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ENGINEERING KNOWLEDGE - MOTOR 17 The speed of the camshaft in a two-stroke/cycle diesel engine, 18 Explosion relief valves on diesel engine crankcases should relieve
running at 950 RPM, is _____________. the pressure at not more than _________.
MOTOR - DESIGN, COMPONENTS
A. 475 RPM A. 0.1 bar
1 Precision engine bearing inserts are manufactured with a small 2 The method of piston cooling in which oil is delivered through the
portion of the bearing ends extending beyond the bearing housing connecting rod to a compartment within the piston, then distributed B. 950 RPM B. 0.2 bar
or caps. The installation process of these bearings requires by the motion of the pistons, and allowed to drain to the crankcase C. 1900 RPM C. 1.0 bar
sufficient ________. via one or more holes or pipes, is termed ________ D. 2400 RPM D. 2.0 bar
Ans: B Ans: B
19 A two stroke diesel engine exhaust temperaturewill be lower than a 20 The sealing surfaces of a diesel engine piston ring are considered
A. overlap A. quaker
four stroke diesel engine of the same displacement because the to be the faces in contact with the cylinder wall, in addition to the
B. crush B. shaker
___________. I. scavenging air is cooling the exhaust gases II. ring groove ___________.
C. lap or lead C. circulation
exhaust cycle time is longer
D. protrusion D. spray
A. I only A. bottom
Ans: B Ans: B
B. II only B. back
3 The piston rod scraper box incorporated in a two-stroke/cycle, 4 In a large, slow-speed, main propulsion diesel engine, which of the
crosshead diesel engine serves to _____________. parts listed is under tension when the engine is running? C. both I and II C. top
D. neither I nor II D. side
Ans: A Ans: A
A. eliminate the necessity for an oil scraper ring A. Bed plate
21 Where is the fuel delivery check valve located in a jerk pump fuel 22 How many crankcase relief valves are required for a 325mm bore,
B. prevent side thrust and cylinder scoring B. Column
injection system? eight cylinder in-line engine?
C. prevent sludge and dirty oil from entering the crankcase C. Entablature
A. In the cylinder head A. 2
D. scrape oil and carbon deposits off the cylinder walls D. Tie rod
B. On the suction side of the delivery pump B. 4
Ans: C Ans: D
C. In the injection pump housing discharge C. 6
5 The main advantage of unit injectors (combined fuel pump and 6 Passages are drilled in the crankshafts of diesel engines to provide
injector) over other fuel injection systems is _____________. lubricating oil to the _____________. D. On the inlet side of the spray valves D. 8
Ans: C Ans: D
23 Which of the air intake systems listed will result in the lowest specific 24 In which of the following areas of a crosshead engine is a
A. the lack of high pressure fuel lines A. main bearings
fuel consumption? permanently connected fire extinguishing system required?
B. their relatively low injection pressures B. connecting rod bearings
A. Natural aspiration A. Exhaust manifolds in excess of eight inches in diameter.
C. reduced wear of spray orifices C. piston pin bushings
B. Turbocharged B. Crankcases having a gross volume in excess of 21 cubic feet.
D. the lessened chance of fuel leaks into the engine sump D. All of the above
Ans: A Ans: D
C. Roots blower C. Turbocharger inlet piping in excess of twelve inches in diameter.
7 When may the crankcase ventilation pipes or oil drain pipes of two 8 The main function of tie rods in the construction of large, low speed
or more engines be connected? diesel engines is to ____________.
D. Piston blower D. Scavenging spaces in open connection to the cylinders.
A. Propulsion engines under 1000 shaft horsepower may share a A. stiffen the bedplate in way of the main bearings to increase the
common crankcase vent provided the oil drains remain separate. engine's longitudinal strength Ans: B Ans: D
25 Camshafts are usually driven by timing gears or ___________. 26 The valve cam slope angle determines the _____________.
B. In most cases it is desirable and cost effective for propulsion B. accept most of the tensile loading that results from the firing forces
engines to share a common crankcase ventilation and monitoring developed during operation A. push rods A. opening and closing points of the valve
system. B. chain drives B. opening and closing rate of the valve
C. rocker arms C. height of valve opening
C. No interconnection may be made between the crankcase ventilation C. mount the engine frame securely to the hull to prevent shaft coupling
pipes or oil drain pipes. misalignment D. flywheels D. amount of time the valve remains open
Ans: B Ans: B
D. None of the above are correct. D. connect the crosshead solidly to the piston rod
27 The arrangement and shape of the cams on a diesel engine 28 Carbon deposits building up, in, and around the injection nozzle tip
Ans: C Ans: B
camshaft directly control which of the listed groups of operating are least likely to occur when using which of the listed types of fuel
9 On most modern diesel engines, the main and connecting rod 10 Fuel injection pumps using the port and helix metering principle
conditions? injector nozzles?
bearings receive their lubricating oil by ____________. requires the use of a ___________.
A. Speed, torque, and horsepower production A. Hole
A. banjo feed A. crosshatched design
B. Firing order, valve timing, and valve lift B. Multi-hole
B. splash feed B. lapped plunger and barrel
C. Fuel consumption, efficiency, and cylinder pressure C. Pintle
C. gravity feed C. variable stroke
D. Scavenge pressure, compression ratio, and exhaust pressure D. Multi-pintle
D. pressure feed D. variable cam lift
Ans: D Ans: B
Ans: B Ans: C
11 Lubricating oil is supplied to the crankpin bearings in a marine diesel 12 gudgeonpin bearings are difficult to lubricate because of their
engine by _____________. oscillating motion and _____________. 29 A port-and-helix fuel injection pump having upper and lower plunger 30 Which of the following statements describes a fuel injection pump
helixes is designed to _____________. marked "timed for port closing"?
A. internal crankshaft passages A. their free-floating design
A. vary fuel delivery and return pressure A. Injection has a constant beginning and variable ending.
B. immersion in oil B. their relatively small size
B. vary the beginning and ending of injection B. The pump stroke determines the amount of fuel injected.
C. spclearance lubrication C. the reciprocating motion of the piston
C. operate with residual fuels only C. Fuel is metered by the pump's delivery valve.
D. injection lubrication D. their position in the lubrication system
D. provide maximum fuel delivery rate D. Timing reference marks should be changed.
Ans: A Ans: D
Ans: B Ans: A
13 The camshaft drive is designed to maintain proper camshaft speed 14 Engines having a bore exceeding 250 mm, but not exceeding 300
relative to crankshaft speed. In maintaining this relationship, the mm are to have at least _________. 31 Some fuel injection systems utilize port-and-helix metering. Which of 32 An individual injection pump is designed for variable beginning and
camshaft drive causes the camshaft to rotate at _____________. the following statement describes a system "timed for port closing"? constant ending of injection. For diesel engines operating at
constant speeds, the start of injection will _____________.

A. one-half crankshaft speed in a two-stroke cycle diesel engine A. three compression rings per piston and the minimum of two oil
scraper rings A. Injection has a variable beginning and a constant ending. A. advance as the load increases
B. Injection is metered by an external delivery valve. B. retard as the load increases
B. crankshaft speed in a two-stroke cycle diesel engine B. one intake and one exhaust valve per cylinder provided no other
means of scavenging is used C. Injection has a constant beginning and variable ending. C. remain unchanged regardless of load
D. Injection will not occur until the helix closes the delivery valve. D. always occur at top dead center
C. two times crankshaft speed in a two-stroke cycle diesel engine C. one explosion relief valve in way of each alternate crank throw, with
a minimum of two valves
Ans: C Ans: A
D. one-fourth times crankshaft speed in a four-stroke cycle diesel D. one crankshaft except in cases where an opposed piston design is
engine required 33 A crankshaft whose center of gravity coincides with its center line is 34 The amount of fuel injected in a particular time, or degree, of
said to be __________. crankshaft rotation is termed _____________.
Ans: B Ans: C
A. dynamically balanced A. metering
15 The opening of an exhaust valve on a modern, large, low- speed, 16 Shaker, circulation, and spray are the three general methods used in
main propulsion diesel engine, may be actuated by _____________. _____________. B. statically balanced B. timing
C. counter balanced C. rate of injection
D. resonantly balanced D. rate of distribution
A. direct action of cam shaft A. pre-injection fuel oil treatment
Ans: B Ans: C
B. compressed air pressure B. lube oil filtration
C. hydraulic "push rods" C. lube oil purification 35 The small end of the connecting rod is attached to the piston with a 36 At dead center, the centerline of the connecting rod usually
_____________. coincides with the _____________.
D. direct action of the main piston moving down D. piston cooling
A. crankpin A. angularity of the piston motion
Ans: C Ans: D
B. sliding wedge B. inertia moment from the piston
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C. gudgeon pin C. centerline of the cylinder A. fuel nozzle holders A. method of supplying air
D. torque bushing D. centerline of the king pin B. exhaust valve guides B. cooling system
Ans: C Ans: C C. engine cylinder liners C. method of igniting fuel
37 Connecting rods in a diesel engine are used to connect the 38 Movement of the pump control rack in a fuel injection system using D. engine exhaust manifold D. valve operating mechanism
_____________. individual plunger-type pumps _____________. Ans: C Ans: C
A. engine to the bed A. changes the position of the fuel inlet ports 57 Which term describes piston pins having bearing surfaces in both 58 Compared to other fuel injection systems, unit injectors operate with
B. rocker arm to the camshaft B. changes the length of the pump stroke the piston bosses and connecting rod eye? virtually no _____________.
C. crankshaft to the gear train C. varies the quantity of fuel delivered A. Stationary A. injection lag
D. piston to the crankshaft D. varies the compression of the delivery valve spring B. Full floating B. ignition delay
Ans: D Ans: C C. Semi-floating C. moving parts
39 The purpose of a heat dam used in some diesel engine cast iron 40 Diesel engines are classified as reciprocating internal combustion D. Free rolling D. control
pistons is to ____________. engines because they ______________. Ans: B Ans: A
A. concentrate all heat in the piston crown A. use energy from fuel burned outside their cylinders 59 Piston cooling fins are located _____________. 60 A properly honed diesel engine cylinder liner will ________.
B. increase the distance of travel for heat from the crown to the top ring B. burn fuel in a combustion chamber that moves back and forth A. on top of the piston crown A. prevent piston ring wear
groove B. underneath the piston crown B. shorten the ring break-in period
C. ensure that all heat in the piston crown is conducted to the top ring C. burn fuel in a chamber where its energy moves a piston back and C. at the base of the piston skirt C. prevent cylinder liner glazing
forth D. inside the cylinder liner cooling water jacket D. appear slick and glazed
D. provide a short direct path for heat to flow from the crown to the top D. use a continuous combustion process to impart rotary motion to the Ans: B Ans: B
ring pistons 61 Besides the use of piston cooling fins to assist in cooling,they also 62 The minimum fuel oil delivery pressure required for efficient
Ans: B Ans: C provide extra strength for the piston ___________. injection depends primarily on the ______________.
41 A diesel engine with a full speed of 1000 RPM drives a propeller at 42 Which of the listed design features is most common to a two-
300 RPM. What is the speed reduction ratio? stroke/cycle low-speed main propulsion diesel engines? A. skirt A. degree of cylinder air turbulence
A. 0.3 to 1 A. Crosshead construction B. crown B. maximum pressure in the engine cylinders during injection
B. 3.33 to 1 B. Cross-scavenging air flow C. gudgeon pin C. quantity of the fuel to be injected
C. 33 to 1 C. Trunk type pistons D. oil rings D. duration of the ignition delay period
D. 300 to 1 D. Single reduction gearing Ans: B Ans: B
Ans: B Ans: A 63 A thrust bearing is used with a propulsion diesel engine to 64 The two strokes of a two-stroke/cycle diesel engine are
43 Why is the ring belt narrower in diameter than the skirt of a piston 44 Which statement about diesel engine combustion is true? _____________. ____________.
designed for a diesel engine? A. control axial movement of the crankshaft A. power and intake
A. To allow for greater expansion due to higher operating temperature. A. Combustion does not begin until the piston starts down on the B. transmit engine thrust to the propeller shaft B. intake and exhaust
power stroke. C. absorb vibrations in the propeller shafting C. exhaust and compression
B. To seal the cylinder against leakage of combustion gases. B. Maximum combustion pressure is reached before TDC. D. prevent propeller thrust from being transmitted to the hull D. compression and power
C. To provide an additional surface for oil cooling. C. Turbulence in the cylinder causes a delay in ignition. Ans: A Ans: D
D. To provide additional strength for the crown and lower structure. D. Maximum cylinder firing pressure is not developed until the piston 65 Which of the following statements pertains to propulsion engines 66 Where engine bores exceed 230 mm, a bursting disc or flame
passes TDC. with bores exceeding 200 mm? arrestor is fitted ____________.
Ans: A Ans: D A. There shall be a means to display the cooling water outlet A. at the supply inlet to the starting air manifold for non-reversing
45 The diameter of a piston is usually less at the crown than at the 46 Why are some diesel engine cylinder liners plated on the wearing temperature of each cylinder. engines
skirt, in order to ______________. surface with porous chromium? B. All engines connected to controllable pitch propellers shall be of the B. on the exhaust manifold prior to the inlet of the turbocharger
A. facilitate the installation of piston rings A. The chromium will not wear out the piston rings. direct reversible type.
B. allow for the expansion of the piston during operation B. Chromium eliminates the need for oil scraper rings. C. The engines will be fitted with a means to display the exhaust gas C. on all devices subject to the by-products of combustion or lubrication
C. prevent crankcase vapors from entering the combustion chamber C. The chromium strengthens the liners in the way of the scavenging temperature of each cylinder. system vapors
air ports. D. All of the above are correct. D. in way of the control valve of each cylinder for direct reversing
D. reduce wearing of the upper cylinder liner D. Pores in the plating aid in maintaining the lube oil film. engines having a main starting manifold
Ans: B Ans: D Ans: C Ans: A
47 The fuel injection pumps on a diesel engine are controlled by a 48 What type of fitting is to be used on diesel engine fuel injection line 67 What is the function of the main thrust bearing? 68 The main function of piston compression rings is to _______.
linkage system attached to the _____________. piping? A. Prevents lateral movement of the slow speed gear. A. prevent excessive cylinder liner wear
A. camshaft A. Mild steel B. Transmits propeller thrust to the hull. B. reduce friction losses in the engine
B. crankshaft B. Hardened steel C. Keeps spring bearings in line. C. seal the space between the piston and the liner
C. governor C. Extra heavy D. Prevents main reduction gear axial movement. D. limit upward flow of lube oil into the combustion space
D. flywheel D. Double extra heavy Ans: B Ans: C
Ans: C Ans: C 69 The function of diesel engine piston compression rings is to 70 Diesel engine piston ring gaps can be straight or angle cut. In
49 The ability of a fuel particle to travel into the combustion chamber 50 Theoretical perfect combustion in a diesel engine yields by-products ____________. comparison, the angle cut ring ____________.
before burning is called _____________. of _____________. A. prevent piston side thrust A. allows piston ring expansion
A. penetration A. aldehydes and carbon dioxide B. prevent engine friction losses B. controls piston ring tension
B. permanence B. water vapor and carbon monoxide C. transmit heat from the piston to the cylinder liner C. increases ring wearing quality
C. turbulence C. nitrogen and carbon monoxide D. remove oil from the cylinder combustion space D. decreases combustion gas leakage
D. atomization D. water vapor and carbon dioxide Ans: C Ans: D
Ans: A Ans: D 71 Modern marine diesel engines equipped with mechanical fuel 72 Which of the listed designs is effectively used to provide the
51 The function of the window cast into the housing of an individual 52 The piston gudgeon pin used in some diesel engine pistons is injection operate on a combustion phase within the cycle which is turbulence necessary for proper combustion in a diesel engine
jerk pump is to ____________. prevented from contacting the cylinder wall by a __________. _________. cylinder?
A. entirely constant pressure A. Masked exhaust valves
A. allow the pump to be timed to the engine A. piston relief groove B. entirely constant temperature B. Special piston rings
B. check for sludge on the pump barrel B. piston pin cup C. a combination of constant volume and constant pressure C. Turbocharger
C. check that the fuel return passages are clear C. snap ring D. a combination of constant temperature and constant pressure D. Precombustion chamber
D. set up the fuel rack calibration in cubic millimeters D. bronze bushing
Ans: A Ans: C Ans: C Ans: D
53 Turbulence in a diesel engine cylinder is of major importance in 54 The load is always placed on the lower half of the main bearings in 73 The purpose of counterboring the top of the cylinder liner, extending 74 The most rapid period of fuel combustion in a diesel engine cylinder
providing _____________. a/an ____________. down to the top point of travel of the top compression ring, is to should begin just before the piston reaches top dead center and
A. proper fuel metering A. two-stroke/cycle engine _____________. ____________.
B. complete fuel/air mixing B. four-stroke/cycle engine A. increase cylinder turbulence A. when fuel injection has been completed
C. minimal fuel penetration C. reverse cycle engine B. prevent wear of the liner from occurring B. when fuel vaporization has been completed
D. proper fuel timing D. double acting engine C. prevent wear of the liner from forming a ridge at the upper level of C. should efficiently continue through the after burning period in all
Ans: B Ans: A ring travel properly designed engines
55 Cavitation erosion in the cooling water system of a diesel engine 56 The main operating characteristic of diesel engines which D. decrease compression ratio for easier starting D. should be completed shortly after passing top dead center
usually occurs at the pump impeller, and on the waterside of the distinguishes them from other internal combustion engines is the Ans: C Ans: D
_____________. _____________. 75 Exhaust gas pyrometers are useful for ____________. 76 Oil control rings function to _____________.
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A. detecting faulty combustion in individual cylinders A. allow proper lubrication of cylinders and compression rings 93 A diesel engine is driving an alternator required to run at1800 RPM. 94 A crankshaft whose center of gravity coincides with its center line is
B. adjusting fuel racks to maintain equal loading between cylinders B. reduce the amount of lube oil burned in the combustion chamber The overspeed governor is normally required tobe set within a range said to be __________. I. staticly balanced II. dynamically
of ______________. balanced
C. adjusting the load limit setting of the governor at idle conditions C. scrape excess lube oil from the liner on the downstroke A. 1980 to 2070 RPM A. I only
B. 2100 to 2200 RPM B. II only
D. calculating engine horsepower D. all of the above C. 2200 to 2300 RPM C. both I and II
Ans: A Ans: D D. 2300 to 2400 RPM D. neither I nor II
77 In the construction of a diesel engine, what is the purpose of end 78 The main purpose of the piston oil scraper rings is to Ans: A Ans: A
plates? _____________. 95 A six cylinder 2-stroke/cycle, single acting diesel engine has a 580 96 Using a diesel engine indicator P-V diagram, the cylinder mean
A. To provide accessibility to the cylinder liners. A. seal the space between the piston and the liner mm bore and a 1700 mm stroke. What indicated power per cylinder effective pressure is calculated to be 21.3 kg/cm2. What is the scale
B. To add rigidity to the block and a surface for attaching other parts. B. reduce the amount of lube oil burned in the combustion chamber will be developed if the average mean effective pressure is 15.3 of the spring used on the indicator if the diagram area is 18.46 cm2
kg/cm2 at a speed of 120 RPM? with a length of 13 cm?
C. To add stability to the engine block. C. transmit heat from the piston to the cylinder liner A. 1,348 kW A. 0.9
D. To make a surface for the base. D. damp out fluctuations of the piston side thrust B. 2,696 kW B. 1
Ans: B Ans: B C. 4,044 kW C. 1.25
79 What is commonly used to create turbulence in a diesel engine 80 How many power strokes per crankshaft revolution are there in an D. 8,088 kW D. 1.5
combustion system? eight cylinder, two-stroke/cycle diesel engine? Ans: A Ans: D
A. Shape of the piston crowns. A. One 97 Diesel engine valve springs function to _____________. 98 A built-up exhaust valve is one in which _____________.
