, S-Video, and, in models
equipped with tuners, RF modulated video. Some specialized cards support digital video via digital
video delivery standards including Serial Digital Interface (SDI) and, more recently, the emerging
HDMI standard. These models often support both standard definition (SD) and high definition (HD)
variants.
& 220-702) , Chapter 9, 20
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QID: 20400490
Q: Which of the following media types has the largest capacity?
Answer 1: DVD-RW+
Answer 2: DVD-RW-
Answer 3: Blue-Ray
Answer 4: Dual-sided DVD
Correct Answer: 3
Explanation:
Blu-ray Disc (BD), sometimes called "Blu-ray", is an optical disc storage medium designed to
supersede the standard DVD format. Its main uses are for storing high-definition video, PlayStation 3
video games, and other data, with up to 25 GB per single layered, and 50 GB per dual layered disc. The
disc has the same physical dimensions as standard DVDs and CDs
& 220-702), Chapter 12
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
QID: 20400500
Q: A technician is informing a customer about the finding of any specific computer problem. Which of
the following is the BEST approach to tell the customer what is going on?
Answer 1: Use non-technical terms.

Answer 2: Use email so that everything is in writing.
Answer 3: Use technical jargon.
Answer 4: Use the proper acronyms.
Correct Answer: 1
Explanation:
Use proper language and avoid using jargon, abbreviations, and acronyms. Every field has its own
language, and outsiders feel lost when they start hearing it. Put yourself in the position of someone not
in the field and explain what is going on by using words they can relate to.
& 220-702) , Chapter 27
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
QID: 20400510
Q: Which of the following display connections are the MOST commonly used to connect an LCD
monitor to a desktop? (Select TWO).
Answer 1: USB
Answer 2: DVI
Answer 3: CGA
Answer 4: VGA
Answer 5: S-Video
Explanation:
The term Video Graphics Array (VGA) refers specifically to the display hardware first introduced with
the IBM PS/2 line of computers in 1987,[1] but through its widespread adoption has also come to mean
either an analog computer display standard, the 15-pin D-subminiature VGA connector or the 640×480
resolution itself. While this resolution has been superseded in the personal computer market, it is
becoming a popular resolution on mobile devices
In an effort to return to digital video, which can typically be transmitted farther and at higher quality
than analog, a series of connectors known collectively as the Digital Visual (or Video) Interface (DVI)
was developed for the technology of the same name.
& 220-702) , Chapter 19
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QID: 20400520
Q: A user is running a program that is not successfully connecting to the network after upgrading the
wireless network router. The user states that they do have Internet connectivity. Which of the following
solutions will MOST likely to resolve the issue with the program?
Answer 1: Add an exception to the firewall for the program.

Answer 2: Check the Hardware Compatibility List to see if the program is not compatible with the OS.
Answer 3: Run the program as a local administrator.
Answer 4: Check for any updates to the program.
Correct Answer: 1
Explanation:
1.From the Windows XP desktop, click Start, click Control Panel, click Security Center, and then click
Windows Firewall.
2.Click the Exceptions tab.
3.Click Add Program and specify the program (the application or service) from the list or using the
Browse button and, if needed, its scope. For information about specifying the scope, see Manually
Configuring Windows Firewall in Windows XP Service Pack 2.
4.Click OK to save changes to the exception.
& 220-702) , Chapter 16, 26
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QID: 20400530
Q: A technician notices that there is a second partition on the primary hard drive. This partition is not
assigned a drive letter and is not accessible from Windows. Which of the following is the MOST likely
explanation for this extra partition?
Answer 1: Space reserved by the drive manufacturer for firmware.

Answer 2: Space set aside by Windows for use by the virtual memory swap file.
Answer 3: A potentially dangerous virus has been downloaded onto the system.
Answer 4: A recovery partition put there by the manufacturer.
Correct Answer: 4
Explanation:
Explanation: In recent years, bundled recovery CD-ROMs have become less common, as some OEM's
are now utilizing hard drive partitions to store the recovery data. Accessing hard drive based system
recovery is usually performed by pressing a specific key combination during or after the computer's
POST. Partition based recovery systems are usually faster than their disc based counterparts since the
data is directly on the hard drive and no disc swapping is needed. They can also be cheaper for the
OEM because they do not need to ship recovery CDs with the computer, adding the price of creating
them to the cost of the computer.
& 220-702) , Chapter 17
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QID: 20400540
Q: Which of the following would a technician go to setup a password that would be required prior to
booting into the operating system?
Answer 1: LDAP
Answer 2: POST
Answer 3: BIOS
Answer 4: User Accounts
Correct Answer: 3
Explanation:
Your computers BIOS is the first program that is run when your computer starts. You can tell the BIOS
to ask for a password when it starts, thus restricting access to your computer.
& 220-702) , Chapter 16, 24
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QID: 20400550
Q: The Windows Experience Index is used to determine:
Answer 1: remaining hard disk storage space.

Answer 2: a performance value of system components.
Answer 3: the speed and available bandwidth of Internet connections.
Answer 4: the reliability and speed of search indexing.
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:
Understanding the Windows Experience Index:
WEI scores currently range from 1 to 5.9. Your computer is rated with an overall score, called the base
score, and with subscores for each of five individual hardware components: processor, memory,
graphics, gaming graphics, and primary hard disk. The base score is determined from the lowest of the
five subscores, because your computer's performance is limited by its slowest or least-powerful
hardware component.
& 220-702) , Chapter 17
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
QID: 20400560
Q: A technician is unable to log into a users computer after installing new hardware. Which of the
following Advanced Startup options would BEST resolve this issue?

Answer 2: Active Directory Restore Mode
Answer 3: Last Known Good Configuration
Answer 4: Disable Automatic Restart
Correct Answer: 3
Explanation:
The Last Known Good Configuration feature uses information that is saved from the last time that you
shut down your computer to restore registry settings and drivers. Therefore, you can use this feature
only if you were able to start your computer successfully before you restore your computer by using the
last known good configuration.
& 220-702) , Chapter 14
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
QID: 20400570
Q: A user reports that their laptop has frozen up and will not shut down or log off. The technician
removed the external power adapter and held the power button down for ten seconds but the problem
still exists. Which of the following should the technician do NEXT?
Answer 1: Remove the CMOS battery.

Answer 2: Disconnect all external devices.
Answer 3: Remove the internal main battery.
Answer 4: Wait until the main battery is exhausted and then remove.
Correct Answer: 3
Explanation:
Things like this happen, the annoying thing about laptops are their battery, so you can't just hard
shutdown from the wall. If you can remove the battery, then leave it out for a minute or so, then the
laptop should boot properly.
& 220-702) , Chapter 17, 21
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QID: 20400580
Q: A customer connects a projector to their laptop, but no display shows on the screen. The projector is
turned on. Which of the following could the technician do to send the display to the projector?
Answer 1: Use appropriate function toggle key to switch display mode.

Answer 2: Press F1 to shift display to the projector.
Answer 3: Reboot the computer, the system will auto-select the projector on restart.
Answer 4: Go into Device Manager and enable the projector.
Correct Answer: 1
Explanation:
If you are sure everything is connected correctly, and you have turned on the laptop only after
everything else is connected and turned on, you may need to use a keyboard command to tell the laptop
something is connected to its external output port.
& 220-702) , Chapter 19
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QID: 20400590
Q: A technician is installing Windows XP on a system that has a SATA HDD. Which of the following
will the technician MOST likely have to do to start the installation?
Answer 1: Press the F8 Key

Correct Answer: 4
Explanation:
Press the F6 key to install drivers as the Windows setup screen launches.Since the system will take a
few minutes loading drivers for the installation I would recommend tapping the F6 key several times
when this screen first comes up. This way you can make sure it does not miss the SATA driver prompt
screen when it has finished loading all the drivers.
& 220-702) , Chapter 11, 14
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QID: 20400600
Q: How many pins does a VGA Connector have?
Answer 1: 9
Answer 2: 15
Answer 3: 25
Answer 4: 40
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:
A VGA connector (also RGB connector, D-sub 15, mini sub D15, and mini D15 connector), is a three-
row 15-pin DE-15 connector, of which there are four versions: (i) the original VGA15 pinout
connector, (ii) DDC2 pinouts, (iii) the older, less flexible DE-9 connector, and (iv) the Mini-VGA used
for laptop computers.
& 220-702) , Chapter 19
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QID: 20400610
Q: A technician is troubleshooting a laptop. After pushing the power button on the laptop the
technician can hear the hard drive is spinning and the operating system start, but there is no video.
Which of the following is the NEXT step to troubleshoot the issue?
Answer 1: Upgrade the video card.

Answer 2: Connect the laptop to a monitor.
Answer 3: Replace the LCD.
Answer 4: Upgrade the memory.
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:
Plug in an external monitor that you know works. On most laptops, you need to press the function key
and another key known as the LCD cutoff switch (often F8 or F4) to direct the video output to an
external monitor.
& 220-702) , Chapter 17,
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QID: 20400620
Q: Which of the following printers use a carbon film or inked ribbon to print?
Answer 1: Laser
Answer 2: Ink jet
Answer 3: Impact
Answer 4: Thermal
Correct Answer: 3
Explanation:
Impact printers, as their name suggests, use some form of impact and an inked ribbon to make an
imprint on the paper. In a manner of speaking, typewriters are like impact printers. Both use an inked
ribbon and an impact head to make letters on the paper. The major difference is that the printer can
accept input from a computer.
& 220-702) , Chapter 22
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QID: 20400630
Q: Which of the following will navigate to the Computer Management MMC Plug-in? (Select TWO).
Answer 1: Right click on My Computer and select Manage.

Answer 2: Double click the Computer Management icon under Administrative Tools.
Answer 3: Click Start, type in Run and then type in regedit.
Answer 4: Right click on the Start Menu and select Properties.
Explanation:
The Microsoft Management Console (MMC) is a component of Windows 2000 and later Windows NT-
based operating systems that provides system administrators and advanced users with a flexible
interface through which they may configure and monitor the system.
& 220-702) , Chapter 17
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QID: 20400640
Q: A technician has just replaced a users defective CD-ROM drive and tested that everything is
working properly. Which of the following should the technician do NEXT?
Answer 1: Run a full system backup.

Answer 2: Document their findings and the actions taken.
Answer 3: Further troubleshoot the defective drive to determine if the problem is covered by the
warranty.
Answer 4: Call their manager and report the status of the issue.
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:
Once everything is working, you'll need to document what happened and how you fixed it. If the
problem looks to be long and complex, I suggest taking notes as you're trying to fix it. It will help you
remember what you've already tried and what didn't work.
& 220-702) , Chapter 17
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
QID: 20400650
Q: A user reports that print jobs are not printing. After looking at the print queue a technician
determines that a print job needs to be deleted to resolve the issue. When the technician tries to delete
the job, it will not delete. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason?
Answer 1: The job must be deleted using the printers front panel.
Answer 2: The technician does not have the necessary permissions.
Answer 3: Once a job is submitted to the queue it cannot be removed.
Answer 4: The user submitted the job as a priority.
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:
By default, the determination of NTFS permissions is based on the cumulative NTFS permissions for a
user. Rights can be assigned to users based on group membership and individually; the only time
permissions do not accumulate is when the Deny permission is invoked.
& 220-702) , Chapter 17
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QID: 20400660
Q: A user reports that Monday morning one of the ink jet printers in the office has a problem with
images smearing on the page. The printer was working fine Friday. The paper tray was empty this
morning so they re-filled the paper tray and checked the ink levels. Which of the following is MOST
likely the issue with the smearing print?
Answer 1: Too many pages are being sent to the printer at one time.
Answer 2: Spooler service needs to be restarted.
Answer 3: Wrong type of paper is being used for this printer.
Answer 4: The printer drivers need to be rolled back to a previous version.
Correct Answer: 3
Explanation:
Print quality problems are often related to the characteristics of the paper being used. Ideally, liquid ink
should dry immediately as it sticks to the paper, resulting in a neat, crisp appearance that will not
smudge when touched. Just how quickly the ink actually dries depends on the charachteristics of the
ink, as well as the paper. Paper that absorbs ink readily might drink up too much ink from the page
surface. This can result in a faded or dull appearance. On the other hand, glossy paper or paper that
does not ink well might allow ink to smudge or smear through rollers or when touched.
& 220-702) , Chapter 22
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
QID: 20400670
Q: After installing a new piece of hardware with the hardware CD, a user is reporting system crashes
and performance loss. Which of the following would be the FIRST step in resolving this issue?
Answer 1: Try installing the device to a different port or slot.

Answer 2: Disable the device in Device Manager.
Answer 3: Download and install updated drivers for the device.
Answer 4: Contact the vendor for an RMA.
Correct Answer: 3
Explanation:
There are many reasons why you might have a hardware or software driver problem. You might have
installed some new hardware and not yet installed the necessary driver for that hardware, or the driver
might be incompatible or corrupted. To determine whether this is true, follow these steps:
1. Disconnect the device.
2. Restart Windows
If Windows starts successfully, there is a driver issue with the new hardware. Please contact the device
manufacturer to obtain updated drivers for the device or to learn about any known hardware issues so
that you can reinstall the device.
& 220-702) , Chapter 17
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
QID: 20400680
Q: A home user reports they have purchased a new video game for their PC but have trouble running it.
A technician arrives and ensures that the users hardware and video card meet the minimum
requirements of the game. The technician wants to check the DirectX version installed on the PC to
ensure that it is the most current. Which of the following utilities should the technician run?
Answer 1: regedit
Answer 2: ipconfig
Answer 3: msconfig
Answer 4: dxdiag
Correct Answer: 4
Explanation:
The DirectX Diagnostic Tool is designed to help you troubleshoot DirectX-related issues. The default
installation folder for Dxdiag.exe for Microsoft Windows 2000 and Microsoft Windows XP is:
C:\Windows\System32
To start the DirectX Diagnostic Tool, click Start, click Run, type dxdiag in the Open box, and then
click OK.
& 220-702) , Chapter 15
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
QID: 20400690
Q: A user reports that their USB device has stopped working. Which of the following troubleshooting
techniques should be used NEXT to help the technician establish a theory of probable cause for the
users new computer problem?
Answer 1: Determine if changes have been made that could have caused the problem.
Answer 2: Determine how long before the user is due for an upgraded system.
Answer 3: Determine how long the user has had the problem.
Answer 4: Determine if any other users are affected by the problem.
Correct Answer: 1
Explanation:
Identify recent changes, the user can give you vital information. The most important question is, "What
changed?" Problems don't usually come out of nowhere. Was a new piece of hardware or software
added? Did the user drop some equipment? Was there a power outage or a storm? These are the types
of questions you can ask a user in trying to find out what is different.
& 220-702) , Chapter 27
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
QID: 20400700
Q: A technician notices that a group of users are continuously searching their computers for the same
files. Which of the following would BEST assist their searches?
Answer 1: Chkdsk
Answer 2: Defrag
Answer 3: Indexing
Answer 4: Scandisk
Correct Answer: 3
Explanation:
Windows Vista/XP/2000 implement a feature called the Index Service to catalog and improve the
search capabilities of your drive. Once files are indexed, you can search them more quickly by name,
date, or other attributes. Setting the index option on a folder causes a prompt to appear, asking whether
you want the existing files in the folder to be indexed as well. If you choose to do this, Windows Vista,
XP, and 2000 automatically reset this attribute on subfolders and files. If not, only new files created in
the directory are indexed.
& 220-702) Chapter 17
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QID: 20400710
Q: To record audio using a microphone attached to a computer running Windows XP, which of the
following locations would provide access to adjust the input levels?
Answer 1: Start>Settings>Control Panel>Sounds and Audio Devices>Audio

Answer 2: Start>Settings>Control Panel>System>Hardware
Answer 3: Start>Settings>Control Panel>Speech
Answer 4: Start>Settings>Control Panel>Sounds and Audio Devices>Sounds
Correct Answer: 1
Explanation:
Windows XP operating systems allow you to record audio using recording devices such as audio
interfaces and microphones. These recording devices are connected to USB ports, mic inputs and
FireWire ports to allow communication with your computer. Once you connect the recording devices to
your computer and install software, you can easily select which devices to assign recording lines to.
Accomplish this simple task using the Windows XP sound and devices console.
& 220-702) Chapter 17
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QID: 20400720
Q: A technician installs a new DVD drive into a users computer. The drive can be used to read data
disks but Windows Media Player cannot play back DVD movies from the new drive. Which of the
following is MOST likely the issue?
Answer 1: The system does not have enough RAM installed.

Answer 2: The drives device driver needs to be updated.
Answer 3: The sound card is not connected properly.
Answer 4: Decoder software needs to be loaded.
Correct Answer: 4
Explanation:
To play DVDs using the Windows Media Player, you must have a DVD-ROM drive and either a
software or hardware DVD decoder installed on your computer. By default, Windows XP does not
come with compatible DVD decoder software installed. To confirm if you have Windows XP-
compatible DVD decoder software on your system:
1. Select Start > Run
2. Enter cmd in the Open box, and click OK
3. Type dvdupgrd /detect and press Enter
4. A Windows dialog box will open with identifying information about the installed software. If No
decoders found is displayed, no decoder is installed
& 220-702) Chapter 11
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QID: 20400730
Q: Which of the following is the MOST common form of a serial port?
Answer 1: 9-pin D-shell

Answer 2: RJ-45
Answer 3: 15-pin D-shell
Answer 4: 6-pin Mini-DIN
Correct Answer: 1
Explanation:
A male DE9 connector on the back of an IBM-PC-compatible computer is typically a serial port
connector. IBM introduced the DE9 connector for RS-232 on PCs with the Personal Computer AT in
1984.Starting around the time of the introduction of the IBM PC-AT, serial ports were commonly built
with a 9-pin connector to save cost and space. However, presence of a nine pin D-subminiature
connector is neither necessary nor sufficient to indicate use of a serial port, since this connector was
also used for video, joysticks, and other purposes.
& 220-702) Chapter 9
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QID: 20400740
Q: Which of the following components should be in contact with thermal compound? (Select TWO).
Answer 1: Motherboard
Answer 2: Fan
Answer 3: Heatsink
Answer 4: CPU
Answer 5: Capacitors
Explanation:
Thermal compound is a fluid substance, originally with properties akin to grease, which increases the
thermal conductivity of a thermal interface by compensating for the irregular surfaces of the
components. It is often used to aid a component's thermal dissipation via a heat sink. Therefore the two
components which are commonly connected using thermal compound are a heatsink and a CPU.
& 220-702) Chapter 9
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QID: 20400750
Q: Which of the following advantages does a 64-bit processor have over a 32-bit processor?
Answer 1: Provides access to larger hard drive partitions.

Answer 2: Provides use of more powerful video graphics accelerators.
Answer 3: Provides addressing of memory beyond 4GB.
Answer 4: Provides use of PCIe X16 expansion slots.
Correct Answer: 3
Explanation:
One of the greatest advantages of using a 64-bit processor is the ability to access physical memory
(RAM) that is above the 4-gigabyte (GB) range. This physical memory is not addressable by 32-bit
processors.
& 220-702) Chapter 5
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QID: 20400760
Q: Which of the following uses data striping to distribute data across multiple disks with no fault
tolerance?
Answer 1: RAID 0
Answer 2: RAID 1
Answer 3: RAID 5
Answer 4: RAID 10
Correct Answer: 1
Explanation:
RAID 0, also known as disk striping without parity, is used to write data across an array of hard disks
participating in the RAID configuration.
RAID 1, also known as disk mirroring, demands that there be two disks with partitions of equal size.
Any information directed to one partition is also written to (mirrored) on the second.
RAID 5, also known as disk striping with parity, demands that there be a minimum of three disks with
partitions of equal size. An algorithm is used to write data in 64KB segments sequentially across each
disk in the array. The algorithm is also used to calculate one block of parity information, for each row
or stripe of information stored in the array. These parity blocks are staggered for each row across the
disks in the array so that no two adjoining block contain parity information.
RAID 1 + 0 or RAID 10 is a mirrored data set (RAID 1) which is then striped (RAID 0), hence the
"1+0" name. A RAID 10 array requires a minimum of two drives, but is more commonly implemented
with 4 drives to take advantage of speed benefits.
& 220-702) Chapter 9, 11
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QID: 20400770
Q: Before shipping a laptop, which of the following should be removed to avoid damage during transit?
Answer 1: PC card adapters

Answer 2: LCD
Answer 3: DVD-ROM drive
Answer 4: Backlight
Correct Answer: 3
Explanation:
Of the items listed, only the DVD ROM drive contains moving components (the arm used to read the
content of a DVD). As a result the DVD ROM drive requires different treatment and packaging prior to
shipping.
The remaining components listed are not moving parts, they are electronic devices with no moving
parts, it is very unlikely that they would be damaged in shipping.
& 220-702) Chapter 17, 21
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QID: 20400780
Q: Which of the following optical media types has the GREATEST amount of capacity?
Answer 1: Flash
Answer 2: DVD
Answer 3: HDD
Answer 4: Blu-Ray
Correct Answer: 4
Explanation:
The Blu-Ray laser is of a shorter wavelength (450nm) than that of DVD (650nm) and CD (750nm)
technologies. As a result, and through the use of refined optics, the laser can be focused on a much
smaller area of the disc. This leads to a higher density of information being stored in the same area. In
fact, Blue-Ray discs are the same size as conventional DVDs and CDs. The capacity, however, is
astoundingly higer. A single-sided, single-layer Blu-Ray disc is capable of holding 25GB of
information.
& 220-702) Chapter 11
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QID: 20400790
Q: Memory was added to a Windows laptop and upon booting up, the BIOS only reports the original
memory amount. Which of the following are the MOST likely issues? (Select TWO).
Answer 1: Memory mismatch.

