QUESTIONAIRE FOR MATERIALS ENGINEERS' EXAMINATION

A. SOILS

1) The different tests for soil classification are:(a) compaction and FDT (b)
hydrometer test and moisture content (c)grading, LL & PL test.

2) The apparatus/equipment used in the liquid limit and plastic limit tests:
(a) sieves and chisel (b) mortar and pestle (c) Atterberg's device and glass plate

3) Method of laboratory sampling:

(a) by mixing (b) by proportion (c) by mechanical splitter/quartering

4) In laboratory compaction test/moisture density relations of soil, what is the

specification rammer?
(a) 10 lbs (4.5 kgs) in wt. With 18 inches drop (b) 8 lb. (3.6 kgs) in wt. With 16
inches drop (c) 5.5 (2.5 kgs) with 12 inches drop.

5) What is the specifications for mass percent passing on sieve 0.075 mm (No. 200)
Grading "A" for aggregate base course?
(a) 2 - 14 (b) 0 - 6 (c) 0 - 12

B. CONCRETE

1. The number of specimen samples in testing concrete hollow blocks.

(a) 6 pieces/20,000 units (for 3 absorption tests and 3 for strength test)
(b) 4 pieces/20,000 units
(c) 8 pieces/20,000 units

2. It is really necessary to cure concrete specimen.

(a) yes (b) no (c) none of the two

3. The kind of test that test the consistency of concrete?

(a) slump test (b) abrasion test (c) specific gravity

4. What is the dimension of concrete cylindrical sample?

(a) 6" Ø and 12" high (b) 8"Ø and 14" high (c) 4"Ø and 8" high

5. In the absence of concrete beam molds at the project site, are concrete cylindrical
molds allowed by specifications to be used in sample for item 311 - PCCP?
(a) yes (b) no (c) maybe

C. SPECIFICATIONS

1. The minimum percent compaction for embankment.

(a) 90 % (b) 95% (c) 97%

2. The minimum percent compaction for base of the road.

(a) 100% (b) 1.5% (c) 110%

3. The CBR value of aggregate base course is not less than

(a) 80% (b) 85% (c) 90%

4. The CBR value of aggregate subbase course is not less than

(a)25% (b) 30% (c) 35%

The minimum compressive strength for class A concrete is

(a) 3000 psi (20.7 Mpa) (b) 2400 psi (16.5 Mpa) (c) 5000 psi (37.7 Mpa)

MISCELLANEOUS CONSTRUCTION MATERIALS

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Significance in the determination of the tensile properties of the reinforcing steel bars.
This method is intended to determine the yield and tensile strength of the bar as well as
its elongation, and is used to classify the bars into its grade.
This method is intended to evaluate the ductile properties of the reinforcing bars.
None of the above.

A tie bar should be

(a) deformed bar (b) round bar (c) flat bar

A dowel bar shall be

(a) deformed bar (b) plain round bar (c) flat bar

Mortar for masonry shall consist of

(a) one part portland cement and two parts sand (b) one part portland cement and
three parts sand (c) one part portland cement and four parts sand

MISCELLANEOUS QUESTIONS

If the soil consist mostly of fine-grains soil, what test must be conducted to determine
each grain size?

Sieve analysis and hydrometer test.

1. Significance in calibrating the sand in the field density test.

To determine the unit weight of sand which will be used in determining the
volume of the hole.

2. Difference between PL and LL and its significance.

The liquid limit (LL) is the moisture content in which soil closes at 25 blows
while the plastic limit (PL) is the moisture content where soil thread breaks or
crumbles at 1/8 inch diameter.

Significance: It indicates the amount of clay.

3. What is Plasticity Index (PI)?

PI is the numerical difference between the LL and PL.

4. Significance of compaction test..

This is to determine the maximum dry density (MDD) and the optimum moisture
content (OMC).

5. Difference between AASHTO T-180 and T-99.

The weight of the rammer used in T-180 is 10 lbs. (4.54kgs) while in T-99 is 5.5
lbs. (2.5 kgs).

6. If there are larger than 3/4 inch materials to be used for compaction test, what
remedy would you do?

Discard or disregard materials larger than 3/4 inch and replace it with and equal
volume which passes 3/4 in. of the sieve.

7. Border line between gravel and sand and between coarse and fine-grained sand.

Borderline between gravel and sand is sieve no. 10.

Borderline between coarse and fine-grained sand is sieve no. 200
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8. How can you determine whether the batch weights obtained from design mix shall
be adopted?

If the strength requirement is met after testing the trial mix, then the design mix
shall be adopted.

9. If the soil consists mostly of fine-grained soils, what test must be conducted to
determine its grain size?

Sieve analysis and hydrometer tests are to be conducted to determine its grain
size.

10. What test must be conducted to determine the consistency of concrete?

Slump test checks the consistency of concrete.

11. What specimens are required for paving concrete?

Concrete beam samples are required for paving concrete.

12. If the plasticity index o soil is 15% and specifications required PI of 4 to 9, what
will you do?

Blend materials from sources with lower PI, then test it again using PL and LL to
determine whether it passes the required specs.

13. Name the three general types/group of soil.

a. Coarse-grained soil - sand and gravel

b. Fine-grained soil - silt and clay
c. Organic soil - peat and muck

14. What is the significance of field density test?

It is the control test in embankment construction to ensure adequate compaction.

15. What is the difference between the hygroscopic miosture content and natural
moisture content?

Hygroscopic moisture content (HMC) is a moisture in an air dried soil while

natural moisture content (NMC) is a moisture in an oven dried soil.

16. What do you mean by job-mix formula?

a. grading of aggregates
b. percentage of asphalt in the mix
c. temperature of aggregates and asphalt
d. temperature of mixture at the time of compaction

% tolerance of asphalt is plus or minus 4

Tolerance of temperature of mix is plus or minus 15 degrees centegrade.

17. How does the water-cement ratio affect concrete strength?

The lower the water-cement ratio, the higher the concrete strength and the higher
the water-cement ratio, the lower the concrete strength.

18. The apparatus used to measure the thickness or height of compacted bituminous
paving mixture
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 (a) ruler (b) Vernier Caliper (c) steel tape

19. It is used in calculating the unit weight of the mixture and the degree of
compaction of the asphalt pavement.

(a) Bulk Specific gravity of compacted bituminous mixtures using saturated

surface dry specimens
(b) Dry unit weight of compacted bituminous mixtures
(c) Mass of the specimen in water.