B. Increasing the compression ratios. B. Two A. hold the valves open A. the stem and heads are made of different material
C. Increasing the effective plunger stroke. C. Four B. keep the valves off their seats until the exhaust stroke is completed B. the self-centering action comes from motion of the valve stem in the
D. Increasing the turbocharger gear ratio. D. Eight guide
Ans: A Ans: D C. close the valves C. a replaceable valve disk is welded to the head
81 To shut down a diesel engine after it exceeds the set maximum 82 Turbulence is created in the cylinders of a diesel engine to D. open inlet valves when the air injection cycle begins D. low-alloy steel is used throughout
speed, which type of device listed should be used? _____________. Ans: C Ans: A
A. Speed limiting governor A. obtain injection lag 99 A six cylinder, two stroke/cycle diesel engine is 83% efficient and 100 A seven cylinder, 2-stroke/cycle, single acting diesel engine has a
B. Overspeed governor B. help mix fuel and air has a cylinder constant of 0.998 while operating with a mean 750 mm bore and a 2000 mm stroke. What indicated power will be
C. Overspeed trip C. increase combustion pressure effective pressure of 15 kg/cm2 at a speed of 100 RPM. What is the developed if the average mean effective pressure is 14.8 kg/cm2 at
D. Overspeed relay D. utilize higher injection pressures metric brake horse power developed? a speed of 96 RPM?
Ans: C Ans: B
83 To function properly, oil control rings used on a diesel engine piston 84 An important design characteristic of an explosion relief valve for a A. 5,559 kW A. 1,959 kW
must distribute sufficient oil to all parts of the cylinder wall and must diesel engine is the ability to _________. B. 6,698 kW B. 3,906 kW
also _____________. C. 7,455 kW C. 7,182 kW
A. prevent any lubricant from reaching the compression rings A. close quickly in order to prevent an inrush of air D. 8,982 kW D. 14,363 kW
B. prevent excessive lubrication from reaching the combustion space B. open quickly against crankcase pressure to prevent a possible Ans: C Ans: D
implosion 101 Between the periods of injection and ignition of the fuel, a diesel 102 The cylinder liner forming the cylinder wall and the inside of the
C. provide metal-to-metal contact to seal the cylinder against blow-by C. open slowly to permit a gradual reduction of crankcase pressure engine crankshaft rotates through the ____________. water jacket is called a _____________.
A. detonation period A. dry liner
D. assure a positive means of scraping carbon accumulation from the D. close slowly to permit proper seating of the valve disc and neoprene B. firing period B. wet liner
cylinder sealing surfaces C. delay period C. jacket liner
Ans: B Ans: A D. advance period D. corrugated liner
85 In some modern large diesel engines, which of the followingis used 86 Turbulence in the cylinder of a two-stroke/cycle main propulsion Ans: C Ans: B
as the support for the main bearings? diesel engine is mainly created by _____________. 103 The purpose of an interference angle in a diesel engineexhaust 104 The purpose of an interference angle in a diesel engineexhaust
valve is to ________. I. work in conjunction with valve rotators to valve is to ________. I. seat the valve quickly II. break up seat
A. Bedplate A. directional intake valve ports rotate the valve II. seat the valve quickly deposits
B. Block B. masked intake valves
C. Base C. precombustion chambers A. I only A. I only
D. Sump D. intake port design B. II only B. II only
Ans: A Ans: D C. both I and II C. both I and II
87 In an internal combustion engine, which of the devices listed will 88 The theoretical minimum compression ratio necessary to ensure D. neither I nor II D. neither I nor II
force the compression rings to seal the compression gases in the compression ignition in a direct injection diesel engine is Ans: B Ans: C
space above the piston? _____________. 105 One function of diesel engine lubricating oil is to _______. 106 Open combustion chambers are designed to _____________.
A. Use of bimetallic piston rings A. 0.334027778 A. induce carbon formation on cylinder walls A. eliminate carbon buildup
B. Ring gap pretensioning B. 0.418055556 B. improve fuel penetration in the combustion space B. improve piston cooling
C. Thermal increase in ring-end clearance C. 0.500694444 C. form a friction reducing film between mating surfaces C. prevent air charge turbulence
D. Gas pressure acting against the back of the ring D. 0.584027778 D. lubricate the fuel injectors D. provide proper fuel/air mixing
Ans: D Ans: C Ans: C Ans: D
89 The size of the exhaust valve opening is ____________. 90 Provision is to be made for ventilation of an enclosed diesel engine 107 In a diesel engine, exhaust valves open before the intakeports are 108 Critical speeds occurring within the operating speed range of a main
crankcase by means of a small ________. uncovered to ___________. I. reduce pumping losses II. reduce propulsion diesel engine may be changed, or have their damaging
A. most critical in a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine A. aperture not exceeding 25mm diameter back pressure effects reduced by a/an _____________.
B. most critical in a two-stroke/cycle diesel engine B. fan to develop a slight suction not exceeding 25mm of water A. I only A. engine support vibration isolator
C. most critical in a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine if it is turbocharged C. vent line attached to the upper most area of the crankcase near the B. II only B. detuner or viscous fluid damper
center of the engine C. both I and II C. lightened crankshaft flywheel
D. of equal importance in a two-stroke/cycle diesel engine as in a four- D. breather or by means of a slight suction not exceeding 25mm of D. neither I nor II D. spherically seated crankshaft bearing
stroke/cycle diesel engine water Ans: C Ans: B
Ans: B Ans: D 109 The amount of fuel injected into a diesel engine cylinder by a unit 110 Which bearing half will receive the greatest load in a two-
91 Which of the general advantages listed does the electrical pyrometer 92 In a large slow-speed propulsion diesel engine, the force applied to injector, is controlled by _____________. stroke/cycle diesel engine?
have over the mechanical pyrometer? the crosshead is ______________. A.
the firing pressure in the cylinder A.
All bearing halves share an equal load.
A. When heated, it will move proportional to the amount the metal has A. against the crosshead during power stroke and away from the B.
a metering helix inside the pump B.
Upper half of the main bearing.
lengthened or expanded. crosshead during the compression stroke C.
varying the physical length of the plunger stroke C.
Lower half of the piston pin bearing in the connecting rod.
B. The pointer associated with the pyrometer scale can be made to B. against the crosshead during the compression stroke and away from D.
varying the clearance between the injector cam and the injector D.
Lower half of the connecting rod bearing at the crankshaft end of the
also measure engine RPM. the crosshead during the power stroke rocker arm rod.
C. It can be utilized in exhaust manifolds and heat exchangers C. against the crosshead during the power and compression strokes Ans: B Ans: C
interchangeably. 111 A diesel engine operating at a light load, when compared to 112 A safety cover differs from other diesel engine access doors in that it
D. It can indicate temperature at a distant point from the source of D. away from the crosshead during the power and compression strokes operating at heavy load has a fuel/air ratio that is __________. is fitted with a __________.
heat.
A. higher A. spring-loaded pressure plate
Ans: D Ans: C
B. less B. handwheel
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C. equal C. nut-operated clamp A. fuel oil vapor at the sludge tank vent A. pound under load
D. directly proportional D. large gasket B. unburned fuel vapors in the scavenge air receiver B. be lubricated more easily than with sufficient crush
Ans: A Ans: A C. lube oil vapors in the crank case C. tend to rotate with the journal
113 In an opposed piston engine, which of the following events would 114 Which of the following relationships should occur between the D. lube oil vapors in the engine room D. have its back forced against the seat under load
happen if the lower crank lead were reduced from 12‚ to 0‚? temperature developed in a combustion space, and the compression Ans: C Ans: C
ratio of the engine? 133 A unit type fuel injector is used on a diesel engine to 134 The intake valves in a diesel engine are reseated by
A. The exhaust ports would open before the scavenging ports. A. Higher compression ratios create higher temperature. _____________. _____________.
B. The scavenging ports would open before the exhaust ports. B. Higher temperatures create higher compression ratios. A. meter the fuel A. cam followers
C. Neither the exhaust nor the scavenging ports would open. C. Lower temperatures create higher compression ratios. B. produce the proper fuel oil pressure B. push rods
D. The exhaust and scavenging ports would open simultaneously. D. Higher compression ratios create lower temperatures. C. atomize the fuel C. combustion gases
D. all of the above D. valve springs
Ans: D Ans: A Ans: D Ans: D
115 The valve stem expansion associated with engine warm-up is 116 Which of the bearing types listed is commonly used for main 135 The closing of the exhaust valves used on a modern, large, low- 136 A characteristic of a bearing material which permits small dirt
allowed for by the ____________. bearings in small internal combustion engines? speed, main propulsion diesel engine may be directly provided by particles to become embedded in it's surface is ________________.
A. valve springs A. Precision-type with shims _____________.
B. hydraulic governor B. Poured-type consisting of babbitt A. large conical springs A. desirable, as it will prevent damage to the journal surface
C. tappet clearance adjusters C. Poured-type with shims B. compressed air pressure B. desirable, as it will assist in keeping the lube oil filters clean
D. cooling system D. Replaceable precision-type C. hydraulic pressure C. undesirable, since the embedded particles will score the journal
Ans: C Ans: D D. exhaust gas pressure D. undesirable, since the particles will interfere with lube oil flow
117 A dry-type spark arrestor removes sparks from a diesel engine 118 The most common instrument used to measure diesel engine
exhaust by _____________. exhaust pressure is the _____________. Ans: B Ans: A
A. increasing the linear velocity of the exhaust gases A. pyrometer 137 A diesel engine crankcase ventilation system ______________. 138 Most fuel injection nozzles are opened by _____________.
B. changing directions of exhaust gas flow B. bourdon gauge A. prevents spark generation A. fuel oil pressure
C. decreasing the temperature of the exhaust gases C. pneumercator B. removes combustible gases B. a cam operated follower
D. accelerating the exhaust gas through a reduced size orifice D. manometer C. determines the level of combustible gases C. a spring-loaded pressure plate
Ans: B Ans: D D. provides inert gas generation in crankcase D. timing gears keyed to the crankshaft
119 When two cams of the same diameter, one with tangential flanks 120 Which of the following types of engines have a combustion chamber Ans: B Ans: A
and the other with convex flanks are compared, the cam with located between a cylinder head and the crown of a piston? 139 The bearings used to support the crankshaft are generally called 140 Injection pressure in a common rail fuel system is controlled by
tangential flanks will cause___________. __________. _____________.
A. greater valve lift A. Horizontal opposed A. line shaft bearings A. engine speed
B. more abrupt valve action B. Opposed B. connecting rod bearings B. varying the fuel pump piston stroke
C. less valve seat wear C. Single acting C. main bearings C. varying the injector needle valve clearance
D. less valve gear wear D. None of the above D. support bearings D. a bypass valve
Ans: B Ans: C Ans: C Ans: D
121 The average pressure exerted on a piston during each power stroke 122 The greatest turbulence in a diesel engine cylinder is created by the 141 Internal combustion engine crankcase vent outlets must be 142 What is to be installed on an internal combustion engine if its
is termed _____________. _____________. equipped with ______. cylinder bore exceeds 200mm?
A. indicated horsepower A. shape of the combustion chamber A. hinged rain guards A. Crankcase vapor monitors
B. mean effective pressure B. fuel injection spray pattern B. corrosion resistant flame screens B. Engine exhaust silencers
C. exhaust back pressure C. cylinder swept volume C. dipsticks for measuring oil levels C. Constant pressure type turbochargers
D. compression pressure D. degree of penetration of the fuel oil droplets D. crankcase ventilation fans D. Explosion relief valves
Ans: B Ans: A Ans: B Ans: D
123 Wet-type exhaust silencers, used with some diesel engines, have 124 The exhaust system for a diesel engine is usually designed to 143 Cylinder lubrication oil for low speed main propulsion diesel engines 144 What is the purpose of the "window" installed in the housing of an
which of the following design features in common? remove exhaust gases and to _____________. is admitted to each cylinder during _____________. individual jerk pump?
A. The silencer is equipped with a water seal. A. power the Roots-type exhauster A. the power stroke A. To allow the pump to be timed to the engine.
B. The exhaust gases are not mixed with cooling water. B. remove the emission of exhaust smoke pollutants B. the compression stroke B. To check for sludge on the pump barrel.
C. The internal baffles break up the exhaust gas pulsation. C. power a reciprocating supercharger C. low load operation only C. To check that fuel oil return passages are clear.
D. The exhaust noise is completely eliminated. D. muffle exhaust noise D. periods of standby D. To set up the fuel rack calibration in cubic millimeters.
Ans: C Ans: D Ans: B Ans: A
125 In a diesel engine, after ignition of the fuel occurs, but before the 126 Most practical diesel engines today operate on a cycle which is a 145 Which of the following listed construction details of internal 146 Which statement regarding the arrangement and location of
piston reaches TDC, there is little change in the cylinder combination of the Diesel and Otto cycles. In this process, combustion engines is required? explosion relief valves used on an internal combustion engines is
_____________. compression ignition _____________. true_____________?
A. volume A. begins on a constant volume basis A. A warning notice to caution against the opening of a hot crankcase A. They may be omitted on all engines having a cylinder bore of nine
B. pressure B. begins on a constant pressure basis for a specified period of time after shut down. inches or less
C. temperature C. ends on a constant volume basis B. The use of end block construction for engines developing over 1000 B. They may be omitted provided the engine utilizes a crankcase
D. energy D. begins and ends on a constant volume basis brake horsepower. monitoring system
Ans: A Ans: A C. Removable cylinder liners must be used for engines developing C. The type of engine and operating cycle must be considered by the
127 Main propulsion diesel engines having a bore exceeding 300 mm 128 In an opposed piston engine, the term "crank lead" refers to over 1000 brake horsepower. designer
are to have at least _________. _____________. D. All engines shall be provided with an exhaust gas pressure D. Minimizing the danger from emission of flame is a key consideration
A. two independent means of starting the engine A. one crankshaft turning faster than the other monitoring system.
B. two engine driven lube oil pumps capable of parallel operation B. the two crankshafts turning in different directions Ans: A Ans: D
147 The term "proper metering", as applied to a diesel fuel injection 148 One function of the fuel pump delivery check valve is to
C. one (explosion relief) valve at the position of each main crank throw C. the piston in one cylinder reaching inner dead center several system, can be best defined as _____________. _____________.
crankshaft degrees before the other piston A. delivering the same quantity of fuel to each cylinder for each power A. prevent carbon deposits from forming on the injector nozzle
D. five air starting valves to permit the admission of starting air at any D. the piston in one cylinder reaching dead center when the other stroke according to engine load
crank angle reaches outer dead center B. maintaining the metering adjustment for a reasonable period under B. help the injector needle reseat without dribbling at the nozzle holes
Ans: C Ans: C all load conditions
129 A controllable pitch propeller on a diesel driven vessel eliminates the 130 Which of the events listed does NOT occur during the instant the C. timing fuel injection to obtain maximum power and good fuel C. provide a prolonged pressure drop in the high pressure steel piping
need for ____________. piston just reaches top dead center? economy to the injector
A. friction clutches A. Intake D. distributing the fuel to all parts of the combustion chamber for proper D. ensure a fuel leakoff between the plunger and barrel which provides
B. disconnect clutches B. Ignition combustion lubrication for relative movement
C. reversing gears C. Power Ans: A Ans: B
D. reduction gears D. Combustion 149 The rate of fuel injection in a diesel engine cylinder depends 150 Fuel injection systems meter fuel, atomize fuel, and
Ans: C Ans: A primarily on _____________. _____________.
131 Mist detectors used on large low-speed main propulsion diesel 132 A main propulsion diesel engine crankshaft bearing lacking sufficient A. the size of the holes in the fuel nozzle A. create turbulence in the combustion chamber
engines monitor and check for the presence of ____________. "crush", will _____________. B. timing of the pump B. aid in completing cylinder scavenging
C. supply pressure to the pump C. inject fuel at the proper time
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D. shape of the combustion chamber D. minimize fuel penetration into the cylinder 171 Fuel oil penetration into the cylinder of a diesel engine is 172 Proper atomization of fuel in diesel engine combustion chambers
Ans: A Ans: C _____________. will _____________.
151 The valve cam slope angle determines the _____________. 152 Engine displacement is equal to the cylinder _____________. A. dependent on air turbulence A. affect the injection pressure
A. engine torque characteristics A. area times the stroke B. reduced by finer atomization B. improve combustion
B. acceleration rate of valve opening and closing B. area times the stroke, times the number of cylinders C. increased by finer atomization C. reduce compression pressure
C. engine fuel efficiency C. volume times the stroke D. nonexistent in the precombustion chamber system D. decrease power output
D. diameter of intake and exhaust valves D. volume times the stroke, times the number of cylinders Ans: B Ans: B
Ans: B Ans: B 173 What is required for crosshead type engines that have a 174 Which of the following statements is an accurate description of fuel
153 Cylinders diameters greater than 230 mm require additional safety 154 A loop or cross scavenged engine utilizes the motion of its pistons scavenging space in open connection to the cylinder? injection piping used on diesel engines with a cylinder bore of 250
devices when the scavenging spaces are openly connected to the and a turbocharger to provide scavenging air. Which of the listed mm and above?
cylinders. Which of the following devices will be used to protect such mechanical designs prevents the air under the pistons from being A. The air flow from the scavenging space must always be protected A. The piping shall be so arranged to allow for uncomplicated removal
spaces? pumped back through the scavenge ports during the piston by plate type check valves and under no circumstance may other of the fuel injection equipment and other associated components
devices be used. located on the cylinder head.
A. Tri-knock fittings A. Masked intake ports B. A suitable gasket for the interface of both manifolds is necessary to B. All high pressure piping shall be of the double lined type, with the
B. Explosion relief valves B. Length of the piston skirt prevent recirculation of scavenging gases, while additionally outer leakoff line suitably channeled to a dedicated tank.
C. Quick release expansion joints C. Positive pressure from the blower minimizing exhaust gas leakage.
D. Stacked plate type inlet check valves D. Lower liner seals C. The scavenging space is to be permanently connected to an C. All storage tanks connected to the leakoff piping of fuel injection
Ans: B Ans: B approved fire extinguishing system, entirely separate from the fire systems shall be provided with high level alarms and sufficient
155 Fuel injectors used in heavy fuel oil systems are usually provided 156 The possibility of damage from operating a diesel engine at critical extinguishing system of the engine room. means for emptying.
with cooling to reduce _____________. speeds is reduced by the use of ______________. D. The required equipment for a crosshead type engine is totally D. The piping is to be effectively shielded and secured to prevent fuel
A. cold corrosion of the nozzles A. an isochronous governor dependent upon manufacturer's ability to placate market demands or fuel mist from reaching a source of ignition on the engine or its
B. fuel viscosity for better atomization B. elastic engine mounts surroundings.
C. carbon accumulation on the nozzles C. a vibration damper Ans: C Ans: D
D. fuel detonation in the cylinders D. a cast iron bed plate with good flexible qualities 175 In a diesel engine mechanical-type fuel pump, the delivery check 176 What is the term given to the process of breaking up fuel oil into very
Ans: C Ans: C valve is opened by ____________. fine particles for better combustion?
157 Increasing the load on an engine using a double-helix type injection 158 The linear motion of a diesel engine piston is converted to the rotary A. push rod action A. Settling
pump varies the effective stroke of the pump to start motion required to drive gears, propeller shafts, and generators by B. cam action B. Straining
_____________. the _____________. C. hydraulic action C. Spraying
A. earlier and end later A. flywheel D. spring action D. Atomizing
B. later and end earlier B. crankshaft Ans: C Ans: D
C. and end later C. journal bearings 177 Differential needle valves used in fuel injectors are directly closed 178 Diesel engine fuel oil leakage should be drained and additional
D. and end earlier D. camshaft by _____________. precautions provided to __________.
Ans: A Ans: B A. cam action A. return this oil to the proper storage tank
159 The duration of fuel injection developed by an individual port-and- 160 The plunger in a jerk pump is rotated until the release port is B. spring force B. prevent contamination of lubricating oil by fuel oil
helix fuel injection pump, is determined by the ____________. uncovered. If the port remains uncovered all of the time, which of C. fuel oil pressure C. ascertain an accurate measurement of this leakage
the listed operations will occur? D. firing pressure D. drain cooling water system components
A. total pump stroke A. No fuel will be delivered. Ans: B Ans: B
B. pump plunger diameter B. The maximum effective stroke will be attained. 179 Injection lag can be caused by ____________. 180 When is fuel injected into a cylinder of diesel engines?