Answer 2: Memory size needs to be adjusted in Device Manager.
Answer 3: Memory brand is different than the computer.
Answer 4: Operating system does not recognize the additional memory.
Answer 5: Memory is defective.
Explanation:
Most desktops and notebooks use one of four popular types of dynamic random access memory
(DRAM) for the main system memory:
Single data rate (SDR) SDRAM
Double data rate (DDR) SDRAM
DDR2
DDR3
Generally speaking, motherboards are built to support only one type of memory. You cannot mix and
match SDRAM, DDR, DDR2, or DDR3 memory on the same motherboard in any system.
If you have verified that the RAM being added to the computer matches the type of memory
appropriate for that system, it is always possible that the memory chip has been damaged or is defective
in some way.
& 220-702) Chapter 21
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QID: 20400800
Q: Which of the following is an advantage of upgrading to a 64-bit version of Windows?
Answer 1: A greater number of dynamic disks or disks larger than 1 TB can be supported.
Answer 2: Multiple applications running in 16-bit compatibility mode are supported.
Answer 3: More than 4GB of RAM, in some cases up to 128GB of RAM can be supported.
Answer 4: A new anti-virus protection scheme called Data Execution Prevention is supported.
Correct Answer: 3
Explanation:
Since 64-bit systems can process twice as many instructions per second as a comparable 32-bit system,
64-bit systems are definitely faster than their 32-bit counterparts. Perhaps the most significant
difference between a 32-bit and a 64-bit system is the amount of memory that they support.
The fact that 32-bit systems only have 32-bits of data to work with means that they can only address up
to 4 GB of RAM. A 64-bit system on the other hand could theoretically address up to 16 exabytes of
RAM.
& 220-702) Chapter 5
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QID: 20400810
Q: Which of the following is a benefit of having parity on a memory device?
Answer 1: Lower cost

Answer 2: Error detection
Answer 3: Better cooling
Answer 4: Faster response time
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:
Parity refers to a technique of checking whether data has been lost or written over when it's moved
from one place in storage to another or when transmitted between computers. For example: Parity bits
are used to verify that data moved within a single computer system have been moved successfully.
Parity checking is used to ensure that data transferred from one computer to another via a
communications device such as a modem have been transferred successfully. Disk striping with parity
is used in RAID configurations to ensure fault tolerance and data recoverability.
& 220-702) Chapter 6
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QID: 20400820
Q: A technician has replaced a failed DIMM. The technician has verified that the unit is working
properly and is now updating the customer on the event. Which of the following responses would be
BEST to use?
Answer 1: Please try to be more conscious of static when using this PC.
Answer 2: Please inform me if the PC will be processing more work than for which it was designed.
Answer 3: Please inform me if you think you want me to come back and check it again tomorrow.
Answer 4: Please inform me if you continue to have any problems with this PC.
Correct Answer: 4
Explanation:
In this scenario, the technician replaced a failed memory component. Once the memory module has
been replaced, the problem is resolved so the only statement that needs to be made is to let the
customer know that you are available to provide future assistance if needed.
It is unlikely that the user would have done anything involving static electricity (or anything else for
that matter) that would cause the DIMM to fail. Telling the customer to try to be more conscious of
static is not a meaningful response.
The DIMM did not fail because of the volume of work done by the PC. Therefore, asking the customer
to be mindful of the workload placed on the computer is not an appropriate response.
Once the failed memory module has been replaced and the new module shown to function successfully,
there would be no reason for a follow up call or visit.
& 220-702) Chapter 27
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QID: 20400830
Q: Which of the following are forms of biometric authentication? (Select THREE).
Answer 1: Smart card

Answer 2: Barcode scanner
Answer 3: Voice recognition
Answer 4: Fingerprint reader
Answer 5: Optical recognition
Answer 6: Secure ID Token
Explanation:
Biometric authentication is a security feature that uses some unique physical attribute of the user to
verify that individual’s identity. Of the options provided, a user’s voice, fingerprint or retina (optical
recognition) would be regarded as unique physical attributes.
& 220-702) Chapter 16, 26
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QID: 20400840
Q: Which of the following is the STRONGEST wireless encryption type?
Answer 1: WEP
Answer 2: WEP2
Answer 3: WPA
Answer 4: WPA2
Correct Answer: 4
Explanation:
Wired Equivalency Protocol (WEP) was introduced in 1997 to provide the same confidentiality on
wireless networks that users had come to expect on wired networks. This protocol was superseded by
Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) in 2003. That protocol has been further enhanced in WPA2. WPA2 is
currently the strongest wireless encryption protocol available.
WEP2 was designed as the next developmental stage for the WEP protocol. However, when it was
discovered that the WEP algorithm contained serious security flaws, additional work on the WEP2
protocol was dropped.
& 220-702) Chapter 16, 24
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QID: 20400850
Q: Which of the following connectors is MOST commonly used to support dial-up networking?
Answer 1: RJ-45
Answer 2: LC
Answer 3: SC
Answer 4: RJ-11
Correct Answer: 4
Explanation:
RJ-11 connectors are the type used to terminate telephone wires and to connect to single line
telecommunication systems world-wide. This connector type is used most commonly to support dial-up
networking.
RJ-45 connectors are used to support 10Base-T and 100Base-T Ethernet (LAN) connections.
LC and SC connectors are used to connect to fiber optic networks.
& 220-702) Chapter 23
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QID: 20400860
Q: A host that has been assigned a permanent IP address is said to have a:
Answer 1: reserved IP address.

Answer 2: static IP address.
Answer 3: dynamic IP address.
Answer 4: stationary IP address.
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:
A static IP address is one that is configured at the host and includes both a unique IP address and
subnet mask.
A dynamic IP address is one that has been obtained from a DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration
Protocol) server.
A reserved IP address is one that has been linked to a specific network adapter from the pool of IP
addresses supported by a DHCP server.
A stationary IP address is also assigned to a network adapter, but it is only assigned to network
adapters that serve a special purpose, such as cluster servers that use a heartbeat to remain in
synchronization with each other. This is not an address that would be configured for every host on the
network.
& 220-702) , Chapter 23
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QID: 20400870
Q: Which of the following can be used to print a test page?
Answer 1: Start > Control Panel > System

Answer 2: Right-click My Computer then select Manage
Answer 3: Right-click on the printers icon and select Properties
Answer 4: Start > Control Panel > Printer icon
Correct Answer: 3
Explanation:
In all Windows operating systems, one of the properties supported for each printer configured on a host
is the ability to print a test page. There are several ways to open and execute that property, but the only
correct process among the options listed is to right-click on the printer's icon and select Properties from
the pop-up menu. There will be an action button labeled Print Test Page on the General settings page in
the printer’s Properties dialog box.
& 220-702) Chapter 17, 22
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QID: 20400880
Q: Which of the following printers would be the BEST choice for printing on multi-part forms?
Answer 1: Impact printer

Answer 2: Thermal printer
Answer 3: Inkjet printer
Answer 4: Laser printer
Correct Answer: 1
Explanation:
Only an impact printer provides a striking mechanism that could print through the several pages of a
multipart form.
Inkjet, laser, and thermal printers could only print on the top page of each form. None of the data
printed would transfer to the lower pages.
& 220-702) Chapter 22
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QID: 20400890
Q: A user states that a program is missing from the computer and it had just been used yesterday.
Which of the following questions should a technician ask to help determine what occurred?
Answer 1: Was there a power outage since yesterday?

Answer 2: Did you check the Recycle Bin to see if the shortcut was accidentally deleted?
Answer 3: Are you sure you ran a find on the system and the program is just not misfiled?
Answer 4: Are you sure you were using that program?
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:
Typically, program files are installed in a protected directory on the computer which is not generally
accessible to most users. Program installation routines can be further configured to require that only
users with elevated permissions, such as Root or Administrator, have the ability to launch the
installation routine.
In order to make the application more accessible to the user, while retaining a degree of internal
protection, it is a common practice to create shortcuts to the application on the computers desktop or
from a menu.
If a user cannot find a program today that was successfully installed and running on the computer
yesterday, the most likely cause is that the shortcut used to open the application has been moved or
deleted.
It is unlikely that the user would have moved the program or deleted it. And if there were a power
outage, it is more like that the entire computer would be damaged rather than just one program.
& 220-702) Chapter 17
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QID: 20400900
Q: The power brick or external power supply serves which of the following functions for a portable
computer?
Answer 1: Filters incoming voltage spikes and surges.

Answer 2: Allows for a portable computer to be easily moved without being plugged into an outlet.
Answer 3: Changes DC power to AC power to charge the battery and enhances portability.
Answer 4: Converts AC power to DC power that a computer can use to operate and charge its battery.
Correct Answer: 4
Explanation:
The power brick is part of the external power supply. It also provides the power for the computer to
charge its batteries. Plugging straight AC from a wall outlet into a notebook would blow the circuits, so
lower-voltage DC powers the notebook. The power brick accomplishes the conversion. The computer
is plugged into the power brick, while a cord runs from the power brick into a standard AC plug.
& 220-702) Chapter 21
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QID: 20400910
Q: Which of the following wireless network security methods controls who can connect to the network
based on the hardware they are using?
Answer 1: MAC filtering

Answer 2: WEP encryption
Answer 3: WPA encryption
Answer 4: NAT routing
Correct Answer: 1
Explanation:
MAC Filtering is a security access control methodology which uses the 48-bit address assigned to each
network card to control host access to the network.
MAC addresses are uniquely assigned to each card, so using MAC filtering on a network permits and
denies network access to specific devices through the use of blacklists and whitelists. While the
restriction of network access through the use of lists is straightforward, an individual person is not
identified by a MAC address, rather a device only, so an authorized person will need to have a whitelist
entry for each device that he or she would use to access the network.
& 220-702) Chapter 23, 24
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QID: 20400920
Q: An external hard drive installation has caused a system to crash. Which of the following would be
the BEST startup selection?

Answer 2: Safe Mode with Command Prompt
Answer 4: Active Directory Restore Mode
Correct Answer: 3
Explanation:
The question states that after changing the hardware configuration of a computer, the operating system
crashes. Of the possible choices given, the best option is to restart the computer using the last known
good configuration for that system because it can be reasonably assumed that the changed hardware
configuration caused the problem. By using the last known good configuration, the system will restart
without the single device driver or changed driver that is causing the crash to occur.
The problem is not related to Active Directory, so Active Directory Restore Mode would not be a
useful troubleshooting or problem resolution technique.
The problem does not appear to be tied to an new application installation or a changed application, so
debugging mode would not be a useful troubleshooting or problem resolution technique.
Safe Mode with Command Prompt would not cause the system to revert back to a state prior to the
installation of the new external hard drive and would make it impossible to connect to the Internet in
order to search for some type of problem resolution, so this would not be a useful troubleshooting or
problem resolution technique.
& 220-702) Chapter 14
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QID: 20400930
Q: A technician installs a new printer to a local computer and needs to install the drivers. The
installation CD is not available. Which of the following is the BEST solution to locate the correct
drivers?
Answer 1: Add Hardware Wizard.

Answer 2: Check the manufacturer's website.
Answer 3: Check the USB port.
Answer 4: Check the printers BIOS.
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:
Of the choices given, when an installation disk or software is not immediately available to support the
installation of a peripheral device such as a printer, the next step would be to connect to the
manufacturer’s web site. All hardware manufactures provide device driver support for current products.
The Add Hardware Wizard will not automatically take you to the best location for the missing device
driver files.
Checking either the USB port or the BIOS will not address the key problem which is to find an
alternative source for the required device drivers and installation routines.
& 220-702) Chapter 14
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QID: 20400940
Q: Which of the following is a benefit of using STP cable?
Answer 1: Increased RFI

Answer 2: Decreased ESD
Answer 3: Decreased EMI
Answer 4: Increased transfer rate
Correct Answer: 3
Explanation:
STP or shielded twisted pair cable provides the advantage of reducing electro-magnetic interference
and cross-talk by protecting the cable with additional layers of cladding.
& 220-702) Chapter 23
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QID: 20400950
Q: Which of the following methods is commonly used for Biometric authentication? (Select TWO).
Answer 1: Logical token

Answer 2: Encrypted passwords
Answer 3: RFID smartcards
Answer 5: Retinal scan
Explanation:
Biometric authentication is a security feature that uses some unique physical attribute of the user to
verify that individual’s identity. Of the options provided, either a fingerprint or retina scan (optical
recognition) would be regarded as unique physical attributes.
& 220-702) Chapter 16, 26
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QID: 20400960
Q: Which of the following command lines should a technician use to uninstall the Windows XP Service
Pack 2?
Answer 1: PROGMAN.EXE
Answer 2: TASKMAN.EXE
Answer 3: SPUNINST.EXE
Answer 4: CONVERT.EXE
Correct Answer: 3
Explanation:
SPUNINST.EXE is a program use uninstall service packs from a Windows XP installation (Service
Pack UNINSTall .exe)
CONVERT.EXE is a program run at the command line to change a hard disk type from basic to
dynamic storage.
PROGMAN.EXE is the shell of Windows 3.x and Windows NT 3.x operating systems. This shell
exposed a task-oriented graphical user interface (GUI), consisting of icons (shortcuts for programs)
arranged into program groups. It replaced MS-DOS Executive, a file manager, as the default Windows
shell.
In later versions of Microsoft Windows, starting with Windows 95 and Windows NT 4.0, Program
Manager was replaced by Windows Explorer as the shell, though Windows 95 gave the user an
opportunity to choose which shell they preferred during setup. For backward compatibility with old
applications, Program Manager was still included in later versions of Windows.
TASKMAN.EXE is a program used to is a part Microsoft Windows Operating System which has basic
counters for monitoring hardware resources and provides links to computer maintenance tasks.
& 220-702) Chapter 15
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QID: 20400970
Q: A technician has just replaced a users defective CD-ROM drive and tested that everything is
working properly. Which of the following should the technician do NEXT?
Answer 1: Run a full system backup.

Answer 2: Document their findings and the actions taken.
Answer 3: Further troubleshoot the defective drive to determine if the problem is covered by the
warranty.
Answer 4: Call their manager and report the status of the issue.
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:
Once a system failure has been identified, troubleshot, resolved, and tested, the next step is to
document the process followed, the findings uncovered, and the actions taken to resolve the problem.
& 220-702) Chapter 27
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QID: 20400980
Q: Disabling the SSID from broadcasting on a wireless access point (WAP) provides which of the
following benefits?
Answer 1: Ensures all users physically login to the wired network
Answer 2: Ensures that only certain devices can access the network
Answer 3: Encrypts data traveling across the wireless network
Answer 4: Prevents users from seeing the wireless network
Correct Answer: 4
Explanation:
Definition: An SSID is the name of a wireless local area network (WLAN). All wireless devices on a
WLAN must employ the same SSID in order to communicate with each other. The SSID on wireless
clients can be set either manually, by entering the SSID into the client network settings, or
automatically, by leaving the SSID unspecified or blank. A network administrator often uses a public
SSID, that is set on the access point and broadcast to all wireless devices in range. Some newer
wireless access points disable the automatic SSID broadcast feature in an attempt to improve network
security.
With each new computer that is added to the Wireless Network, after disabling SSID Broadcast, may
not be able to communicate after being configured for the network. If this happens enable SSID
Broadcast, to allow those new computers to connect wirelessly, then disable SSID Broadcast again and
the computer should work properly from that point on
& 220-702) Chapter23
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QID: 20400990
Q: An end user states that they are unable to connect to their home wireless network from their laptop.
They were able to connect without a problem the day before, but now they are unable to see the
network at all. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause for the problem?
Answer 1: Recent provider upgrades have changed the wireless specification from 802.11a to 802.11n.
Answer 2: The wireless network card has been disabled by the hardware switch.
Answer 3: MAC filtering is preventing the computer from connecting to the network.
Answer 4: The wireless network is not properly configured.
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:
If your wireless isn’t working, check to make sure that the LEDs on your network card
are functioning. If there are no lights, it could indicate a problem with the card itself, or
on some cards, that there is no connection or signal. First, make sure that the wireless card is enabled
through Windows. You generally do this in Windows by right-clicking on My Network Places,
selecting Properties, right-clicking the wireless network connection, and selecting Properties in order to
look at the network card properties. However, a lot of laptops now also come with an external switch
on the front, side, or above the keyboard that can toggle the network card on and off. Be sure that this is
set to the on position!
& 220-702) Chapter 17, 21
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QID: 20401000
Q: A customer brings a PC in for repair, and asks when it will be done. Which of the following is the
BEST response for the technician to give?
Answer 1: Give the customer an estimated time for repair based on the technicians assessment.
Answer 2: Ask the customer to check daily to see when it is completed.
Answer 3: Ask the customer when they would like to have the work completed.
Answer 4: Inform the customer that others are waiting. The technician will get back to them as soon as
possible.
Explanation:
Your job as a tech is to get the computer fixed, and the best way to start that process is to determine
what the computer is doing or not doing, You must start by talking to the customer. Allow the customer
to explain the problem fully while you record the information, from there you should be able give an
estimated time frame for the repair to be completed.
& 220-702) Chapter 27
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QID: 20401010
Q: Which of the following network devices interconnects networks together?
Answer 1: Switch
Answer 2: Hub
Answer 3: Router
Answer 4: Modem
Correct Answer: 3
Explanation:
To move traffic between networks you use specialized computers called routers. Switch and Hub are
used to add a device to the network. Modem is a device used to turn digital data into an analog signal to
send it over the telephone line, and then turn it back into digital data when it reached the other end of
the connection.
& 220-702) Chapter 23
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QID: 20401020
Q: Which of this following network types is the FASTEST?
Answer 1: Gigabit Ethernet

Answer 2: Wi-Fi
Answer 3: Infrared
Answer 4: Bluetooth
Correct Answer: 1
Explanation:
1000BaseT networks- called Gigabit Ethernet-run at 1000Mbps, or 1 Gbps.
Wi-Fi run at 11Mbps, Infrared runs at 4 Mbps, Bluetooth runs at 1 Mbps.
& 220-702) Chapter 23
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QID: 20401030
Q: Which of the following hardware is hot pluggable? (Select THREE).
Answer 1: eSATA
Answer 2: Express Card/54
Answer 3: PS/2 peripherals
Answer 4: MIDI devices
Answer 5: NIC
Answer 6: USB
Explanation:
The capability of being able to disconnect and connect devices while the computer or other device is on
and have those devices be detected without having to reboot the computer or device. eSATA, FireWire,
and USB are examples of Interfaces that are hot-swappable on computers.
& 220-702) Chapter 11
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QID: 20401040
Q: Which of the following display connections are the MOST commonly used to connect an LCD
monitor to a desktop? (Select TWO).
Answer 1: USB
Answer 2: DVI
Answer 3: CGA
Answer 4: VGA
Answer 5: S-Video
Explanation:
VGA, which stands for Video Graphics Array, has been the standard method for connecting monitors
to Macs since the late 1990s and to PCs for some years before then. The newer DVI format, which
stands for Digital Video Interface, is the preferred connection method for most non-budget LCD
displays, a number of higher-end CRTs, and even a small number of expensive video displays. VGA is
being phased out in favour of DVI, although we’re still in the transition period where support for both
is common. Some monitors contain sockets for each format, and the Mac mini comes with a DVI to
VGA adaptor dongle to help users with older displays connect to its built-in DVI port.
& 220-702) Chapter 19
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QID: 20401050
Q: A user reports that after coming back from lunch their PC will no longer turn on. Which of the
following is MOST likely the problem?
Answer 1: Hard disk failure or operating system needs to be reloaded.