20. The test which covers the quantitative determination of the bitumen in hot-mixed
paving mixtures and pavement samples for specification acceptance, service
evaluation, control and research.

(a) extraction (b) spot test (c) Flash point

21. The solvent used in extraction of bitumen.

(a) Diesel Oil (b) Gasoline (c) Water

23. The percent of bitumen content is computed based on

(a) by mass of raw sample (b) by mass of dry aggregate (c) by mass of asphalt

24. The method is used to determine the grading of aggregates extracted from
bituminous mixtures.

(a) mechanical analysis of extracted aggregates (b) Stability test

(c)viscosity

25. The drying temperature of samples

(a) 110 +/- 5 degrees centigrade (b) 100 +/- degrees cent. (c) 100 deg. Cent.

26. It is a solid asphalt which is a basic constituent of all other asphalt called as hot
asphalt or penetration grade asphalt.

(a) Asphalt cement (b) Emulsified asphalt (c) Cutback asphalt

27. It is a kind of liquid asphalt which is a mixture of asphalt cement and oil

(a) slow curing cutback (b) emulsified asphalt (c) blown asphalt

28. It is a find of liquid asphalt which is a mixture of asphalt cement and kerosene

(a) Medium curing cutback (b) Asphalt cement (c) Rapid curing cutback

29. It is a kind of liquid asphalt which is a mixture of asphalt cement and gasoline.

(a) Rapid curing cutback (b) Blown asphalt (c) joint filler

30. Asphalt is defined as

(a) A petroleum product

(b) A dark brown to black cementitious materials whose consistency ranges from
solid to semi-solid and whose main constituent is called bitumen which is
either found in nature or as residue in petroleum refining.
(c) None of the above.

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31. A kind of liquid asphalt which is a mixture of asphalt cement and water with
emulsifier with pungent odor.

(a) Emulsified asphalt (b) asphalt cement (c ) rapid curing cutback

32. A joint filler in concrete pavement is a

(a) blown asphalt (b) Hot asphalt (c) liquid asphalt

33. A device use to measure to measure the relative hardness of asphalt

(a) Penetrometer (b) Spectometer (c) Vicat Apparatus

34. A property of Asphalt cement to stretch without breaking.

(a) Ductility (b) Durability (c) Tensile

35. A point where the volatile component of asphalt will evaporate.

(a) Fire point (b) Flash point (c) Center point

36. Determines whether asphalt is overheated or not during the process of

manufacture.

(a) Spot test (b) Boil Test (c) Extraction test

37. Apparatus used in the specific gravity of asphalt.

(a) Metal Pycnometer (b) Glass Pycnometer (c) Any bottle

38. Consistency test on asphalt

(a) Viscosity (b) Slump test (c) loss in heating

39. Volatilization test which measures the relative proportion of asphalt to oil.

(a) Distillation (b) extraction (c) Float test

40. Measurement wherein asphalt begins to melt

(a) softening point (b) boiling point (c) fire point

41. The sampling requirement for asphalt is

(a) 1 sample for every 200 drums or 40 M. T.

(b) 1 sample for every 100 drums
(c) 1 sample for every shipment

42. The component of bituminous mixes which range from 92 to 96 %

(a) Bituminous blended aggregates (b) Concrete aggregates (c) sand

43. It is a property of bituminous mixes in pavement, a resistance to deformation or

displacement due to an impose load or repeated loading.

(a) stability (b) flexibility (c) hardness

44. A property of bituminous mixes in pavement, a resistance to disintegration or

deterioration due to the action of water, traffic and changing climate.

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 (a) Durability (b) flexibility (c) Ductility

45. A property of bituminous mixes in pavement, the ability to adjust itself to the
settlement.

(a) flexibility (b) Rigidity (c) Hardness

46. Factors affecting workability of bituminous mixes.

(a) gradation of aggregate, quality of asphalt, and temperature of mix.

(b) surface texture and temperature of mix
(c) quantity of aggregates and asphalt cement.

47. In the immersion-compression stability test, the molded sample has a diameter of
4 inches and the height is 4 inches of which the wet molded asphalt sample is
submerged in water for
(a) Four days (b) four hours (c) two days
48. The dry molded asphalt sample in the immersion compression test is submerged
in water for

(a) 24 hours (b) six hours (c) 12 hours

49. The percent index retention is computed in the formula

(a) Wet stability/dry stability x 100

(b) Dry stability/wet stability x 100
(c) Wet stability - dry stability/dry stability x 100

50. The sampling requirement of bituminous mixes is

(a) one sample for every 75 m,³

(b) one sample for every 150 m³
(c) one sample per delivery per day

51. The application of liquid asphaltic material on a prepared untreated base is

(a) Prime coating (b) seal coating (c) tack coating

52. The application of liquid asphaltic material to an existing surface of a base

(a) Tack coat (b) Prime coat (c) seal coat

53. The application of liquid asphaltic material and aggregate to an existing surface
for the purpose of sealing it against the infiltration of water or surface moisture.

(a) seal coat (b) tack coat (c) prime coat

54. The rate of application of prime coating using cutback asphalt is

(a) 1 to 2 li/m² (b) 0.5 to 1 li/m² (c) 2 to 3 li/m²

55. The prime coat shall be left undisturbed for at least

(a) 24 hrs. (b) 12 hrs. (c) 6 hrs.

56. The rate of application of tack coating using liquid or emulsified asphalt is

(a) 0.2 to 0.7 li/m² (b) 0.1 to 0.5 li/m² (c) 2 li/m²

57. The rate of application of seal coat using asphalt cement is

(a) 0.9 to 1.8 li/m² (b) 10 to 11 li/m² (c) 8 to 9 li/m²

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58. The rate of application of seal coat using cutback asphalt is

(a) 1.5 to 3.0 li/m² (b) 2.0 to 3.0 li/m² (c) 1.0 to 2.0 li/m²

59. The primary quality control mechanism for the production of asphalt mixes with
high degree of uniformity that will satisfy job requirements.

(a) Job-mix formula (b) quality control formula (c) assurance

60. The objective of designing the asphalt mixture is determination of

(a) Type and grade of asphalt, proportion of coarse, fine and mineral filler, if used
and asphalt content.
(b) To produce a desirable characteristics of pavements which are stable, durable,
flexible and skid resistant.
(c) All of the above.