C. plunger helix angle C. The fuel delivered to the cylinder will be excessive. A. improper timing of the intake valves A. Before air in the cylinder is compressed.
D. effective pump stroke D. The injection nozzle will overheat and carbonize. B. setting of the pump plunger B. After air in the cylinder is compressed.
Ans: D Ans: A C. compressibility of the fuel C. After combustion gases in the cylinder have expanded.
161 When the lower edge of the spiral begins to uncover the release 162 The amount of fuel delivered by a helical plunger fuel injection pump D. position of the needle valve D. As air is taken into the cylinder.
port in a jerk pump, the _____________. is controlled by _____________. Ans: C Ans: B
A. pumping continues until the plunger travels its full stroke A. varying the pump discharge pressure 181 A diesel engine with a combustion chamber located between the 182 The rate of pressure rise during the period following fuel ignition
B. effective pumping stroke of the plunger ends B. varying the pump return pressure crowns of two pistons is known as a/an _______________. process in a diesel engine, is influenced chiefly by the
C. pressure drops slowly until the full stroke is attained C. rotation of the pump plunger ____________.
D. plunger rotates to the zero delivery position until the next stroke D. rotation of the pump barrel A. double-acting engine A. percent of CO2
Ans: B Ans: C B. opposed pistons engine B. range of inflammability
163 Which of the following will occur when the lower edge of the spiral, 164 In a diesel engine, pistons are attached to the crankshaft by C. single-acting engine C. theoretical fuel/air ratio
on the plunger of a jerk pump, uncovers the spill port? _____________. D. horizontal acting engine D. length of the ignition delay period
A. The plunger immediately reverses direction. A. push rods Ans: B Ans: D
B. The pressure drops and fuel delivery stops. B. clearance adjusters 183 An exhaust pipe from a internal combustion engine may not need to 184 The driving force of a propeller is transmitted to the hull through
C. The plunger rotates to the no fuel position. C. connecting rods be insulated when _________. the_____________.
D. The barrel rotates to the zero effective stroke position. D. piston guides A. installed on fishing vessels A. bevel gear teeth
Ans: B Ans: C B. it is of the water jacketed type B. helically cut gear teeth
165 Which of the components listed is NOT found in a single acting 166 In diesel engines designed with a crosshead, the motion of the C. it is used as an emergency generator C. sleeve bearings
engine? piston rod can be described as _____________. D. special provision is made by the Chief Engineer D. thrust bearing
A. Exhaust valves A. reciprocating at the piston pin, rotary at the crank pin Ans: B Ans: D
B. Scavenging ports B. reciprocating at the crank pin, rotary at the piston pin 185 In diesel engines, the four basic events (intake, compression, 186 Fuel supplied by each unit injector on a two-stroke/cycle single
C. Combustion chambers C. straight reciprocation power and exhaust) are performed once in _______________. acting diesel engine is directed into each cylinder at a very high
D. Double crankshafts D. straight rotation pressure through the ____________.
Ans: D Ans: C A. two crankshaft revolutions in a two-stroke/cycle engine A. high pressure fuel line
167 Cast iron pistons used in large propulsion diesel engines are 168 Which of the following manufacturing methods is recommended for B. two power strokes in a two-stroke/cycle engine B. spill deflector
constructed with ____________. diesel engine fuel injection line piping? C. one power stroke in a two-stroke/cycle engine C. check valve
A. no taper what so ever A. Cold rolled D. two piston strokes in a two-stroke/cycle engine D. spray tip of the injector
B. the skirt being tapered and smaller than the crown B. Electric resistance welded Ans: D Ans: D
C. the skirt being tapered and larger than the crown C. Seamless drawn 187 The main reason for using bimetallic piston rings is to 188 The time between injection and ignition of the fuel is known as
D. the crown being tapered and smaller than the skirt D. Straight seam ______________. _____________.
Ans: D Ans: C A. increase engine thermal efficiency A. turbulence lag
169 Successful combustion inside the cylinders of a diesel engine is 170 Which of the combustion parameters listed is used in a diesel B. reduce specific fuel consumption B. after burning ratio
dependent upon _____________. engine, but NOT related to the injection system? C. reduce the probability of ring fracture C. preignition lag
A. fine atomization A. Atomization D. allow for ring expansion D. ignition delay
B. high temperature B. Metering Ans: C Ans: D
C. good mixing of fuel and air C. Effective stroke 189 The device used to limit engine torque at various engine speeds is 190 Which characteristic of the Otto cycle occurs in the actual diesel
D. all of the above D. Penetration called a ______________. cycle but NOT in the theoretical diesel cycle?
Ans: D Ans: C A. speed limiting governor A. No pressure increase during combustion.
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B. variable speed governor B. Rapid pressure increase during combustion. C. once every piston stroke C. ring expansion from the heat of combustion
C. constant speed governor C. Rapid volume increase during combustion. D. twice every piston stroke D. combustion gas pressure acting behind the ring
D. load limiting governor D. No volume increase during combustion. Ans: A Ans: D
Ans: D Ans: D 209 In a modern internal combustion diesel engine, the load carrying 210 In diesel engines, hydraulic valve lifters are used to ____________.
191 What causes diesel fuel to be ignited in the cylinder of an operating 192 The efficient burning of fuel in a diesel engine is dependent upon part of the engine is referred to as the _________.
diesel engine? the _____________. A. bedplate or base A. reduce valve gear pounding
A. Spark plug A. temperature of compression B. sump or oil pan B. increase valve operating clearance
B. Heat of compression B. atomization of the fuel C. cylinder block C. obtain greater valve lift
C. Carburetor C. penetration of the fuel D. frame D. create longer valve duration
D. Glow plug D. all of the above Ans: A Ans: A
Ans: B Ans: D 211 The purpose of piston ring end clearance is to ____________. 212 What is the purpose of a hydraulic tappet clearance adjuster?
193 The purpose of compressing the air within the cylinder of a diesel 194 The blower type crankcase ventilation system ____________.
engine is to __________. A. allow the combustion gases to press the ring down on the land A. Insures proper pressure in a hydraulic system.
A. produce the heat for ignition A. removes combustible gases from the crankcase
B. decrease injection lag B. prevents the formation of combustible gases in the crankcase B. allow the combustion gases to get behind the ring and press it B. Allows for constant contact between the valve stem and the rocker
against the cylinder liner arm regardless of whether the engine is cold or warm.
C. increase ignition delay C. cools lubricating oil
D. aid in exhausting burnt gases D. improves cold weather starting C. prevent buckling and breaking of the ring C. Eliminates need to remove valve springs.
Ans: A Ans: A D. aid in protecting the oil film D. Provides far easier removal of the valve cage.
195 The most important factor in engine performance is the actual 196 A diesel engine which is rated for normal operation at a crankshaft Ans: C Ans: B
power output at the end of the crankshaft available for doing work. speed of 800 RPM, is commonly classed as a ____________. 213 What is the swept volume per cylinder per revolution of a six- 214 In a unit injector the amount of fuel that will be forced through the
This is known as _____________. cylinder, two-stroke/cycle diesel engine with a 580 mm bore and a spray nozzle on each stroke of the plunger depends on
A. indicated horsepower A. slow-speed diesel 1700 mm stroke operating at 100 RPM? _____________.
B. brake horsepower B. medium-speed diesel A. 0.45 cubic meters (450 L) A. the pump supply pressure
C. net horsepower C. high-speed diesel B. 0.90 cubic meters (900 L) B. the slope of the fuel cam
D. friction horsepower D. constant-speed diesel C. 2.7 cubic meters (2700 L) C. how the plunger is rotated
Ans: B Ans: B D. 5.4 cubic meters (5400 L) D. the number of sleeve segments engaged with the rack
197 The bore of a diesel engine cylinder describes the ________. 198 Crankcase explosion relief valves should be of the ________. Ans: B Ans: C
215 The intake and exhaust valves used in a diesel engine are returned 216 Valve cages are used on some large diesel engines to
A. swept volume of the cylinder A. return seating type to their seats by _____________. _____________.
B. inside diameter of the cylinder B. spring centered type A. push rod pressure A. reduce wear on the valve stem
C. piston displacement in the cylinder C. spring opened type B. spring force B. permit the use of alloy valve seat materials
D. length of the piston stroke D. duplex double acting type C. combustion pressure C. reduce heat transfer from the valve seat
Ans: B Ans: A D. exhaust pressure D. facilitate valve removal for servicing
199 Diesel engine exhaust valve springs are under compression when 200 Which of the factors listed has the greatest effect on the mechanical Ans: B Ans: D
they are __________. efficiency of a diesel engine? 217 In a diesel engine, an integral liner is one in which thecooling water 218 A diesel engine indicator diagram has an area of 22 cm2 and a
A. wide open only A. Temperature of the intake air __________. I. flows through the cylinder liner jackets II. touches length of 12.5 cm. If the scale of the indicator spring is 1 mm = 1
B. partially open only B. Friction within the engine the outer side of the liner kg/cm2, what is the cylinder mean effective pressure?
C. closed only C. Mechanical condition of the supercharger
D. in any position D. Mechanical condition of the turbocharger A. I only A. 17.6 kg/cm2
Ans: D Ans: B B. II only B. 27.5 kg/cm2
201 Which of the following statements describes the operating 202 Which of the following statements is correct concerning available C. both I and II C. 34.5 kg/cm2
characteristics of a precombustion chamber? astern power for diesel main propulsion systems? D. neither I nor II D. 36.0 kg/cm2
A. When fuel oil is injected into the precombustion chamber, it does not A. The astern power of the main propelling machinery is to provide for Ans: A Ans: A
need to be as finely atomized as the fuel oil in diesel engines having continuous operation astern at 60% of the ahead rpm at rated 219 Which of the listed bearing types is an example of a solid bearing? 220 In which of the scavenging methods listed will the exhaust valve be
direct injection. speed. located in the cylinder head?
B. When operating correctly, combustion should not occur in the B. Astern power is to be provided in a sufficient amount to secure A. Piston gudgeon pin bushing A. Return-flow
precombustion chamber. proper control of the ship in all normal circumstances. B. Turbine bearing B. Uniflow
C. Spring bearing C. Crossflow
C. Engines which are designed with precombustion chambers are more C. For main propulsion systems without reversing gears, controllable D. Diesel engine main bearing D. Direct flow
likely to suffer blocked nozzle holes, due to fuel oil impurities, than pitch propellers or electric propulsion drive, running astern is not to Ans: A Ans: B
engines designed with direct injection. lead to overload conditions. 221 A method of finishing diesel engine cylinder walls to aid in the proper 222 The device most commonly used to measure exhaust gas
D. Engines with precombustion chambers, which do not have an D. Astern power available will be equal to ahead power when ring seating and lubrication is known as ____________. temperature of cyclinders is a _____________.
increased compression ratio, are not as difficult to start when cold, controllable pitch propellers are utilized, thus discounting the need A. ribbed honing A. pyrometer
as engines with direct injection. for increased operating parameters. B. angled honing B. calorimeter
Ans: A Ans: B C. cross hatch honing C. dynamometer
203 A multi-orifice fuel injection nozzle is usually used with which of the 204 Combustion gases formed in the cylinder of a diesel engine are D. doubled honing D. tachometer
listed types of combustion chamber? prevented from blowing past the piston by _____________. Ans: C Ans: A
223 The rate of pressure rise during the period following fuel ignition in a 224 The lower water seal on a diesel engine wet cylinder liner must allow
A. Open combustion chamber A. cylinder valves diesel engine is influenced by the length of the ignition delay period for liner axial movement. This seal is most commonly a
B. Precombustion chamber B. compression rings due to the ______. _____________.
C. Turbulence chamber C. piston skirts A. valve overlap A. neoprene O-ring
D. Energy cell D. oil rings B. volumetric efficiency B. soft copper gasket
Ans: A Ans: B C. turbulence of the air change C. precision ground flange joint
205 The flywheel reduces speed fluctuations by _____________. 206 Opposed piston diesel engines are classified as __________. D. fuel efficiency D. flexible metallic seal ring
Ans: C Ans: A
A. maintaining a constant rack setting A. two-stroke/cycle single acting 225 Which of the devices listed is installed on a diesel engine to isolate 226 Differential type fuel oil nozzles in a diesel engine areclosed directly
B. storing kinetic energy B. two-stroke/cycle double acting some of the crankshaft vibrations caused by rotational and by _____________. I. spring pressure II. fuel oil pressure
C. maintaining equal exhaust pressure C. four-stroke/cycle single acting reciprocating forces?
D. maintaining even camshaft speed D. four-stroke/cycle double acting A. Planetary gear set A. I only
Ans: B Ans: A B. Torsional vibration damper B. II only
207 In a single acting, two-stroke/cycle, diesel generator engine, the 208 In an operating diesel engine, the sealing of the cylinder is the result C. Friction clutch C. either I or II
power impulse in an individual cylinder occurs ____________. of the compression rings being forced against the cylinder walls by D. Air bladder clutch D. neither I nor II
_____________. Ans: B Ans: A
A. once every crankshaft revolution A. oil pressure acting behind the ring 227 Modern marine diesel engines equipped with mechanical fuel 228 An efficient seal between the cylinder block and cylinder heads on
B. once every two crankshaft revolutions B. compression pressure acting beneath the ring injection operate on a combustion cycle which is _________. many diesel engines is obtained with _____________.
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A. entirely constant pressure A. graphite packing D. Thrust bearing D. plate

B. entirely constant volume B. sealing compound Ans: A Ans: C
C. a combination of constant volume and constant pressure C. lubricating oil 249 In a diesel engine, the main bearings are used between the 250 Which of the listed bearing installations is subjected to swinging
D. a combination of constant temperature and constant pressure D. gaskets _____________. motion?
A. connecting rod and the crankshaft A. Crankshaft journal
Ans: C Ans: D B. gudgeon pin and the connecting rod B. Crankpin bearings
229 For a four-stroke/cycle medium-speed diesel engine, fuel injection 230 Oil for piston cooling is delivered through the connecting rod to a C. camshaft and the engine block C. gudgeon pin bearings
commences from 7 to 26 crankshaft degrees before top dead compartment in the piston head, then distributed as a result of D. crankshaft and the engine block D. aluminum piping with expansion loops
center. After fuel injection commences, how many degrees does the piston motion, and finally drained to the crankcase through one or Ans: D Ans: C
camshaft rotate before the exhaust valve push rod moves up? more holes or pipes. This procedure is known as the 251 Which of the bearings listed is most widely used for main and 252 The proper location for journal bearing oil grooves is
connecting rod bearings of modern diesel engines? _______________.
A. 21‚-31‚ A. splash method A. Steel-lined A. in the region of the load bearing surface
B. 45‚-55‚ B. spray method B. Poured babbitt, self-aligning B. as a side relief where the two shells meet
C. 66‚-76‚ C. shaker method C. Split roller C. at the bottom of the bearing
D. 106‚-115‚ D. throw off method D. Precision insert D. halfway between bottom and where shells meet
Ans: C Ans: C Ans: D Ans: B
231 Poor timing of the fuel injection system is similar to the effects of 232 The "breaking-up" of fuel as it enters a diesel engine cylinder is 253 Fuel is admitted to a diesel engine cylinder through the 254 Directional intake ports in diesel engines are used to
poor _____________. known as _____________. _____________. _____________.
A. metering of the fuel flow A. airification A. intake valves A. reduce air charge turbulence
B. control of the rate of fuel injection B. vaporization B. carburetor B. induce air swirl
C. atomization of the fuel C. atomization C. exhaust ports C. deflect hot combustion gas away from the valves
D. distribution of the fuel D. gasification D. scrape oil and carbon deposits off the cylinder walls D. lock all safety interlock switches closed
Ans: B Ans: C Ans: D Ans: B
233 The exhaust ports of a diesel engine using the crossflow scavenging 234 Which of the bearings listed below is most widely used for the main 255 Telescopic pipes to the piston of a large slow-speed main propulsion 256 How are hydraulic tappet clearance adjusters on diesel engine
method are opened and closed by the ____________. and connecting rod bearings of a modern high-speed diesel engine? diesel engine are designed to prevent __________. rocker arm assemblies lubricated?

A. reciprocating motion of exhaust valves A. Steel-lined A. excessive crankcase pressure A. Cup-fed grease
B. rotary motion of the camshaft B. Poured babbitt, self-aligning B. excessive lube oil temperature B. Sealed self-lubricators
C. reciprocating motion of the piston C. Split roller C. contamination of the lube oil by water C. Metered hydraulic oil supply
D. developed differential D. Precision insert D. All of the above are correct. D. losses to escaping exhaust gases
Ans: C Ans: D Ans: C Ans: D
235 Valve rotators are commonly used on which of the listed diesel 236 Exhaust valve openings in a diesel engine cylinder head are made 257 A large, low-speed, main propulsion diesel engine uses sea water 258 The purpose of an oil mist detector in a main propulsion diesel
engine cylinder head valves? as large as practical to _____________. to directly cool the _____________. engine is to warn of ____________.
A. Air starting A. increase back pressure during the exhaust process A. cylinder heads A. excessive mist density in the crankcase
B. Cylinder relief B. facilitate periodic replacement of the valves B. exhaust valves B. excessively high crankcase vacuum
C. Exhaust C. reduce the pumping loss associated with scavenging C. scavenging air C. excessively high bearing temperatures
D. Blowdown D. reduce tension on valve springs D. injectors D. excessive carbon buildup in the lube oil
Ans: C Ans: C Ans: C Ans: A
237 Piston cooling fins are located _____________. 238 Diesel engine mufflers reduce noise by ______________. 259 One method of constructing large marine diesel engines and 260 Which of the fuel injection systems listed uses a spring loaded
A. atop the piston crown A. packing muffler chambers reducing the total engine frame weight is through ____________. differential spray needle valve and an individual pump for each
B. beneath the piston crown B. the use of long head pipes cylinder?
C. at the base of the piston skirt C. the use of zinc electrodes A. casting interlocking components A. Common-rail injection
D. inside the cylinder liner cooling water jacket D. changing exhaust gas direction B. welding plates to form sections for assembly B. Air injection
Ans: B Ans: D C. forging integral components C. Jerk pump injection
239 In the cylinder head of a two-stroke/cycle diesel engine, valves are 240 Which of the listed characteristics is common to both wet and dry D. main shaft flexible coupling D. Distributor injection
used for _____________. type diesel engine exhaust mufflers? Ans: B Ans: C
A. air intake A. Both mufflers contain moving parts. 261 Concerning diesel propelled vessels, the astern power is to provide 262 The crankcase of many diesel engines are kept under a slight
B. a fuel outlet B. They never require any maintenance. for continuous operation astern ___________. vacuum by the ______________.
C. cooling water inlets C. They function as spark arresters. A. equal to that available for ahead operation A. scavenging action of the piston
D. exhausting combustion gas D. Both have a dust collecting chamber. B. at 70 percent of the ahead rpm at rated speed B. crankcase exhaust fan
Ans: D Ans: C C. while underway and under all normal conditions C. gland exhausting manometer
241 The intake ports of a two-stroke/cycle diesel engine are opened and 242 Compared to four-stroke/cycle engines, two-stroke/cycle diesel D. at 70 percent of the ahead rpm of average continous sea speed D. piston type vacuum pump taking suction off a differential manometer
closed by the action of the _____________. engines have the disadvantage of _____________.
A. camshaft A. less even torque Ans: B Ans: B
B. piston movement B. higher cylinder head temperatures 263 Which of the fuel systems listed combines the injection pump and 264 In a unit injector, an upper helix and lower helix are machined in the
C. exhaust valves C. fewer power strokes per revolution the injection nozzle in one housing? lower part of the plunger for _____________.