Answer 2: Power cord is loose.
Answer 3: Mouse and keyboard need to be cleaned.
Answer 4: The hard drive is in standby mode.
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:
This step is the one that even experienced technicians overlook. Often, computer problems are the
result of something simple. Technicians overlook these problems because they’re so simple that the
technicians assume they couldn’t be the problem.
Here are some examples of simple problems:

Is it plugged in? And plugged in at both ends? Cables must be plugged in at both ends in order to
function correctly. Cables can easily be tripped over and inadvertently pulled from their sockets.
& 220-702) Chapter 17
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QID: 20401060
Q: A technician has connected a cable to an RJ-45 connector on the back of a computer. Which of the
following devices is MOST likely connected to the other end of the cable?
Answer 1: Switch
Answer 2: Fax machine
Answer 3: Scanner
Answer 4: Dial-up modem
Correct Answer: 1
Explanation:
RJ-45 is the standard for UTP (Unshielded Twisted Pair) connectors. UTP cabling is the specified
cabling for the 10/100/1000BaseT. In a 10/100/1000BaseT network each PC is connected to a hub or
switch.
& 220-702) Chapter 23
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QID: 20401070
Q: Which of the following BEST describes the function of ECC in a RAM module?
Answer 1: Ability to bypass the IRQ channels to work directly with the CPU
Answer 2: Ability to detect hardware incompatibilities and resolve them
Answer 3: Ability to detect and correct single bit errors in memory
Answer 4: Ability to use varying levels of voltage for power saving
Correct Answer: 3
Explanation:
Today’s PC that need to watch for RAM errors use a special type of RAM called error correction code
( ECC) RAM.. ECC is a major advance in error checking DRAM, First ECC detects any time a single
bit is incorrect, and Secondly ECC fixes these errors on the fly. The checking and fixing comes at a
price, as ECC RAM is always slower than non-ECC RAM.
& 220-702) Chapter 6
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QID: 20401080
Q: Which of the following commands will return the hostname of a specific device?
Answer 1: ping t 172.16.122.11

Answer 2: ping v 10.68.0.5
Answer 3: ping a 192.168.10.5
Answer 4: ping f 189.18.1.7
Correct Answer: 3
Explanation:
ping is a computer network tool used to test whether a particular host is reachable across an IP network;
it is also used to self test the network interface card of the computer, or as a latency test. It works by
sending ICMP echo request packets to the target host and listening for ICMP echo response replies.
The "echo response" is sometimes called a pong. Ping measures the round-trip time[1] and records any
packet loss, and prints when finished a statistical summary of the echo response packets received, the
minimum, mean, max and in some versions the standard deviation of the round trip time.
& 220-702) Chapter 15
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QID: 20401090
Q: Which of the following are valid ports for printing over a network? (Select TWO).
Answer 1: USB 001
Answer 2: \\computername\sharename
Answer 3: SNMP
Answer 4: IP_ip_address
Answer 5: IEEE 1394
Explanation:
Two common ways to setup network printing are: IP Printing using a network Printer with an assigned
IP address or a shared local network printer.
& 220-702) Chapter 23
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
QID: 20401100
Q: Which of the following should be done after installing a touch screen monitor to ensure that the
display functions optimally?
Answer 1: Set the refresh rate to the lowest the monitor can display.
Answer 2: Calibrate the monitor.
Answer 3: Degauss the monitor.
Answer 4: Set the resolution to the highest the monitor can display.
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:
Despite the advantages of resistive-type touch screens, devices equipped with them almost always
require that a calibration algorithm be the first task to run when the final product comes out of the box.
Calibration is necessary because it is difficult to perfectly align a touch screen's coordinates to the
display (LCD or otherwise) behind it.
& 220-702) Chapter 18
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QID: 20401110
Q: While working inside of a desktop computer, a technician finds a wire with insulation damage from
rubbing up against a cooling fan. Which of the following should be used to repair the wire?
Answer 1: Electrical tape

Answer 2: Masking tape
Answer 3: Duct tape
Answer 4: Wire nut
Correct Answer: 1
Explanation:
Masking tape would be used for painting jobs. Duct tape not appropriate to use for electrical repair.
Wire nut would require splitting the damage wire to repair. After attaching the wire nut would make it
quite bulky to fit inside the desktop computer case.
& 220-702) Chapter 17
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QID: 20401120
Q: When setting up a WAP, which of the following is broadcasted by default and should be disabled?
Answer 1: WPA
Answer 2: WEP
Answer 3: SSID
Answer 4: RADIUS
Correct Answer: 3
Explanation:
By default, most WAP's broadcast their SSID. When you enable a wireless NIC it surveys the area and
finds any wireless networks that are broadcasting their SSID. To hide the SSID from being picked up
by wireless NIC's you can disable broadcasting the SSID. This will prevent computers from being able
to pick up the SSID and attempt to connect to the network.
& 220-702) Chapter 23
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QID: 20401130
Q: Which of the following connectors are used on the end of a fiber cable?
Answer 1: RJ-11
Answer 2: RJ-45
Answer 3: BNC
Answer 4: ST
Correct Answer: 4
Explanation:
Fiber optic cable is a way to transmit Ethernet network packets. All fiber Ethernet networks that use
these cables require two cables. The most common connectors used in fiber optic networks are square
SC connectors and round ST connectors.
RJ-11 is the connector connects to the telephone jack.

RJ-45 is for UTP connectors.
BNC is used with coaxial cable
& 220-702) Chapter 23
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QID: 20401140
Q: Which of the following is the maximum cable length of a CAT5e?
Answer 1: 100 feet (30 meters)

Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:
UTP cables comes in categories that define the maximum speed at which data can be transferred
CAT5e maximum is 100 meters.
& 220-702) Chapter 23
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QID: 20401150
Q: The users operating system is not keeping the correct time after a system powers down. Which of
the following components should the technician replace?
Answer 1: L2 cache
Answer 2: CMOS battery
Answer 3: Processor
Answer 4: System clock
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:
CMOS needs a continuous trickle charge to retain its data. Motherboards use some type of battery,
usually a coin battery like those used in wrist watches, to give the CMOS the charge it needs when the
computer is turned off. This battery also keeps track of the data and time when the PC is turned off.
& 220-702) Chapter 9
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QID: 20401160
Q: A user calls and says they cannot get to the Internet. How would a technician walk the user through
checking the IP address and default Gateway on the computer?
Answer 1: Start>Run>type ipconfig>click OK and ask user to read the results.

Answer 2: Start>Run>type cmd>click OK>type ipconfig /flushdns>press enter and ask user to read the
results.
Answer 3: Start>Run>type cmd>click OK>type ipconfig /release>press enter key and ask user to read
the results.
Answer 4: Start>Run>type cmd>click OK>type ipconfig /all>press enter key and ask user to read the
results.
Correct Answer: 4
Explanation:
Start>Run>type cmd>click OK>type ipconfig/all command will display all of your TCP/IP settings
Start>Run>type ipconfig>click OK command will not display the required information
Start>Run>type cmd>click OK>type ipconfig/flushdns command will flush the DNS (Domain Nam
Services) servers, keep database of IP Addresses and there corresponding names.
Start>Run>type cmd>click OK>type ipconfig/release command will give up the IP address you
currently have.
& 220-702) Chapter 15
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QID: 20401170
Q: Which of the following are valid installation methods for Windows XP? (Select THREE).
Answer 1: Factory recovery partition

Answer 2: XCOPY all files from another computer
Answer 3: Installation from Microsoft.com
Answer 4: Windows CD installation
Answer 5: Network installation
Answer 6: Purchase a fully configured hard drive
Explanation:
Boot from CD.
Starting an install in this manner eliminates the need to have a partitioned and formatted hard drive
prior to installation. Probably one of the most foolproof methods for beginners.
An over the network install, eliminates the need for a CD ROM and/or a floppy drive in your computer.
It will also allow you to install several copies of XP simultaneously on different computers. Before
starting, copy the i386 directory from your hard drive to a network server and share the directory.
Factory recovery partition

This option completely erases the C: partition and reinstalls factory-shipped files from the recovery
partition.
& 220-702) Chapter 14, 23
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QID: 20401180
Q: Which of the following ports needs to be blocked to prevent Internet access?
Answer 1: 20
Answer 2: 21
Answer 3: 23
Answer 4: 80
Correct Answer: 4
Explanation:
Port 80 is a HTTP (Hyper Text Transfer Protocol) use for web browsing
Port 21 & 21 is FTP (File Transfer Protocol) used to share files between systems.
Port 23 is Telnet Protocol used enables you to connect to a server and run commands on that server as
if you were sitting in front of it.
& 220-702) Chapter 16, 26
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QID: 20401190
Q: Which of the following BEST describes virtual memory?
Answer 1: Flash memory used to hold temporary files before deletion.

Answer 2: Data written to a disk located in a paging file that would not fit into the systems RAM.
Answer 3: The maximum amount of memory a given system can potentially have.
Answer 4: A portion of physical RAM that is mirrored to the hard drive for redundancy.
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:
Virtual memory is a computer system technique which gives an application program the impression
that it has contiguous working memory (an address space), while in fact it may be physically
fragmented and may even overflow on to disk storage. Systems that use this technique make
programming of large applications easier and use real physical memory (e.g. RAM) more efficiently
than those without virtual memory. Virtual memory differs significantly from memory virtualization in
that virtual memory allows resources to be virtualized as memory for a specific system, as opposed to a
large pool of memory being virtualized as smaller pools for many different systems.
Almost all implementations of virtual memory divide the virtual address space of an application
program into pages; a page is a block of contiguous virtual memory addresses. Pages are usually at
least 4K bytes in size, and systems with large virtual address ranges or large amounts of real memory
(e.g. RAM) generally use larger page sizes.
& 220-702) Chapter 14
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QID: 20401200
Q: Which of the following printer types shoots the ink onto the paper?
Answer 1: Impact
Answer 2: Dot Matrix
Answer 3: Laser
Answer 4: Inkjet
Correct Answer: 4
Explanation:
Inkjet printers also called ink-dispersion printers. They work by ejecting ink through tiny tubes. Impact
printers create an image on the paper by physically striking an ink ribbon against the paper’s
surface.Dot Matrix printers use a grid, or matrix, of tiny pins, also know as printwires, to strike an
inked printer ribbon and produce images on paper.Laser printers use a process called electro-
photographic imaging.
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QID: 20401210
Q: A technician converts several existing Windows XP Professional laptops from English to the
German language. Which of the following is the correct path to change the language settings?
Answer 1: Control Panel> Accessibility Options> General

Answer 2: Control Panel> Regional and Language Options> Regional Options
Answer 3: Control Panel> Regional and Language Options> Regional Options> Customize
Answer 4: Control Panel> Regional and Language Options> Languages> Details
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:
With Regional and Language Options in Control Panel, you can change the format Windows uses to
display dates, times, currency amounts, large numbers, and numbers with decimal fractions.
You can also choose from a large number of input languages and text services, such as different
keyboard layouts, Input Method Editors, and speech and handwriting recognition programs. When you
switch to another input language, some programs offer special features, such as font characters or
spelling checkers designed for different languages.
By default, Windows XP installs the files for most input languages supported by Windows. However, if
you want to enter or display text in the East Asian languages (Chinese, Japanese, or Korean) or the
complex script and right-to-left languages (Arabic, Armenian, Georgian, Hebrew, the Indic languages,
Thai, or Vietnamese), you can install the language files from the Windows CD-ROM or, if applicable,
a network.
Each language has a default keyboard layout, but many languages have alternate versions. Even if you
do most of your work in one language, you might want to try other layouts. In English, for example,
typing letters with accents might be simpler with the U.S.-International layout.
& 220-702) Chapter 17
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QID: 20401220
Q: Which of the following utilities could be used to check if there is a remote device on the network?
Answer 1: netstat
Answer 2: ipconfig
Answer 3: nslookup
Answer 4: ping
Correct Answer: 1
Explanation:
netstat (network statistics) is a command-line tool that displays network connections (both incoming
and outgoing), routing tables, and a number of network interface statistics. It is available on Unix,
Unix-like, and Windows NT-based operating systems.
Parameters used with this command must be prefixed with a hyphen (-) rather than a slash (/). -a :
Displays all active TCP connections and the TCP and UDP ports on which the computer is listening.
& 220-702) Chapter 23
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QID: 20401230
Q: A user states that every time they try to pull down video clips from a website, a notice appears on
the screen which says the site is being blocked by a filter. The technician knows that a new web
filtering application was recently introduced which assigns a 120 minute quota on streaming media and
a message appears allowing the user to click to continue. Which is the following is the MOST
appropriate response from the technician?
Answer 1: What particular website are you trying to download videos from? Are they work related?
Answer 2: Video takes a large amount of bandwidth so management has decided to limit each user to
what can be downloaded and watched. If you take issue with that please inform your supervisor.
Answer 3: Did you read the entire screen? The last sentence clearly says click to continue.
Answer 4: Bandwidth usage has become a problem. A new application has been implemented to help
manage and improve the network. Simply select continue on the message and the video should appear.
Correct Answer: 4
Explanation:
Professional conduct encompasses politeness, guidance, punctuality, and accountability. Always treat
the customer with the same respect and empathy you would expect if the situation were reversed.
Likewise, guide the customer through the problem and the explanation.Tell him what has caused the
problem he is currently experiencing and the best solution for preventing it from reoccurring in the
future.
& 220-702) Chapter 27
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QID: 20401240
Q: Which of the following should the technician expect when disabling SSID broadcast?
Answer 1: A user would need to manually type the SSID to connect.

Answer 2: The access point would now transmit on only one channel.
Answer 3: Data encryption would be less secure over wireless connections.
Answer 4: Data encryption would be more secure over wireless connections.
Correct Answer: 1
Explanation:
Many access points allow a user to turn off the broadcast of the SSID. With many network client
devices, this results in the detected network displaying as an unnamed network and the user would need
to manually enter the correct SSID to connect to the network.
& 220-702) Chapter 23
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QID: 20401250
Q: Which of the following is a loopback address on a computer with an IP address of 192.168.0.12, a
subnet mask of 255.255.255.0 and a gateway of 192.168.0.1?
Answer 1: 192.168.0.0
Answer 2: 192.168.0.1
Answer 3: 255.255.255.0
Answer 4: 127.0.0.1
Correct Answer: 4
Explanation:
In computer networking, localhost (meaning "this computer") is the standard hostname given to the
address of the loopback network interface. The name is also a reserved domain name, set aside to avoid
confusion with the narrower definition as a hostname. Localhost always translates to the loopback IP
address 127.0.0.1 in IPv4, or ::1 in IPv6.
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QID: 20401260
Q: A technician wants to configure a tape backup to run every evening that will only archive files that
have changed since the last tape was run. The backup should clear the archive bit for each file. Which
of the following backup type should be selected?
Answer 1: Incremental
Answer 2: Copy
Answer 3: Full
Answer 4: Daily
Correct Answer: 1
Explanation:
Incremental Backs up selected files only if they were created or modified since the previous backup.
Copy Backs up selected files but does not clear the archive bit.
Daily Backs up files that were created or modified today. It doesn’t look at the archive bit, but only the
date when the file was modified.
Normal Backs up selected files and clears the archive bit.
& 220-702) Chapter 17
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QID: 20401270
Q: A technician is working on a computer that has a virus downloaded on it. The technician gets an
Access Denied message stating the process is in use every time the technician tries to remove the virus.
Which of the following Advanced Mode Options should be used to start up the computer?
Answer 1: Safe Mode

Answer 4: Disable Automatic Restart
Correct Answer: 1
Explanation:
An operating system in safe mode will have reduced functionality, but the task of isolating problems is
easier because many non-core components are disabled (turned off). An installation that will only boot
into its safe mode typically has a major problem, such as disk corruption or the installation of poorly
configured software that prevents the operating system from successfully booting into its normal
operating mode.
& 220-702) Chapter 26
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QID: 20401280
Q: A technician has received a new PC directly from the manufacturer. After completing the initial
configuration, they notice the system takes a long time to display the desktop. Which of the following
steps would shorten the startup time?
Answer 1: Run the defrag command on the system.

Answer 2: Run the chkdsk /f command on the system.
Answer 3: Decrease the size of the paging file.
Answer 4: Remove unneeded startup applications.
Correct Answer: 4
Explanation:
Many brand new computers come loaded with too much "teaseware" (software tryouts or offers) that
actually slows the system down, especially if the hardware configuration is inadequate.
Click on the Start menu. Click on Run. A popup window with a text box will appear. Use this text box
to type commands for executing programs.
Type the following command: msconfig. Hit the Enter key on your keyboard. The configuration screen
is then displayed.
By default the screen’s focus is on the General tab. Click on the Startup tab to bring up a list of
programs that are executed at the startup of Windows XP. You’ll notice that all the programs have a
check box next to them. Most of these are probably selected.
To stop a program from executing during startup, deselect the check box next to the program. Click on
OK when you’re done. This will remove the program from those that run during startup. However,
some programs are coded to add themselves back into the startup sequence if you remove them. For
these programs you need to look at more sophisticated tools. Simply restart your computer for the
changes to take effect.
& 220-702) Chapter 17
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QID: 20401290
Q: Which of the following utilities can be used to change a FAT file system into an NTFS file system
without data loss?
Answer 1: convert
Answer 2: format
Answer 3: diskpart
Answer 4: fdisk
Correct Answer: 1
Explanation:
To convert a FAT partition to NTFS, follow these steps:
1. Click Start, click Run, type cmd, and then click OK.
2. At the command prompt, type CONVERT driveletter: /FS:NTFS.
3. Convert.exe attempts to convert the partition to NTFS.
& 220-702) Chapter 17
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QID: 20401300
Q: Using regedit, how can the registry backup before changes are made?
Answer 1: Export registry file

Answer 2: Backup registry file
Answer 3: Save registry file
Answer 4: Import registry file
Correct Answer: 1
Explanation:
Before you edit the registry, export the keys in the registry that you plan to edit, or back up the whole
registry. If a problem occurs, you can then follow the steps in the "Restore the registry" section to
restore the registry to its previous state. To back up the whole registry, use the Backup utility to back
up the system state. The system state includes the registry, the COM+ Class Registration Database, and
your boot files.
& 220-702) Chapter 15
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QID: 20401310
Q: After the problem is resolved, which of the following should be the NEXT action according to the
troubleshooting theory?
Answer 1: Return the system to the user.

Answer 2: Recreate the problem and reapply the solution to ensure it worked properly.
Answer 3: Verify that all other parts of the system are working properly.
Answer 4: Inform the user of every step that was taken so the user can self-repair if the problem occurs
again.
Correct Answer: 3
Explanation:
Directly after resolving an issue, a technician should verify that all other parts of the system are
working properly. The outline of the troubleshooting theory is as follows:
1. Identify the symptoms and potential causes

2. Identify the affected area
3. Establish what has changed
4. Select the most probable cause
5. Implement an action plan and solution including potential effects
6. Test the result
7. Identify the results and effects of the solution
8. Document the solution and process
Once these steps are complete, the system can be returned to the user.
& 220-702) Chapter 27
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QID: 20401320
Q: While a customer is describing a problem to a technician, the technician knows what the solution is.
However, the customer is not done describing all their symptoms. Which of the following would be the
MOST appropriate action of the technician to take?
Answer 1: The technician should ask the customer to repeat the problem several times so they can
verify all of the facts.
Answer 2: Wait until the customer is finished then refer them to a website so they can find the
resolution and implement any preventative techniques so the problem does not appear again.
Answer 3: Hear what the customer has to say without interrupting if it will not take an excessive
amount of time.
Answer 4: Politely tell the customer that the solution is known and that no other symptoms need to be
discussed.
Correct Answer: 3
Explanation:
Listen to your customers. Allow them to complete their statements and avoid interrupt-
ing them. People like to know they are being heard, and, as simple an act as it is, this can make all the
difference in making them feel at ease with your work. Everyone has been in a situation where they
have not been able to fully explain their problem without being interrupted or ignored. It is not
enjoyable in a social setting, and it is intolerable in a business setting.
& 220-702) Chapter 27
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QID: 20401330
Q: A mandatory update is going to be released to the users on the network that will reboot the
workstations during lunch hours. Which of the following would be the BEST way to communicate the
mandatory update to the users?
Answer 1: Post notices around the building.