61. The percent asphalt content in the hot laid bituminous mixtures ranges from

(a) 5 to 8 percent (b) 4 to 6 percent (c) 5 to 10 percent

62. Placing temperature for bituminous mixture measured in the truck prior to
dumping.

(a) at least 107 °C (b) 120 °C (c) 150 °C

63. The first phase of rolling the spread bituminous mixture is called breakdown,
Rolling which is carried out by steel-wheeled rollers. The temperature
requirement is

(a) 220 to 225 °F (b) 190 to 199 °F (c) 160 to 180 °F

64. The second phase of rolling the spread bituminous mixture is called intermediate,
rolling which is the one responsible to attain the maximum density. The rolling is
carried out by the use of

(a) pneumatic roller (b) steel roller (c) sheepsfoot roller

65. The significance of final rolling is to remove the roller marks to previous rolling
in order to have a good finish pavement with a temperature of 160 °F.

(a) True (b) false (c) maybe

66. The proper way of rolling should begin at

(a) The sides and proceeds longitudinally toward the roads center, each strip
overlapping on-half the roller width, gradually progressing the crown of the
road.
(b) The center and proceeding longitudinally toward the side of the road.
(c) Any part of the road provided each strip overlapping on-half the roller width.

67. What is the minimum degree of compaction of asphalt pavement?

(a) Not less than 95% of the density of the laboratory compacted specimens.
(b) Not less than 100% of the density of the laboratory compacted specimens.
(c) Not less than 85% of the density of the laboratory compacted specimens.

68. What is the color of asphalt when it is overcooked.

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 (a) yellowish brown (b) black (c) gray

69. How many gradation ranges for hot plant mix bituminous pavements are there in
the blue book?

(a) Seven (b) six (c) five

70. What is the plasticity index of mineral filler?

(a) not greater than 4 (b) not greater than 8 (c) zero

71. Determines the thickness and density of compacted asphalt pavement.

(a) Core test (b) Field density test (c) X-ray

72. A core sample of asphalt pavement is measured at
(a) approximately quarter points (b) three points (c) two points

73. If no core has been taken at the end of each day's operation, and the project has
already been completed, a core shall be taken,

(a) for every 100 L.M./ lane of fraction thereof

(b) for every 200 L. M./lane or fraction thereof
(c) for every 100 L. M. on both lane

74. Too much asphalt content on the bituminous mixes causes

(a) bleeding (b) potholes (c) cracks

75. The wearing away of the pavement surface caused by dislodging of aggregate
particle

(a) raveling (b) alligator crack (c) rutting

76. Interconnected cracks forming a series of small block resembling an alligator's

skin or chicken wire.

(a) alligator cracking (b) reflection cracking (c) bleeding

77. The type of cement to be used in DPWH infrastructure projects as indicated in the
Blue Book.

(a) Portland Cement Type I (b) Pozzolan Cement (c) Portland Cement type II

78. If the fine aggregates is subjected to five cycles of sodium sulfate soundness test,
the weight loss should not exceed

(a) 10 mass percent (b) 5 mass percent (c) 3 mass percent

79. It the coarse aggregates is subjected to five cycles of sodium sulfate soundness
test, the weighted loss shall not exceed

(a) 12 mass percent (b) 15 mass percent (c) 10 mass percent

80. Mass percent of wear of coarse aggregates for item 311 when tested by AASHTO
T 96 is not greater than

(a) 40 % (b) 45 % (c) 50 %

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81. The design of concrete mix specified by the blue book is based on

(a) Absolute Volume Method (b) Area Method (c) American Method

82. The minimum flexural strength requirement of beam sample when tested by third
point loading method

(a) 3.5 Mpa (b) 3.8 Mpa (c) 4.0 Mpa

83. The minimum flexural strength requirement of beam sample when tested by
midpoint loading method

(a) 4.5 Mpa (b) 3.5 Mpa (c) 5.0 Mpa

84. The additives used in mixing concrete

(a) sodium chloride (b) admixtures (c) curing agent

85. Determines the consistency of concrete

(a) slump test (b) consolidation test (c) viscosity

86. Equipment used in consolidation of fresh concrete

(a) jack hammer (b) vibrator (c) drilling machine

87. The prescribed form to be used on concrete paving

(a) steel (b) wooden (c) combination of steel and wood

88. The initial setting time of portland cement is not less than

(a) 30 min. (b) 60 min. (c) 90 min.

89. the final setting time of portland cement I

(a) 10 hrs (b) 24 hrs (c) 36 hrs

89. The standard sand used in testing the mortar strength of portland cement

(a) ottawa sand (b) beach sand (c) river sand

91. The apparatus used in determining the fineness of portland cement by air
permeability

(a) Blaine Air Permeability Apparatus (b) Sieve No. 200 (c) Gillmore
92. A mixture of cement and water is called

(a) Cement paste (b) mortar paste (c) concrete paste

93. The apparatus used to determine the initial and final setting of cement in the
laboratory

(a) Gillmore needles (b) bailey needles (c) vicat apparatus

94. The compressive strength of cement mortar samples in seven days is not less than

(a) 19.3 Mpa (b) 20 Mpa (c) 24 Mpa

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95. What is the appearance of molded cement paste which fails to meet the autoclave
expansion.

(a) crumble (b) shiny (c) change color

96. The dimension of beam sample for paving concrete.

(a) 6" x 6" x 21" (b) 6" x 6" x 24" (c) 4" x 4" x 18"

97. The critical number of days of curing concrete.

(a) first seven days (b) first 10 days (c) 28 days

98. The standard dimension of concrete cylindrical sample.

(a) 6" Ø and height of 12"

(b) 6" Ø and height of 6"
(c) 6" Ø and height of 8"

99. There are two layer in performing sampling of beam samples. How many number
of blows are required per layer?

(a) 63 blows (b) 75 blows (c) 35 blows

100. The formula which determines the proportion of the mix which can meet the
desired strength requirement of concrete.

(a) design of concrete mix (a) Boyle's Formula (c) Bernoulli's Formula

101. The minimum testing requirement for every project is indicated in a duly
approved

(a) quality control program (b) program of work (c) work sched.

102. It is prescribed in each project based on estimated quantites and specifies the kind
and number of test for each item of work.

(a) minimum number o work (b) minimum testing requirement (c) work
sched.

103. Embankment materials delivered at the jobsite was about 12,000 m³. The
minimum test requirement calls for 1-G, P, C for every 1.500 m³. What is the
number of minimum test?