D. vertical drive D. greater weight/size requirements A. Common rail A. facilitating plunger rotation
Ans: B Ans: B B. Unit injector B. positioning the control sleeve
243 Which of the listed conditions will affect the mean effective 244 In comparing engines of equal horsepower, higher exhaust gas C. Air injection C. accurate metering of the fuel oil
pressure the most in the cylinders of a diesel engine? temperatures occur in a/an _____________. D. Hydraulic governing D. eliminating injection lag
A. TBN of the lubricating oil A. opposed-piston engine Ans: B Ans: C
B. Temperature of the lube oil B. double-acting engine 265 Regarding a Diesel engine crankcase, the general arrangement and 266 In a diesel engine, internal combustion causes the piston to be
C. Completeness in the mixing of the fuel and air C. two-stroke/cycle engine installation should preclude the possibility of ________. moved by _____________.
D. Temperature of the cooling (sea) water D. four-stroke/cycle engine
Ans: C Ans: D A. free entry of air to the crankcase A. the pressure of gases developed
245 The primary purpose of the open combustion chamber used in diesel 246 Which of the bearings listed are most widely used for the main and B. water entering the crankcase while engine washdowns are being B. the simple admission of fuel and air into the combustion space only
engines is to _____________. connecting rod bearings of a diesel engine? performed
A. improve piston cooling A. Roller C. excessive oil leakage during periods of increased blowby C. specially designed parts connected to a shaft
B. stratify the fuel charge B. Sleeve D. all of the above D. the concept of reciprocity
C. prevent carbon buildup C. Precision insert Ans: A Ans: A
D. provide a place for combustion D. Mechanical lubricators 267 What function is provided by the crankcase ventilation system on 268 For diesel engine piston cooling, lubricating oil can be supplied to the
Ans: D Ans: C some diesel engines? pistons by a/an ____________.
247 Which of the following is an example of a solid bearing? 248 The upper section of a piston is called the _____________. A. Increases the sludge forming tendency of lube oil. A. oil spray
A. Piston pin bushing A. land B. Prevents the accumulation of combustible gases. B. oil bath
B. Turbo-generator turbine bearing B. skirt C. Improves lube oil cooling. C. oil control rings
C. Spring bearing C. crown D. Improve cold weather starting D. drilled passage through the camshaft
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Ans: B Ans: A A. it has a longer power stroke A. the pump supply pressure
269 The purpose of the delivery check valve used in a diesel fuel 270 In a two-stroke/cycle diesel engine, the camshaft rotates at B. more air gets into the cylinder each stroke B. the slope of the fuel cam
injection jerk pump is to _____________. _____________. C. it develops twice as many power strokes at the same speed C. how the plunger is rotated
A. assist in a quick cutoff of fuel injection A. twice the crankshaft speed D. higher combustion pressure is developed D. the number of sleeve segments engaged with the rack
B. allow oil backflow from the injector to the helix B. half the crankshaft speed Ans: C Ans: C
C. reduce fuel oil pressure between injection strokes C. the same speed as the crankshaft 289 Modern marine diesel engines using mechanical fuel injectors 290 The amount of fuel delivered by a unit injector is controlled by the
D. meter the quantity of fuel delivered D. a speed independent of the crankshaft operate on a combustion cycle which is _________. _____________.
Ans: A Ans: C A. a combination of constant volume and constant pressure A. camshaft
271 The primary function of a fuel delivery check valve assembly is to 272 For any piston ring to operate smoothly without scuffing, the ring B. a combination of constant temperature and constant pressure B. main spring
_____________. must be _____________.
A. deliver proper fuel quantity to the injection nozzle A. of a material harder than the cylinder liner C. entirely constant pressure C. rack position
B. provide rapid fuel injection cutoff B. properly lubricated D. entirely constant volume D. nozzle orifice size
C. control fuel quantity entering the pump body C. prevented from compressing Ans: A Ans: C
D. control fuel pressure delivered to the combustion chamber D. prevented from rotating during engine operation 291 The diesel engine valve subjected to most severe conditions of 292 For a given fuel, a change in the compression ratio will affect the
Ans: B Ans: B service is the ____________. ignition lag by which of the listed means?
273 The upper piston rings in large, slow-speed, two-stroke/ cycle diesel 274 Fuel injector nozzles are usually of the multi-orifice type with the A. cylinder exhaust valve A. An increase in compression ratio will increase the ignition lag.
engines are most effectively lubricated by oil _____________. number and placement of the holes arranged according to the B. air starting valve B. An increase in compression ratio will decrease the ignition lag.
_____________.
A. fed from mechanical lubricators A. type of piston rings C. air inlet valve C. A decrease in compression ratio will decrease the ignition lag.
B. thrown off from the main bearings B. pressure of the fuel system
C. supplied from wick fed drip lubricators C. size of the pump plunger spring D. cylinder relief valve D. A decrease in ignition lag will increase the compression ratio
D. flow from a centrifugal or banjo oiler D. design of the combustion chamber Ans: A Ans: B
Ans: A Ans: D 293 The lower section of a piston is called the _____________. 294 What is the function of an engine's stationary parts?
275 The delivery valve installed in a port and helix fuel injection pump is 276 The shape of a diesel engine cam determines the ___________. A. land A. To add power to the engine.
designed to ____________. B. skirt B. To keep the engine firmly attached to its supporting base.
A. maintain constant pressure in the discharge line A. points of opening and closing of the valve C. crown C. To keep moving engine parts in their proper relative positions.
B. maintain a column of fuel in the line B. velocity of opening and closing of the valve
C. accurately meter the quantity of fuel injected C. amount of the valve lift from its seat D. plate D. To rotate the crankshaft.
D. close with hydraulic action D. all of the above Ans: B Ans: C
Ans: B Ans: D 295 Fuel oil discharged to the diesel engine cylinder is atomized at the 296 Proper dispersion of fuel in a diesel engine cylinder is dependent
277 Additional explosion relief valves are fitted on separate spaces of 278 If all other conditions such as bore, stroke, speed, and mean _____________. upon the _____________.
the crankcase such as gear or chain cases for camshaft or similar effective pressures are equal, a two-stroke/cycle diesel engine will A. turbocharger A. injection pressure
drives when the __________. develop approximately _____________. B. injector nozzle tip B. shape of combustion space
A. gross volume of such spaces exceeds 0.6+D340 cubic meters A. the same indicated horsepower as a four-stroke/cycle engine C. carburetor C. turbulence in combustion space
D. fuel oil pump D. all of the above
B. possibility of explosion exists due to the formation of volatile gases B. one half the indicated horsepower as a four-stroke/cycle engine Ans: B Ans: D
297 In a diesel engine, crosshatch on the liner surface aids 298 Why is it necessary to compress the air charge in the cylinders of a
C. unit is operating in extreme overload conditions C. twice the indicated horsepower as a four-stroke/cycle engine in___________.I. rapid ring seating II. the retention of lube oil diesel engine?
A. I only is correct A. To ignite the fuel.
D. gross volume of such space exceeds 0.6 cubic meter D. one power stroke for every two crankshaft revolutions B. II only is correct B. To insure pumpimg losses are held to a minimum.
Ans: A Ans: C C. both I and II are correct C. To increase fuel consumption.
279 In order to reverse the rotation of a two-stroke/cycle loop 280 A viscous damper, as used on a marine diesel, is a sealed precision D. neither I or II are correct D. To keep exhaust temperature low.
scavenged, direct reversing, propulsion diesel engine, the cam built device which dampens the torsional vibrations in the Ans: C Ans: A
positions must be changed for the _____________. _____________. 299 Which of the following statements concerning a closed type fuel 300 Many diesel engine exhaust valves are being constructed with
A. starting air and fuel pumps A. camshaft injection nozzle is true? hollow stems filled with sodium in order to _____________.
B. piston cooling pumps B. flywheel
C. exhaust valves C. crankshaft A. The hole type of a closed nozzle is self-cleaning. A. increase overall valve strength due to the high gas pressures
D. all of the above D. thrust shaft
Ans: A Ans: C B. Multi-hole type nozzles are only suitable for use in engines with B. provide added wear protection against today's corrosive quality of
281 The rotary motion of a diesel engine crankshaft is obtained from the 282 Indirect cooling of fuel injector nozzle holders for diesel engines is precombustion chambers. fuel
up and down motion of the piston via the _________. accomplished primarily by ____________. C. Most closed nozzles open inward under the pressure acting on the C. assist in dissipating heat due to the extreme operating temperatures
differential area of the needle valve.
A. camshaft A. heat conduction into the injected fuel oil D. The pintle type nozzles are most susceptible to carbon deposits D. reduce the overall weight of the valve thus helping eliminate valve
B. reduction gears B. heat conduction into the water jacket wall building up in and around the orifice. spring surge and hammering
C. rocker arm C. water circulation through passages in the holder Ans: C Ans: C
D. connecting or piston rod D. fuel oil circulation through passages in the holder 301 Turbulence of the compressed air charge in a diesel engine cylinder 302 Thin bronze rings are inserted in the face of some chromium plated
Ans: D Ans: B increases _____________. piston rings to _____________.
283 Diesel engine main and connecting rod precision bearings are made 284 The port-and-helix metering pumps, used in diesel fuel injection A. ignition lag A. promote piston ring seating in the cylinder
in halves. Each half exceeds one-half the bearing circumference by systems, are usually designed to produce a constant beginning and B. piston side thrust B. prevent rapid wear on the ring face
a small amount. The small amount is termed _____________. a variable ending of fuel injection. These pumps are usually C. the efficiency of the engine C. provide better lubrication of the piston ring
_____________. D. compression pressure D. produce an even glaze on the cylinder
A. clearance A. timed for port opening Ans: C Ans: A
B. crush B. timed for port closing 303 In the Otto cycle, the fuel/air mixture is ignited at what point and by 304 Critical speed in diesel engines occurs when engine torque
C. pitch C. controlled by rack movement what means? pulsations become _____________.
D. thrust D. controlled by plunger stroke A. At TDC by heat generated by compression. A. opposed to the crankshaft rocking couple
Ans: B Ans: B B. Just before TDC by heat generated by compression. B. resonant with the crankshaft natural frequency
285 The end of fuel injection in a port-and-helix metering pump can be 286 The main reason counterweights are added to crankshafts is to C. Just before TDC by spark ignition. C. critical fore and aft crankshaft vibrations
controlled by _____________. _____________. D. At TDC by spark ignition D. horizontal whipping motions of the crankshaft
A. uncovering a fuel port in the pump barrel A. reduce piston side thrust Ans: C Ans: B
B. covering a fuel port in the pump barrel B. reduce crankshaft end thrust 305 A diesel engine piston ring face is in direct contact with the 306 A secondary function of diesel engine piston rings is to
C. closing the fuel pump delivery valve C. provide uniform loading and wear of main bearings _____________. _____________.
D. opening the fuel pump delivery valve D. increase the strength of the crank webs A. top of the ring groove A. reduce friction losses in the engine
Ans: A Ans: C B. cylinder liner oil film B. absorb the piston side thrust
287 For a given size engine, the two-stroke/cycle diesel engine will 288 In a jerk pump, the amount of fuel that will be forced through the C. bottom of the ring groove C. prevent cylinder liner wear
deliver more power than a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine because spray nozzle on each upward stroke of the plunger depends on D. back of the ring groove D. prevent excess lubricant from reaching the combustion space
____________. _____________.
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Ans: B Ans: D 327 At bottom dead center, the centerline of the connecting rod usually 328 A diesel engine exhaust valve spring is under compression when
307 Fuel is ignited in a diesel engine cylinder by ____________. 308 Barrel face, taper face, grooved, and chrome plated are all types of coincides with the _____________. _____________.
diesel engine _____________. A. angularity of the piston motion A. the valve is open
A. a spark plug A. pistons B. inertia moment from the piston B. the piston is at top dead center
B. injectors B. piston rings C. centerline of the cylinder C. the valve is closed
C. the heat of compression C. piston skirts D. centerline of the king pin D. all of the above
D. increasing jacket water temperatures D. cylinder liners Ans: C Ans: D
Ans: C Ans: B 329 A piston is said to be at top dead center when it is ______. 330 The purpose of the flywheel is to ______________.
309 Injectors for use with heavy fuel oil must be cooled by either water 310 Which of the equal power diesel engines listed, running at the same A. opening the exhaust ports A. provide energy to operate the engine between power impulses
or light oil to _____________. speed, is least affected by exhaust back pressure?
A. prevent heat corrosion to internal components A. A four-stroke/cycle "V" type engine B. placed on top of the engine along its centerline B. neutralize the primary inertia force of the crankshaft
B. increase fuel delivery rate and economy B. A two-stroke/cycle "V" type engine C. farthest from the cylinder head C. reduce the shock of starting loads on the main bearings
C. prevent preignition C. An in-line two-stroke/cycle engine D. nearest to the cylinder head D. prevent the engine from operating at critical speed
D. avoid carbonisation of the nozzle tips D. An opposed piston engine Ans: D Ans: A
Ans: D Ans: A 331 A seven cylinder, two-stroke/cycle, single acting diesel engine with a 332 What is the metric brake horse power developed per cylinder by an
311 In a diesel engine, the time taken to heat the fuel particles, turn 312 In a diesel engine, the contact surfaces of the piston compression cylinder indicated horsepower calculated as 1350 kW and brake 83% efficient, six cylinder, two-stroke/cycle diesel engine with a
them into vapor, and bring about combustion is called rings are those in contact with the___________. I. back of the ring horsepower measured at 7466 kW has a mechanical efficiency of cylinder constant of 0.998 and a mean effective pressure of 15
_____________. groove II. bottom of the ring groove ______________. kg/cm2 at 100 RPM?
A. 0.18 A. 1,497 kW
A. injection lag A. I only B. 0.55 B. 1,242 kW
B. ignition delay B. II only C. 0.79 C. 1,116 kW
C. compression ignition C. both I and II D. 0.83 D. 926 kW
D. turbulance lag D. neither I nor II Ans: C Ans: B
Ans: B Ans: B 333 In a diesel engine, pistons are attached to the crankshaft by 334 One advantage of dry cylinder liners used in a diesel engine is the
313 The thermal energy produced by an internal combustion engine is 314 The reason some two-stroke/cycle, diesel engine piston rings are _____________. _____________.
transformed into ______________. pinned to prevent rotation, is _____________. A. push rods A. lower thermal expansion rates than wet liners
A. combustion energy A. cylinder lubricant is spread more evenly on the cylinder wall B. piston rods B. greater heat transfer rate than wet liners
B. internal energy B. less blow-by as the pin seals the end gap C. connecting rods C. greater wear resistance than wet liners
C. external energy C. to keep the ring ends from catching in the scavenging ports D. piston guides D. procedure to replace dry liners is simpler than for wet liners
D. mechanical energy D. to promote more even ring wear Ans: C Ans: D
Ans: D Ans: C 335 Vibrations from diesel engines and engine driven equipment are 336 Which of the following statements concerning fuel atomization in a
315 Oil control rings are designed with slotted holes to _____________. 316 Precombustion chambers differ from turbulence chambers in that isolated from the hull structure by _____________. diesel engine cylinder is correct?
precombustion chambers _____________. A. torsional-vibration dampers A. The greater the atomization, the greater the penetration.
A. decrease ring contact area and cut down heat transfer A. allow fuel injection directly into the space above the piston B. harmonic balancers B. The greater the atomization, the lesser the penetration.
B. decrease contact pressure between ring and cylinder wall B. do not contain the fuel injector nozzle tip C. a detuner flywheel C. The degree of atomization has nothing to do with the degree of
C. increase contact pressure between ring and cylinder wall C. contain the major portion of the total clearance volume penetration.
D. permit excess oil to drain back to the sump D. contain a smaller portion of the total clearance volume D. flexible engine mountings D. Atomization and penetration are one and the same.
Ans: D Ans: D Ans: D Ans: B
317 The primary purpose of oil control rings on a diesel engine piston is 318 The compression ratio of a diesel engine refers to the ratio between 337 The most rapid period of fuel combustion occurring in a diesel 338 When comparing different fuels for different engines, the ignition
to _____________. the _______________. cylinder should begin just before the piston reaches top dead center quality of diesel fuel oils becomes a less critical consideration as
A. provide a reservoir for cylinder lubrication A. piston area to connecting rod length and ______________. ______________.
B. pump oil into the combustion space for cylinder cooling B. cylinder volumes at top dead center and at bottom dead center A. when fuel injection has been completed A. the amount of lube oil additives increase
B. when fuel vaporization has been completed B. piston speeds increase
C. prevent excessive lubricating oil consumption C. engine cylinder size to piston size C. should continue through the afterburning period C. injection pressures decrease
D. allow hydraulic oil film formation on the cylinder D. the number of compression strokes for a given horsepower D. should be completed after the top dead centre D. engine speeds decrease
Ans: C Ans: B Ans: D Ans: D
319 In describing basic diesel engine operation, the term "event" refers 320 The ratio of the brake horsepower to the indicated horsepower of a 339 The power developed by a large slow-speed main propulsion diesel 340 An indicator card or pressure-volume diagram, shows graphically
to _____________. diesel engine is its ______________. engine is dependent upon the ______________. the ____________.
A. the production of high pressure gases A. thermal efficiency A. quantity of air it takes in and retains in the cylinders during a given A. relationships between pressure and volume during one stroke of the
B. the removal of expended combustion gases B. mechanical efficiency time period engine
C. the admission of air to the cylinder C. brake thermal efficiency B. proportion of trapped air that is utilized in the combustion process B. relationships between pressure and volume during one cycle of the
D. All of the above D. volumetric efficiency engine
Ans: D Ans: B C. thermodynamic efficiency of the engine cycle C. volume of the engine
321 Slots are provided in a diesel engine piston oil scraper ring to 322 The function of the piston compression rings used in a diesel engine D. all of the above D. compression ratio of the engine
_____________. is to _____________. Ans: D Ans: B
A. decrease piston side thrust pressure A. seal the space between the piston and liner 341 Cylinder linings constructed as an integral part of the block, are 342 One end of a diesel engine cylinder is sealed by the cylinder head
B. allow for thermal expansion of the ring within the ring land B. transmit heat from the piston to the cylinder liner characterized by which of the following disadvantages? and the other end by the _____________.
C. permit drainage of excess oil to the engine sump C. reduce the amount of combustion gas blow-by
D. make it more flexible for scraping cylinder surfaces D. All of the above. A. They conduct heat poorly. A. crankcase
Ans: C Ans: D B. They are expensive. B. piston
323 How are the pressure and temperature affected in a diesel engine 324 Modern marine diesel engines using mechanical fuel injection, C. They cannot be replaced. C. cylinder liner
cylinder during compression? operate on a combustion cycle which is _________. D. They require special tools for removal. D. crank cheek
A. Pressure and temperature decrease A. a combination of constant volume and constant pressure Ans: C Ans: B
B. Pressure and temperature increase B. a combination of constant temperature and constant pressure 343 Where is the charge for an air starting system stored? 344 Maximum power of a diesel engine is attained ____________.

C. Pressure decreases and temperature increases C. entirely constant pressure A. Air compressor A.
when the engine RPM is pulled down by overload
D. Pressure increases and temperature decreases D. entirely constant volume B. Pressurized tank B.
at rated engine RPM
Ans: B Ans: A C. Distributor assembly C.
at 95% of rated engine RPM
325 If the compression ratio is increased on any diesel engine, 326 Piston compression rings used in a diesel engine function to D. cylinder check valve D.
at 95% of a properly adjusted governor RPM with the engine under
_____________. _____________. full load
A. the expansion ratio will decrease A. transfer heat from the cylinder to the piston Ans: B Ans: B
B. combustion will be slowed down B. scrape oil from the sides of the piston 345 Many cast iron pistons are designed with heat dams, which serve to 346 During the fuel injection period, fuel pressure must exceed cylinder
C. thermal efficiency will decrease C. seal the combustion space from the crankcase _____________. gas pressure to _____________.