Answer 2: Stop the mandatory update.
Answer 3: Email the users about the update.
Answer 4: Install the update without notice.
Correct Answer: 3
Explanation:
Keeping workstations updated and operating efficiently is an integral part of a technicians job. Most
users are busy working on their computers throughout the day, so the most appropriate way to notify
them of a mandatory update is via email.
An administrator should never install an update without prior notice to end users. This could disrupt
their workday and cause problems. Posting notices is not a convenient or efficient way to communicate
an update. Remember, users will be on their computers and accessing emails regularly throughout the
day.
& 220-702) Chapter 17
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QID: 20401340
Q: Which of the following utilities can help prevent viruses and other malware? (Select TWO).
Answer 1: Windows Event Viewer

Answer 2: Windows Defender
Answer 3: CHKDSK
Answer 4: FilterKeys
Answer 5: Data Execution Prevention
Explanation:
Windows Defender is a free application that helps your users stay productive by protecting their
computers against pop-up windows, slow performance, and security threats caused by spyware and
other potentially unwanted software.
Data Execution Prevention (DEP) is a set of hardware and software technologies that perform
additional checks on memory to help prevent malicious code from running on a system. In Microsoft
Windows XP Service Pack 2 (SP2) and Microsoft Windows XP Tablet PC Edition 2005, DEP is
enforced by hardware and by software.
The primary benefit of DEP is to help prevent code execution from data pages. Typically, code is not
executed from the default heap and the stack. Hardware-enforced DEP detects code that is running
from these locations and raises an exception when execution occurs. Software-enforced DEP can help
prevent malicious code from taking advantage of exception-handling mechanisms in Windows.
& 220-702) Chapter 16, 26
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QID: 20401350
Q: A user states that the print server needs to be reset because they have been unable to print and can
see a number of documents pending when looking at the printer in control panel. The technician notices
that the real solution is to clear a paper jam in the printer. Which of the following is the BEST response
for the technician to give the user?
Answer 1: Thank the user for their assistance with the problem; however, their solution did not work
and inform the user that the company has personnel working on the problem.
Answer 2: Thank the user for their concern ask the user open ended questions to see what they think is
the problem.
Answer 3: Tell the user that there are indeed print jobs piling up but that the printer has a paper jam and
a
technician is in the process of repairing the issue.
Answer 4: Fix the paper jam and then give the user some reference material so they can research
preventative techniques and be more involved in the troubleshooting process.
Correct Answer: 3
Explanation:
The flashing error code that indicates a jammed printer is the digital-age equivalent of a flat tire.
Sooner or later it happens to everyone, so you'd better know how to get things moving again if you
want to finish your print job.
& 220-702) Chapter 22
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QID: 20401360
Q: Which of the following wireless technologies has a maximum range of 30 feet (9 meters)?
Answer 1: 802.11b
Answer 2: Bluetooth 2.0
Answer 3: Infrared
Answer 4: 802.11a
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:
Bluetooth 2.0 is a wireless technology that utilizes the frequency-hopping spread spectrum (FHSS)
radio technology. It was desiged to utilize low amounts of power and to operate within a short range.
The maximum range of Bluetooth 2.0 technology is 30 feet (9 meters).
IEEE 802.11and 802.11b are wireless technologies that operate similarly to Bluetooth, but can be used
for much greater distances.
Infrared is another wireless technology that utilizes electromagnetic radiation rather than radio waves.
& 220-702) Chapter 23, 24
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QID: 20401370
Q: Which of the following settings helps remove discoloration in a CRT monitor due to magnetism?
Answer 1: Auto Alignment

Answer 2: Resolution
Answer 3: Degauss
Answer 4: Refresh Rate
Correct Answer: 3
Explanation:
Today the most common use of degaussing is in CRT-based TV sets and computer monitors. For
example, many monitors use a metal plate near the front of the tube to focus the electron beams from
the back. This plate, the shadow mask, can pick up strong external fields and from that point produce
discoloration on the display.
To minimize this, CRTs have a copper coil wrapped around the front of the display, known as the
degaussing coil. Tubes without an internal coil can be degaussed using an external hand held version.
Internal degaussing coils in CRTs are generally much weaker than external degaussing coils, since a
better degaussing coil takes up more space. A degauss causes a magnetic field inside the tube to
oscillate rapidly, with decreasing amplitude. This leaves the shadow mask with a small and somewhat
randomized field, removing the discoloration.
& 220-702) Chapter 19
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QID: 20401380
Q: Which of the following is needed to perform an ASR restore in Windows XP?
Answer 1: Operating system CD

Answer 2: Recovery console
Answer 3: Vendor recovery CD
Answer 4: ERD disk
Correct Answer: 1
Explanation:
Should the day come when you need to use ASR to recover your computer, proceed as outlined here:
1. Start your computer with the Windows XP Professional Setup CD-ROM.

2. When prompted to press a key to boot from the CD-ROM, do so. If your computer does not support
booting from a CD-ROM, you will need to use Setup floppy disks to start the process.
3. When prompted to press F2 to start Automated System Recovery do so. You will be prompted to
supply your ASR floppy disk.
4. Follow the onscreen prompts to complete the Automated System Recovery process.
& 220-702) Chapter 14
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QID: 20401390
Q: Which of the following speeds are the USB 2.0 data rates?
Answer 1: 1.5Mbps, 12Mbps, 480Mbps

Correct Answer: 1
Explanation:
USB 2.0 supports data rates as high as 480Mbps (60MBps), 40 times that of
its predecessor.USB 2.0 uses the same physical connection as the original USB, but it is much higher in
transfer rates and requires a cable with more shielding that
is less susceptible to noise. You can tell if a computer, hub, or cable sup-
ports USB 2.0 by looking for the red and blue High Speed USB graphic
somewhere on the computer, device, or cable (or on its packaging).
& 220-702) Chapter 9
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QID: 20401400
Q: The feature of Windows Vista that prevents applications from running in privileged mode even
when an administrator is logged is which of the following?
Answer 1: Task Manager

Answer 2: Sidebar Interface
Answer 3: User Account Control
Answer 4: Aero Display Manager
Correct Answer: 3
Explanation:
User Account Control (UAC) is a technology and security infrastructure introduced with Microsoft's
Windows Vista and Windows Server 2008 operating system. It aims to improve the security of
Microsoft Windows by limiting application software to standard user privileges until an administrator
authorizes an increase. In this way, only applications trusted by the user may receive administrative
privileges, and malware should be kept from compromising the operating system. In other words, a
user account may have administrator privileges assigned to it, but applications that the user runs do not
inherit those privileges unless they are approved beforehand or the user explicitly authorizes it.
& 220-702) Chapter 14
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QID: 20401410
Q: A technician is installing a RAM upgrade into a PC. The PC is currently holding two sticks of
512MB
PC2700, and the technician would like to install an additional two sticks of 512MB PC3200. Assuming
the necessary slots are available, which of the following will be the overall speed of the new RAM?
Answer 1: 2100
Answer 2: 2700
Answer 3: 3200
Answer 4: 5300
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:
You can mix the ram, but the ram will default to the slowest of the set and only run at the slower speed.
& 220-702) Chapter 6
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QID: 20401420
Q: Which of the following hardware features controls power management?
Answer 1: ODBC
Answer 2: ACPI
Answer 3: IRQ
Answer 4: IMAPI
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:
The Advanced Configuration and Power Interface (ACPI) specification is an open standard for unified
operating system-centric device configuration and power management. ACPI, first released in
December 1996, defines platform-independent interfaces for hardware discovery, configuration, power
management and monitoring. The specification is central to Operating System-directed configuration
and Power Management (OSPM); a term used to describe a system implementing ACPI, which
therefore removes device management responsibilities from legacy firmware interfaces. The standard
was originally developed by Intel, Microsoft, and Toshiba, and last published as "Revision 4.0", on
June 16, 2009. Current developers also include HP and Phoenix.
& 220-702) Chapter 14
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QID: 20401430
Q: Which of the following Internet connectivity methods MOST commonly uses the PPPoE
authentication method?
Answer 1: Dial-up
Answer 2: Cable
Answer 3: DSL
Answer 4: Satellite
Correct Answer: 3
Explanation:
The Point-to-Point Protocol over Ethernet (PPPoE) is a network protocol for encapsulating Point-to-
Point Protocol (PPP) frames inside Ethernet frames. It is used mainly with DSL services where
individual users connect to the DSL modem over Ethernet and in plain Metro Ethernet networks. It was
developed by UUNET, Redback Networks, and RouterWare.
& 220-702) Chapter 23
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QID: 20401440
Q: Which of the following is the BitLocker utility used for?
Answer 1: Storing passwords

Answer 2: Blocking harmful network traffic
Answer 3: Securing wireless access points
Answer 4: Encrypting hard drives
Correct Answer: 4
Explanation:
BitLocker Drive Encryption is a full disk encryption feature included with the Ultimate and Enterprise
editions of Microsoft's Windows Vista and Windows 7 desktop operating systems, as well as the
Windows Server 2008 and Windows Server 2008 R2 server platforms. It is designed to protect data by
providing encryption for entire volumes. By default it uses the AES encryption algorithm in CBC mode
with a 128 bit key, combined with the Elephant diffuser for additional disk encryption specific security
not provided by AES.
BitLocker is available only in the Enterprise and Ultimate editions of Windows Vista and Windows
7.Users of other versions of Windows Vista could use a 3rd party encryption program to satisfy the
need for full drive encryption.
& 220-702) Chapter 17
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QID: 20401450
Q: Which of the following is a characteristic of solid state drives?
Answer 1: Built-in encryption standards

Answer 2: Larger capacity than traditional magnetic drives
Answer 3: Lack of drive heads and platters
Answer 4: Higher data integrity
Correct Answer: 3
Explanation:
A solid-state drive (SSD) is a data storage device that uses solid-state memory to store persistent data.
An SSD emulates a hard disk drive interface, thus easily replacing it in most applications. An SSD
using SRAM or DRAM (instead of flash memory) is often called a RAM-drive, not to be confused with
a RAM disk.
The original usage of the term solid-state (from solid-state physics) refers to the use of semiconductor
devices rather than electron tubes, but in this context, has been adopted to distinguish solid-state
electronics from electromechanical devices as well. With no moving parts, solid-state drives are less
fragile than hard disks and are also silent (unless a cooling fan is used); as there are no mechanical
delays, they usually enjoy low access time and latency.
& 220-702) Chapter 13
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QID: 20401460
Q: Which of the following operating systems comes with a default application to record TV using a
remote?
Answer 1: Windows Vista Home Basic

Answer 2: Windows Vista Home Premium
Answer 3: Windows Vista Business
Answer 4: Windows XP Professional
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:
Windows Media Center, which is included with Windows Vista Home Premium offers built-in support
for archiving TV shows directly to video DVDs and a platform for content owners to deliver new
online entertainment services and experiences. For U.S.-based customers, Windows Media Center
offers support for digital cable service, by means of a digital cable tuner.
& 220-702) Chapter 14
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QID: 20401470
Q: Which of the following utilities is used to remove programs from startup in Windows XP?
Answer 1: MSCONFIG
Answer 2: ASR
Answer 3: Task Manager
Answer 4: Computer Management
Correct Answer: 1
Explanation:
MSConfig, or Microsoft System Configuration Utility, (or simply System Configuration in Windows
Vista) is a utility to troubleshoot the Windows startup process. It is bundled with all Microsoft
Windows operating systems since Windows 98 except Windows 2000. Windows 95 and Windows
2000 users can download the utility as well, although it was not designed for them. MSConfig modifies
which programs run at startup, edits certain configuration files, and simplifies controls over Windows
services. As part of the base Windows install, MSConfig has commonly not been linked to in the Start
Menu or Control Panel, but is accessible by using the Run dialog to launch 'msconfig' on any system on
which the user has administrator access.
& 220-702) Chapter 15
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QID: 20401480
Q: Which of the following is the correct way to get to the Services MMC Plug-in to see what services
are currently running? (Select TWO).
Answer 1: Right click on the My Computer and select Properties.

Answer 2: Open Control Panel, open Administrative Tools, double click on the Services icon.
Answer 3: Click Start>Run and then type in services.msc.
Answer 4: Click Start>Run and then type in regedit.
Answer 5: Click Start>Run and then type in regedt32.
Explanation:
On the Start Menu, click Run, type MMC, and then click OK. Microsoft Management Console opens
with an empty console (or administrative tool) as shown in Figure 1 below. The empty console has no
management functionality until you add some snap-ins. The MMC menu commands on the menu bar at
the top of the Microsoft Management Console window apply to the entire console.
Or another way to get to the MMC is to click on Start, Settings, Control Panel, Performance and
Maintenance, Administrative Tools, Component Services.
& 220-702) Chapter 17
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QID: 20401490
Q: A laptop with a docking station is normally wired into a local network. When the laptop is removed
from the docking station, the user would like the laptop to automatically switch to the wireless
connection. Which of the following Windows features BEST accomplishes this?
Answer 1: Driver signing

Answer 2: Hardware profile
Answer 3: Wireless Zero Configuration
Answer 4: Roaming profile
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:
A hardware profile lets you start the computer with different hardware configurations. This ability is
most useful on laptops, which often have docking stations, or at the very least are moved from place to
place. You might have one profile that loads a network card driver and another profile that loads your
laptop’s modem driver, for example.
& 220-702) Chapter 21
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QID: 20401500
Q: Which of the following is part of the TCP/IP network configuration? (Select TWO).
Answer 1: AppleTalk
Answer 2: DHCP
Answer 3: IPX/SPX
Answer 4: DNS
Answer 5: NetBEUI
Explanation:
Two critical TCP/IP services you need to be aware of are Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol
(DHCP) and Domain Name System (DNS). Both are run off a server and provide key services to
network clients. A DHCP server can be configured to automatically provide IP configuration
information to clients. Configuration information provided typically includes:
IP address
Subnet mask
Default gateway (the door to the outside world)
DNS server address
DHCP servers can provide a lot more than this list, but those are the most common
items. When a DHCP-configured client boots up, it sends out a broadcast on the network (called a
DHCP DISCOVER) requesting a DHCP server. The DHCP server then returns configuration
information to the client.
DNS has one function on the network, and that is to resolve hostnames to IP addresses. This sounds
simple enough, but it has profound implications. Think about using the Internet. You open your
browser, and in the address bar type the name of your favorite website, something like
www.google.com, and press Enter. The first question your computer asks is, Who is that? The DNS
server provides the answer, That is 72.14.205.104. Now that your computer knows the address of the
website you want, it’s able to traverse the Internet to find it.
& 220-702) Chapter 23
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QID: 20401510
Q: Which of the following services uses the TCP port 21 by default?
Answer 1: TELNET
Answer 2: HTTPS
Answer 3: SMTP
Answer 4: FTP
Correct Answer: 4
Explanation:
A protocol optimized for sending and managing files over an Internet connection is the
File Transfer Protocol (FTP). If you have ever downloaded a file from the Internet, odds are you’ve
used FTP whether or not you realized it. FTP servers listen for incoming requests on TCP port 21. In
addition, most FTP connections require the use of TCP port 20 for sending data. If on the test you’re
asked for one port that FTP uses, go with 21, but realize that in the real world you need to make sure
TCP port 20 is open too.
& 220-702) Chapter 23
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QID: 20401520
Q: A user reports that a computer is running very slow and also states that the machine has been
rebooted several times with the same result. The hard drive light is constantly on. Which of the
following can be performed on the hard drive to improve performance? (Select TWO).
Answer 1: Use the defragment utility.

Answer 2: Use the drive compression utility.
Answer 3: Use the checkdisk utility.
Answer 4: Empty the recycle bin and deleted email items.
Answer 5: Use restore point to roll back the computer to a previous date.
Explanation:
Defrag:
Locates and consolidates fragmented boot files, data files, and folders on local volumes.
Chkdsk:
Creates and displays a status report for a disk based on the file system. Chkdsk also lists and corrects
errors on the disk. Used without parameters, chkdsk displays the status of the disk in the current drive.
& 220-702) Chapter 17
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QID: 20401530
Q: A customer states they want a new hard drive that is resistant to shock. Which of the following can
be installed to accommodate the customers request?
Answer 1: PATA hard drive

Answer 2: SATA hard drive with a rubber gasket
Answer 3: Solid state hard drive
Answer 4: SCSI drive with properly terminated ends
Correct Answer: 3
Explanation:
SSD’s has ability to endure extreme shock, high altitude, vibration and extremes of temperature. This
makes SSDs useful for laptops, mobile computers, and devices that operate in extreme conditions.
& 220-702) Chapter 13
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QID: 20401540
Q: Which of the following BEST describes a Trojan horse?
Answer 1: Malicious software that monitors Internet surfing habits

Answer 2: Malicious software that is self-replicating and self-propagating
Answer 3: Malicious software attached to another piece of software
Answer 4: Malicious software attached to an incoming email
Correct Answer: 3
Explanation:
A Trojan horse, or trojan for short, is a term used to describe malware that appears, to the user, to
perform a desirable function but, in fact, facilitates unauthorized access to the user's computer system.
The term comes from the Trojan Horse story in Greek mythology. Trojan horses are not self-
replicating, which distinguishes them from viruses and worms.
An example of a Trojan horse attack is one that was reported in 1999

This Trojan horse was distributed using email. Reports suggest that it was widely distributed and that
there were several versions. The email sent to distribute the Trojan horse purported to be from
Microsoft Corporation and to offer a free upgrade for Microsoft Internet Explorer. The email did not
originate from Microsoft Corporation nor did it provide an upgrade for Microsoft Internet Explorer.
The Trojan horse was an executable file named "ie0199.exe" and was provided as an email attachment.
& 220-702) Chapter 16, 24
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QID: 20401550
Q: When a technician receives a call for assistance from a customer, which of the following should the
technician do FIRST?
Answer 1: Identify the hardware make, model, and serial number.

Answer 2: Elevate the call to a higher level of support.
Answer 3: Assign an appropriate priority for the issue.
Answer 4: Identify the user and associated problem.
Correct Answer: 4
Explanation:
Advice for becoming an exemplary PC technician
Have a positive and helpful attitude
Own the problem
Be customer-focused
Maintain integrity and honesty
Perform your work in a professional manner
& 220-702) Chapter 27
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QID: 20401560
Q: Which of the following definitions below BEST describes System Restore?
Answer 1: Allows the operating system to be backed up with immunity to virus activity
Answer 2: Allows the operating system to assigns dates so that user data files are backed up
Answer 3: Allows the operating system to be rolled back to a previous point in time
Answer 4: Allows all data on the hard drive to be rolled back to a previous point in time
Correct Answer: 3
Explanation:
System Restore is a component of Microsoft's Windows Me, Windows XP, Windows Vista and
Windows 7 operating systems that allows for the rolling back of system files, registry keys, installed
programs, etc., to a previous state in the event of malfunctioning or failure.
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
QID: 20401570
Q: Which of the following are benefits from an active cooling system? (Select TWO).
Answer 1: Increase system security

Answer 2: Utilize less memory
Answer 3: Increased performance
Answer 4: Increased network speed
Answer 5: Longer chip life
Explanation:
Active heat sink cooling uses the same principle as passive, with the addition of a fan that is directed to
blow over or through the heat sink. The moving air increases the rate at which the heat sink can
exchange heat with the ambient air. Active heat sinks are the primary method of cooling a modern
processor or graphics card.
& 220-702) Chapter 5
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QID: 20401580
Q: A user is running a program that is not successfully connecting to the network after upgrading the
wireless network router. The user states that they do have Internet connectivity. Which of the following
solutions will MOST likely to resolve the issue with the program?
Answer 1: Add an exception to the firewall for the program.
Answer 2: Check the Hardware Compatibility List to see if the program is not compatible with the OS.
Answer 3: Run the program as a local administrator.
Answer 4: Check for any updates to the program.
Correct Answer: 1
Explanation:
A firewall is a part of a computer system or network that is designed to block unauthorized access
while permitting authorized communications. It is a device or set of devices configured to permit, deny,
encrypt, decrypt, or proxy all (in and out) computer traffic between different security domains based
upon a set of rules and other criteria.
& 220-702) Chapter 16, 26
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QID: 20401590
Q: Which of the following methods is commonly used for Biometric authentication? (Select TWO).
Answer 1: Logical token

Answer 2: Encrypted passwords
Answer 3: RFID smartcards
Answer 5: Retinal scan
Explanation:
Are related to the shape of the body. Examples include, but are not limited to fingerprint, face
recognition, DNA, hand and palm geometry, iris recognition, which has largely replaced retina, and
odor/scent.
& 220-702) Chapter 16, 26
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QID: 20401600
Q: A user has recently installed a new graphics driver, and after restarting their PC the display is no
longer appearing. Which of the following boot options would be MOST effective in troubleshooting
this issue?
Answer 1: Safe mode

Answer 2: Boot to the recovery console
Answer 3: Safe mode with command prompt
Answer 4: Boot with repair disk
Correct Answer: 1
Explanation:
Safe mode is a diagnostic mode of a computer operating system (OS). It can also refer to a mode of
operation by application software. Safe mode is intended to fix most, if not all problems within an
operating system.
& 220-702) Chapter 14
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QID: 20401610
Q: Which of the following, when locally connected, can be used as a boot device to install a new
installation of Windows Vista? (Select TWO).
Answer 1: Serial Cable

Answer 2: CD-ROM
Answer 3: USB drive
Answer 4: Floppy drive
Answer 5: DVD-ROM
Explanation:
You can install Windows Vista in several methods - all are valid and good, it all depends upon your
needs and your limitations, directly from the Windows Vista DVD media or from a USB.
& 220-702) Chapter 14
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QID: 20401620
Q: Which of the following Windows features should be disabled to ensure that malware and viruses are
completely removed during the disinfection process?
Answer 1: Security Center

Answer 2: System Restore
Answer 3: Machine Debug Manager
Answer 4: Hardware Profile
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:
System Restore is a component of Microsoft's Windows Me, Windows XP, Windows Vista and
Windows 7 operating systems that allows for the rolling back of system files, registry keys, installed
programs, etc., to a previous state in the event of malfunctioning or failure.
& 220-702) Chapter 17
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QID: 20401630
Q: Which of the following are characteristics of a secure password? (Select TWO).
Answer 1: Obscure word in a dictionary

Answer 2: Contained in a text file
Answer 3: Contains AES encryption
Answer 4: Contains numbers and letters
Answer 5: Contains special characters
Explanation:
A strong password is a password that includes characters from at least three of the five groups in the
following Character Classes table.
& 220-702) Chapter 16, 24
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QID: 20401640
Q: After successfully installing a free antivirus solution, Windows reports that no antivirus software is
currently protecting the system. Which of the following solutions would resolve this issue?
Answer 1: Disable the antivirus logging in the Event Viewer.