(a) 10 GPC (b) 8 GPC (c) 6 GPC

104. There is 1-Q of cement required for every

(a) 4000 bags or fraction thereof (b) 2.000 bags of fraction thereof (c) 10,000
bags

105. There is 1-Q of steel bars required for every

(a) 20,000 kg (b) 10,000 kg or fraction thereof (c) 15,000 kg or faction thereof

106. How many set of beam samples taken for every 75 m³ of concrete poured pe day?

(a) one set (b) two sets (c) three sets

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107. In a completed pavement, what is the minimum core samples required before
payment is affected? (assuming that the thickness is 23 cm)

(a) Five holes per km. Per lane (b) one hole per km per lane (c) P. E.
certificate

108. In a barangay road, what is the minimum requirement for thickness determination
of its completed pavement?
(a) five holes per km. Per lane (b) P. E. Certificate (c) one hole

109. A quality test is one of the minimum requirement for item 200-aggregate
subbase course.

(a) true (b) false (c) optional

110. There is no CBR for item 300-aggregate surface course.

(a) true (b) false (c) optional

111. In item 311 and 405, grading is performed

(a) for every 75 m³ or fraction thereof (b) for every 300 m³ (c) none

112. For pipe culverts and storm drains, the minimum test is 1-pipe for every 50 pcs.
What is the alternative requirement?

(a) 1-set consisting of 3 concrete cylinder samples for not more 25 pipes cast in
the field and 1-inspection report for each size for not more than 25 pcs cast in
the field.
(b) Inspection report is enough
(c) Mill certificate

113. The minimum test requirement for paint is

(a) 1-sample for every 100 cans or fraction thereof

(b) 1-sample for every 50 cans or fraction thereof
(c) mill certificate

114. The minimum test requirement for water used in concrete for a questionable
source is

(a) P. E. certificate (b) 1-quality test (c) Inspection report

115. The minimum quantity of cement for testing

(a) 10 kg. (b) 1 sack (c) 5 kg

116. The minimum quantity of sample for asphalt mix for a complete test

(a) 20 kg (b) 10 kg (c) 15 kg

117. The minimum quantity of steel pipe (galvanized) samples for testing

(a) 2 pcs. Of 100 mm long taken from ends without thread

(b) one piece of 100 m long from one end with thread.
(c) 2 pieces of 50 pieces long taken from both ends

118. The minimum quantity of concrete cylinder samples for testing

(a) one set of three cylinders (b) one set of 4 cylinders (c) one cylinder
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119. The minimum number of core for asphalt pavement

(a) one core for every 100 meters (b) 1-core for every km. (c) none

120. The type of sample to be tested for structural steel/sheet.

(a) reduced section as prescribed (b) square (c) circular

121. The minimum volume of water sample for analysis

(a) 500 ml (b) 500 li. (a) 500 mm

122. The Minimum volume of curing compound for testing.

(a) 1 li. (b) 1 drum (c) 1 gal.

123. The length of wire ( strand wire strap ) sample for testing.

(a) 2 meters (b) 2 feet (c) 2 cm.

124. The dimension of gabion sample for testing.

(a) 1m X 2m (b) 1 ft. X 2 ft. (c) 1 m X 1m

125. The minimum quantity of CHB samples for complete test.

(a) 6 units (b) 10 units (c) 8 units
126. The quantity of soil aggregate for classification test.

(a) 20 kg. (b) 10 kg. (c) 30 kg.

127. The quantity of soil aggregate for Moisture - Density Test.

(a) 50 kg. (b) 20 kg. (c) 30 kg.

128. The quantity of joint filler (pre-molded) sample for testing

(a) 1-400 mm x 400 mm (b) 1-400 cm x 400 cm (c) 1-400 m x 400 m

129. The size of steel bar sample for testing.

(a) 1 meter (b) 2 meter (c) 12 inches

130. The minimum test requirement for boulders.

(a) Inspection Report (b) Abrasion Test (c) Grading

SOIL ENGINEERING

1. In soil engineering the term "soil" includes

(a) sand and gravel (b) mud and muck (c) both "a" and "b" (d) neither "a" nor
"b"

2. Clay can be distinguished from silt by

(a) dilatancy test (b) plasticity test (c) both "a" and "b" (d) neither "a" nor "b"

3. The particle size distribution of a sandy gravel is determined by

12
 (a) hydrometer test (b) sieve test (c) dilatancy test (d) any of the preceding
test

4. The Atterberg's limits tests are performed on the soil fraction passing sieve no.

(a) 4 (b) 16 (C) 40 (d) 200

5. Disturbed soil samples may be used for

(a) sieve test (b) liquid limit test (c) compaction test (d) any of the preceding
test

6. Optimum water content of a soil is determined by

(a) compaction test (b) field density test (c) either "a" or "b" (d) neither "a" nor
"b

7. An undisturbed soil sample is needed for

(a) consolidation test (b) direct shear test (c) both "a" and "b" (d) neither "a" nor
"b

8. Liquid limit is numerically

(a) less than plastic limit (b) greater than shrinkage limit (c) either "a" or
"b"
(d) neither "a" nor "b"

9. Moisture content of soil is generally based on

(a) total weight of soil (b) weight of solids (c) density (d) degree of
saturation.

10. A-7 soils have a higher Group Index than A-1 soils

(a) true (b) false (c) it depends on the gradation of soils

11. Sandy soils have a higher plasticity index than clayey soils

(a) true (b) false (c) it depends on the moisture of soil

12. The best soils for a road subgrade would have a group index of

(a) less than 5 (b) 5 to 10 (c) 11 to 15 (d) 16 to 20

13. The porosity of a soil which has a void ratio of one (1) is

(a) 50% (b) 80 % (c) 75% (d) 25%

14. Upon what depends the density to which any soil can be compacted?

(a) moisture content (b) compactive energy (c) both (a) and (b)
(e) neither (a) nor (b)

15. Which void ratio will you prefer for a soil after compaction in the road

(a) 1/4 (b) 1/2 (c) 3/4 (d) 1

16. The degree of compaction of a rolled subgrade is determined by

(a) compaction test (b) density test (c) consolidation test

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 (d) compression test

17. For a given compactive energy, the maximum density of a soil is obtained when its
water content is:

(a) at the optimum amount (b) lower than the optimum (c) higher than the
optimum (d) almost zero

18. which percent silt and clay content would you prefer for base course of an asphalt
road?