D. thermal efficiency will increase D. prevent any piston contact with the cylinder liner A. keep piston crown temperatures elevated for smoother combustion A. ensure penetration and distribution of the fuel in the combustion
Ans: D Ans: C chamber
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B. reduce the possibility of overheating the top compression ring B. ensure the needle valve is flushed clean during each injection 365 In a large slow-speed propulsion diesel engine, the force applied to 366 One of the advantages in the use of a dry liner over a wet liner is
the piston is ______________. _____________.
C. help retain the heat of compression to prevent ignition delay C. prevent combustion gas blowback into the open needle valve A. against the crosshead during power stroke and away from the A. it is fitted with neoprene O-ring seals
D. help retain the heat of compression to prevent combustion knock D. prevent reflected pressure waves when the needle valve closes crosshead during the compression stroke
B. against the crosshead during the compression stroke and away from B. the honing process makes it easier to maintain the desired oil film
Ans: B Ans: A the crosshead during the power stroke
347 The difference in crank lead between the upper and lower cranks of 348 Telescopic pipes to the piston of a large slow speed main propulsion C. against the crosshead during the power and compression strokes C. there is less likelihood of water leaking into the combustion space
an opposed piston engine causes the lower crankshaft to diesel engine are designed to prevent _________________.
____________. D. away from the crosshead during the power and compression strokes D. it fits more loosely due to a decrease in heat transfer through the
A. receive less power than the upper shaft A. excessive crankcase pressure composite wall
B. receive more power than the upper shaft B. excessive lub oil temperature Ans: C Ans: C
C. operate the fuel oil booster pump C. contamination of the lub oil by water 367 Which of the construction techniques listed is used on new piston 368 In diesel engines, the four basic events (intake, compression,
D. rotate faster than the upper shaft D. contamination of the cooling watyer by the lub oil rings to facilitate run-in or seating? power, and exhaust) are performed once in ______________.
Ans: B Ans: C
349 The exhaust system for a turbocharged two-stroke/cycle diesel 350 Which of the diesel engine exhaust mufflers listed is usually A. Special ring facings, such as a thin bearing surface of antifriction A. one complete crankshaft revolution in a two-stroke/cycle engine
engine functions to _____________. equipped with a spark arrestor? metal.
A. discharge exhaust gases and smoke A. A wet-type exhaust muffler B. The oil control ring face is machined at an angle of 10 degrees. B. two crankshaft revolutions in a two-stroke/cycle engine
B. furnish energy to the turbocharger B. A constant pressure muffler
C. reduce engine room noise C. A dry-type exhaust muffler C. The ring diameter, when free, is machined slightly smaller than the C. two power strokes in a two-stroke/cycle engine
D. all of the above D. A constant velocity muffler cylinder bore to allow for expansion at high combustion
Ans: D Ans: C temperatures.
351 When monitoring diesel engine performance, the most useful 352 The exhaust system of a diesel engine is usually designed to remove D. Oil control rings maintain continuous oil film. D. two piston strokes in a four-stroke/cycle engine
instrument to use is the _____________. exhaust gases and to _____________. Ans: A Ans: A
A. dwell-tachometer A. provide exhaust back pressure 369 The intake air ducting to a diesel engine should not draw from an 370 In a two-stroke/cycle, opposed piston, diesel engine, one crankshaft
B. exhaust gas pyrometer B. prevent exhaust smoke emissions area on deck where flammable vapors released from tanks are operates several crank angles in advance of the other crankshaft to
C. fuel flow rate meter C. power a reciprocating supercharger present, because ____________. _____________.
D. exhaust gas analyzer D. muffle exhaust gas noise A. flammable vapors will accelerate corrosion of the turbocharger A. allow the exhaust ports to open and close before the inlet ports close
Ans: B Ans: D
353 A water jacket is placed around the exhaust manifoldsof propulsion 354 In a two-stroke/cycle diesel engine, the exhaust gases are expelled B. the engine may overspeed and the normal governor or overspeed B. allow the scavenge ports to open and close simultaneously with the
diesel engines to ________. from the cylinder by the ______________. trip will not be able to secure the engine exhaust ports
A. reduce heat radiation to the engine room A. exhaust manifold C. the flammable vapors will result in an excessively rich mixture which C. prevent the exhaust piston from reaching TDC and BDC before the
B. aid in preventing turbocharger overheating B. valve bridge will increase the brake horsepower output intake piston
C. condense and drain moisture from exhaust gases C. pressure of the fresh air charge D. all of the above D. prevent scavenge air pressure buildup in the cylinders
D. dampen exhaust gas pulsations in the manifold D. valve adjusting gear Ans: B Ans: A
Ans: A Ans: C 371 The purpose of the delivery check valve used in a diesel fuel 372 In a diesel engine, what is the advantage of precombustionchambers
355 Diesel engine mufflers or silencers reduce the engine exhaust noise 356 The exhaust gases in a supercharged two-stroke/cycle diesel engine injection jerk pump is to _____________. I. assist in a over the open type of combustion chamber? I. Precombustion
by ________________. are expelled from the cylinder by __________. quick cutoff of fuel injection II. prevent fuel oil backflow from the chambers permit coarser fuel atomization. II. Precombustion
A. passing the exhaust through long head pipes A. pumping action of the piston injection pump chambers allow lower fuel injection pressure.
B. diffusing exhaust vibrations through activated carbon baffles B. pressure of the fuel charge
A. I only A. I only
C. increasing the exhaust gas velocity C. vacuum developed in the manifold B. II only B. II only
D. reducing the exhaust gas velocity D. pressure of the fresh air charge C. both I and II C. both I and II
Ans: D Ans: D D. neither I nor II D. neither I nor II
357 Exhaust gases in a two-stroke/cycle diesel engine are discharged 358 A disadvantage of a two-stroke/cycle diesel engine is ___________. Ans: A Ans: C
through _____________. 373 A large low-speed main propulsion engine must be operated with 374 The average exhaust temperature of a two-stroke/cycle diesel
A. the air valves A. more power strokes per revolution one cylinder secured. When the engine was stopped, the affected engine with a turbine-driven supercharger is lower than a similar four-
B. a roots-type blower B. the use of scavenge air cylinder ended in a position preventing the engine from being stroke/cycle diesel engine at equal loads because ____________.
C. exhaust ports or valves C. more complicated valve gear restarted. Which of the following actions should be taken
D. direct to the atmosphere D. higher working temperatures of the piston and cylinder
Ans: C Ans: D A. Turn the shaft with the turning gear while applying starting air. A. two-stroke/cycle diesel engines have a higher M.E.P. than four-
359 Many diesel engines have pistons with concave heads to 360 In a single-acting diesel engine, the cylinder liner area that is most stroke/cycle diesel engines
_____________. difficult to lubricate is the ______________. B. Increase starting air pressure by small amounts until the air pressure B. four-stroke/cycle diesel engine exhaust is cooled by scavenging air
A. decrease air turbulence and improve fuel mixing A. major thrust side is high enough to crank the engine over.
B. increase air turbulence and improve fuel mixing B. minor thrust side C. Admit starting air in the direction opposite to the desired direction, C. two-stroke/cycle diesel engines have a lower M.E.P. than four-
C. prevent fuel afterburning when injection ends C. top circumference then restart in the desired direction. stroke/cycle diesel engines
D. prolong fuel afterburning when injection ends D. bottom circumference D. Open the indicator cocks on those cylinders on compression and D. the opening of the two-stroke/cycle diesel exhaust ports or valves
Ans: B Ans: C apply increased starting air pressure. occurs much later than in four-stroke/cycle diesel engines
361 Additional explosion relief valves are fitted on separate spaces of 362 Which of the following design features will reduce the possibility of
the crankcase, such as gear or chain cases for camshaft or similar overheating the top compression rings of a cast iron piston? Ans: C Ans: C
drives, when the _______. 375 Oil control rings used in two-stroke/cycle diesel engines are located 376 Which of the following statements represents the function of the
A. overall volume of such spaces exceeds 0.6 cubic meters A. The top ring is located as close to the piston rim as possible. near the bottom of the piston skirt in order to _____________. compression rings installed at the top of a diesel engine piston?
B. possibility of explosion exists due to the formation of volatile gases B. The inside surface of the piston head is rounded into the ring belt.
A. increase the liner area covered by the oil film A. Transmit heat from the piston to the cylinder liner.
C. unit is operating in extreme overload conditions C. A nickel-bearing insert is cast into the top ring groove. B. maintain an oil film on the lower liner where scuffing is prevalent B. Control the amount of lube oil burned in the combustion chamber.
D. gross volume of such space exceeds 0.6 cubic meter D. A heat dam design is sometimes used in the piston head
Ans: D Ans: D C. keep excess oil away from intake and exhaust ports C. Prevent damage to ring groove inserts by acting as a heat dam.
363 Which of the following statements concerning the factors affecting 364 Which of the following statements is a description of the combustion
ignition delay is correct? cycle? D. help cushion piston skirt side thrust by providing a hydrodynamic oil D. Dissipate combustion chamber gas pressure by channeling it
A. An increase in intake air temperature will increase ignition delay. A. The mechanics of engine operation. wedge through the ring gap.
Ans: C Ans: A
B. An increase in coolant temperature will decrease ignition delay. B. The number of piston strokes involved. 377 In a diesel engine, the time period between fuel injection and ignition
is usually defined as _____________.
C. An increase in combustion chamber turbulence will increase ignition C. The heat process which produces the force to initiate the movement A. injection duration
delay. of the engine parts. B. ignition timing
D. An increase in compression ratio will increase ignition delay. D. The mechanical equivalent of heat. C. precombustion lag
Ans: B Ans: C D. ignition delay
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Ans: D C. during starting C. Lube oil pressure

MOTOR - OPERATION D. after cleaning filters D. Water level in the expansion tank
378 A loose crosshead plunger assembly in a metering or proportioning 379 In a naturally aspirated diesel engine, the volume of air intake is Ans: C Ans: C
pump will cause _____________. directly related to engine ________________. 398 If the coolant temperature is excessively low as it passes through 399 What occurs in the combustion space of a diesel engine cylinder
A. rapid wear on the crosshead A. compression ratio the internally cooled fuel injectors, the injectors may be damaged by shortly after ignition and before the piston reaches TDC?
B. damage to the stroke adjustment arm B. valve size _____________.
C. rapid wear on the plunger packing C. fuel pressure A. water condensation in the fuel A. Rapid increase in temperature with constant pressure.
D. damage to the pressure compensator valve D. cylinder clearance volume B. corrosion of the nozzle tip B. Rapid increase in pressure with constant temperature.
Ans: C Ans: B C. carbon deposits on the leakoff inlet C. Rapid increase in pressure and temperature.
380 A naturally aspirated diesel engine at full throttle will have an intake 381 An increase in the air inlet manifold pressure of a diesel engine will D. over lubrication of the needle valve D. Rapid increase in volume and decrease in pressure.
manifold pressure ____________. result in a/an ____________. Ans: B Ans: C
A. slightly less than atmospheric pressure A. decrease in maximum cylinder pressure 400 The effective pump stroke of an individual port-and-helix fuel 401 The amount of fuel delivered by a helical plunger type fuel injection
B. approximately equal to exhaust manifold pressure at all times B. increase in ignition lag injection pump is determined by the ________________. pump is controlled by _____________.
C. that is widely fluctuating C. decrease in fuel consumption per kilowatt-hour A. fuel delivery pressure A. rotation of the pump plunger
D. constantly decreasing as engine load increases D. decrease in exhaust manifold pressure B. pump plunger diameter B. rotation of the pump barrel
Ans: A Ans: C C. plunger control rack position C. varying the pump supply pressure
382 On a large diesel engine installation, crankshaft axial alignment is 383 The crankcases of many diesel engines are kept under a slight D. total pump stroke D. varying the pump return pressure
maintained by the ______________. vacuum to _____________. Ans: C Ans: A
A. piston rod guides A. improve fuel economy 402 Which of the following conditions will develop if the flow of "raw" 403 The effective stroke of a constant-stroke, individual, fuel injection
B. engine thrust bearing B. increase the air charge velocity cooling water to a diesel engine is obstructed? pump is varied by the _____________.
C. crosshead bearing C. reduce the risk of explosion A. Air will enter the cooling system. A. control rack
D. main shaft flexible coupling D. all of the above B. Carbon will plug the water cooled exhaust manifolds. B. delivery valve
Ans: B Ans: C C. The jacket water temperature will rise. C. governor speed
384 Maintaining the lowest possible scavenging air temperature at all 385 On a turbocharged, medium-speed, diesel engine, which of the D. The lube oil viscosity will increase. D. plunger crossbar
times is not recommended due to the possibility of the following problems is an indication of a restricted air intake Ans: C Ans: A
________________. passage? 404 Which of the listed conditions will occur if a diesel engine exhaust 405 High firing pressures and a low exhaust temperature in a diesel
A. air charge density becoming too high A. engine is hard to start valve is leaking? engine may result from _____________.
B. piston crown surfaces becoming too cold B. engine misses A. Loss of compression for that cylinder A. decreased piston to cylinder head clearance
C. formation of excessive quantities of condensate C. surges at governed RPM B. Misfiring or rough running B. increased exhaust system back pressure
D. compression pressure being greatly reduced D. coolant temperature is too low C. Damage to the valve C. early fuel injection timing
Ans: C Ans: A D. All of the above D. low scavenge air temperature
386 An indication of a diesel engine air intake being partially clogged, is 387 Load control on a diesel engine is accomplished by Ans: D Ans: C
____________. _____________. 406 Exhaust pyrometer readings provide an indication of the 407 A change in the degree of fuel atomization in a diesel engine
A. low firing pressure and low exhaust temperatures A. regulating the speed of the turbocharger _____________. cylinder has the greatest effect on the ____________.
B. low firing pressure and normal exhaust temperatures B. rotating the fuel injector pump plunger A. effectiveness of water-cooled exhaust elbows A. cylinder air turbulence
C. high firing pressure and low exhaust temperatures C. regulating the speed of the fuel oil transfer pump B. distribution of the load between engine cylinders B. fuel spray angle
D. high firing pressure and high exhaust temperatures D. changing engine timing C. amount of fuel penetration into the engine cylinders C. fuel injection rate
Ans: B Ans: B D. indicated horsepower of the engine cylinders D. combustion in that cylinder
388 Operating a diesel engine for prolonged periods, with a closed 389 The air supplied to a diesel engine is compressed to___________.I. Ans: B Ans: D
freshwater cooling system, at temperatures lower than the normal provide heat for the ignition of the fuel II. decrease injection delay 408 Diesel fuel oil having a low cetane rating can result in 409 To successfully reduce an excessively high diesel engine exhaust
design temperature can cause _____________. _____________. gas temperature, you should _____________.
A. improved cold weather starting A. reduce the engine driven fuel pump outlet pressure
A. the formation of sulphuric acid A. I only is correct B. smoother engine operation B. retard the fuel injector timing to reduce power
B. a decrease in lube oil viscosity B. II only is correct C. combustion knock C. increase the fuel rack setting
C. a decrease in cooling water pH C. both I and II are correct D. reduce ignition lag D. reduce the load on the engine
D. a thermostat failure D. neither I or II are correct Ans: C Ans: D
Ans: A Ans: A 410 High exhaust temperature and black smoke exhausting from an 411 Combustion gas venting through the expansion tank can be caused
390 Fuel droplets injected into a diesel engine cylinder must have 391 Loss of lubricating oil pressure to the main propulsion diesel engine auxiliary diesel engine can be caused by _____________. by a _____________.
adequate penetration to _____________. will actuate a/an _____________. A. engine overload A. leaking oil cooler
A. prolong the ignition delay period A. overspeed trip B. low combustion temperature B. cracked cylinder head
B. ensure the beginning of fuel injection B. audible/visual alarm C. plugged fuel nozzle holes C. leaking exhaust valve
C. thoroughly utilize the air charge C. the ships/boats general alarm D. excessive compression pressure D. worn piston ring
D. allow controlled fuel combustion D. reserve oil storage tank Ans: A Ans: B
Ans: C Ans: B 412 Which of the following problems can cause fluctuating pressures in 413 A fuel leak occurs in the high pressure fuel piping between the
392 The amount of fuel injected into a cylinder by a unit injector is 393 The dripping of fuel from an injector nozzle after injection terminates, the closed cooling system of a main propulsion diesel engine? injection pump and fuel nozzle. This requires immediate repair
controlled by _____________. often results in ____________. because of the _____________.
A. the firing pressure in the cylinder A. early combustion A. Defective temperature controls in the system. A. high cost of fuel
B. a metering helix B. incomplete combustion and decreased fuel consumption B. Cavitation in the cooling water pump. B. serious fire hazard
C. varying the length of the plunger stroke C. coking and blocking of the fuel nozzles C. Opened vent in the cooling system. C. possibility of pollution
D. varying the clearance between the injector cam and the injector D. decreased cylinder wall temperatures and increased exhaust gas D. Restricted water passages in the engine. D. poor combustion which will occur in that cylinder
rocker arm temperatures Ans: B Ans: B
Ans: B Ans: C 414 Individual cylinder performance in a diesel engine is routinely 415 Excessive diesel engine cylinder exhaust back pressure will be
394 The amount of fuel delivered for each cycle must be in accordance 395 The knock occurring when a cold diesel engine is started and determined by exhaust gas _____________. caused by _____________.
with the engine load, and the same quantity of fuel must be continues while running at low speed, but stops when the engine A. chemical analysis A. slight timing discrepancies
delivered to each cylinder for each power stroke at that load. Which reaches normal operating speed and temperature, is B. pressure readings B. heavy fuel injection
of the following statements describes this requirement? _________________. C. pyrometer readings C. an obstruction in the exhaust silencer
D. infrared analysis D. a fouled intake manifold
A. Proper timing A. caused by retarded injection timing Ans: C Ans: C
B. Accurate metering B. caused by a mechanical defect in one cylinder 416 The injection pressure of a hydraulic fuel injection nozzle can be 417 Combustion knock occurring in a diesel engine can be caused by
C. Suitable injection rate C. caused by high fuel injection pressures increased by _____________. _____________.
D. Suitable atomization rate D. normal for these conditions A. increasing fuel oil booster pump pressure A. excessive fuel penetration
Ans: B Ans: D B. increasing the injector nozzle orifice size B. prolonged injection lag
396 The most crucial time for any bearing with regards to lubrication is 397 Which of the listed diesel engine operating conditions should be C. removing shims from under the nozzle spring C. reduced ignition lag
_____________. checked immediately after any diesel engine is started? D. increasing compression on the pressure spring D. prolonged ignition lag
A. during low loads A. Exhaust temperature Ans: D Ans: D
B. after proper oil viscosity is reached B. Lube oil level
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418 Which of the following problems could develop due to the 419 One problem resulting from a diesel engine fuel injector opening 438 A practical way of checking for excessive fuel injection in one 439 A diesel engine emits blue exhaust smoke as a result of
accumulation of oil vapors in the crankcase of a diesel engine? pressure being lower than specified by the engine manufacturer, is cylinder of an operating diesel engine is to _____________. _____________.
that the _____________.
A. Reduced lubrication A. start of injection will always be retarded A. feel the high pressure fuel line A. cold intake air
B. Poor fuel economy B. duration of injection will always be reduced B. check the cylinder exhausts for white smoke B. excessive compression pressure
C. Combustion knock C. quantity of fuel injected will always be decreased C. frequently check the cylinder exhaust temperature C. excessive cylinder lubrication
D. Crankcase explosion D. quantity of fuel injected tends to be increased D. isolate each cylinder and inspect the injector D. a light load
Ans: D Ans: D Ans: C Ans: C
420 Which of the listed reasons is the most likely cause of a sudden 421 A sudden drop in diesel engine cylinder compression pressure can 440 Which of the following problems could cause misalignment between 441 A diesel engine is operating under a normal load with low firing
drop in compression pressure in one diesel engine cylinder? be caused by ____________. the needle valve and nozzle in a fuel injection nozzle? pressures and high exhaust temperatures. The most probable cause
of this condition is ________________.