Answer 2: Disable antivirus protection notification within Security Center.
Answer 3: Install the Microsoft Malicious Software removal tool.
Answer 4: Update the Antivirus definitions.
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:
However, not all antivirus programs are designed to report this information. In fact, there are some
antivirus solutions that the Security Center won't detect at all. If you use an antivirus program that
Windows doesn't recognize, and you keep it up to date and properly configured, you may want to
disable the antivirus Security Center alerts.
& 220-702) Chapter 17
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QID: 20401650
Q: Which of the following can be used to configure a Windows installation for imaging multiple
computers?
Answer 1: fdisk
Answer 2: sysprep
Answer 3: regedit
Answer 4: telnet
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:
Sysprep is a tool designed for corporate system administrators, OEMs, and others who need to deploy
the Windows® XP operating system on multiple computers. After performing the initial setup steps on
a single system, you can run Sysprep to prepare the sample computer for cloning.
& 220-702) Chapter 14
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QID: 20401660
Q: Which of the following is a class A IP address?
Answer 1: 192.168.1.1
Answer 2: 224.0.0.1
Answer 3: 10.0.0.1
Answer 4: 172.16.1.1
Correct Answer: 3
Explanation:
& 220-702) Chapter 23
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QID: 20401670
Q: Which of the following network ports is normally associated with unencrypted web traffic?
Answer 1: 53
Answer 2: 80
Answer 3: 110
Answer 4: 443
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:
For instance, port 80 is associated with web traffic (http). When your computer receives internet traffic
from your modem or router on that port, it directs that traffic to your browser which knows what to do
with it.
& 220-702) Chapter 23
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QID: 20401690
Q: As a best practice, before performing hardware upgrades a technician should:
Answer 1: archive old drivers.

Answer 2: check the HCL.
Answer 3: perform a disk defrag.
Answer 4: clean each component with an approved cleaning solution.
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:
Provides information about products compatible with the Microsoft Windows operating systems.
& 220-702) Chapter 14
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QID: 20401700
Q: If a computer needs Windows XP and Windows 2000 configured for a dual-boot environment,
which of the following file system should be used in formatting the drive?
Answer 1: NTFS
Answer 2: UFS
Answer 3: FAT
Answer 4: NFS
Correct Answer: 1
Explanation:
If you want to be able to read from and write to a Windows NT, 2000, or XP partition set the Windows
partition to file system type NTFS.
& 220-702) Chapter 14
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QID: 20401710
Q: A technician must configure a computer for a special needs user who can only press one key at a
time. Which of the following must the technician enable for this user to press Ctrl-Alt-Del or other
multi-key combinations?
Answer 1: FilterKeys
Answer 2: ToggleKeys
Answer 3: Encryption Keys
Answer 4: StickyKeys
Correct Answer: 4
Explanation:
StickyKeys is an accessibility feature created by Microsoft to aid users who have physical disabilities,
but it is also used by others as a means to reduce RSI (or a syndrome called the Emacs Pinky).
StickyKeys allows the user to press a modifier key, such as Shift, Ctrl, Alt, or the Windows key, and
have it remain active until another key is pressed.
& 220-702) Chapter 17
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QID: 20401720
Q: Which of the following is MOST likely to be the source of wireless network interference?
Answer 1: Bluetooth headset

Answer 2: Large screen television
Answer 3: AM/FM radio
Answer 4: Cordless telephone
Correct Answer: 4
Explanation:
In a normal household scenario, an 802.11b wireless LAN may encounter interference from time to
time. Although performance may suffer when the microwave oven or cordless phone is in use, in most
cases you probably won't even notice, unless your microwave and phone are in use all the time.
& 220-702) Chapter 2, 23
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QID: 20401730
Q: A CRT monitor is displaying patches of distortion while in use. Which of the following actions
BEST
resolves this issue?
Answer 1: Reload the driver for the monitor.

Answer 2: Degauss the monitor.
Answer 3: Power cycle the computer.
Answer 4: Replace the display adaptor.
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:
Degauss is a method of erasing magnetic media and the removal of remnants of previously recorded
signals.
& 220-702) Chapter 19
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QID: 20401740
Q: A computer is being sold over the Internet. Which of the following steps should be taken to ensure
that none of the original hard drive data is given to the buyer?
Answer 1: Pass all computer components near a large magnet.

Answer 2: Run FDISK on the hard drive.
Answer 3: Erase the hard drive using a disk wiping program.
Answer 4: Reformat the hard drive to a clean state using the format command.
Correct Answer: 3
Explanation:
If you wish to make sure that information which has been written to disk (such as financial data,
company plans, proposals, etc.) can never be seen again after you remove it then you need a program
with the capabilities of this one. Also, if you sell your old PC you may wish to make sure that all data is
erased
& 220-702) Chapter 11
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QID: 20401750
Q: A printer with an integrated NIC has been connected to a LAN. Which of the following connection
methods is the MOST effective when installing the printer on several PCs?
Answer 1: Connect to it through a computer share

Answer 2: Connect to it through a TCP/IP port
Answer 3: Connect to it via an ad-hoc wireless connection
Answer 4: Connect to it through a USB or IEEE 1394 cable
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:
Printers need an IP address so that they will reliably print to computers on the network.
& 220-702) Chapter 22
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QID: 20401760
Q: Management has approved the purchase of uninterruptible power supplies (UPSs) for all
workstations. Which of the following is the MOST important factor for a technician to consider when
in determining which UPS to purchase?
Answer 1: Amount of time necessary for the UPS to run in a power outage.
Answer 2: The physical footprint of the UPS.
Answer 3: The number and size of all applications running on each workstation.
Answer 4: The amount of space available at each workstation to place the UPS.
Correct Answer: 1
Explanation:
The consequence of equipment failure is the single most important factor determining the type of UPS
to purchase. The first step in selecting the right UPS involves performing an electronic triage
assessment of the importance or value of the processes and hardware to be protected.
& 220-702) Chapter 17
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QID: 20401770
Q: A user reports that the print jobs from a color inkjet printer appear fuzzy. Which of the following
options would BEST help troubleshoot the problem?
Answer 1: Power cycle the printer.

Answer 2: Send a test page to the printer.
Answer 3: Run an alignment page.
Answer 4: Replace all of the print cartridges.
Correct Answer: 3
Explanation:
If the printed output of an inkjet printer appears fuzzy, there are a variety of steps which can be taken to
resolve the issue, as iterated below:
1. Ensure the proper type of paper is being used for the printer. Some paper contains non-
printable sides or is too thick for a printer.
2. Check the printer settings are configured appropriately.
3. Check the resolution of the image or text from the source being printed.
4. Align the cartridges
Power cycling the printer will not resolve fuzzy print, neither will sending a test page to the printer.
Replacing all of the print cartridges may resolve the issue, but this would be costly and may not be
required.
& 220-702) Chapter 22
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QID: 20401780
Q: Which of the following draws too much power and should never be plugged into a UPS?
Answer 1: Laser printer

Answer 2: Laptop computer
Answer 3: LCD monitor
Answer 4: Server
Correct Answer: 1
Explanation:
Laser printers utilize a lot of power, more specifically the fuser utilizes short but huge amounts of
power. This can quickly overpower a UPS and exceed standard load levels. Therefore, a laser printer
should never be powered by a UPS.
All other devices listed are perfect for a UPS.
& 220-702) Chapter 2
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QID: 20401790
Q: Which of the following command line tools would be BEST to use if a technician wants to see if a
printer is on the network?
Answer 1: ipconfig
Answer 2: ping
Answer 3: telnet
Answer 4: msconfig
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:
Explanation: Another useful connectivity troubleshooting tool is PING, which stands for packet
Internet groper. The PING command sends out four 32-byte packets to a destination and waits for a
reply. It can also use a DNS hostname. If you cannot make a connection to the remote host, you will
get back the following:
Request timed out.
Request timed out.
Request timed out.
Request timed out
& 220-702) Chapter 15
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QID: 20401800
Q: Which of the following authentication technologies provides security to a corporate environment
MOST commonly via the PCMCIA interface on a laptop?
Answer 1: Username
Answer 2: Key fob
Answer 3: Smart cards
Answer 4: Biometrics
Correct Answer: 3
Explanation:
Cryptographic smart cards are often used for single sign-on. Most advanced smart cards are equipped
with specialized cryptographic hardware that let you use algorithms such as RSA and DSA on board.
Today's cryptographic smart cards are also able to generate key pairs on board, to avoid the risk of
having more than one copy of the key (since by design there usually isn't a way to extract private keys
from a smart card).
Such smart cards are mainly used for digital signature and secure identification. The most common way
to access cryptographic smart card functions on a computer is to use a PKCS#11 library provided by
the vendor. On Microsoft Windows platforms the CSP API is also adopted. The most widely used
cryptographic algorithms in smart cards (excluding the GSM so-called "crypto algorithm") are Triple
DES and RSA. The key set is usually loaded (DES) or generated (RSA) on the card at the
personalization stage.
& 220-702) Chapter 16, 26
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QID: 20401810
Q: Which of the following is the proper way to enter the Windows Advanced options menu?
Answer 1: Midway through Windows loading, power cycle the system.

Answer 2: Press F8 after POST but before Windows begins to load.
Answer 3: Edit the config.sys file that is located on the root directory.
Answer 4: Enter System Configuration Utility and select Startup Menu.
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:
Advanced Startup Options:
In addition to performing a regular boot into the OS of your choice, you can make additional selections
for advanced startup options. In Windows, you access the options by pressing the F8 key when you’re
presented with the list of Oss installed on the computer. If you don’t have the system configured to
display the list of Oss (for example, if you have only one OS installed), press F8 when a message on
the screen tells you that you can do so. In most cases you will be able to just boot into your OS without
worrying about the advanced options. Occasionally, though, problems may arise. If you have a problem
that makes it difficult to get Windows up and running, the advanced options offer a number of useful
tools. The options are not identical on the various versions of Windows.
& 220-702) Chapter 14
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QID: 20401820
Q: Starting Windows XP in Safe Mode will cause which of the following to occur? (Select TWO).
Answer 1: Windows will not save any file changes while is Safe Mode.
Answer 2: Windows prevents successful boot and logon from updating Last Known Good
Configuration.
Answer 3: Windows XP will scan all drivers and services to make sure they are all approved and safe
to run during boot.
Answer 4: Windows XP starts basic networking to allow for updating of drivers from the Internet.
Answer 5: Windows XP uses the minimum set of drivers and services to start the GUI.
Explanation:
Safe Mode Starts Windows Vista, XP, or 2000 using only basic files and drivers (mouse, except serial
mice; monitor; keyboard; mass storage; base video; default system services; and no network
connections). Once in Safe Mode, you can restore files that are missing or fix a configuration error.
& 220-702) Chapter 14
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QID: 20401830
Q: A technician has been asked to assist with the disposal and recycling of the old computers. Which of
the following is a BEST practice to ensure that the companys data is protected?
Answer 1: Repartition the hard drive.

Answer 2: Use a low level format.
Answer 3: Use the format command.
Answer 4: Use the fdisk command.
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:
Low-level formatting is the process of outlining the positions of the tracks and sectors on the hard disk,
and writing the control structures that define where the tracks and sectors are. This is often called a
"true" formatting operation, because it really creates the physical format that defines where the data is
stored on the disk. The first time that a low-level format ("LLF") is performed on a hard disk, the disk's
platters start out empty. That's the last time the platters will be empty for the life of the drive. If an LLF
is done on a disk with data on it already, the data is permanently erased (save heroic data recovery
measures which are sometimes possible).
& 220-702) Chapter 16, 26
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QID: 20401840
Q: Which of the following locations BEST describes the correct placement of thermal compound?
Answer 1: On the outside of a heat sink

Answer 2: In the socket of a component
Answer 3: On top of a component
Answer 4: Between a component and a heat sink
Correct Answer: 4
Explanation:
What’s The Use of Thermal Grease?
The device used to remove the processors heat is the cooler. Each processor requires a specific type of
cooler. The use of an inefficient or wrongly dimensioned cooler can cause overheating problems. But
the cooler alone doesn’t solve the overheating problem. There’s another bad guy in the story: heat
transfer between the processor and the cooler. From the microscopical point of view, the physical
contact between the processor and the cooler isn’t perfect. Imperfections that exist both on processor
surface and cooler surface prevent the 100% perfect contact between them.
As both surfaces aren’t perfectly even, minuscule gaps of air are formed when putting them together.
As air is a terrible heat conductor (its conductibility coefficient is 0.026 W/m°K), the heat will pass
with more difficulty from the processor to the cooler, which can result in overheating. To solve the
problem and improve the heat transfer between the processor and the cooler, we should apply thermal
grease between them in order to fill in the tiny gaps of air. By doing so, the heat transfer between the
processor and the cooler is more easily made, since the thermal grease has higher conductibility
coefficient than the air.
& 220-702) Chapter 9
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QID: 20401850
Q: On which of the following interfaces should a technician expect to see status light indicators?
(Select TWO).
Answer 1: IEEE 1394

Answer 2: PS/2
Answer 3: Parallel
Answer 4: NIC
Answer 5: Modem
Answer 6: Modem
Explanation:
Status Light Indicators
Most hardware devices have status light indicators that can help you identify when there is a problem.
Obviously, when you power on a system you expect the power light to come on. If it doesn’t you have
a problem. The same holds true for other external devices such as wireless routers, external hard drives,
and printers. In situations where the power light doesn’t come on and the device has no power, always
obey the first rule of troubleshooting:
check your connections first!

Beyond power indicators, several types of devices have additional lights that can help
you troubleshoot. If you have a hub, switch, or other connectivity device, you should have an indicator
for each port that lights up when there is a connection. Some devices will give you a green light for a
good connection, and a yellow or red light if it detects a problem. A lot of connectivity devices will
also have an indicator that blinks or flashes when traffic is going through the port. Sometimes it’s the
same light that indicates a connection, but other times it’s a separate indicator. If you have a device
with lights and you’re not sure what they mean, it’s best to check the manual or the manufacturer’s
website to learn.
& 220-702) Chapter 17, 25
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QID: 20401860
Q: Which of the following commands will partition a hard disk on a Windows XP computer?
Answer 1: convert
Answer 2: fdisk
Answer 3: chkdsk
Answer 4: format
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:
Before you install your operating system, you must first create a primary partition on the hard disk
(disk 1) on your computer, and then format a file system on that partition. The Fdisk tool is an MS-
DOS-based tool that you can use to prepare (partition) a hard disk. You can use the Fdisk tool to create,
change, delete, or display current partitions on the hard disk, and then each allocated space on the hard
disk (primary partition, extended partition, or logical drive) is assigned a drive letter. Disk 1 may
contain one extended partition, and a second hard disk may contain a primary or extended partition. An
extended partition may contain one or more logical MS-DOS drives.
After you use the Fdisk tool to partition your hard disk, use the Format tool to format those partitions
with a file system. The file system File Allocation Table (FAT) allows the hard disk to accept, store,
and retrieve data. Windows 95 OEM Service Release 2 (OSR2), Windows 98, Windows 98 Second
Edition, Windows Millennium Edition (Me), and Windows 2000 support the FAT16 and FAT32 file
systems. When you run the Fdisk tool on a hard disk that is larger than 512 megabytes (MB), you are
prompted to choose one of the following file systems:
& 220-702) Chapter 14
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QID: 20401870
Q: Which of the following is the FASTEST way for a technician to find out a users computer name in a
Windows 2000 environment?
Answer 1: Right click on My Computer > Properties > Computer Name Tab
Answer 2: Right click on My Computer > Properties > Network Identification Tab
Answer 3: Control Panel > System Applet > Properties > Advanced Tab
Answer 4: Control Panel > System Applet > Properties > Computer Name Tab
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:
How to find the computer name.
1. Right-Click on the "My Computer" Icon which is on your Windows Desktop; then select
properties
2. Select the appropriate tab for your operating system.
Windows NT - Select the "General" tab and use the "Computer name" field.
Windows 2000 - Select the "Network Identification" tab and use the "Full computer name" field.
Windows XP - Select the "Computer Name" tab and use the "Full computer name" field.
& 220-702) Chapter 14
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QID: 20401880
Q: Which of the following is a type of interference that can adversely affect wireless communications?
Answer 1: RFI
Answer 2: CRT
Answer 3: EMI
Answer 4: ESD
Correct Answer: 1
Explanation:
RFI interference involves the presence of unwanted, interfering RF signals that disrupt normal system
operations. Because of the 802.11 medium access protocol, an interfering RF signal of sufficient
amplitude and frequency can appear as a bogus 802.11 station transmitting a packet. This causes
legitimate 802.11 stations to wait for indefinite periods of time until the interfering signal goes away.
To make matters worse, an interfering signal generally doesn't abide by the 802.11 protocols, so the
interfering signal may start abruptly while a legitimate 802.11 station is in the process of transmitting a
packet. If this occurs, the destination will receive the packet with errors and not reply to the source
station with an acknowledgement. In return, the source station will attempt retransmitting the packet,
adding overhead on the network.
& 220-702) Chapter 2
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QID: 20401890
Q: Which of this following wireless security options is MOST secure?
Answer 1: WEP2 with shared-key authentication

Answer 2: WPA2 with shared-key authentication
Answer 3: WPA with shared-key authentication
Answer 4: WEP with shared-key authentication
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:
The first line of defense for your Wi-Fi network is encryption, which encodes the data transmitted
between your PC and your wireless router. Unfortunately, most routers ship with encryption turned off,
and many users don't turn it on, leaving themselves completely exposed. If you haven't already, enable
your router's encryption, and use the strongest form supported by your network. The Wireless Protected
Access (WPA) protocol and more recent WPA2 have supplanted the older and less-secure Wireless
Encryption Protocol (WEP).
& 220-702) Chapter 16, 24
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QID: 20401900
Q: A technician needs to assign a default subnet mask for a class B network to a network device that
was just installed. Which of the following would the technician use?
Answer 1: 224.0.0.1
Answer 2: 255.0.0.0
Answer 3: 255.255.0.0
Answer 4: 255.255.255.0
Correct Answer: 3
Explanation:
Explanation: IP Default Subnet Masks For Address Classes A, B and C
Subnetting is the process of dividing a Class A, B or C network into subnets, as we've seen in the
preceding topics. In order to better understand how this division of the whole is accomplished, it's
worth starting with a look at how the whole class A, B and C networks are represented in a subnetted
environment. This is also of value because there are situations where you may need to define an
unsubnetted network using subnetting notation.
This might seem like a strange concept if you aren't going to bother creating subnets, why do you need
to consider how the old-fashioned classes are used under subnetting? The answer is that after
subnetting became popular, most operating systems and networking hardware and software were
designed under the assumption that subnetting would be used. Even if you decide not to subnet, you
may need to express your unsubnetted network using a subnet mask.
In essence, a non-subnetted class A, B or C network can be considered the “default case” of the more
general, custom-subnetted network. Specifically, it is the case where we choose to divide the host ID so
that zero bits are used for the subnet ID and all the bits are used for the host ID. I realize that this seems
like a bit of a semantic game. However, this default case is the basis for the more practical subnetting
we will examine in the next topic.
Just as is always the case, the subnet mask for a default, unsubnetted class A, B or C network has ones
for each bit that is used for network ID or subnet ID, and zeroes for the host ID bits. Of course, we just
said we aren't subnetting, so there are no subnet ID bits! Thus, the subnet mask for this default case has
1s for the network ID portion and 0s for the host ID portion. This is called the default subnet mask for
each of the IP address classes.
Since classes A, B and C divide the network ID from the host ID on octet boundaries, the subnet mask
will always have all ones or all zeroes in an octet. Therefore, the default subnet masks will always have
255s or 0s when expressed in decimal notation.
& 220-702) Chapter 23
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QID: 20401910
Q: A technician must come up with a solution to control multiple computers with a single monitor.
Which of the following is the BEST solution?
Answer 1: Add an infrared connection to all computers.