(a) 5 (b) 25 (c) 50 (d) 75

19. The porosity of a certain soil will increase if there is an increase in the void ratio.

(a) true (b) false (c) it depends on the moisture content

20. If 95% of a soil passes the no. 200 sieve, its particle size distribution is best
determined by;

(a) hydrometer test (b) sieve test (c) either a or b (d) niether a nor b

21. The density of a certain soil will increase if the void ratio decreases.

(a) true (b) false (c) it depends on porosity

22. A soil which is classified A-7 by the Highway Research Board Method will have a
subgrade rating of

(a) excellent (b) good (c) fair (d) poor

23. Which plasticity index would you prefer for the base course of a Portland cement
concrete pavement?

(a) less than 6 (b) 6 to 9 (c) 10 to 12 (d) more than 1

24. The standard compaction test on predominantly fine-grain soils is performed on soil
fraction passing sieve no.?

(a) 200 (b) 40 (c) 16 (d) 4

25. The flow curve obtained when liquid limit test results are plotted on semi-log scale is
in the form of;

(a) straight line (b) arc (c) parabola (b) hyperbola

26. The soil particles remaining in suspension one hour after sedimentation starts in
hydrometer test will be predominantly;

(a) clay (b) silt (c) silty sand (d) sand

27. The opening of a no. 4 sieve is bigger than the opening of a 1/4 sieve;

(a) true (b) false (c) they are the same

28. What is the effect of increasing the compactive effort in compacting a soil?

(a) higher density (b) lower optimum water content (c) both a and b
(e) neither a nor b

29. Sand has a greater load carrying capacity than clay.

14
 (a) true (b) false (c) it depends on water content (d) it depends on
gradation.

30. The most commonly used method of soil exploration is;

(a) core boring (b) plate bearing (c) electrical resistivity (d) load test

QUALITY CONTROL

1. Moisture content of soil is generally based on

(a) degree of saturation (b) weights of solids (c) total weight of soils

2. Sandy soils have higher plasticity index than clayey soils

(a) true (b) false (c) it depends on size distribution

3. A fine-grained soil will decrease in volume if water content decreases while the
soil is in the;

(a) plastic state (b) semi-solid state (c) both of the preceding

4. The imperical number used in the design is;

(a) plasticity index (b) group index (c) both of the preceding

5. The degree of compaction of soil affects the CBR value;

(a) true (b) false (c) it depends on the void ratio

6. A soil is fully saturated at optimum moisture content,

(a) true (b) false (c) it depends on the void ratio

7. Shrinkage limit is the minimum volume of soil when dried;

(a) true (b) false (c) it depends on porosity

8. High cohesion makes a soil more desirable for a roadbase or subbase;

(a) true (b) false (c) it depends on specific gravity

9. Sand has a faster rate of consolidation than clay;

(a) true (b) false (c) it depends on in-place density

10. Fine-grained soils are preferable than coarse-grained soils for construction of
highway embankments.

(a) true (b) false (c) it depends on grading

11. In soil engineering the term "soil" includes

(a) clay (b) gravel (c) sand (d) all of the preceding

12. Water content of soils is generally based on the;

15
 (a) total weight of soils (b) total volume of soil (c) weight of solids
(d) unit weight

13. Optimum water content of a soil is determined by the;

(a) field density test (b) liquid limit test (c) compaction test (d)
compaction test

14. A soil is fully saturated if the water content is;

(a) at optimum amount (b) 100% (c) more than 100% (d) none

15. Which property of soil is not to be disturbed in undisturbed sample?

(a) structure (b) density (c) moisture content (d) all of the preceding

16. Sand has a greater load-carrying capacity than clay;

(a) true (b) it depends on gradation (c) false (d) it depends on
water content

17. The particle size distribution of a soil is determine by;

(a) liquid limit test (b) plastic limit test (c) sieve analysis test (d) any of the
preceding test

18. (a) granular (b) Fine-grained (c) plastic (d) clayey soils most
suitable for the construction of highway embankment.

18. The density to which soil can be compacted is related to

(a) Compactive effort (b) water content (c) both a and b (c) niether a nor b

19. Void-ratio is numerically greater than porosity.

(a) true (b) false (c) depends on the water c

PRE-EXAMINATION QUESTIONNAIRES FOR MATERIALS

ENGINEERS

1. One of the duties of the materials engineer is to

a. Check the geometric control of the project

16
 b. Recommend to the project engineer remedial measures for the correction
of satisfactory conditions of materials
c. Prepare as built plans

2. Which of the following is not the work of the materials engineer.

a. To prepare design mixes for concrete and bituminous mixtures.

b. To ensure that samples are properly cured by standard procedures.
c. To check the required equipment needed in the project.

3. The materials engineer of the contractor is directly under the supervision of the

a. Materials Engineer of the DPWH

b. Project Engineer of the Contractor
c. Project Engineer of the Consultant

4. The requisites in transporting samples of the laboratory is

a. Well packed in durable containers to avoid damages in transit,

accompanied by a sample card filled up in detail and duly signed by the
Materials Engineer.
b. Transported in any vehicle without cushions, accompanied by a sample
card duly signed by anybody in the project.
c. Well packed in durable containers to avoid damaged transit.

5. Which of the following is a duty of a Materials Engineer

a. To see that all laboratory equipment are protected from dust and other
foreign matters that tend to destroy their sensitivity.
b. To evaluate the work accomplishment of the contractor
c. To supervise corrections of physical defects in the project

6. The Materials Engineer must base his/her recommendation for the acceptance and
rejection of construction materials on

a. Visual inspection only

b. Test results
c. Conscience

7. The calibration of the universal testing machine is conducted

a. Once a year
b. Every quarter
c. Every semester

Who is recommend to the acceptance on rejection of construction materials intended for

use in the project, based on test results

Project Engineer of the Contractor

Materials Engineer of the Contractor
Materials Engineer of DPWH

The following are physical properties of asphalt except

Consistency
Temperature Susceptibility
Gradation
Cohesion

Which of the following is a physical test of asphalt

17
Field Density Test
Ductility Test
Triaxial Test
Rebound Test

It is a chemical composition of asphalt that gives color and hardness

Asphaltene
Maltene
a. Resin
b. Oil

8. Which of the following is not a manufactured asphalt

a. Asphalt Cement
b. Blown Asphalt
c. Liquid Asphalt
d. Rock Asphalt

9. In Bituminous mixture composition, percent of aggregates ranges from

a. 90-95%
b. 92-95%
c. 93-96%
d. 95-97%

10. The mineral filler which is used in the bituminous mix passes sieve number

a. 100
b. 200
c. 40
d. 60

11. Which of the following is not a property of aggregates for bituminous mix
composition

a. Strength
b. Particle Shape
c. Absorption and Specific Gravity
d. Penetration

12. The percent of asphalt used in bituminous mix ranges from

a. 5 - 8%
b. 6 - 8%
c. 4 - 8%
d. 3 - 8%

13. Determines the effect of water on the cohesion of the bituminous mixture

a. Marshall Test
b. Immersion-Compression Test
c. Extraction Test

14. Asphalt cement, liquid asphalt and blown asphalt are

a. Natural asphalt
b. Manufactured asphalt
c. Mix asphalt
18
15. Cold mix asphalt is used in