A. Missing filter segment of an intake filter A. a leaking fuel injector nozzle A. A bent fuel needle. A. a missing air intake filter
B. Malfunctioning valves B. a clogged air filter B. A defective nozzle tip seat. B. a restricted exhaust manifold
C. Leaking fuel injector nozzle C. excessively early fuel injection C. A distorted valve body. C. the fuel rack being too far in
D. Excessively early fuel injection D. malfunctioning valves D. All of the above. D. the fuel rack being too far out
Ans: B Ans: D Ans: D Ans: B
422 Failure to open the diesel engine test cocks after a long period of 423 Which of the listed conditions is most likely to cause a crankcase 442 In the common rail system, excessive pressure in the header may be 443 The highest loads applied to the diesel engine crankshaft main
shutdown, prior to starting may result in _______. explosion? caused by _____________. bearings are ____________.
A. an air bound fuel system A. A high cooling water temperature A. improper adjustment of the bypass valve A. axial loads
B. damage to cylinder heads and pistons B. Fuel dilution of the lube oil B. a dribble in the fuel injection nozzle B. firing loads
C. excessive fuel injection C. Excessive engine speeds C. insufficient leakoff through injection nozzle packing C. inertia loads
D. excessive air valve lift D. Improper lube oil viscosity D. a malfunctioning injection nozzle D. centripetal loads
Ans: B Ans: B Ans: A Ans: B
424 If the coolant temperature is too low as it passes through internally 425 A diesel engine is operating with excessively high exhaust 444 If the diesel engine fuel injection timing is changed to delay the start 445 Increasing the compression ratio of a diesel engine while maintaining
cooled fuel injectors, the injectors can be damaged by temperatures at all cylinders. To correct this condition, you should of injection until the pistons are at top dead center, the engine will the designed rate of fuel flow will result in ____________.
________________. FIRST _____________. _____________.
A. water condensation in the fuel A. reduce the engine load A. backfire through the air intake A. increased horsepower
B. corrosion of the nozzle tip B. increase the cooling water flow B. develop less power under load B. reduced efficiency
C. carbon deposits on the nozzle tip C. increase the lube oil pressure C. have high firing pressures C. increased heat loss
D. inadequate lubrication of the needle valve D. adjust the fuel rack D. lift its cylinder relief valves D. lower cylinder pressures
Ans: B Ans: A Ans: B Ans: A
426 The overspeed trip installed on most diesel engines will stop the 427 White smoke exhausting from an operating diesel engine may 446 If the jacket water temperature rises rapidly above normal in a diesel 447 During which of the listed piston strokes of a four-stroke/cycle
engine by shutting off the ____________. indicate _____________. engine, you should FIRST __________. diesel engine, is the piston moving downward?
A. water supply A. a cracked liner A. place standby cooler in operation A. Intake stroke
B. fuel oil supply B. burning lube oil B. reduce engine load B. Compression stroke
C. lube oil supply C. an overloaded engine C. check thermostatic valve C. Exhaust stroke
D. exhaust damper D. insufficient combustion air D. clean sea water strainer D. Pumping stroke
Ans: B Ans: A Ans: B Ans: A
428 Black smoke exhausting from an operating diesel engine can be 429 A device which functions to bring a diesel engine to a full stop to 448 In an operating diesel engine, preignition can be caused by 449 Significant retardation of a diesel engine fuel injection timing will
caused by _____________. protect it from damage is known as a/an ___________. _____________. result in _____________.
A. excessively late fuel injection A. smoother engine operation
A. fuel dribbling from leaking fuel injectors A. torque limiter B. oil in the air charge B. advanced fuel ignition
B. burning fuel with a high carbon content B. overspeed trip C. water in the fuel C. increased fuel economy
C. burning fuel with a high vanadium content C. overspeed governor D. injection continuing after the fuel charge is ignited D. reduced engine power
D. burning fuel with a lower sulphur content D. load limit governor Ans: B Ans: D
Ans: A Ans: B 450 When fuel is injected late into a diesel engine cylinder, 451 Late fuel injection in a diesel engine is indicated by low firing
430 Which of the following conditions can cause oil to accumulate in 431 Lube oil accumulating in the cooling water system of a diesel engine _____________. pressure with _____________.
the cooling system of a diesel engine? will result in _____________. A. the exhaust will be clear A. high exhaust temperature
A. Excessive valve train lubrication. A. lube cooler failure B. fuel consumption will be low B. low exhaust temperature
B. Defective oil cooler core. B. poor heat transfer C. all the fuel will be burned at top dead center C. fuel knock in each cylinder
C. Excessive lube oil pressure. C. mechanical lubricator failure D. fuel consumption will be high D. mechanical knock in each cylinder
D. Overfilled lube oil system. D. camshaft seizure Ans: D Ans: A
Ans: B Ans: B 452 If a single cylinder relief valve on a diesel engine lifts frequently 453 When one cylinder has a lower compression pressure and higher
432 When the opening pressure of a diesel fuel injector is greater than 433 Black smoke exhausting from an operating diesel engine is an while the engine is running, the cause may be an _____________. exhaust gas temperature than any of the other engine cylinders,
that specified by the engine manufacturer, the _____________. indication of poor combustion which may be caused by which of the conditions listed will be indicated?
_____________. A. excessively late injection timing for each cylinder A. Advanced ignition
A. quantity of fuel injected is decreased A. water in the fuel B. incorrectly adjusted intake valve timing B. Clogged air intake
B. quantity of fuel injected will always be increased B. insufficient fuel for combustion C. incorrectly adjusted fuel injector C. Leaky exhaust valve
C. start of injection is advanced C. clogged air intake passages D. incorrectly adjusted intake valve clearance D. High exhaust pressure
D. duration of injection will always be greater D. burning lubricating oil Ans: C Ans: C
Ans: A Ans: C 454 A distorted spray pattern from a fuel injector can cause a diesel 455 If a few injector spray holes become plugged, the result could be
434 The highest pressure in a diesel engine cylinder normally occurs 435 Diesel engine lube oil diluted with fuel oil is indicated by engine to have _____________. _____________.
_____________. _____________. A. higher firing pressure A. excessive surging at governed speed
A. at TDC A. decreased viscosity B. more power output B. combustion knock under load
B. before TDC B. decreased pour point C. lower fuel pressure C. poor fuel combustion
C. after TDC C. increased fclearance point D. less power output D. all of the above
D. during air starting D. increased viscosity Ans: D Ans: D
Ans: C Ans: A 456 A diesel engine fails to start because of water in the fuel. In order to 457 A diesel engine piston crown can crack from ____________.
436 A broken pintle in a fuel injector usually causes _________. 437 Diesel engine cylinder head test cocks are used to ________. start the engine, you should ____________.
A. corrosion of the spray nozzle A. check cylinder lubrication prior to starting engine A. turn engine with jacking gear A. excessive piston to liner clearance
B. clogging of the orifices B. connect exhaust gas analyzers to determine engine efficiency B. drain filters and strainers and bleed off water at each injection pump B. excessive dirt beneath the piston crown that reduces heat transfer.

C. distortion of the spray pattern C. pressure test cylinder heads to check for leaks C. use ether to start the engine with blowdown valves open C. faulty nozzle spray
D. erosion of the valves D. remove moisture accumulations from cylinders prior to starting D. blow through the cylinders and fuel lines with a drying agent D. all of the above
Ans: B Ans: D
Ans: C Ans: D
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458 Permitting a diesel engine fuel oil day tank to run dry can cause 459 Air in the fuel lines to the fuel injection nozzles of a diesel engine will C. form an emulsion of lube oil and water C. distortion of the fuel spray pattern
_____________. cause the engine to _____________. D. raise the piston temperature D. improper atomization of the fuel
A. overheated injection pumps A. burn excessive amounts of lube oil Ans: D Ans: B
B. water condensation in the cylinders B. overheat without smoking 480 Low cylinder compression pressure and a high exhaust temperature 481 Fuel oil injected into the cylinder of a diesel engine just after the
C. fuel dilution of the lube oil C. operate with reduced power or stop may indicate ______________. piston passes top dead center, will _____________.
D. air in the fuel system D. run away without load A. early fuel injection timing A. increase engine power
Ans: D Ans: C B. leaking valves B. increase engine load
460 Which of the following problems will occur if the needle valve in a 461 A dry-type exhaust muffler clogged with soot, will cause C. a continuously open scavenge air port C. decrease engine power
fuel injection nozzle sticks in the open position? _____________. D. low cooling water temperature D. improve fuel economy
A. Fuel injection timing will change A. low exhaust temperature Ans: B Ans: C
B. Nozzle operation will be unaffected B. loss of engine power 482 The loss of the diesel engine cylinder air charge through leaky 483 During diesel engine warm-up, which type of tappet clearance
C. Fuel will leak into the drain line C. burned intake valves valves, piston rings, worn or scored liners, would be indicated by adjuster listed allows for the change in length of the exhaust
D. Fuel will not be delivered D. engine racing which of the following sets of conditions? valves?
Ans: A Ans: B A. Low compression pressure and high exhaust temperature A. Mechanical
462 Diesel engine cylinder head test cocks are used to ________. 463 Air may be bled from the fuel system by _____________. B. Low firing pressure and high exhaust temperature B. Hydraulic
C. Low compression pressure and low exhaust temperature C. Pneumatic
A. check cylinder lubrication A. blowing down the air tanks D. Low firing pressure and low exhaust temperature D. Electrical
B. connect the pressure indicator B. loosening the compression nuts at the injectors Ans: A Ans: B
C. pressure test cylinder heads C. changing fuel filters 484 Worn cylinder head valve seats in a diesel engine will cause 485 Which operating condition of a diesel engine is indicated by
D. connect the exhaust gas pyrometers D. pumping down the day tanks ____________. excessive firing pressures?
Ans: B Ans: B A. less cold tappet clearance A. Overspeeding
464 Which of the terms listed below represents the operational speed at 465 If the needle valve in a fuel injection nozzle sticks open, B. more cold tappet clearance B. Overload
which excessive engine vibration is created? _____________. C. excessive pressure in hydraulic tappet clearance adjusters C. Low exhaust temperature
A. Non-harmonic speed. A. fuel will leak into the nozzle drain line D. broken valve springs D. High crankcase pressure
B. Critical speed. B. no fuel will be delivered through the nozzle Ans: A Ans: B
C. Maximum speed. C. the nozzle will overheat 486 If the jacket water temperature rises rapidly above normal in a diesel 487 A substantial increase in crankcase pressure could be an indication
D. Design maximum speed. D. injection lag will be increased engine, you should FIRST __________. of a/an _____________.
Ans: B Ans: C A. call the chief engineer A. worn cylinder liner
466 Which of the conditions listed would cause simultaneous high 467 Early fuel injection timing is indicated by the cylinder pressure being B. reduce engine load B. faulty cylinder relief valve
cylinder firing pressure and low exhaust temperature? _____________. C. check thermostatic valve C. excessive lube oil pressure
A. Improper fuel rack positioning. A. above normal with a below normal exhaust temperature D. clean sea water strainer D. excessive scavenge air pressure
B. Lengthy opening of the exhaust valve. B. above normal with a normal exhaust temperature Ans: B Ans: A
C. Excessively early injection timing. C. below normal with a normal exhaust temperature 488 Which of the following procedures should be carried out when a 489 The most practical way of detecting an overload in one cylinder of
D. Extended light load operation. D. below normal with an above normal exhaust temperature large, low-speed, diesel engine is operated with one cylinder an operating large, low-speed, main propulsion diesel engine is to
Ans: C Ans: A secured? _____________.
468 If fuel injection occurs too early, a diesel engine will lose power 469 Diesel engine air start valve timing is controlled by _____________. A. Lubrication to the defective cylinder should be increased. A. check the cylinder exhausts for black smoke
because the _____________. B. Cooling water temperature to the engine should be increased. B. engage the starter motor with the flywheel
A. fuel will not be properly atomized in the cylinder A. engine operating speed
B. ignition will be delayed due to low compression pressure B. an air manifold C. Only the turbocharger speed should be reduced. C. isolate each cylinder and inspect the injector
C. maximum fuel expansion will occur on the compression stroke C. a hydraulic distributor D. Engine speed should be reduced. D. check the cylinder exhaust temperature frequently
Ans: D Ans: D
D. fuel will ignite after top dead center D. individual cams and valve gear 490 A diesel engine could fail to start because of ____________. 491 One cause of diesel engine piston ring blow-by is _________.
Ans: B Ans: D
470 A diesel engine fails to start due to excessive water in the fuel. 471 If you suspect a diesel engine is misfiring due to air leakage into the A. incorrect injection timing A. reduced scavenging
Before the engine can be started, the water should be removed from fuel system, you should begin looking for the leak at the B. low exhaust back pressure B. high exhaust temperatures
the _____________. _____________. C. floating exhaust valves C. excessive lubrication
A. fuel lines A. fuel line connections to the cylinder injection valves D. excessive cranking speed D. floating piston pins
B. lube oil filter B. gasket surfaces of the fuel oil filters Ans: A Ans: C
C. crank case pump C. discharge fittings of the fuel injector pumps 492 If you notice smoke coming from the crankcase exhaust fan outlet 493 Which of the following conditions may need to be reduced when
D. rocker arm reservoir D. suction side of the fuel oil transfer pump of an operating diesel engine, you would suspect ___________. operating a large, low-speed, main propulsion, diesel engine at low
Ans: A Ans: D loads?
472 An increase in the load on a turbocharged diesel engine operating 473 When a diesel engine is operated at partial load, as compared to full A. a cracked cylinder liner A. Injection pressures
at constant speed will result in an increase in _____________. load, a decrease will occur in the average _____________. B. clogged intake ports B. Control air supply pressure
C. broken piston rings C. Cooling water flow through aftercoolers
A. exhaust temperature A. air quantity aspirated D. a faulty head gasket D. Lube oil temperature
B. air box pressure B. fuel injection pressure Ans: C Ans: C
C. brake mean effective pressure C. combustion pressure on the power stroke 494 A restricted diesel engine exhaust manifold operating under a 495 Excessive exhaust temperatures in a two-stroke/cycle dieselengine
D. all of the above D. compression pressure on the compression stroke normal load is indicated by ______________. can be caused by a/an ____________.
Ans: D Ans: C A. low firing pressures and low exhaust temperatures A. high injection pressure
474 Air in the fuel can cause _____________. 475 Early injection timing is indicated by ____________. B. low firing pressures and high exhaust temperatures B. high firing pressure
A. high lube oil temperature A. high exhaust temperature and low firing pressure C. high firing pressures and low exhaust temperatures C. overheated air starting line
B. blue smoke B. high exhaust temperature and high firing pressure D. high firing pressures and high exhaust temperatures D. carbon build up in the exhaust ports
C. the engine to stop C. low exhaust temperature and low firing pressure Ans: B Ans: D
D. piston seizure D. low exhaust temperature and high firing pressure 496 What color exhaust will be exhibited when a slow speed two- 497 Immediately after starting a diesel engine, normal raw waterand
Ans: C Ans: D stroke/cycle main propulsion diesel engine, designed to operate on jacket water pressures are indicated. However, thejacket water
476 Which of the following operating procedures should be carried out 477 The most common diesel engine fuel system problems are caused light and heavy fuel oil, is operated on insufficiently preheated temperature continues to rise. If there is nochange in the sea
immediately after any diesel engine is started? by _____________. heavy fuel oil? temperature, you should suspect _________.
A. Take all exhaust temperature readings. A. incorrect adjustments
B. Check the sump oil level. B. dirty fuel A. White A. overloading in all cylinders
C. Verify proper lube oil pressure. C. broken fuel lines B. Black B. a jammed three-way thermostatic valve
D. Check the water level in expansion tank D. excessive vibration C. Blue C. chromate pH too low
Ans: C Ans: B D. Clear D. a high level in the surge tank
478 If sludge accumulates on the underside of a diesel engine piston, it 479 Faulty operation of diesel engine fuel injection nozzles can be a Ans: B Ans: B
will ______________. direct cause of ______________. 498 Before starting a diesel engine that has an engine driven lube oil 499 Collapsed hydraulic valve lifters in a diesel engine will result in
A. cause blow-by A. excessive fuel nozzle holder cooling pump, the engineer should _____________. ____________.
B. chemically attack the piston skirt B. sediment in the fuel supply A. open the bypass line A. excessive rocker arm movement
 Page 27 Page 28

B. cut in the lube oil cooler B. little or no valve clearance C. sluggish piston ring action C. Fuel oil viscosity will increased.
C. pressurize the lube oil system C. excessive valve clearance D. excessive piston cooling D. An increase in trapped deposits of scale and dirt.
D. top off the expansion tank D. collapsed or stacked valve springs Ans: B Ans: B
Ans: C Ans: C 520 If a diesel engine's exhaust temperature is abnormally high, the 521 Heat damage to fuel injection nozzles can be prevented by avoiding
500 Prolonged operation of a diesel engine with a closed cooling water 501 A large low speed main propulsion diesel engine may cause could be ____________. _____________.
system, at lower than normal designed operating temperatures can becomeoverloaded by_______________. I. a heavily fouled hull II. A. too light of a load A. excessive fuel oil temperature
_____________. strong head winds and heavy seas B. injection timing is too early B. long periods of engine overload
A. increase power output A. I only C. overloading of the engine C. metallic contact between nozzles and cylinder heads
B. decrease lube oil viscosity B. II only D. too low of a compression ratio D. hard carbon deposit and varnish on the nozzles
C. eliminate fuel knock C. both I and II Ans: C Ans: B
D. cause sulphuric acid formation D. neither I nor II 522 A main propulsion diesel engine is normally shut down by 523 Excessive diesel engine back pressure may be an indication of
Ans: D Ans: C _____________. __________.
502 Immediately after any diesel engine is started, the engineer should 503 In a diesel engine lube oil system, which of the following parts should A. shutting off the air supply A. carbon buildup in the exhaust manifold
check the ____________. be lubricated first? B. overspeeding the engine B. overcooling of the exhaust manifold
A. crankcase pressure A. Camshaft bearings C. securing the fuel supply C. eroded muffler baffle plates
B. lube oil pressure B. Main bearings D. securing the ignition system D. high injection pressure
C. saltwater pressure C. Piston crowns Ans: C Ans: A
D. exhaust temperature D. Cylinder walls 524 White smoke exhausting from a diesel engine can result from 525 What is the best way of stopping an overspeeding diesel engine?
Ans: B Ans: B ____________.
504 Poor combustion in a diesel engine can be caused by 505 Diesel engine exhaust gas temperatures can be used to determine A. high exhaust temperature A. Disconnect the battery cables from the starting motor.
______________. individual cylinder _____________. B. high lube oil temperature B. Drain the hydraulic fluid from the governor sump.
A. high compression pressure A. performance C. low turbocharge speed C. Block the flow of cooling air to the radiator.
B. low intake air temperature B. horsepower output D. low cooling water temperature D. Secure the fuel supply and block the air intake
C. low exhaust pressure C. fuel consumption Ans: D Ans: D
D. high scavenge air pressure D. scavenge effect 526 By comparing the exhaust gas output of each cylinder of a diesel 527 One cylinder of a diesel engine is persistently knocking and does not
Ans: B Ans: A engine, one method of determining if the engine load is balanced is cease when the fuel supply to that cylinder is secured. Which of the
506 Which of the following problems may occur if the opening pressure 507 All of the diesel engine cylinder firing pressures are normal, yet all of by the use of a ______________. following problems may be the cause?
of a fuel injection nozzle is greater than specified by the engine the exhaust temperatures are low. Which of the following situations A. tachometer A. Low loading of the cylinder
manufacturer? is responsible for this condition? B. calorimeter B. Excessive cooling of that piston
A. The amount of fuel injected will be increased. A. Excessively early injection timing C. pedometer C. Sluggish ring action on the piston
B. The start of injection will be retarded. B. Combustion knock D. pyrometer D. A mechanical defect in a working part
C. The nozzle will permit fuel to dribble. C. Leaking piston rings Ans: D Ans: D
D. The spray pattern will be distorted. D. Light load 528 A diesel engine is warmed up and white vapour is noted in the 529 A smoking exhaust from an operating diesel engine could be caused
Ans: B Ans: D exhaust, this could indicate _____________. by ______________.