Answer 2: Add a USB hub to each computer.
Answer 3: Add a KVM switch to the technicians computer.
Answer 4: Add a Bluetooth connection to all computers.
Correct Answer: 3
Explanation:
KVM Switch:
A KVM switch isn’t an input device, but it allows you to switch between sets of input devices. The
KVM switch is named after the devices it allows you to switch between or among sets of. The initials
stand for keyboard, video, and mouse. KVM switches come in a variety of models. You can select the
switch that accommodates the type of interfaces your components require. For example, your keyboard
and mouse might attach with mini-DIN connectors or with USB connectors; your monitor might attach
with a VGA or DVI connector.
The purpose of the switch is to allow you to have multiple systems attached to the same keyboard,
monitor, and mouse. You can use these three devices with only one system at a time. Some switches
have a dial that you turn to select which system attaches to components, while others feature buttons
for each system connected. Common uses of KVM switches include using the same components
alternately for a desktop computer and a laptop docking station or having a server room with multiple
servers but no need to interface with them simultaneously.
& 220-702) Chapter 18
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QID: 20401920
Q: Which of the following, when locally connected, can be used as a boot device to install a new
installation of Windows Vista? (Select TWO).
Answer 1: Serial Cable

Answer 2: CD-ROM
Answer 3: USB drive
Answer 4: Floppy drive
Answer 5: DVD-ROM
Explanation:
It sound a bit rare to hear people install Windows Vista on Flash Memory ya. Actually, The concept is
simple by using flash memory drive to act as the Windows Vista installation DVD disk only. But
installing Windows Vista from a high speed USB flash drive perhaps is the easiest & fastest way to
complete a Windows Vista install which nowadays every computer or laptop have a USB drive.
Meanwhile, This is much faster than using a DVD, gigabit Ethernet, or possibly even some external
USB 2.0 hard drives, due to differences in access speed & transfer rate.
& 220-702) Chapter 14
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QID: 20401930
Q: A user receives the message The security log on this system is full. Only an administrator can log on
and fix this problem. The administrator should use which of the following to fix this issue?
Answer 1: Event Viewer

Answer 2: SECPOL.MSC
Answer 3: Windows Security Center
Answer 4: SECEDIT.EXE
Correct Answer: 1
Explanation:
Microsoft Windows operating systems include an Event Viewer that records computer occurrences
regarding security, hardware and software changes. Even though this maintenance helper manages
details continually, you must clear it out occasionally because once the event log capacity is full, the
Event Viewer stops recording. After you've reviewed incidents, you can back them up or delete them.
The steps below will teach you how to clear the Event Viewer quickly, making room for the freshest
logs of the day.
Select "Control Panel" from the Start menu. Next, select "Performance and Maintenance" >
"Administrative Tools" > "Event Viewer."
Highlight the desired log from the Microsoft Management Console listing.
Select "Action" > "Clear All Events" from the toolbar menu.
Select "Yes" to save the event log.
Name your file and select "Text (tab delimited) (*.txt)" file as the "Save As Type." (Note: You can
easily import this type of file into other applications later, should you decide to do so.)
& 220-702) Chapter 17
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QID: 20401940
Q: In which of the following does the level 1 (L1) cache reside?
Answer 1: BIOS
Answer 2: RAM
Answer 3: RAID
Answer 4: CPU
Correct Answer: 4
Explanation:
Level 1 or L1 cache is special, very fast memory built into the central processing unit (CPU) to help
facilitate computer performance. By loading frequently used bits of data into L1 cache, the computer
can process requests faster. Most computers also have L2 and L3 cache, which are slower than L1
cache but faster than Random Access Memory (RAM).
When we request programs or files from a standard platter hard drive, the device must search the
internal disks for the information by sliding a head mechanism across the platters, roughly analogous to
the way a needle reads a phonograph record. However, in the case of a disk drive, there are multiple
platters and the head is magnetic, reading at a very high rate of speed. Nevertheless, the standard hard
drive is the slowest storage device on the computer, compact disk drives aside.
We normally think of RAM as being quite fast because it is so much faster than hard drives. RAM is a
temporary holding area that becomes active when the computer boots. Computers commonly have 1-4
Gigabytes (GB) of RAM. By loading frequently requested programs, files, pictures and other items into
RAM, the computer doesn’t have to search the hard drive(s) to retrieve the information on subsequent
requests.
While this is a good strategy, the CPU can work faster than RAM, and to speed things along, you might
think of L1, L2 and L3 cache as the go-betweens that anticipate what requests will be made of RAM,
holding that data at the ready. When a request comes, the CPU checks L1 cache first, followed by L2
and L3 cache (if present). If the CPU finds the requested data in cache, it’s a cache hit, and if not, it’s a
cache miss and RAM is searched next, followed by the hard drive. The goal is to maximize hits and
minimize misses that slow performance.
While L1 cache is built into CPUs today, it might also reside alongside the CPU on older PCs. L2
cache can be built into the CPU or present on the motherboard, along with L3 cache. In some cases L3
cache is also being incorporated into the CPU. Unlike RAM, cache is not expandable.
& 220-702) Chapter 5
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QID: 20401950
Q: A user calls and reports that after the cleaning crew left they started hearing beeping from under
their desk. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause?
Answer 1: A new security update is available for download.

Answer 2: The default printer is out of paper or offline.
Answer 3: The speaker wires were disconnected while cleaning.
Answer 4: The UPS is disconnected from the wall.
Correct Answer: 4
Explanation:
The UPS is designed to protect your connected hardware from surges or depressions in the power
supply, or its complete failure. When the power fails or browns out, the UPS will beep to indicate a
lack of power to charge the batteries and change over to battery power to support your attached
equipment. Have a look at your manual. It is usually possible to stop the beeping using the buttons on
the front of the UPS. However, when the beeping returns it is probably to alert you to the fact that the
batteries are almost out of power and the server will be shutting down sometime soon. The low battery
alarm usually cannot be silenced.
& 220-702) Chapter 17
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QID: 20401960
Q: Which of the following network connections uses an analog signal?
Answer 1: Wireless
Answer 2: Dial-up
Answer 3: Cable
Answer 4: Satellite
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:
Any computer that connects to the Internet using a dial-up connection needs a modem, or
modulator/demodulator. A modem is a device that converts digital signals from a computer into analog
signals that can be transmitted over phone lines and back again.
& 220-702) Chapter 23
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QID: 20401970
Q: Which of the following input/output protocols is commonly associated with the DB-9 port?
Answer 1: RS-422
Answer 2: RS-232
Answer 3: IEEE 1284
Answer 4: IEEE 1394
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:
Because PCs first used DB25 connectors for their serial and parallel ports, when the PC serial port
began to use 9-pin connectors, they were often called "DB9" instead of DE9, due to the lack of
understanding that the "B" represented a shell size. It is now common to see DE9 connectors sold as
"DB9" connectors. DB-9 is nearly always intended to be a 9 pin connector with an E size shell.
The widest application of D-subs is for RS-232 serial communications, though the standard did not
make this connector mandatory. RS-232 devices originally used the DB25 25-pin D-sub, but for many
applications the less common signals were omitted, allowing a DE9 9-pin D-sub to be used. The
standard indicates a male connector for terminal equipment and a female connector for modems, but
many variations exist. IBM PC compatible computers tend to have male connectors at the device, while
modems have female connectors.
& 220-702) Chapter 9
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QID: 20401980
Q: Which of the following versions of Windows includes Windows Media Center functions?
Answer 1: Windows Vista Home Basic

Answer 2: Windows XP Professional
Answer 3: Window Vista Home Premium
Answer 4: Windows Vista Business
Correct Answer: 3
Explanation:
Windows Media Center (codenamed "Freestyle" during development) is an application with a 10-foot
user interface designed to serve as a home-entertainment hub for the living-room TV. It is included in
Windows XP Media Center Edition, which must be installed as an operating system, as the application
cannot be added to an existing installation of XP. It is also included in premium editions of Windows
Vista (Vista Home Premium and Vista Ultimate) and Windows 7 (all editions, except Starter and Home
Basic).
& 220-702) Chapter 14
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QID: 20401990
Q: A technician is setting up a lab with fourteen wired PCs and one switch in a physical star network
configuration. Which of the following should the technician keep in mind when setting up the lab?
Answer 1: Cable management to avoid trip hazards

Answer 2: Electrical safety with the extra network cables
Answer 3: Location of the PCs with respect to each other
Answer 4: Number of fans located in the room so system does not overheat
Correct Answer: 1
Explanation:
Cables are a common cause of tripping. If at all possible, run cables through drop ceil-
ings or through conduits to keep them out of the way. If you need to lay a cable through a trafficked
area, use a cable floor guard to keep the cables in place and safe from crushing. Floor guards come in a
variety of lengths and sizes (for just a few cables or for a lot of cables).
& 220-702) Chapter 2
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QID: 20402000
Q: After upgrading to Vista a user notices a clock, calendar, and several other items on their display. If
they want to add more gadgets, which of the following features should they research?
Answer 1: BitLocker
Answer 2: Defender
Answer 3: Sidebar
Answer 4: User Account Control (UAC)
Correct Answer: 3
Explanation:
A sidebar is a form of auxiliary menu which can be found at the edge of a web page or application,
with many operating systems also using sidebars as a form of menu for desktop navigation. Sidebars
can contain a wide variety of information, and they are often designed to be configurable by the user so
that he or she can keep commonly used tools and information in an easily accessible site. Sidebars may
be located to the left or the right of the main application, depending on the taste of the user and the
language he or she works in.
For applications, a sidebar can hold a number of commonly used tools and provide a form of
navigation. Instead of having to enter drop down menus at the top of the application, a user can quickly
grab a tool he or she needs. For example, in a photo editing program, sidebars might contain a range of
commonly used tools, with the user potentially having the option to put favorite tools in the sidebar and
remove infrequently used tools. Some sidebars are collapsible, allowing the user to hide the menu when
it is not in use to avoid visual distractions.
& 220-702) Chapter 14
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QID: 20402010
Q: A technician hears a sound that resembles a ticking clock coming from a system. Which of the
following is MOST likely causing the sound?
Answer 1: Under powered fan

Answer 2: Failed fan
Answer 3: System clock feature
Answer 4: Failing hard drive
Correct Answer: 4
Explanation:
The difficulty with trying to figure out what problems a hard drive has is that there's so much that can
go wrong with a hard drive. Nevertheless, there are some telltale signs that can give you a better idea of
what you're dealing with. Here's a guide to diagnosing hard drive failures and a few notes on what you
can do.
Head Crash
The symptoms of a head crash usually include some sort of physical noise. Users commonly refer to a
clicking or the "click of death", a whirring, hissing, or some other sound that you wouldn't normally
expect. Listen with your ear to the drive for any unusual noise, and try plugging the drive into an
alternate source of power to see if it spins up better
& 220-702) Chapter 17
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QID: 20402020
Q: Which of the following BEST describes the function of a DNS server?
Answer 1: Secures network traffic through shared key encryption.

Answer 2: Provides resolution of host names to IP addresses.
Answer 3: Provides security for a network through the use of ACLs.
Answer 4: Dynamically assigns IP addresses for easy client configuration.
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:
In computing, a name server (also spelled nameserver) consists of a program or computer server that
implements a name-service protocol. It maps a human-recognizable identifier to a system-internal,
often numeric, identification or addressing component. For example, on the Internet, a special case of
name servers, so called Domain Name System (DNS) servers, are used to translate a hostname or a
domain name to its corresponding binary identifier or vice versa.
& 220-702) Chapter 23
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QID: 20402030
Q: A technician is examining a laptop that is booting up but not showing the laptop display. When the
technician plugs in an external monitor the display shows on the monitor but still not on the laptop
display. Which of the following should the technician do FIRST to resolve this issue?
Answer 1: Replace the video card inside the laptop.

Answer 2: Replace the LCD inverter.
Answer 3: Make sure the laptop display is enabled.
Answer 4: Make sure the OS has the latest video drivers installed.
Correct Answer: 3
Explanation:
There should be a Fn - Fx hotkey for video. Exactly which F key varies between manufacturers. Have a
look at the icons on your F keys
Typically pressing this key combination will cycle between:

Laptop screen only.
External display only.
Laptop and external display together.
and back to Laptop screen only.
Give the system a few seconds between key presses to let it sort itself out.
& 220-702) Chapter 17, 21
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QID: 20402040
Q: Where can a technician find information relating to common problems or concerns on a Windows
XP computer?
Answer 1: Right-click My Computer > Help and Support

Answer 2: Start > Help and Support
Answer 3: Start > Programs > Accessories > System Tools > Help and Support
Answer 4: Right-click Taskbar > Help and Support
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:
The Help and Support Center in the Windows® XP operating system represents a significant milestone
in delivering a single resource for Online Help, support, tools, how to articles, and other resources.
Extensive Online Help is accessible via Search, the Index, or the table of contents. Plus it's easy to get
Help from an online Microsoft support professional, trade questions and answers with other Windows
XP users on Windows newsgroups, or use Remote Assistance to have a friend, co-worker, or Helpdesk
professional assist you.
& 220-702) Chapter 17
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QID: 20402050
Q: Which of the following is indicated when a yellow question mark appears next to a device on the
Device Manager list?
Answer 1: The component is disabled.

Answer 2: The component is not installed.
Answer 3: The components driver is outdated.
Answer 4: The components driver is not found.
Correct Answer: 4
Explanation:
The yellow exclamation mark provides an indication of a device's current status and could mean that
there is a system resource conflict, a driver issue, or any number of other things. The yellow mark itself
doesn't give you any valuable information but what it does do is confirm that a Device Manager error
code has been generated. To fix whatever problem is going on, you'll need to view this code and
troubleshoot accordingly.
& 220-702) Chapter 14
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QID: 20402060
Q: Which of the following would be the BEST device to replace a hub?
Answer 1: Switch
Answer 2: Modem
Answer 3: Bridge
Answer 4: Router
Correct Answer: 1
Explanation:
Switches provide centralized connectivity just as hubs do (usually on twisted-pair Ethernet networks),
and they often look similar, so it’s easy to confuse them. However, switches don’t pass along
everything they receive on one port to every other port as hubs do. Rather, switches examine the Layer
2 header of the incoming packet and forward it properly to the right port and only that port. This greatly
reduces overhead and thus performance as there is essentially a virtual connection between sender and
receiver.
& 220-702) Chapter 23
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QID: 20402070
Q: Which of the following I/O devices can be daisy chained together, but has to be terminated at the
last device?
Answer 1: USB
Answer 2: SCSI
Answer 3: Serial
Answer 4: Parallel
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:
Multiple devices can be attached to a SCSI bus. How many devices depends on the type of SCSI. SCSI
devices communicate across a SCSI bus, which is often implemented in the form of a SCSI adapter
card or a SCSI port on the system board. In most cases, the SCSI adapter supports both internal and
external SCSI devices.
These internal and external SCSI devices communicate across a common SCSI bus (unless the
adapter's manufacturer states otherwise). This is important to know because SCSI allows you to daisy-
chain multiple devices together. While the hardware itself will not stop you from daisy-chaining
together an infinite number of SCSI devices, the SCSI bus will only support a certain number of
devices.
Knowing how to set SCSI IDs is essential to making a chain of SCSI devices work correctly.
There are several different flavors of SCSI, and the actual number of devices that can be attached to a
SCSI bus depends on the SCSI type. Most modern SCSI buses support a total of 16 devices, while
older SCSI implementations usually support only eight devices.
& 220-702) Chapter 11
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QID: 20402080
Q: How many pins does a VGA Connector have?
Answer 1: 9
Answer 2: 15
Answer 3: 25
Answer 4: 40
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:
The term Video Graphics Array (VGA) refers specifically to the display hardware first introduced with
the IBM PS/2 line of computers in 1987,[1] but through its widespread adoption has also come to mean
either an analog computer display standard, the 15-pin D-subminiature VGA connector or the 640×480
resolution itself. While this resolution has been superseded in the personal computer market, it is
becoming a popular resolution on mobile devices.[citation
& 220-702) Chapter 19
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QID: 20402090
Q: Which of the following are characteristics of a secure password? (Select TWO).
Answer 1: Obscure word in a dictionary

Answer 2: Contained in a text file
Answer 3: Contains AES encryption
Answer 4: Contains numbers and letters
Answer 5: Contains special characters
Explanation:
Password Management:
One of the strongest ways to keep a system safe is to employ strong passwords and educate your users.
To be strong, passwords should include upper- and lowercase letters, numbers, and other characters as
allowed (which characters are allowed may differ based upon the operating system). Users should be
educated to understand how valuable data is and why it is important to keep their password strong,
secret, and regularly changed.
& 220-702) Chapter 16, 26
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QID: 20402100
Q: A user wants to add an additional network connection to their laptop. Which of the following bus
slots will a laptop MOST likely have available to support a new NIC?
Answer 1: SATA
Answer 2: AGP
Answer 3: SODIMM
Answer 4: PCMCIA
Correct Answer: 4
Explanation:
The PC Card bus was developed in 1989 by the PCMCIA (Personal Computer Memory Card
International Association, which is the name sometimes given to the bus) consortium in order to extend
current peripheral equipment connectivity on mobile computers.
PCMCIA peripheral equipment comes in the shape of a credit card (54mm by 85 mm) and has a 68-pin
connector.
There are three form factors that correspond to three standard thicknesses:
Type I cards are generally used as memory expansion cards. Type II cards are generally for peripheral
communication equipment (modem, network card, wireless network card) and small hard drives. Type
III cards, much thicker, are generally used for peripheral equipment with mechanical elements (large
capacity hard drives).
& 220-702) Chapter 9
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QID: 20402110
Q: Which of the following power supply standards was developed to provide a better way to plug into
the motherboard?
Answer 1: ATX
Answer 2: AT
Answer 3: PC/XT
Answer 4: ACL
Correct Answer: 1
Explanation:
AT-style computer cases had a power button that was directly connected to the system computer power
supply (PSU). The general configuration was a double-pole latching mains voltage switch with the four
pins connected to wires from a four-core cable. The wires were either soldered to the power button
(making it difficult to replace the power supply if it failed) or blade receptacles were used.
An ATX power supply does not directly connect to the system power button, allowing the computer to
be turned off via software. However, many ATX power supplies have a manual switch on the back to
ensure the computer is truly off and no power is being sent to the components. With this switch on,
energy still flows to the components even when the computer appears to be "off." This is known as
soft-off or standby and can be used for remote wake up through Wake-on-Ring or Wake-on-LAN, but
is generally used to power on the computer through a front switch.
& 220-702) Chapter 9
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QID: 20402120
Q: When a job fails to print, where would a technician go in Windows to print out a test page?
Answer 1: From the printers drivers