a. Paving
b. Pothole patching
c. Addictive

16. VMA means

a. Voids in Material Aggregates

b. Voids in Mineral Air
c. Voids in Mineral Aggregates

17. The allowable air voids in compacted asphalt mix is

a. 3%
b. 5%
c. 8%

18. In Marshall test, the specimens are tested for stability and flow at

a. 50ºC
b. 60ºC
c. 70ºC
19. The compaction temperature in molding the bituminous mixture specimens

a. 100ºC
b. 124ºC
c. 135ºC

20. The mixing temperature of bituminous mix is

a. 163ºC
b. 165ºC
c. 170ºC

21. The heating temperature of bituminous mix is

a. 100ºC - 110ºC
b. 121ºC - 188ºC
c. 125ºC - 140ºC

22. The heating temperature of aggregates ranges from

a. 150ºC - 160ºC
b. 177ºC - 191ºC
c. 180ºC - 190ºC

23. The average minimum strength requirement of non-load bearing concrete

masonry is 4.14 Mpa (600 psi). What is its minimum individual strength
requirement?

a. 3.45 Mpa (500 psi)

b. 5.5 Mpa (800 psi)
c. 6.9 Mpa (1000 psi)

24. The average individual strength requirement of load bearing concrete masonry
units is 5.5 Mpa (800 psi). What is its average strength requirements?

a. 5.5 Mpa (800 psi)

19
 b. 6.9 Mpa (1000 psi)
c. 3.45 Mpa (500 psi)

29. The maximum absorption content of CHB

a. 230 Kg./cu.m.
b. 240 Kg./cu.m.
c. 250 Kg./cu.m.

30. The maximum moisture content of CHB

a. 40%
b. 43%
c. 45%

31. SPT means

a. Standard Penetration Time

b. Standard Penetration Test
c. Sampling Procedure Time

32. A tube sampler used in sampling undisturbed sample

a. Piston tube
b. Shelby tube
c. Split tube
33. Used in sealing undisturbed sample

a. Masking tape
b. Wax
c. Asphalt

34. A tube sampler used in sampling disturbed sample

a. Split Spoon Sampler

b. Shelby tube
c. Anger

35. It is dynamic test used in the field to obtain rapid empirical results which can be used
to estimate shear strength and bearing capacity

a. Load Test
b. Standard Penetration Test
c. California Bearing Ratio Test

36. A type of coring bit used in rock coring

a. Diamond bit
b. Gold bit
c. Brass bit

37. CQCA means

a. Certificate of Quality Control Assurance

b. Certificate of Quantity Control Aspect
c. Control of Quality Center Assurance

38. CQCA is prepared and submitted every

20
 a. Month
b. Every Week
c. Every Quarter

39. It is a test required prior to final payment of Portland Cement Concrete Pavement
and Asphalt Pavements

a. Rebound hammer test

b. Coring test for thickness determination
c. Compression test

40. It is a document I the field that narrates the quality control activities and is
mandated in memorandum circular no. 80 dated 30 June 1978.

a. logbook
b. monthly status of tests
c. blue book

41. The specific gravity of asphalt cement ranges from

a. 1.01 - 1.04
b. 0.99 - 1.0
c. 1.1 - 1.2

42. The type of electron present in rapid setting emulsified asphalt

a. Cationic
b. Anionic
c. Protons

43. How many group of 3 in situ densities are required if the compacted volume of
embankment laid were estimated to be 1,500 cu.m. with a thickness of 0.20
m/layer?

a. 20
b. 15
c. 10

44. The selvage wire of a gabion per specification has a minimum diameter of

a. 3.4 cm
b. 3.4 mm
c. 3.4 in

45. The selvage wire of a mattress per specification has a minimum diameter of

a. 2.2 mm
b. 3.4 mm
c. 2.7 mm

46. The minimum zinc coating requirements of gabions and mattress is

a. 0.244 kg./m2
b. 0.344 kg./m2
c. 0.255 kg./m2
47. The minimum diameter requirement of a tire wire is

a. 3.2 mm
b. 2.2 mm
c. 4.2 mm
21
48. The allowable % variation in mass of deformed reinforcing steel bar is

a. 5.0% max. under nominal mass

b. 6.0% max. under nominal mass
c. 7.0% max. under nominal mass

49. The bending requirement of deformed reinforcing steel bar is

a. no cracking on the inside bent portion

b. no cracking on the outside bent portion
c. no cracking at 45%

50. The maximum allowable % phosphorus content of a deformed and plain billet
steel bar is
a. 0.6%
b. 0.06%
c. 0.006%

51. The minimum tensile strength of grade 40 steel bar per specification is 483 Mpa.
What is its minimum yield point?

a. 276 Mpa
b. 376 Mpa
c. 476 Mpa

52. What is percent permissible error in the calibration of the universal testing
machine/portable flexural/compression machine?

a. +/- 0.1%
b. +/- 1.0%
c. +/-0.5%

53. How do you compute for the plasticity index of the soil?

a. LL-PL
b. PL-LL
c. LL-GI

54. The liquid limit is expressed as the moisture content corresponding to

a. 15 blows
b. 25 blows
c. 35 blows
55. Plasticity index is an indication of percent

a. sand content
b. clay content
c. impurities content

56. Laboratory compaction test of a soil is also known as

a. Moisture-density relation test

b. Triaxial test
c. Consolidation test

57. The significance of laboratory compaction test is to

a. Determine the bearing capacity of soil

b. Determine the maximum dry density and optimum moisture content
22
 c. Determine the load bearing capacity of soil

58. The condition of soil sample to be tested in the laboratory compaction test is

a. Wet condition
b. Oven-dried condition
c. Air-dried condition

59. The weight of hammer to be used in the laboratory compaction of soil for
embankment is

a. 2.5 kg
b. 3.5 kg
c. 4.0 kg

60. The weight of hammer used in the laboratory compaction of subbase and base
course materials

a. 4.0 kg
b. 4.54 kg
c. 4.64 kg

61. The method in the determination of density of soil in-place

a. sand cone method

b. Compaction method
c. Triaxial method

62. A control test in embankment construction to ensure adequate compaction

a. Hydrometer test
b. Field density test
c. Soundness test

63. Air-dry sand used in the density apparatus is passing

a. Sieve no. 10 and retained sieve no. 200

b. Sieve no. 30 and retained sieve no 200
c. Sieve no. 50 and retained sieve no. 200