508 Insufficient piston cooling for a large, low-speed, main propulsion 509 Which of the following factors tends to increase scale formation on A. excessive cylinder lubrication A. low sulphur content in the fuel
diesel engine burning heavy fuels, can result in _____________. the saltwater side of a heat exchanger used in a diesel engine B. a lugging engine B. a loose injector inlet connection
cooling water system? C. a leaking cylinder liner C. late fuel injection
A. excessive crosshead temperatures A. Baffle plates that have been bent during prior removal. D. overloading of one cylinder D. high injection pressure
B. dangerous thermal expansion of the piston skirt B. Leaks in the cooler tube nest. Ans: C Ans: C
C. high temperature corrosion and burning off of piston crown metal C. Operating the engine while maintaining a high sea water outlet 530 Oil accumulating in the exhaust piping or manifold of a diesel engine 531 Diesel engine operating conditions are indicated by the color of the
temperature. can be caused by ________________. exhaust smoke. Blue smoke can indicate _____________.
D. change in fuel cetane number D. A punctured sea water strainer supplying cooling water to the heat
exchanger. A. collapsed hydraulic valve lifters A. low compression pressure and high exhaust temperature
Ans: C Ans: C B. worn valve guides B. an overloaded engine
510 High exhaust back pressure will result in an increase in 511 Any increase in the exhaust back pressure of a four-stroke/cycle C. excessive crankcase vacuum C. clogged drain holes in the oil control rings
______________. diesel engine will _____________. D. excessive lube oil pressure D. complete combustion
A. turbocharger efficiency A. reduce engine power output Ans: B Ans: C
B. engine power output B. aid in silencing the exhaust noise 532 If a diesel engine is smoking excessively under load, the cause 533 Sticking of diesel engine piston compression rings may be caused by
C. carbon deposits on fuel injectors C. increase the mean effective pressure could be _____________. _____________.
D. cylinder scavenging D. contribute to effective cylinder scavenging A. low exhaust back pressure A. high compression pressure
Ans: C Ans: A B. early fuel injection in one of the cylinders B. excessive ring action
512 In a diesel engine, blow-by _____________. 513 A crack in a cylinder liner can be caused by _____________. C. compression pressure in one of the cylinders C. excessive cylinder lubrication
A. increases exhaust back pressure A. worn piston rings D. plugged injector holes D. improper ring rotation
B. causes excessive crankcase pressure B. installation of undersized sealing rings Ans: D Ans: C
C. can only be detected by a compression check C. operating the engine at low loads 534 Which of the following conditions can cause excessive lube oil 535 Late fuel oil injection in a diesel engine can result in
D. decreases fuel consumption D. restricted cooling water passages consumption in a diesel engine? _____________.
Ans: B Ans: D A. Low lube oil temperature A. fuel knock
514 A cracked cylinder head on a diesel engine may be indicated by 515 The direct cause of a crankcase explosion can be attributed to B. Dirty lube oil strainer B. increased power
_____________. ______________. C. Low lube oil pressure C. low compression pressure
A. excessive lube oil consumption A. extremely hot scavenge air D. High lube oil temperature D. high exhaust temperature
B. water draining from the fuel leak off valves B. excessive cooling water temperature Ans: D Ans: D
C. combustion gases venting at the expansion tank C. an overheated bearing 536 Which of the following conditions is likely to develop if the 537 When the opening pressure of a diesel engine fuel injector is greater
D. excessive fuel oil consumption D. excessive lube oil in the crankcase thermocouple element of a pyrometer becomes coated with than that specified by the engine manufacturer, which of the
Ans: C Ans: C excessive amounts of combustion by-products? following problems can be expected?
516 Crankcase explosions in propulsion diesel engines result from 517 Combustion knock occurring in a diesel engine can be caused by A. Indicated exhaust pressure readings will increase. A. Quantity of fuel injected tends to be decreased.
_____________. ________________. B. Pyrometer responses will be retarded. B. Quantity of fuel injected will always be increased.
A. the spclearanceing of lubrication oil by the crankshaft A. low coolant temperature C. Indicated cylinder temperature readings will increase. C. Start of injection tends to be advanced.
B. the dilution of crankcase oil with particles of combustion B. insufficient fuel D. Indicated firing pressure readings will increase. D. Duration of injection will always be greater.
C. broken fuel lines spraying oil on the crankcase C. high ambient temperature Ans: B Ans: A
D. the ignition of unburned fuel and air in the crankcase D. carbon buildup on the injector tips 538 Late fuel injection occurring at, or after TDC in a diesel engine is 539 In a diesel engine, late fuel injection is indicated by black or gray
Ans: D Ans: A indicated by excessive exhaust smoke and _____________. exhaust smoke with ______________.
518 Persistent knocking of one cylinder of a diesel engine ceases when 519 Which of the conditions listed may occur in an operating diesel
the fuel supply to that cylinder is secured. This problem may be a engine if air pockets form within the cylinder head circulating water A. low exhaust temperature A. low firing pressure
result of ______________. passages? B. low firing pressure B. low exhaust temperature
A. low loading of that cylinder A. Hydraulic stress and distortion will develop. C. fuel knock in each cylinder C. mechanical knock in each cylinder
B. faulty combustion in that cylinder B. Hot spots will develop. D. mechanical knock in each cylinder D. fuel knock in each cylinder
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Ans: B Ans: A Ans: B Ans: A

540 If a crankcase explosion occurs in a diesel engine, you should stop 541 A diesel engine will lose power if fuel injection occurs too late in the 560 Which of the conditions listed occurring in a diesel engine would 561 If a crankcase explosion occurs in a diesel engine, which of the
the engine and _____________. cycle, because the ______________. cause carbon deposits to develop in the piston ring belt? listed actions should be taken?
A. immediately open all crankcase relief ports A. fuel droplets will burn as they leave the fuel injector
B. allow the engine to cool naturally B. fuel will not be properly atomized in the cylinder A. Faulty combustion A. Open the crankcase immediately to check for damage.
C. increase crankcase exhauster speed to draw cool air into the engine C. maximum expansion of the burned fuel cannot take place in the B. Excessive ring temperatures B. Apply fire fighting water through the crankcase breather.
cylinder C. Over lubrication C. Allow the engine to cool before opening the crankcase.
D. increase crank case scavenge air to remove unburned gases D. compression pressure will be too low to cause fuel ignition D. All of the above. D. Assume that there is no damage to the crankshaft.
Ans: D Ans: C
Ans: B Ans: C 562 The burning of fuel oil in a diesel engine having a high sodium 563 The longer the ignition delay period resulting from improper use of
542 Which of the following conditions is most likely to occur when 543 Late fuel injection in a diesel engine is indicated byblack or gray content, will cause ____________. low cetane fuel, the ____________.
unburned fuel contaminates the crankcase of a diesel engine? exhaust smoke with a _____________. A. corrosion and grooving of exhaust valves A. less fuel will enter the cylinder
B. corrosion and gumming of the fuel injection pump B. higher the cylinder combustion temperature
A. Lube oil is diluted and its viscosity is reduced. A. low firing pressure C. salt deposits in the exhaust manifold C. more complete the fuel combustion
B. sulphuric acid is formed. B. low exhaust temperature D. slag deposits in the fuel injection equipment D. more rapid the rise in combustion pressure
C. Bearings become pitted and immediately fail. C. mechanical knock in each cylinder Ans: A Ans: D
D. Valve stems develop sludge deposits. D. fuel knock in each cylinder 564 If the relief valve on a diesel engine cylinder lifts, the cause could be 565 A substantial increase in crankcase pressure could be an indication
Ans: A Ans: A due to _____________. of _____________.
544 The ignition quality of diesel fuel becomes less critical as 545 Higher than normal temperature air passing through the intake of a A. liquid in the cylinder A. excessive lube oil pressure
______________. diesel engine will result in _____________. B. low compression in the cylinder B. the proper seating of new rings
A. the amount of lube oil additives increase A. greater overall efficiency C. high exhaust temperature C. a worn cylinder liner
B. piston speeds increase B. greater fuel economy D. poor fuel penetration D. a malfunctioning cylinder relief valve
C. injection pressures decrease C. lower horsepower Ans: A Ans: C
D. engine speeds decrease D. lower compression ratio 566 An indication of an overloaded main propulsion diesel engine is 567 A dry-type exhaust silencer clogged with soot, will cause
Ans: D Ans: C _____________. _____________.
546 When a fuel injection nozzle overheats, which of the problems listed 547 An increase in the fuel injection pump discharge pressure can be A. white smoke in the exhaust A. low exhaust temperature
can be expected? caused by a/an _____________. B. high exhaust gas pyrometer readings B. loss of engine power
A. The fuel metering will vary. A. leaking delivery valve C. sparks in the exhaust C. burned intake valves
B. The fuel will explode. B. increase in engine load D. blue smoke in the exhaust D. engine racing
C. The cylinder head will crack. C. plugged injector spray hole Ans: B Ans: B
D. The engine will stop. D. increased plunger stroke 568 A dark exhaust from a running diesel engine can be caused by 569 Partially obstructed exhaust ports on a diesel engine can cause
Ans: A Ans: C _____________. _____________.
548 If fuel injection in a diesel engine begins earlier than the design start 549 Prior to starting, the purpose of turning over a main propulsion A. late ignition A. overheating of the engine
of injection, ignition may be delayed because the _____________. diesel engine with the cylinder test cocks open, is to B. water in the fuel B. high exhaust temperatures
_____________. C. high compression temperature C. sluggish engine operation
A. fuel oil injection pressure may not be high enough A. test the starting system D. starting valve stuck open D. all of the above
B. cylinder compression pressure may not be high enough B. remove condensation from the cylinders Ans: A Ans: D
C. cylinder compression temperature may be too high C. check the compression 570 The color of the exhaust from a diesel engine should 571 Engine operating conditions may be indicated by the color of the
D. scavenge and purge process is incomplete D. check for proper lube oil pressure be___________. exhaust smoke. Black smoke could indicate ____________.
Ans: B Ans: B
550 A fuel injection valve opening at a pressure lower than normal will 551 Faulty operation of diesel engine fuel injection nozzles can be A. clear A. an insufficient speed droop setting
result in _____________. directly caused by _____________. B. hazy light brown B. an overloaded engine
A. late fuel injection A. water in the fuel oil supply C. hazy light blue C. clogged drain holes in the oil control rings
B. early fuel injection B. excessive fuel nozzle holder cooling D. hazy light grey D. complete combustion
C. high exhaust temperature from that cylinder C. a distorted fuel spray pattern Ans: A Ans: B
D. decreased effective stroke from that injector D. leakage past the plunger into the oil drain 572 A restricted air intake to a diesel engine may result in the engine 573 The color of the engine exhaust from a diesel propelled ship should
Ans: B Ans: A _____________. be ______________.
552 Water in the fuel can prevent the engine from starting, prevent it 553 Air in the fuel lines of a diesel engine can cause _____________. A. failing to reach rated speed A. clear
from developing full power, or ____________. B. knocking under maximum load B. hazy light brown
A. run at an irregular speed A. ignition failure C. hunting or surging under light load C. hazy light blue
B. create high lube oil temperature B. oxygen corrosion of the fuel lines D. overspeeding and running away D. hazy light grey
C. cause the engine to overspeed C. the pistons to seize Ans: A Ans: A
D. cause blue smoke in the exhaust D. blue smoke 574 With regards to a diesel engine crankcase explosion, the most 575 You are operating a main propulsion diesel engine at a constant
Ans: A Ans: A violent is the _____________. I. primary explosion II. secondary load when the jacket water temperature begins to rise. This could be
554 Before starting a diesel engine, you should always 555 Dirt in a fuel oil system of a diesel engine can cause explosion caused by ____________.
_____________. _____________. A. I only A. a piston about to seize
A. check the pyrometer readings A. damage to strainers B. II only B. dirty fuel oil filters
B. check the crankcase oil level B. overspeeding of the engine C. both I and II C. fuel oil being too heavy (viscous)
C. change the fuel oil strainers C. excessive cooling of the engine D. neither I nor II D. high water level in the expansion tank
D. clean the air filter D. injector damage Ans: B Ans: A
Ans: B Ans: D 576 Some diesel engines are fitted with a thermometer in the cooling 577 Some diesel engines are fitted with a thermometer in the cooling
556 If cooling water flow through the aftercooler is interrupted, the 557 Operating a propulsion diesel engine at less than 30% of designed water outlet from each cylinder. If the cooling water temperature water outlet from each cylinder. If the cooling water temperature from
power output of a turbocharged diesel engine will drop because the normal load for prolonged periods will result in ____________. from all cylinders begins to rise above normal, you should suspect an individual cylinder begins to rise, you should suspect
_____________. _____________. _____________.
A. turbocharger will stall A. decreased fuel consumption per brake horsepower A. increased blow-by in all cylinders A. overloading of adjacent cylinders
B. density of the air charge will decrease B. more complete cylinder scavenging B. incomplete combustion in all cylinders B. overloading of that cylinder
C. scavenge effect will increase C. extended valve life C. overloading in all cylinders C. increased blow-by in that cylinder
D. exhaust pressure will increase D. carbon formation on combustion chamber surfaces D. insufficient fuel delivery to all cylinders D. incomplete combustion in that cylinder
Ans: B Ans: D Ans: C Ans: B
558 Diesel engine fuel oil contamination often results in 559 Operating a diesel engine under light loads and at low temperatures 578 A diesel engine using lube oil with too high a viscosity will exhibit 579 One result of operating a diesel engine at light load with excessively
_____________. for an extended period can result in _________. _____________. low cooling water temperatures is a/an _______.

A. governor malfunctions A. formation of carbon on the intake and exhaust ports A. increased starting difficulty in cold weather A. decrease in ignition lag
B. fuel injection system malfunctions B. high water jacket temperatures B. increased oil consumption B. increase in fuel economy
C. high cylinder lube oil temperatures C. overheated pistons and cylinders C. thickening at higher operating temperatures C. reduction in lube oil viscosity
D. low intake temperatures D. an increase in lube oil viscosity due to fuel dilution D. minimal friction losses D. increase in cylinder misfiring
 Page 31 Page 32

Ans: A Ans: D 600 One of the factors limiting the amount of load which can beput on a 601 White smoke exhausting from a diesel engine can be caused by a
580 Which of the following conditions will tend to increase the ignition 581 In a diesel engine, excessive cylinder liner wear willcause modern marine diesel engine is the ____________. ___________.
delay period of combustion in a compression ignition engine? ___________.I. increased blowby II. wear between the piston ring
and groove A. governor sensitivity A. high combustion temperature
A. Using a fuel oil with a higher cetane number. A. I only is correct B. exhaust temperature B. high compression pressure
B. Decreasing the air charge temperature. B. II only is correct C. fuel injection pressure C. cracked cylinder liner
C. Reducing the injected fuel oil droplet size. C. both I and II are correct D. speed of the cam shaft D. fuel with a high vanadium content
D. increasing the compression ratio D. neither I or II are correct Ans: B Ans: C
Ans: B Ans: C 602 If a diesel engine runs roughly, which of the systems listed is most 603 One cause of diesel engine surging can be a result of
582 A change in the degree of fuel atomization in a diesel engine would 583 The longer the ignition delay period occurs in a diesel engine, the likely to be at fault? _______________.
most greatly affect _____________. _____________. A. Fuel A. injection pump plungers stuck or worn
A. air turbulence A. less fuel will enter the cylinder B. Lubricating B. low compression
B. fuel penetration B. lower will be cylinder compression temperatures C. Cooling C. solenoid stuck open
C. fuel spray angle C. more complete will be fuel combustion D. Ignition D. fuel tank too full
D. fuel injection rate D. more rapid will be the rise in combustion pressure Ans: A Ans: A
Ans: B Ans: D 604 Which of the listed pre-start procedures should be carried out prior 605 Plugged spray holes in a diesel engine fuel injector will cause
584 Diesel engine exhaust temperatures may be used to indicate 585 Maintaining the proper fuel oil temperature will result in to starting a crosshead type diesel engine after an overhaul? excessive smoking at idling speed, in addition to _____________.
_____________. _____________.
A. leaking exhaust valves A. the elimination of valve wear A. Prelube cylinders with hand cranks. A. damage to pistons or cylinder heads
B. an overloaded cylinder B. improved atomization B. Open all air space drain cocks. B. detonation throughout the load range
C. a clogged injector nozzle C. a decrease in cylinder blow-by C. Open all indicator valves. C. preignition throughout the load range
D. all of the above D. an increase in cylinder blowby D. all of the above D. excessive smoking when the engine is under load
Ans: D Ans: B Ans: D Ans: D
586 Combustion knock can occur in the cylinders of a diesel engine 587 Persistent knocking in one cylinder of an eight cylinder diesel engine 606 Late fuel injection in a diesel engine is indicated by low firing 607 Distortion of the spray pattern of a nozzle or injector may be
under any condition permitting _____________. would MOST likely be caused by _____________. pressure with _____________. indicated by a/an _____________.
A. a shortened ignition delay period A. using fuel oil with low cetane number A. low exhaust temperature A. high firing pressure
B. a lean fuel/air mixture B. a badly worn piston pin B. low exhaust pressure B. overload of that particular cylinder
C. excess fuel in the combustion chamber C. a loose flywheel key C. mechanical knock in each cylinder C. smoky exhaust
D. rapid vaporization of injected fuel droplets D. a loose bedplate bolt D. black or gray exhaust smoke D. cooling water temperature rise
Ans: C Ans: B Ans: D Ans: C
588 A cracked cylinder head in an operating engine may be indicated by 589 Coolant can be lost from a diesel engine jacket cooling water 608 An incorrect spray pattern produced by a diesel engine fuel injection 609 High cylinder firing pressure, accompanied by low exhaust
_____________. system by leakage from _____________. nozzle can be directly caused by _____________. temperature, can result from _____________.
A. a steady flow of water from the expansion tank vent A. cylinder head cracks A. overheating of the nozzle A. improper fuel rack positioning
B. combustion gases venting at the expansion tank B. piping joints B. overcooling of the nozzle B. lengthy exhaust valve duration
C. lower temperature at the cylinder head water discharge C. pump seals leaking C. carbon blockage of the spray holes C. extended operation at light load
D. water draining from the fuel leakoff lines D. all of the above D. excessive lube oil tempertures D. excessively early injection timing
Ans: B Ans: D Ans: B Ans: D
590 When oil vapor, oxygen and hot spots are present at the sametime 591 A possible cause for an individual piston to knock when at TDC on a 610 A leaking diesel engine fuel injector will cause __________. 611 Diesel engine piston seizure can be caused by _________.
within a crankcase, which of the following hazards could develop? slow-speed, two-stroke/cycle main propulsion diesel engine could be A. prolonged maintenance intervals A. poor cooling of cylinder walls
due to ____________. B. improved atomization B. improper cooling of the piston
A. Explosion A. early fuel injection C. greater fuel economy C. insufficient piston lubrication
B. Implosion B. excessive bearing play within the running gear D. incomplete combustion D. all of the above
C. Misfire C. overloading of the cylinder Ans: D Ans: D
D. Dieseling D. all of the above 612 When fuel is injected too early in the injection cycle, it may cause 613 A diesel engine will lose power if fuel injection occurs too early
Ans: A Ans: D the engine to have _____________. because the _____________.