Answer 2: Manually on the printer
Answer 3: From the printer properties page
Answer 4: From the administrative tools applet
Correct Answer: 3
Explanation:
Print a Test Page
Windows has a built-in function for doing just that. To print a test page, right-click on the printer you
installed from within the Printer control panel and click Properties. On the General tab of the printer
Properties there will be a Print Test Page button. Click that button, and Windows will send a test page
to the printer. If the page prints, your printer is working. If not, double-check all of your connections.
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
QID: 20402130
Q: Which of the following ports are commonly used for outgoing email?
Answer 1: NNTP
Answer 2: TELNET
Answer 3: SMTP
Answer 4: HTTP
Correct Answer: 3
Explanation:
Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) is an Internet standard for electronic mail (e-mail) transmission
across Internet Protocol (IP) networks. SMTP was first defined in RFC 821 (STD 15),[1] and last
updated by RFC 5321 (2008)[2] which includes the extended SMTP (ESMTP) additions, and is the
protocol in widespread use today. SMTP is specified for outgoing mail transport and uses port 25.
While electronic mail servers and other mail transfer agents use SMTP to send and receive mail
messages, user-level client mail applications typically only use SMTP for sending messages to a mail
server for relaying. For receiving messages, client applications usually use either the Post Office
Protocol (POP) or the Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP) to access their mail box accounts on a
mail server.
& 220-702) Chapter 23
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QID: 20402140
Q: Which of the following protocols are commonly used for Windows Remote Desktop?
Answer 1: NTP
Answer 2: PPTP
Answer 3: RDP
Answer 4: LDAP
Correct Answer: 3
Explanation:
Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) is a proprietary protocol developed by Microsoft, which concerns
providing a user with a graphical interface to another computer. The protocol is an extension of the
ITU-T T.128 application sharing protocol.Clients exist for most versions of Microsoft Windows
(including Windows Mobile), Linux, Unix, Mac OS X and other modern operating systems. By default
the server listens on TCP port 3389.
& 220-702) Chapter 17
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QID: 20402150
Q: Which of the following transmission types allows for a NIC to send and receive data
simultaneously?
Answer 1: Half duplex

Answer 2: Port mirroring
Answer 3: Full duplex
Answer 4: Port forwarding
Correct Answer: 3
Explanation:
A full-duplex, or sometimes double-duplex system, allows communication in both directions, and,
unlike half-duplex, allows this to happen simultaneously. Land-line telephone networks are full-duplex,
since they allow both callers to speak and be heard at the same time. A good analogy for a full-duplex
system would be a two-lane road with one lane for each direction.
& 220-702) Chapter23
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QID: 20402160
Q: Which of the following network devices helps prevent data collision by not allowing data to be
broadcast?
Answer 1: Hub
Answer 2: Modem
Answer 3: Bridge
Answer 4: Switch
Correct Answer: 4
Explanation:
In the context of a standard 10/100 Ethernet switch, a switch operates at the data-link layer of the OSI
model to create a different collision domain per switch port. If you have 4 computers A/B/C/D on 4
switch ports, then A and B can transfer data between them as well as C and D at the same time, and
they will never interfere with each others' conversations. In the case of a "hub" then they would all
have to share the bandwidth, run in Half duplex and there would be collisions and retransmissions.
Using a switch is called micro-segmentation. It allows you to have dedicated bandwidth on point to
point connections with every computer and to therefore run in Full duplex with no collisions.
& 220-702) Chapter 23
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QID: 20402170
Q: Which of the following network devices interconnects workstations and broadcasts the data that is
being transmitted?
Answer 1: Switch
Answer 2: Modem
Answer 3: Router
Answer 4: Hub
Correct Answer: 4
Explanation:
A network hub, or repeater, is a fairly unsophisticated network device. Hubs do not manage any of the
traffic that comes through them. Any packet entering a port is broadcast out or "repeated" on every
other port, except for the port of entry. Since every packet is repeated on every other port, packet
collisions result, which slows down the network.
& 220-702) Chapter 23
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QID: 20402180
Q: Which of the following is a difference between a local printer and a network printer?
Answer 1: A local printer has a small footprint and cost less money than a network printer that has a
large footprint.
Answer 2: Local printers are situated in a common area shared by one department in the same office
while network printers are always installed in enterprise environments where there are several offices
in different buildings sharing the device.
Answer 3: Network printers can be connected directly to a network while a local printer is connected
directly to a users computer.
Answer 4: A maximum of two computers can share a local printer verses unlimited users can share a
network printer.
Correct Answer: 3
Explanation:
A network printer is shared by more than one computer. A local printer is directly connected to one
computer.
& 220-702) Chapter 22
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QID: 20402190
Q: Which of the following is the difference between a laser printer and an inkjet printer?
Answer 1: Ink jet printers are safe for the environment, while laser printers can be harmful to the
environment.
Answer 2: Laser printers melt the image onto the page, while an inkjet printer fuses the image to the
page.
Answer 3: Laser printers use toner, while the inkjet printer can only use ink cartridges.
Answer 4: Laser printers fuse the image to the page, while an inkjet printer sprays the image on the
page.
Correct Answer: 4
Explanation:
The technology used for inkjet cartridges is simpler and the parts are less expensive than the laser
toners. The black inkjet cartridge has only black ink. The color inkjet printer contains two main ink
cartridges, for black and other primary colors respectively. The primary colors are then divided into
three compartments for cyan, magenta and yellow ink. The primary colors are consequently mixed to
produce all other colors. The cartridge contains a reservoir which has compartments with metal plates
and a number of tiny nozzles on the print head of the cartridge. The number of holes or nozzles
depends on the resolution of the printer. It is usually 21 - 128 nozzles per color. The ink gets heated,
when the current starts flowing through the metal plates, after the print command is given. The heat
causes vapor bubbles to form inside the cartridge and make the ink swell up. The ink then flows out in
droplets from the nozzles onto the paper in a few milliseconds. A vacuum is created (once the ink
droplet flows out) which draws more ink into the nozzles ensuring a steady supply of droplets as
required. This common technique is called Thermal Inkjet and the coinage of the name ‘BubbleJets’ by
Canon has been due to the bubbling vapors.
The Laser toners use a more elaborate and complex technology. A powder called Toner is used by laser
printers, fax machines and photocopiers to print text and images on laser and photo paper. Initially
carbon powder was used but now manufacturers use disposable cartridges which can sometimes be
refilled. For the laser toners, individual carbon particles are mixed in a polymer which melt in heat.
This binds to the fibers in the paper. The laser printers consist of the printer toner and the drum. The
positively charged toner gets attracted to the negatively charged drum. The toner is transferred to the
paper by the drum. The toner contains special wax that melts and dries in milliseconds. When the toner
is transferred, the fuser applies heat and pressure to make a durable image. The fuser system is made up
of the hot-roll and the back-up roller.
The high-end laser printers generally come with networking facilities for you to connect to your
computer network directly. This cuts down additional costs associated with networking, as is the case
with ink printers. The ink printers cannot be linked to a network directly. Networking has to be via a
computer, therefore more expensive.
The laser printers are larger in size than the inkjet printers. The latter is, therefore, space saving and
ideal for the home and small office users.
& 220-702) Chapter 22
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QID: 20402200
Q: A customer reports that while attempting to print a document it seems to queue up fine, but the
printer does not print the job. Which of the following may be the cause?
Answer 1: Outdated or corrupt print driver.

Answer 2: The application used to create the document is incompatible with the printer.
Answer 3: A print job is waiting in the print queue.
Answer 4: Printer configuration is incorrect.
Correct Answer: 3
Explanation:
When you send a job to the printer, that print job ends up in a line with all other documents sent to that
printer. The line of all print jobs is called the print queue. In most cases, the printer will print jobs on a
first-come, first-serve basis. Once you send the job to the printer, a small printer icon will appear in the
system tray in the lower-right corner of your desktop, near the clock. By double-clicking on it (or by
right-clicking on it and selecting the printer name), you will end up looking at the jobs in the print
queue.
& 220-702) Chapter 17
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QID: 20402210
Q: In regards to computer case form factors, which of the following provides the MOST room for
effective cooling?
Answer 1: BTX
Answer 2: ATX
Answer 3: NLX
Answer 4: Micro ATX
Correct Answer: 1
Explanation:
BTX (for Balanced Technology Extended) is a form factor for motherboards, originally slated to be the
replacement for the aging ATX motherboard form factor in late 2004 and early 2005. It has been
designed to alleviate some of the issues that arose from using newer technologies (which often demand
more power and create more heat) on motherboards compliant with the circa-1996 ATX specification.
& 220-702) Chapter 9
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QID: 20402220
Q: In terms of screen resolution, which of the following is the minimum default resolution setting that
Windows XP supports?
Answer 1: 640 x 480

Answer 2: 800 x 600
Answer 3: 800 x 640
Answer 4: 1280 x 920
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:
Windows XP requires a minimum resolution of 800 X 600 for both the monitor and the video adapter.
You can check this out by clicking the "Display" icon on your control panel. Click on the "Settings" tab
and double-check the resolution settings. If the settings are less than 800 X 600, slide the slide the
resolution bar to the right to see if the settings will change to the desired resolution.
& 220-702) Chapter 19
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QID: 20402230
Q: A CD drive is a type of:
Answer 1: solid state drive.

Answer 2: network drive.
Answer 3: optical drive.
Answer 4: hot swappable drive.
Correct Answer: 3
Explanation:
An optical storage device is an electro-mechanical unit that can save and retrieve (write and read)
information on a special disc medium using a laser light. Optical drives are designed to work with
several types of media: CDs ("compact disc"), DVDs (digital versatile disc" or "digital video disc") and
Blu-ray discs.
& 220-702) Chapter 11
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QID: 20402240
Q: The RAID level on a computer system refers to:
Answer 1: how data is distributed between multiple drives.

Answer 2: the number of partitions across multiple hard drives.
Answer 3: the back up tape drive configuration.
Answer 4: number of installed hard drives.
Correct Answer: 1
Explanation:
RAID" is now used as an umbrella term for computer data storage schemes that can divide and
replicate data among multiple hard disk drives. The different schemes/architectures are named by the
word RAID followed by a number, as in RAID 0, RAID 1, etc. RAID's various designs involve two
key design goals: increase data reliability and/or increase input/output performance. When multiple
physical disks are set up to use RAID technology, they are said to be in a RAID array[3]. This array
distributes data across multiple disks, but the array is seen by the computer user and operating system
as one single disk. RAID can be set up to serve several different purposes.
& 220-702) Chapter 9
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QID: 20402250
Q: Which of the following would be an example of an I/O interface?
Answer 1: DIMM chip

Answer 2: IDE drive
Answer 3: AGP slot
Answer 4: PS/2 port
Correct Answer: 4
Explanation:
Short for input/output (pronounced "eye-oh"). The term I/O is used to describe any program, operation
or device that transfers data to or from a computer and to or from a peripheral device. Every transfer is
an output from one device and an input into another. Devices such as keyboards and mouses are input-
only devices while devices such as printers are output-only. A writable CD-ROM is both an input and
an output device. The PS/2 connector is used for connecting some keyboards and mice to a PC
compatible computer system.
& 220-702) Chapter 9
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QID: 20402260
Q: When purchasing an extra AC adapter for a notebook computer, it is important for the output to be:
Answer 1: equivalent to the original power supply wattage.

Answer 2: equal or greater than the original power supply wattage.
Answer 3: auto sensing from 100 to 240 Volts.
Answer 4: equal or lesser than the original power supply wattage.
Correct Answer: 1
Explanation:
Just as the power supply in a desktop computer converts AC voltages to DC for the internal
components to run on, so does the AC adapter of a laptop computer for the laptop’s internal
components. Just as power supplies are rated in watts and selected for use with a specific voltage, so
are AC adapters. One difference is that AC adapters are also rated in terms of DC volts out to the
laptop or other device, such as certain brands and models of printer.
Because both power supplies and AC adapters go bad on occasion, you should replacethem both and
not attempt to repair them yourself. When replacing an AC adapter, be sure to match the size, shape,
and polarity of the tip with the adapter you are replacing. However, because the output DC voltage is
specified for the AC adapter, be sure to replace it with one of equal output voltage, an issue not seen
when replacing AT or ATX power supplies, which have standard outputs. Additionally, and as with
power supplies, you can replace an AC adapter with a model that supplies more watts to the component
because the
component only uses what it needs.
& 220-702) Chapter 17
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QID: 20402270
Q: To run a Microsoft Windows 64-bit OS, the computer must be equipped with which of the
following?
Answer 1: Double the clock speed on a 32-bit processor

Answer 2: Hyper-V technology
Answer 3: Hyper-threading technology
Answer 4: A 64-bit capable processor
Correct Answer: 4
Explanation:
Open Performance Information and Tools by clicking the Start button, clicking Control Panel, clicking
System and Maintenance, and then clicking Performance Information and Tools.
Click View and print details.
In the System section, you can see what type of operating system you're currently running under
System type, and, under 64-bit capable, whether you can run a 64-bit version of Windows. (If your
computer is already running a 64-bit version of Windows, you won't see the 64-bit capable listing.)
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
QID: 20402280
Q: Which of the following connectors is commonly used on CAT3 cable?
Answer 1: RJ-11
Answer 2: BNC
Answer 3: ST
Answer 4: RG-6
Correct Answer: 1
Explanation:
Category 3 cable, commonly known as Cat 3, is an unshielded twisted pair (UTP) cable designed to
reliably carry data up to 10 Mbit/s, with a possible bandwidth of 16 MHz. It is part of a family of
copper cabling standards defined jointly by the Electronic Industries Alliance and the
Telecommunications Industry Association.
Cat 3 is currently still in use in two-line telephone systems
& 220-702) Chapter 23
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QID: 20402290
Q: Which of the following cable types have a single copper wire used for sending and receiving data?
Answer 1: Coaxial
Answer 2: UTP
Answer 3: Fiber
Answer 4: STP
Correct Answer: 1
Explanation:
Coaxial cables use a single copper conductor at the center, insulated by a plastic layer and a braided
metal shield, which blocks interference. Coaxial cables are hard to install, but can support greater cable
lengths than twisted pair.
& 220-702) Chapter 23
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QID: 20402300
Q: Which of the following Internet access types has the GREATEST amount of latency?
Answer 1: Fiber
Answer 2: Satellite
Answer 3: DSL
Answer 4: Cable
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:
Mobile satellite systems help connect remote regions, vehicles, ships, people and aircraft to other parts
of the world and/or other mobile or stationary communications units, in addition to serving as
navigation systems
& 220-702) Chapter 23
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QID: 20402310
Q: Which of the following wireless types uses 5GHz frequency and can transmit data up to 54Mb?
Answer 1: 802.11a
Answer 2: 802.11n
Answer 3: 802.11g
Answer 4: Bluetooth
Correct Answer: 1
Explanation:
802.11a is an amendment to the IEEE 802.11 specification that added a higher data rate of up to 54
Mbit/s using the 5 GHz band.
& 220-702) Chapter 23, 24
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QID: 20402320
Q: Which of the following transmission mediums has the GREATEST speed?
Answer 1: DSL
Answer 2: Cable
Answer 3: Fiber
Answer 4: Satellite
Correct Answer: 3
Explanation:
As a medium for telecommunications, fiber optics is much faster than conventional wire, because it
uses light instead of electricity to send information.
& 220-702) Chapter 23
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QID: 20402330
Q: Which of the following computer infections allows several computers to launch attacks against a
network?
Answer 1: Spyware
Answer 2: Botnet
Answer 3: Spam
Answer 4: Adware
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:
Botnet is a jargon term for a collection of software robots, or bots, that run autonomously and
automatically. The term is often associated with malicious software, but it can also refer to the network
of computers using distributed computing software. While botnets are often named after their malicious
software name, there are typically multiple botnets in operation using the same malicious software
families, but operated by different criminal entities.
& 220-702) Chapter 16, 24
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QID: 20402340
Q: Which of the following malware types captures personal information?
Answer 1: Botnet
Answer 2: Spam
Answer 3: Adware
Answer 4: Spyware
Correct Answer: 4
Explanation:
Spyware is software that collects information from a computer without the user knowing about it
& 220-702) Chapter 16, 24
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QID: 20402350
Q: Which of the following malware types displays pop-up advertisements on a PC wanting a user to
purchase something?
Answer 1: Spam
Answer 2: Spyware
Answer 3: Botnet
Answer 4: Adware
Correct Answer: 4
Explanation:
Adware or advertising-supported software is any software package which automatically plays, displays,
or downloads advertisements to a computer after the software is installed on it or while the application
is being used. Some types of adware are also spyware and can be classified as privacy-invasive
software.
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QID: 20402360
Q: Which of the following malware types sends out email from a clients address book?
Answer 1: Spyware
Answer 2: Adware
Answer 3: Worm
Answer 4: Botnet
Correct Answer: 3
Explanation:
A computer worm is a self-replicating computer program. It uses a network to send copies of itself to
other nodes (computers on the network) and it may do so without any user intervention.
& 220-702) Chapter 16, 24
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QID: 20402370
Q: Which of the following devices would BEST protect the clients equipment from power outages?
Answer 1: Power strip

Answer 2: Uninterruptible power supply
Answer 3: Surge protector
Answer 4: Grounded outlet
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:
An Uninterruptible power supply (UPS), also known as a battery backup, provides emergency power
and, depending on the topology, line regulation as well to connected equipment by supplying power
from a separate source when utility power is not available
& 220-702) Chapter 17
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QID: 20402380
Q: Which of the following boot devices can a Live version of the OS be installed and tested on, without
actually installing it on the workstation?
Answer 1: CD
Answer 2: Floppy
Answer 3: Internal hard drive
Answer 4: Network
Correct Answer: 1
Explanation:
A live CD or live DVD is a CD or DVD containing a bootable computer operating system. Live CDs
are unique in that they have the ability to run a complete, modern operating system on a computer
lacking mutable secondary storage, such as a hard disk drive. Live USB flash drives are similar to live
CDs, but often have the added functionality of automatically and transparently writing changes back to
their bootable medium.
The term "live" derives from the fact that these CDs each contain a complete, functioning and
operational operating system on the distribution medium.
While a live CD typically does not alter the operating system or files already installed on a computer's
hard drive, many live CDs include mechanisms and utilities for altering the host computer's hard drive,
including permanent installation. This is important for the system management aspect of live CDs, such
as removing viruses, drive imaging, and system recovery.
& 220-702) Chapter 14
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QID: 20402390
Q: Which of the following protocols uses port 110 by default?
Answer 1: FTP
Answer 2: HTTPS
Answer 3: SMTP
Answer 4: POP
Correct Answer: 4
Explanation:
Port 110 is used by the POP3 protocol for unencrypted access to electronic mail.
Port 25 is used by the SMTP protocol to send mail
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QID: 20402400
Q: Which of the following is a type of solid state drive?
Answer 1: IDE hard drive

Answer 2: DVD-ROM drive
Answer 3: USB thumb drive
Answer 4: SCSI hard drive
Correct Answer: 3
Explanation:
A USB thumb drive consists of flash memory data storage device integrated with a USB (Universal
Serial Bus). A flash drive may also refer to Solid State Drive
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QID: 20402410
Q: Which of the following motherboards would be installed in a small form factor case?
Answer 1: ATX
Answer 2: Micro ATX
Answer 3: AT
Answer 4: NLX
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:
Small Form Factor is a generic term originally phrased as shuttle form factor, and originally meant to
describe shoebox-sized personal computers with exactly two expansion slots.The initialization "SFF"
was later applied to them. MicroATX motherboards can be used in full-size ATX cases. Furthermore,
most microATX motherboards generally use the same power connectors
& 220-702) Chapter 9
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QID: 20402420
Q: IEEE1394b is capable of transfer rates of up to:
Answer 1: 12Mbps.
Answer 2: 400Mbps.
Answer 3: 480Mbps.
Answer 4: 800Mbps.
Correct Answer: 4
Explanation:
IEEE1394b Firewire module, offers 3 IEEE1394b ports with 100/200/400/800 Mbps of data transfer
bandwidth for the industrial small form factor (SFF) embedded x86-based computing applications.
& 220-702) Chapter 9
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QID: 20402430
Q: The voltage selector on the back of some power supplies allows a technician to select between
which of the following?
Answer 1: 110/120 Volts AC or 220/240 Volts AC

Answer 2: AC or DC Voltage
Answer 3: 6/12 Volts DC or 12/24 Volts DC
Answer 4: 110/120 Volts DC or 220/240 Volts DC
Correct Answer: 1
Explanation:
A computer power supply is a switched-mode supply designed to convert 110/120-20/240 V AC power
from the mains supply, to several output DC voltages in the range + 12V,-12V,+5V,+5VBs and +3.3V.
The first generation of computers power supplies were linear devices, but as cost became a driving
factor, and weight became important, switched mode supplies are almost universal.
& 220-702) Chapter 9
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QID: 20402440
Q: Which of the following is an advantage of using Plenum CAT5 cable when installing a network?
Answer 1: Fire resistant

Answer 2: Lower latency
Answer 3: Increases length of cable
Answer 4: Can be used with VoIP
Correct Answer: 1
Explanation:
Plenum is required when you want fire protection. Plenum grade cables are heat/fire resistant and
generates little toxic smoke when burned.
& 220-702) Chapter 23
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QID: 20402450
Q: A Windows XP workgroup computer can have up to how many concurrent connections?
Answer 1: 10 or fewer
Correct Answer: 1
Explanation:
Only 10 nodes are allowed to enter a Win XP Pro shared folder.
& 220-702) Chapter 23
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QID: 20402460
Q: A customer with a SOHO network reports one computer on the network does not have Internet
access. In addition, the customer reports the NIC link lights for that computer are not on. Which of the
following could be the problem?
Answer 1: Firewall is not working.