64. Which of the following items does not need a CBR

a. Subbase materials
b. Surfacing Materials
c. Base course materials

65. In the Field density test conducted in embankment, result showed that the
computed dry unit weight was 1,650 kg/m³. Laboratory compaction data showed
that maximum dry density was 1,721 kg/m³ and the optimum moisture content
was 12%. What is the degree of compaction?

a. 94 %
b. 96 %
c. 96.8 %

66. The test that determines the resistance of aggregates to disintegration by saturated
solutions of sodium sulfate or magnesium sulfate;

a. Autoclave
b. Soundness test
23
 c. Abrasion test

67. Given the following data of coarse aggregates

Weight of sample - 2480 g
Weight of oven-dry test sample in air - 2100 g
Weight of SSD test sample in air - 2390 g
Weight of saturated test sample in water - 1605 g
What is the computed specific gravity?

a. 2.5
b. 3.04
c. 2.80

68. In abrasion test, the abrasive charge shall consist of cast-iron spheres or steel
spheres. Using grading A, how many are the number of sheres?
a. 12
b. 11
c. 8

69. The total weight of sample in abrasion test using grading A, B, C, & D is
a. 4500 g
b. 4800 g
c. 5000 g

70. The curve in logarithmic scale where the 25th blow is projected in order to
determine the liquid limit of the soil

a. Parabolic curve
b. Flow curve
c. Highway curve

71. Percentage of wear represents the value of

a. Abrasion loss
b. Absorption loss
c. Weight loss

72. The ratio of weight/mass of water in the soil to the weight/mass of dry soil after it
has been dried to constant weight/mass at a temperature of 110° +/- 5°C.

a. Moisture content
b. Water density
c. Water specific gravity

73. Right after sampling, concrete cylindrical specimen samples shall be removed
from its mold after
a. 20 +/- 8 hrs b. 24 +/- 8 hrs c. 42 +/- 8 hrs.

74. The temperature in standard curing of concrete sample is

a. 20 +/- 1.7 °C b. 23 +/- 1.7°C c. 25 +/- 1.7°C

75. The rate of loading in the determination of compressive strength of cylindrical

concrete specimen is at a constant rate within the range of

a. 20 to 50 psi/sec
b. 10 to 50 psi/sec
c. 30 to 50 psi/sec
24
76. In the design of concrete mix, what is the volume of water in the concrete mix
that produces a slump of 76.2 mm.

a. 25.7
b. 24.7
c. 23.7

77. The standard fineness modulus of sand is about

a. 2.65
b. 2.75
c. 2.85

78. The standard packaging weight of cement

a. 50 kg/bag
b. 40 kg/bag
c. 60 kg/bag

79. What is the minimum cement factor of concrete pavement?

a. 8.5 bags/m³
b. 9.0 bags/m³
c. 9.5 bags/m³

80. How many holes of core tests are required in a 2-lane 1.8 km. of completed concrete
pavement?

a. 16
b. 18
c. 20

81. What is the minimum test requirement for the water if source is questionable?

a. Certificate from project engineer

b. Quality test
c. Resident certificate

82. It is a impervious membrane applied to concrete pavement before its initial setting
that prevents rapid evaporation of water from the mix.

a. Curing compound
b. Accelerator
c. Retarder

83. The maximum time which the concrete beam sample attained its strength requirement
is

a. 14 days
b. 28 days
c. 30 days

84. When do you take fresh concrete samples during pouring of concrete?

a. First batch
b. Last batch
c. Middle batch
25
85. The type of paint that is for zone marking, traffic lanes and parking spaces which is
rapid drying, resistant to abrasion and weather conditions and possess improve
visibility at night.

a. Latex paint
b. Reflectorize paint
c. Aluminum paint

86. An ingredient in the paint that gives reflection during night time

a. Vehicle
b. Glass beads
c. Pigment

87. The paint which is used on concrete or masonry units

a. Red lead
b. Latex
c. Aluminum

88. The average loss in weight of three specimens in zinc coating test
a. Coating bend test
b. Single spot test
c. Triple spot test
89. One of the three specimens in the triple spot test with lightest coating

a. Single spot test

b. Coating bend test
c. Triple spot test

90. The paint that is used on wood surfaces, a special type of paint made with varnish as
the vehicle.

a. Latex
b. Rubberized
c. Enamel

91. A group classification of soil, which has significant constituent materials of fine sand

a. A-1
b. A-2
c. A-3a

92. Includes those materials with high plasticity indexes in relation to liquid limit and
which are subject to extremely high volume change.

a. A-7-5
b. A-7-6
c. A-2-6

93. Group index is an empirical number ranging from 0 to 20 under average conditions of
good drainage and adequate compaction, the supporting value of a material as
subgrade may be assumed as an inverse ratio to its group index; that is a group index
of zero indicates
a. Very poor subgrade material
b. Good subgrade material
c. Fair to poor subgrade material
26
94. It determines the target density which is constructed at the beginning of the work
on each course of material to be compacted.

a. Geometric Control
b. Quality control
c. Control strips

95. The most common method of assessing strength stiffness of both subgrade and
pavement.

a. Water Cement ratio

b. California Bearing Ratio
c. Consolidation

96. The class of concrete used in their reinforced section, railing and for filler in steel grid
floors with required minimum compressive strength of 20.7 Mpa

a. Class A
b. Class B
c. Class C
97. The maximum water-cement ratio of Class A concrete
a. 0.53
b. 0.55
c. 0.49
98. The range of slump used in placing concrete by pumping
a. 5 to 20 cm
b. 10 to 20 cm
c. 25 to 30 cm
99. What is the % hygroscopic moisture of the soil sample tested in the laboratory with
the following data?
Weight in grams
Wet soil 48.9
Oven dry soil plus container 52.4
Air dry soil plus container 53.4
Container 16.2

a. 1.3%
b. 2.8 %
c. 3.8 %

100. What is the % natural moisture content in problem #99.

a. 35.1 %
b. 36.1 %
c. 37.1 %
101. What is the Plasticity Index of the soil based on the following laboratory data?
% passing
No. 10 - 100
No. 40 - 80
No. 200 - 60
LL - 45
PL - 30
a. 15
b. 20
c. -15
27
102. A field density test was run on a rolled soil-aggregate subbase layer. The
following results were obtained.
Weight per cu. m. of calibrated sand - 1532 kg
Weight of moist soil taken from hole - 7.62 kg
Moisture content of soil - 11.1 kg
Weight of calibrated sand to fill the hole - 4.5 %

A. What is the density of the rolled soil-aggregate?

a. 2300.5
b. 2330.5
c. 2335.5
103. It is confirmed that the rolled soil-aggregate subbase layer in problem 102 passed
the specifications, what is the degree of compaction if the maximum dry density
obtained in the laboratory compaction is 2172.7 kg/m³?

a. 105.5 %
b. 106.5 %
c. 107.5 %
104. Given a grading test result of sand sample

Sieve size % passing % retained

12.5 100 0
9.5 100 0
4.75 96 4
2.36 65 35
1.18 60 40
0.60 30 70
0.30 20 80
0.150 5 95
0.075 2 98
What is the Fineness Modulus?

a. 3.04
b. 3.14
c. 3.24

105. A 5000 grams of coarse aggregate was tested for abrasion. After 500 revolution at
the Los Angeles abrasion machine, the aggregate retained on sieve no. 12 were
4440 grams. What is the abrasion loss?

a. 10.2
b. 11.2
c. 12.2

106. Calculate the absorption of coarse aggregates retained at the sieve no.9.5 mm
with the following data.

Weight in air of 550 grams - 1974

Weight of sample in water, grams - 1276
Weight in air of oven dried sample - 1958

a. 0.82
b. 0.85
c. 0.88

28
107. Based on the data of problem 106, what is the specific gravity of the coarse
aggregates?

a. 2.73
b. 2.83
c. 2.93

108. Based on the preliminary data on tests conducted on fine aggregates, the
following compacted batch weights were determined:

Uncorrected weight, kg corrected weight, kg

Cement 40 40
Fine Aggregate 100.23 99.13
Coarse Aggregate 81.05 85.31
Water 23.2

How much is the amount of water needed in the corrected weights?

a. 20.04
b. 19.04
c. 18.04

109. If the packaging of cement available in the market is 50 kg per bag, what is the
batch weights of 98 kg fine aggregate which was based on 40 kg per bag of
cement?
a. 120.5 kg
b. 121.5 kg
c. 122.5 kg

110. A sample of bituminous mixture was taken for extraction test to determine its
asphalt content. The laboratory data as follows:

Original weight of sample - 880 grams

Weight of sample after extraction - 839.7 grams

What is the asphalt content?

a. 4.8 %
b. 5.0 %
c. 5.8 %

111. A sample was cored in an asphalt pavement to determine its degree of

compaction. Per laboratory test conducted, the measured specific gravity (Gmb)
was 2.230, Percent asphalt content was 6.0, Specific gravity of asphalt was 1.02,
and specific gravity of aggregates was 2.66. What is the compacted degree of
compaction?

a. 85.63 %
b. 90.63 %
c. 95.63 %

112. A bituminous material was tested by standard method and showed the following
results, The penetration for 5 seconds at 25°C was 8.6 mm, 8.9 mm and 9.0 mm.
What is the average penetration of bituminous material?

a. 88.33
b. 89.33
29
 c. 90.33

113. What is the ductility of the bituminous material if the sample broke after 25
minutes with rate of stretching of 5 cm/min?

a. 120
b. 125
c. 130

114. In the three-edge bearing method of testing pipes, how many inches of the crack
does the ultimate load produces?

a. 0.1 in.
b. 0.01 in
c. 1.0 in

115. A beam 6" x 6" was beaten with application of 7000 lbs. By third point loading
method. The fracture occurred within the middle third. What is the modulus of
rupture?

a. 580 psi
b. 583 psi
c. 585 psi

116. When the strength test result of concrete beam or cylinder samples are not
acceptable, how many representative cores shall be taken from each member or
area of concrete in place considered deficient?

a. At least two
b. At least three
c. At least four

117. Concrete in the area represented by cores will be considered adequate if the
average strength of the cores is at least

a. 80 % of the required strength

b. 85 % of the required strength
c. 90 % of the required strength

118. If the deficiency in strength of concrete specimens is 5 to less than 10 %, how

much percent will be allowed for payment?

a. 100 %
b. 80 %
c. 70 %
119. In the evaluation of core samples, for each core sample, how many
measurements of length are made?

a. 8
b. 9
c. 10
120. If concrete is mixed in the central mixing plant, the mixing time shall not be less
than 50 seconds nor more than
a. 60 sec
b. 90 sec
c. 120 sec

30
121. What is the maximum time required in transporting mixed concrete from the time
water is added to the mixed until it is deposited in place at the site when hauled in
non agitating trucks?
a. 45 min
b. 50 min
c. 60 min

122. Vibrators shall not be operated longer than how many seconds in any one
location?

a. 10 sec
b. 15 sec
c. 30 sec

123. What is the maximum time required in transporting mixed concrete from the
time water is added to the mix until the concrete is deposited in place at the site
when hauled in truck mixers or truck agitators?

a. 45 min
b. 90 min
c. 100 min

124. The minimum compressive requirement of pre-stressed concrete structures and

members

a. 16.5 Mpa
b. 20.7 Mpa
c. 37.7 Mpa

125. The class of concrete deposited in water

a. Class A
b. Class B
c. Seal

126. The class of concrete used in all superstructure and heavily reinforced structures

a. Class A
b. Class B
c. Class C

127. The minimum cement content of concrete deposited in water

a. 380 kg/m³
b. 400 kg/m³
c. 500 kg/m³

128. The slump maintained in placing concrete in water

a. 10-20 cm
b. 20-30 cm
c. 40-50 cm
129. The instrument used in placing concrete in water in a compact mass in its final
position
a. truck mixer
b. tremie
c. chute

31
130. The maximum consistency range in slump in class P concrete

a. 50 mm
b. 100 mm
c. 200 mm

131. The maximum specific gravity of thermoplastic paint.

a. 2.15
b. 3.15
c. 4.15

132. The softening point of a thermoplastic plaint.

a. 100.5°C
b. 102.5°C
c. 105.5°C

133. The maximum drying time of a thermoplastic paint.

a. 5 minutes
b. 10 minutes
c. 15 minutes

134. The minimum percentage of glass beads contained in a thermoplastic paint.

a. 15 %
b. 20 %
c. 25 %

135. The minimum weight of sample of reflectorized paint.

a. 10 kg
b. 15 kg
c. 20 kg

32