Answer 2: Internet site is down.
Answer 3: Network server is not working.
Answer 4: Switch is not working.
Correct Answer: 4
Explanation:
The LNK LED doesn't light.
Make sure you've loaded the network drivers.
Check all connections at the adapter and the hub/switch.
Try another port on the hub/switch.
Make sure the duplex mode setting on the adapter matches the setting on the hub/switch.
Make sure you have the correct type of cable between the adapter and the hub. 100Base-TX requires
two pairs.
Some hubs require a crossover cable while others require a straight-through cable.
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QID: 20402470
Q: After installing a network card, the technician notices a yellow exclamation mark in Device
Manager. Which of the following is the NEXT step?
Answer 1: Remove and replace the network card.

Answer 2: Re-install the OS.
Answer 3: Join the computer to the workgroup.
Answer 4: Update the device driver.
Correct Answer: 4
Explanation:
A yellow exclamation point next to a device in Device Manager means that Windows has identified a
problem of some kind with that device so update the device.
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QID: 20402480
Q: A technician needs to boot a computer with only the basic devices and drivers. Which of the
following boot options will accomplish this?
Answer 1: Boot Mode

Answer 2: Enable Boot Logging
Answer 3: Safe Mode
Answer 4: Debug Mode
Correct Answer: 3
Explanation:
Safe Mode is to use the Safe Boot option to start Windows with a minimal set of drivers. With this
minimal set of drivers, you can modify the registry or load or remove drivers
& 220-702) Chapter 14
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QID: 20402490
Q: After a computer starts it displays an error message NTLDR is missing. Where can the technician
locate the NTLDR files?
Answer 1: NTOSKRNL
Answer 2: OS installation disk
Answer 3: BOOT.INI
Answer 4: NTDETECT.COM
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:
if your computer is using Windows XP and you have a Windows XP installation CD you may be able
to boot from this and use the Recovery Console to fix NTLDR manually.
& 220-702) Chapter 17
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QID: 20402500
Q: When a computer is turned on, which of the following is the FIRST process that runs?
Answer 1: CONFIG.SYS
Answer 2: NTLDR
Answer 3: IO.SYS
Answer 4: POST
Correct Answer: 4
Explanation:
Power-on self-test (POST) is the common term for a computer, router or printer's pre-boot sequence.
The same basic sequence is present on all computer architectures. It is the first step of the more general
process called initial program load (IPL), booting, or bootstrapping. The term POST has become
popular in association with and as a result of the proliferation of the PC.
& 220-702) Chapter 9
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QID: 20402510
Q: A customer reports that a laptop does not start when the power button is pressed. When the laptop is
plugged into an outlet it starts. Which of the following is the BEST solution?
Answer 1: Replace the battery.

Answer 2: Remove the battery.
Answer 3: Replace the power button.
Answer 4: Change power outlets.
Correct Answer: 1
Explanation:
Laptops work on just the AC adapter plugged in to the wall when the battery is bad, it is suggested to
get a new battery eventually so you can turn the power without the AC adapter plugged in.
& 220-702) Chapter 21
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QID: 20402520
Q: A client reports that their laptop will not power off when the power button is pushed. Which of the
following could be the issue?
Answer 1: The MBR

Answer 2: The power-management console
Answer 3: The AC/DC adaptor
Answer 4: The battery
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:
As laptops have gotten smaller, thinner, and lighter, they've had to sacrifice the longer-lasting power
that comes with large batteries. But at the same time, laptop chipsets and processors have gotten
smarter about power management, making the most of these smaller batteries. Windows XP provides
several options to manage the power consumed by your laptop or your desktop.
The Power Options will vary depending on the exact hardware configuration you have. To use Power
Options, the computer must be Advanced Configuration and Power Interface (ACPI)-compliant, which
dictates that all components are capable of power management. If one or more components are not
capable of power management, you might not have ACPI functionality, or you might experience erratic
behavior.
Power Options in Windows XP allow you to control the power management features of:
Your display
Your hard drive
Shut Down, Hibernate, and Stand by
Low battery warnings
Additionally, many laptop manufacturers provide even greater control, giving you more components
and devices, and allowing you to shut off or reduce the power consumption of specific pieces of your
hardware. We can't begin to cover all the options of the various manufacturers and their power
management utilities. In this column, we'll discuss how to use power management in Windows XP.
& 220-702) Chapter 17, 21
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QID: 20402530
Q: A technician installs a new CD-ROM/DVD player into a laptop. The technician powers on the
laptop and the drive is not detected. Which of the following should the technician do NEXT?
Answer 1: Check to see if a disk is present in the drive.

Answer 2: Check the manufacturer's recommended settings.
Answer 3: Check the USB settings for the drive.
Answer 4: Check if the drive is properly plugged in.
Correct Answer: 4
Explanation:
When installing a device, device must be plugged in first so it could be detected.
& 220-702) Chapter 21
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QID: 20402540
Q: A customer reports that a laptop starts running for a few minutes before freezing or shutting down.
Which of the following is the MOST likely issue?
Answer 1: The RAM is not seated properly.

Answer 2: The system is overheating.
Answer 3: The OS is not installed.
Answer 4: Additional memory needs to be installed.
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:
Laptop Overheating Causes Shut Down - Laptop Gets Too Hot And Shuts Itself Off
& 220-702) Chapter 17, 21
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QID: 20402550
Q: Which of the following are examples of common techniques used in social engineering? (Select
TWO).
Answer 1: Requesting public information

Answer 2: Insulting the subject to motivate a response
Answer 3: Assuming a position of authority
Answer 4: Asking passive aggressive questions
Answer 5: Flattery
Explanation:
Social engineering is the act of manipulating people into performing actions or divulging confidential
information. While similar to a confidence trick or simple fraud, the term typically applies to trickery
or deception for the purpose of information gathering, fraud, or computer system access; in most cases
the attacker never comes face-to-face with the victim.
& 220-702) Chapter 16, 26
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QID: 20402560
Q: Social engineering is used to:
Answer 1: acquire unauthorized information to achieve a goal.

Answer 2: to test sociological boundaries with in the company.
Answer 3: to perform a technical risk assessment of employees within the company.
Answer 4: engage in harmless communication.
Correct Answer: 1
Explanation:
Social engineering is the act of manipulating people into performing actions or divulging confidential
information. While similar to a confidence trick or simple fraud, the term typically applies to trickery
or deception for the purpose of information gathering, fraud, or computer system access; in most cases
the attacker never comes face-to-face with the victim.
& 220-702) Chapter 16, 26
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QID: 20402570
Q: Where is the power on password stored?
Answer 1: System RAM

Answer 2: CMOS ROM
Answer 3: Hard Drive
Answer 4: System ROM
Correct Answer: 4
Explanation:
Power-on password authentication is a simple but effective implementation of pre-boot security. In
their simplest form, power-on passwords require a user to enter a password that gets stored in the
system’s non-volatile memory (CMOS). At power-on, the system prompts the user for the stored
password and allows the boot process to continue if the correct password is entered
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QID: 20402580
Q: Full duplex supports transmission of:
Answer 1: printing on both sides of paper one at a time.

Answer 2: printing on both sides of paper simultaneously.
Answer 3: communications in both directions one at a time.
Answer 4: communications in both directions simultaneously.
Correct Answer: 4
Explanation:
A Full duplex communication system is a system composed of two connected parties or devices that
can communicate with one another in both directions
& 220-702) Chapter 23
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QID: 20402590
Q: Which of the following is the definition of telnet?
Answer 1: A tool that allows a user to connect to other computers.

Answer 2: A tool that allows a user to use the workstation as a telephone through the network.
Answer 3: A tool that tells a user of the workstation that they have exceeded their memory quota.
Answer 4: A tool that allows a workstation to tell the network that the workstation is present.
Correct Answer: 1
Explanation:
Telnet (teletype network) is a network protocol used on the Internet or local area networks to provide a
bidirectional interactive communications facility. Typically, telnet provides access to a command-line
interface on a remote host via a virtual terminal connection which consists of an 8-bit byte oriented
data connection over the Transmission Control Protocol (TCP). User data is interspersed in-band with
TELNET control information.
& 220-702) Chapter 15
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QID: 20402600
Q: Which of the following ports is used for telnet, by default?
Answer 1: Port 21
Answer 2: Port 23
Answer 3: Port 25
Answer 4: Port 110
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:
Telnet (teletype network) is a network protocol used on the Internet or local area networks to provide a
bidirectional interactive communications facility. Typically, telnet provides access to a command-line
interface on a remote host via a virtual terminal connection which consists of an 8-bit byte oriented
data connection over the Transmission Control Protocol (TCP). User data is interspersed in-band with
TELNET control information. Telnet in Windows Open a Windows Telnet Session Port 23
& 220-702) Chapter 15
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QID: 20402610
Q: Which of the following is the POP3 port used for?
Answer 1: It pings a workstation from a remote server.

Answer 2: It holds a log of the last three passwords used.
Answer 3: It blocks popup ads.
Answer 4: It retrieves email from the mail server.
Correct Answer: 4
Explanation:
POP3 (Post Office Protocol 3) is the most recent version of a standard protocol for receiving e-mail.
POP3 is a client/server protocol in which e-mail is received and held for you. The eMail client retrieves
eMail from port 110
& 220-702) Chapter 23
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QID: 20402620
Q: Which of the following ports is used by POP3, by default?
Answer 1: Port 21
Answer 2: Port 23
Answer 3: Port 25
Answer 4: Port 110
Correct Answer: 4
Explanation:
POP3 (Post Office Protocol 3) is the most recent version of a standard protocol for receiving e-mail.
POP3 is a client/server protocol in which e-mail is received and held for you. The eMail client retrieves
eMail from port 110
& 220-702) Chapter 23
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QID: 20402630
Q: A workstation has been experiencing intermittent system problems. The user described the problems
as: occasional rebooting, overheating, electric shock felt on computer case, and the hard drive stops
working. Which of the following is the cause?
Answer 1: Processor is going bad

Answer 2: RAM module is faulty
Answer 3: Power supply
Answer 4: UPS not working properly
Correct Answer: 3
Explanation:
Just about any intermittent problem can be caused by a faulty power supply. Common power-related
symptoms include:
Any power-on or system startup failures or lockups

Spontaneous rebooting or intermittent lockups during normal operation
Intermittent parity check or other memory-type errors
HDD and fan simultaneously failing to spin (no +12V)
Overheating due to fan failure
Small brownouts that cause the system to restart
Electric shocks that are felt when the case is touched
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QID: 20402640
Q: Drive thrashing is described as which of the following?
Answer 1: Excessive movement between system memory and virtual memory.
Answer 2: Any damage to a hard drive caused by an intention or unintentional jolt or movement.
Answer 3: A recognized method of disposing hard drives that contain sensitive data.
Answer 4: A method of recovering lost data from a hard disk.
Correct Answer: 1
Explanation:
Disk thrashing considerably slows down the performance of a system because data has to be transferred
back and forth from the hard drive to the physical memory.
& 220-702) Chapter 21
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QID: 20402650
Q: Which of the following can be used as a boot device upon startup? (Select TWO).
Answer 1: Wireless router

Answer 2: USB
Answer 3: Network
Answer 4: Printer
Answer 5: System RAM
Explanation:
When you boot from a USB device, what you're actually doing is running your computer with the
operating system that's installed on the USB device. When you start your computer normally, you're
running with the operating system installed on your hard drive Windows Network booting is the
process of booting a computer from a network rather than a local drive
& 220-702) Chapter 14
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QID: 20402660
Q: Which of the following allows a technician to boot from a special device upon startup?
Answer 1: Function keys (e.g. F9, F12)

Answer 2: Shift + B
Answer 3: Ctrl + Alt + B
Answer 4: Windows Key + B
Correct Answer: 1
Explanation:
Function keys can be used when Setup is loading and when you are prompted to press the F6 function
key to install third-party small computer system interface (SCSI) and host controller drivers:
F5 - For computer type or hardware abstraction layer (HAL) selection
F6 - To install third-party SCSI and host controller drivers
F7 - To run Setup without Advanced Configuration and Power Interface (ACPI)
& 220-702) Chapter 18, 21
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QID: 20402670
Q: A user is calling excessively with computer issues. Which of the following should the technician
do?
Answer 1: Help the user with every issue that they call about and put all other work orders on hold.
Answer 2: Explain to the user they need to fill out a work order for the computer issues.
Answer 3: Ask the user to call another technician for more in-depth assistance.
Answer 4: Ask another technician to take over support for this user.
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:
Effective work order software can provide many benefits for business operations. Infor EAM software
solutions offer versatile work order tracking capabilities as well as a complete Asset Management and
Maintenance Management capabilities. As the most widely-deployed, technically advanced solution for
work order tracking it is easy to see just how much Infor EAM can do for any company.
& 220-702) Chapter 27
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QID: 20402680
Q: Which of the following is a way to get to a command prompt in a Windows XP machine? (Select
TWO).
Answer 1: Start> Run> cmd

Answer 2: Start> Run> Accessories> Command Prompt
Answer 3: Start>Programs>Accessories>Communications> Command Prompt
Answer 4: Start> Programs> Accessories> Command Prompt
Answer 5: Start> Control Panel> Run>cmd
Explanation:
Opening CMD from Windows Explorer You can open a new CMD prompt by choosing START, RUN,
cmd or Select Start -> Programs ->Accessories ->Command Prompt
& 220-702) Chapter 15
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QID: 20402690
Q: A user is trying to print to a network printer; however, every time the user sends a print job to the
printer, it does not print. There are multiple printers in the office, and all other users are able to print to
the printer. Which of the following is the FIRST step that the technician should do?
Answer 1: Confirm the printer name where the user is trying to print.
Answer 2: Restart the print spooler service.
Answer 3: Replace the paper in the printer.
Answer 4: Reboot the workstation and have the user log in again.
Correct Answer: 1
Explanation:
They can be network printers (\\print server\shared printer name) and local printers. Users are required
to confirm the printer before it actually prints.
& 220-702) Chapter 22
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QID: 20402700
Q: Which of the following components is used to connect expansion boards to the motherboard?
Answer 1: PS/2
Answer 2: NIC
Answer 3: Riser card
Answer 4: Chipset
Correct Answer: 3
Explanation:
A riser card is a printed circuit board that picks up a multitude of signal lines (often bussed) via a single
connector (usually an edge connector) on a main board and distributes them via dedicated connectors
on the card.
& 220-702) Chapter 9
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QID: 20402710
Q: A technician is about to use a cleaning solvent. Which of the following places should the technician
look to find the proper handling procedures?
Answer 1: The cleaning label

Answer 2: The manufacturer's documentation
Answer 3: A past technician's documentation
Answer 4: MSDS
Correct Answer: 4
Explanation:
A material safety data sheet (MSDS) is a form containing data regarding the properties of a particular
substance. An important component of product stewardship and workplace safety, it is intended to
provide workers and emergency personnel with procedures for handling or working with that substance
in a safe manner, and includes information such as physical data (melting point, boiling point, flash
point, etc.), toxicity, health effects, first aid, reactivity, storage, disposal, protective equipment, and
spill handling procedures.
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QID: 20402720
Q: After changing the toner cartridge on a printer, which of the following is the BEST way to dispose
of the old cartridge?
Answer 1: Dispose in an incinerator.

Answer 2: Store in an air-tight container.
Answer 3: Put the toner into a sealed bag and then throw into the garbage.
Answer 4: Return to the manufacturer for recycling.
Correct Answer: 4
Explanation:
Contact the cartridge manufacturer or seller. A majority of cartridge manufacturers have plans in place
on recycling old and used cartridges and they will accept it.
& 220-702) Chapter 2
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QID: 20402730
Q: When applying the security settings to a network, which of the following is the MINIMUM number
of
failed login attempts before a user is locked out?
Answer 1: One
Answer 2: Three
Answer 3: Seven
Answer 4: Nine
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:
The three strikes login policy is used to prevent computer password attacks. The policy creates a
condition where a user must wait a period of time before making more login attempts that fail. For
example, a policy could dictate 3 failed attempts followed by a 180 second penalty
& 220-702) Chapter 16, 24
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QID: 20402740
Q: The foil shielding on a STP cable is there to:
Answer 1: prevent damage from weather.

Answer 2: provide protection from heat.
Answer 3: assist with data transmission.
Answer 4: prevent outside interference.
Correct Answer: 4
Explanation:
Twisted pair cabling is a type of wiring in which two conductors (the forward and return conductors of
a single circuit) are twisted together for the purposes of canceling out electromagnetic interference
(EMI) from external sources; for instance, electromagnetic radiation from Unshielded Twisted Pair
(UTP) cables, and crosstalk between neighboring pairs.
& 220-702) Chapter 23
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QID: 20402750
Q: A network that has no server controlling the computers is known as a:
Answer 1: LAN
Answer 2: domain.
Answer 3: WAN.
Answer 4: workgroup.
Correct Answer: 4
Explanation:
A Workgroup may refer to. a peer-to-peer Windows computer network. See Workgroup (computer
networking) a group of people working together toward a common goal
& 220-702) Chapter 23
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QID: 20402760
Q: A user reports that their CD-Rom is not reading a disc. What should be the BEST first step to
resolve this issue?
Answer 1: Make sure that the disc is a CD and not a DVD.

Answer 2: Ensure that the CD drive is installed.
Answer 3: Check to see if the BIOS register the drive.
Answer 4: Check to see if the CD-Rom is compatible hardware.
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:
Verify that the CD-ROM drive is installed using the manufacturer's specifications
& 220-702) Chapter 11

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Exam(s): Final

Exam Name: A+ Essentials

Answer 1: Flash memory used to hold temporary files before deletion.

Answer 1: 16-bit card

Answer 1: Heat from the printhead boils a water-based ink.

Answer 1: Use non-technical terms.

Answer 1: The access point is next to a speaker

Answer 1: To allow the power supply to operate at different voltages

Answer 1: The system cannot connect to the network.

Answer 1: An alert at logon when an unknown user has tried to logon

Answer 1: Case fan

Answer 1: MSCONFIG was used to execute the win.ini file.

Answer 1: Debugging Mode

Use Last Known Good Configuration if:

Answer 1: Windows Vista Basic

Answer 1: Riser cards

Answer 1: PXE Boot Rom

Answer 1: Event Viewer

Answer 1: Windows XP Media Center Edition

Answer 1: A new security update is available for download.

Answer 1: has two error correcting and checking units.

Answer 1: Power supply warming or cooling

Answer 1: net use \\ComputerName\ShareName/persistent:NO :F

NET USE /Persistent:Yes

Answer 1: Run a power supply test.

Answer 1: Malicious software that is self-replicating and self-propagating

Answer 1: The fuser unit is defective.

Answer 1: TV tuner card

Answer 1: Use non-technical terms.

Answer 1: Add an exception to the firewall for the program.

Answer 1: Space reserved by the drive manufacturer for firmware.

Answer 1: remaining hard disk storage space.

Answer 1: Debugging Mode

Answer 1: Remove the CMOS battery.

Answer 1: Use appropriate function toggle key to switch display mode.

Answer 1: Press the F8 Key

Answer 1: Upgrade the video card.

Answer 1: Right click on My Computer and select Manage.

Answer 1: Run a full system backup.

Answer 1: Try installing the device to a different port or slot.

Answer 1: Start>Settings>Control Panel>Sounds and Audio Devices>Audio

Answer 1: The system does not have enough RAM installed.

Answer 1: 9-pin D-shell

Answer 1: Provides access to larger hard drive partitions.

Answer 1: PC card adapters

Answer 1: Memory mismatch.

Answer 1: Lower cost

Answer 1: Smart card

LC and SC connectors are used to connect to fiber optic networks.

Answer 1: reserved IP address.

Answer 1: Start > Control Panel > System

Answer 1: Impact printer

Answer 1: Was there a power outage since yesterday?

Answer 1: Filters incoming voltage spikes and surges.

Answer 1: MAC filtering

Answer 1: Debugging Mode

Answer 1: Add Hardware Wizard.

Answer 1: Increased RFI

Answer 1: Logical token

Answer 1: Run a full system backup.

Answer 1: Gigabit Ethernet

Answer 1: Hard disk failure or operating system needs to be reloaded.