592 An automated diesel engine should normally shut down due to 593 Routine monitoring of a diesel engine should include A. high fuel economy A. fuel will not be properly atomized in the cylinder
_____________. _____________. B. smoky exhaust B. ignition will be delayed due to low ignition temperature
A. low lube oil temperature A. checking for leaks C. early detonation and a loss of power C. maximum fuel expansion will occur on the compression stroke
B. high ambient air temperature B. checking temperatures and pressures
C. low lube oil pressure C. listening for abnormal noises D. high exhaust temperatures D. fuel will ignite before top dead centre
D. high exhaust system back pressure D. all of the above Ans: C Ans: B
Ans: C Ans: D 614 When fuel is injected in a diesel engine cylinder too early, 615 Which of the following should always be checked prior to starting a
594 One remedy for a high firing pressure, in addition to a high exhaust 595 If a diesel engine is difficult to start and operates with the engine _____________. diesel engine?
temperature in one cylinder of a diesel engine, is to ____________. temperatures lower than normal, you should suspect that the A. ignition may be delayed A. Air filters
_____________. B. fuel economy is not affected B. Fuel oil strainers
A. increase scavenge air pressure A. compression pressures are below normal C. exhaust gas temperature will be unchanged C. Crank case oil level
B. reduce fuel booster pump pressure B. lube oil is diluted with fuel oil D. the exhaust will be clear D. Pyrometer readings
C. adjust the fuel rack C. cranking speed is too low Ans: A Ans: C
D. retard fuel injector timing D. exhaust system is partially restricted 616 When high firing pressures and low exhaust temperatures occur 617 If the firing pressures in a diesel engine are high, although the
Ans: C Ans: A simultaneously in a diesel engine, this may be a result of exhaust temperatures are normal, the cause may be
596 A distorted spray pattern from a fuel injector can cause 597 White smoke issuing from the exhaust of an auxiliary diesel engine ____________. _____________.
_____________. could mean _____________. A. decreased piston-to-cylinder head clearance A. early injection timing
A. high firing pressure A. the engine is overloaded B. increased exhaust back pressure B. worn orifices in the injection nozzles
B. corrosion of the nozzle tip B. the engine is cold C. early timing of fuel injection C. worn or scored cylinder liners
C. low fuel pressure C. there is too much lube oil in the cylinders D. low scavenge air temperature D. using a fuel with too low of a cetane number
D. loss of power D. the turbocharger is fouled Ans: C Ans: B
Ans: D Ans: B 618 Which of the following statements represents the reason for rolling 619 In order to start a large, low-speed, main propulsion diesel engine on
598 White smoke exhausting from a diesel engine can be caused by 599 Bluish smoke in the exhaust of an operating diesel engine can be over a diesel engine with the cylinder indicator cocks open prior to high viscosity fuel after an extended shutdown, the ____________.
_____________. caused by ______________. starting?
A. low combustion temperature A. an overheated engine A. To test the starting system. A. fuel must be preheated
B. a leaking fuel nozzle check valve B. a scored cylinder liner B. To remove air bubbles from the jacket water. B. intake air should be preheated
C. late fuel injection C. water leaking into a cylinder C. To ensure that the lube oil system delivers pressure. C. none of the above
D. plugged oil scraper ring holes D. low combustion temperature D. To ensure foreign material ( water, etc ) is not present in the D. lube oil outlet temperature should be increased 20‚ above normal
Ans: A Ans: B cylinders
Ans: D Ans: A
 Page 33 Page 34

620 After starting a diesel engine, which of the listed operating 621 What harmful condition can result if a diesel engine is operated at Ans: C Ans: D
conditions should be checked FIRST? very light loads for long periods of time? 638 An accumulation of carbon on one of its thermocouples of an 639 Which of the listed set of conditions indicates early fuel injection
A. Air box pressure A. Increased carbon buildup. exhaust gas pyrometer will ______________. timing?
B. Lube oil pressure B. Burning of intake valves. A. read low for that location due to the insulation effect of the deposits A. Lower than normal compression pressure and high exhaust
C. Exhaust temperatures C. Excessive firing pressures. temperature
D. Raw water pressure D. Increased fuel consumption. B. read high for that location due to the hot spots formed by the B. Higher than normal firing pressure and low exhaust temperature
Ans: B Ans: A deposits
622 A diesel engine should not be operated at low loads for long periods 623 The possibility of a diesel engine crankcase explosion will be C. fluctuate due to the conductance of carbon C. High fuel consumption and high exhaust temperatures
of time because _____________. increased by operating an engine ____________. D. respond quickly to temperature changes D. Loss of engine power and high exhaust temperatures
A. heavy carbon deposits will buildup on the valves and in the exhaust A. equipped with a crankcase exhaust blower which vents to fresh air Ans: A Ans: B
640 Black smoke exhausting from a diesel engine indicates 641 Clogged or partially obstructed exhaust ports on a diesel engine can
B. fuel dilution is increased at low load B. with a leaking crankcase inspection cover gasket _____________. cause _____________.
C. exhaust valves may be damaged C. with a crankcase vacuum between 38mm and 50mm of water A. proper fuel injection A. overspeeding of the engine
B. water in the fuel B. failure of the engine to shut down
D. all of the above D. equipped with a turbocharger which utilizes a gear drive C. incomplete combustion C. no effect of engine performance
Ans: D Ans: B D. burning of lube oil D. high exhaust temperatures
624 The main propulsion diesel continues running after you try to shut 625 Low compression pressure in a diesel engine can be caused by Ans: C Ans: D
down. You should now attempt to _____________. ______________. 642 Combustion knock will most likely occur as a result of using a fuel 643 Black smoke exhausting from a diesel engine may be caused by
A. stop the air supply A. carbon deposits in the combustion space with _____________. _____________.
B. engage the jacking gear B. carbon deposits on the piston crown A. low ignition quality A. excessive scavenging air pressure
C. secure the lube oil pump C. leaking cylinder liner seal rings B. a high volatility B. high coolant temperature
D. shut off the fuel at the day tank D. carbon deposits on the piston C. low ignition delay C. insufficient fuel
Ans: A Ans: D D. a high cetane number D. a clogged air cleaner
626 If a diesel engine has been stopped because of piston seizure due 627 Which of the following conditions indicates the dilution of diesel Ans: A Ans: D
to severe overheating, the crankcase _____________. engine lube oil by fuel oil? 644 If a two-stroke/cycle diesel engine is overspeeding due to leakage of 645 A two-stroke/cycle diesel engine operates erratically, overspeeds,
lube oil into the cylinders, what should you do to stop the engine? and fails to restart when cranked at normalspeed. Which of the
A. inspection covers should not be opened until the engine has cooled A. Water discharging from the waste water outlet of the lube oil purifier. following problems is the most likelycause for the engine failing to
restart?
B. ventilation system should be continued in operation for one hour for B. Fuel oil discharging from the waste water outlet of the lube oil A. Move the fuel control mechanism to the no fuel position. A. Improper governor operation due to excess oil pressure
cooling purifier. B. Block the fuel supply by closing the master fuel valve. B. Damage to the governor due to excessive speed
C. scavenge pump should be immediately secured to prevent loss of C. Lube oil discharging from the waste water outlet of the lube oil C. Shut off the fuel supply and block the flow of intake air. C. Failure to reset the overspeed trip
lube oil purifier. D. Relieve all pressure in the fuel system. D. Failure to reposition the fuel rack
D. explosion covers should be opened slightly to provide extra D. A change in the lube oil viscosity. Ans: C Ans: C
ventilation 646 When running a large, low-speed, main propulsion diesel engine on 647 If it becomes necessary to cutout an individual cylinder of a large,
Ans: A Ans: D heavy fuel, which of the following precautions should be observed low-speed, main propulsion diesel engine, the fuel to that cylinder
628 Following an overhaul of a crosshead type diesel engine, the engine 629 A large, low-speed, main propulsion diesel engine is operating at when switching back over to diesel oil? should be secured and its ____________.
is jacked over with the turning gear as part of the pre-start rated load and speed while the vessel is in calm seas. As the A. The diesel oil must never be allowed to mix with the heavy fuel. A. fuel pump should be removed and all connections blanked off
procedure. Which of the listed pre-start procedures should be intensity of the seas increase, the engine speed governor maintains
carried out? the same RPM, although the load indicator indicates an in B. The temperature of the fuel from the preheater should be gradually B. cylinder oil feed rate should be increased slightly above that used
reduced after switching over the three-way valve. at normal sea speed
A. Ensure proper cylinder lube oil flow. A. Increase the load limit setting. C. The heating steam to the preheater should be secured as soon as C. cylinder oil feed rate should be reduced
B. Open all air space drain cocks. B. Decrease the load limit setting. the diesel fuel passes through the three-way valve.
C. Open all indicator valves. C. Increase engine RPM. D. The heating steam must be secured before the diesel oil passes D. cylinder oil feed rate should be increased to the maximum flow
D. all of the above D. Ignore this situation as the engine can handle the load increase. through the three-way valve. capable of the metering pump
Ans: B Ans: C
Ans: D Ans: B 648 Late fuel injection timing is indicated by ____________.
630 A drop in compression pressure in one cylinder of a diesel engine 631 Which of the conditions listed could cause the cylinder relief valves A. lower than normal cylinder pressure and low exhaust temperature
can be caused by _____________. on a large, low-speed, propulsion diesel engine to lift?
B. lower than normal cylinder pressure and high exhaust temperature
A. a leaking fuel injection nozzle A. Plugged injector nozzles
B. a clogged air filter B. Excessive fuel injection C. higher than normal cylinder pressure and low exhaust temperature
C. early fuel injection C. Very late injection timing
D. burned valves D. Incorrect crankshaft clearances D. higher than normal cylinder pressure and high exhaust temperature
Ans: D Ans: B
632 An increase in crankcase pressure generally indicates 633 An increase in diesel engine crankcase pressure generally indicates Ans: B
_____________. excessive _____________. MOTOR - MAINTENANCE
A. worn connecting rod bearings A. compression pressure 649 Bearing wear on a split sleeve type bearing is measured with a 650 Wear occurring at the tips of the reduction gear teeth is usually the
B. worn engine cylinder liners B. lube oil header pressure ____________. result of _____________.
C. high cylinder firing pressure C. scavenge air pressure A. ball anvil micrometer A. surface fatigue
D. stuck spring loaded manhole covers D. piston ring blow-by B. pair of outside calipers and a dial indicator B. fretting corrosion
Ans: B Ans: D C. pair of inside calipers C. heavy overloading
634 If a diesel engine were running at 20% overload with a smoky 635 The starting air rotates a diesel engine at the proper speed, but the D. depth micrometer D. gear misalignment
exhaust, you should _____________. engine fails to start. You should check _____________. Ans: A Ans: D
651 While inspecting the main bearings on a diesel engine you find 652 When a nozzle tester is being used to test a "closed" type fuel
A. stop the engine immediately to prevent damage A. the overspeed trip impregnated dirt and scratches in the bearing surface. You would, injection nozzle, a clogged nozzle orifice will be indicated by a
B. increase lube oil pressure B. for an obstructed air filter therefore, suspect that ___________. ____________.
C. slow the engine allowing it to gradually cool C. for air-bound fuel lines A. the bearing had been overheated A. distorted spray pattern
D. decrease the cooling water temperature to the water jacket D. all of the above B. water was present in the oil B. chattering sound when the nozzle closes
Ans: C Ans: D C. the lube oil was not being properly filtered C. squealing sound midway in the pump stroke
636 If a diesel engine turned over at normal cranking speed but failed to 637 An increase in power output of a turbocharged diesel engine D. the maximum allowable bearing pressure had been exceeded D. popping sound when the nozzle opens
start, the cause could be late fuel injection or _____________. operating at a constant engine speed results in _____________. Ans: C Ans: A
653 The spray holes in diesel engine fuel valves should be cleaned 654 When disassembling or assembling an injection pump plunger and
A. excessive fuel pressure A. higher exhaust temperature using carbon solvent and _____________. barrel you should _____________.
B. high lube oil viscosity B. increased turbocharger speed A. diesel fuel A. keep the parts immersed in diesel fuel
C. inadequate fuel injection C. higher air box pressure B. a special cleaning wire B. always keep the plunger and barrel together
D. excessive starting air pressure D. All of the above are correct. C. a copper wire brush C. work over a linoleum-type surface
 Page 35 Page 36

D. a shaved wooden dowel D. all of the above Ans: B Ans: C

Ans: B Ans: D 673 Worn main bearings will cause the compression ratio of an auxiliary 674 The insertion of shims between the foot of a marine type connecting
655 Visual inspection of a fuel injector valve, removed during overhaul, 656 A visual inspection of the chrome plated piston compression rings at diesel engine to _____________. rod and a bearing box would result in __________.
shows heat discoloration of the lower end of the valve. This is the liner ports reveals vertical brown streaks on the face of the rings.
indicative of ____________. This condition indicates __________. A. increase A. increased compression ratio
A. valve leakage A. a broken ring B. decrease B. decreased compression ratio
B. insufficient valve lift B. normal conditions C. remain the same C. increased bearing clearance
C. choking of nozzle holes C. ring blow-by D. increase on compression; decrease on expansion D. decreased bearing clearance
D. return check valve leakage D. a leaky fuel injector Ans: B Ans: A
Ans: A Ans: C 675 Diesel engine crankshaft deflection readings are generally taken at 676 An acceptable method of measuring for the correct rotational force
657 Uneven bolt tightening during the installation of a fuel injection pump 658 In a diesel engine, a cylinder liner should be replaced if it is four crank positions. Good engineering practice requires the applied to the connecting rod and main bearing bolts, is to use a
can result in _____________. ______________.I. scuffed II. scored deflection gauge or indicator to be ___________. _____________.
A. binding of pump moving parts A. I only is correct
B. ignition delay B. II only is correct A. placed as near the crankpin axis as possible A. torque wrench
C. high torsional shock to fuel lines C. both I and II are correct B. removed each time the crankshaft is repositioned B. monkey wrench
D. improper pump-to-engine timing D. neither I or II are correct C. left in place for all four readings C. pipe wrench
Ans: A Ans: B D. reset to zero for all four readings D. slugging wrench
659 If the plunger or barrel of a fuel injection jerk pump becomes 660 Which of the listed devices could be used as a substitute for a ring Ans: C Ans: A
damaged, _____________. grooving tool? 677 Small cracks in the crankshaft bearing surface of a diesel engine are 678 If water is found in the crankcase of a diesel engine, the cause may
A. the entire pump must be replaced A. Steel brush an indication of _____________. be due to _____________.
B. the injection pump and injection nozzle must be replaced B. Fine emery cloth or steel wool A. corrosion fretting A. a cracked cylinder head
C. either the barrel or plunger must be replaced C. A section of the removed compression ring B. insufficient lubrication B. a leaky cylinder head gasket
D. the barrel and plunger must be lapped and blued. D. A case hardened scraper C. abnormal wear C. a cracked cylinder liner
Ans: A Ans: C D. fatigue failure D. all of the above
661 Cracking of a diesel piston crown can result from ____________. 662 It is easier to replace a dry cylinder liner than a wet one because Ans: D Ans: D
____________. 679 Diesel engine piston ring blow-by is usually caused by excessive 680 Diesel engine "blow-by" into the crankcase is caused by excessive
A.
excessive piston to liner clearance A. of the thin wall thickness ring clearance at the ring ____________. ring ____________.
B.
all of the above B. honing makes it easier to maintain the desired oil film A. back A. back clearance
C.
faulty nozzle spray C. water seals are not required B. side B. side clearance
D.
the underside of the piston crown being excessively dirty, lowering D. it fits more loosely due to a decrease in heat transfer through the C. gap C. gap clearance
the rate of heat transfer composite wall D. bottom D. taper clearance
Ans: D Ans: C Ans: C Ans: C
663 To facilitate early ring seating of newly installed piston rings, while 664 Insufficient end clearance on newly fitted piston rings in a diesel 681 Wear is usually greatest at the top of the cylinder bore of a diesel 682 Which of the following operations will have a direct impact on the
still providing extended ring wear, __________. engine will cause the rings to ______________. engine due to the ____________. rate of wear in a cylinder liner ____________.
A. inlaid rings can be utilized in which the chrome center of the ring A. jam in the least worn part of the cylinder when the rings expand A. side thrust A. amount of scavenge air to the cylinder
face slightly protrudes beyond the cast iron edges B. skirt making the greatest amount of contact B. quality of fuel injected
B. the cylinder surface is honed to the smoothest surface attainable B. break in the most worn part of the cylinder when the rings expand C. highest pressures being exerted C. viscosity of the lube oil
D. tremendous acceleration rate D. compression ratio of the piston
C. a taper faced ring can be used C. wear eccentrically on the side opposite the end gap Ans: C Ans: B
D. rings with increased back clearance are provided D. overheat and jam at the top center on the combustion stroke 683 Failure to remove the carbon ridge from the top of the cylinder when 684 Scuffed cylinder liner wearing surfaces in a diesel engine can result
Ans: C Ans: A replacing the piston rings, will result in ____________. from _____________.
665 Heavy fuel oils generally have an upper average ash content of 666 The face surface appearance of a shallow groove, stainless steel,
0.1% by weight. Which of the following conditions could be expected chrome plated compression ring should exhibit through its operating A. damaged upper piston rings and/or ring lands A. starting the engine while hot
if the ash content increases above this amount? life a ____________. B. scored piston walls B. knurling the piston skirt
A. Glazing of the cylinder liners A. smooth, shallow groved, chrome surface C. damaged cylinder liners C. operating the engine overheated
B. Increased valve wear B. smooth surface of stainless steel D. deformed piston skirts D. scuff resistant piston rings
C. Excessive oil pumping C. smooth surface displaying areas of stainless steel and chrome Ans: A Ans: C
685 Water accumulation in the cylinder of a secured engine is an 686 The formation of carbon monoxide in diesel exhaust gases is
D. Increased fuel consumption D. surface of gradually deepening grooves indication that the _____________. reduced by ____________.
Ans: B Ans: A A. fresh water pump was not secured along with the engine A. spraying water into the exhaust pipe
667 To determine the main bearing clearance of a propulsion diesel 668 Visual inspection of chrome-plated piston compression rings reveals B. jacket water thermostat has failed B. keeping the exhaust system free of carbon deposits
engine, you should measure the main bearing shell using a ball anvil a black ring face at the position of the cylinder liner ports. This C. cylinder liner may be cracked C. maintaining proper combustion and scavenging
outside micrometer and measure the crankshaft journal using a/an condition indicates a ring which ________________. D. sea water pump is overspeeding just prior to engine shutdown D. avoiding light load operation
_____________.
A. telescoping gauge A. has a crown-face Ans: C Ans: C
B. ring "snap" gauge B. exceeds wear limits through normal wear 687 The amount of wear on a split precision main bearing can be 688 On a diesel engine equipped with individual jerk type fuel pumps,
C. inside vernier caliper C. has excessive blow-by accurately determined by comparing the data from a previous adjustments should be made to the tappets (push rods) of the
D. outside micrometer D. is in good condition reading to the present readings taken with a ____________. pumps to ____________.
Ans: D Ans: C A. dial indicating outside caliper A. equalize effective delivery strokes
669 The consistent burning of fuel oil with a high sulphur content in a 670 Burning fuel with a high sulphur content in a diesel engine will B. telescoping gauge B. regulate combustion pressures
diesel engine will result in _____________. _____________. C. ball anvil outside micrometer C. regulate exhaust temperatures
A. clogged fuel injection pumps A. increase thermal efficiency D. screw thread outside micrometer D. change from light to heavy fuel
B. increased cylinder liner wear B. cause clogging of the fuel system Ans: C Ans: A
C. intake valve stem corrosion C. increase the ability of the engine to start in cold weather 689 The amount of wear on a split, fixed sleeve-type, main diesel 690 Friction, engine wear, and oil consumption in a diesel engine are
D. varnish deposit on pistons D. produce corrosion in the cylinder and exhaust system at low loads bearing can be accurately determined with a ________. directly related to the ____________.
A. dial indicating outside caliper A. acidity of the oil
Ans: B Ans: D B. spider gauge B. pour point of the oil
671 Which of the following statements concerning cylinder liner wear is 672 Generally, where should you expect to find the greatest amount of C. ball anvil outside micrometer C. fclearance point of the oil
true? wear on a cylinder liner? D. screw thread outside micrometer D. viscosity of the oil
A. Liner wear is normally greatest in the middle of the cylinder. A. Adjacent to the piston skirt when the crank is on TDC. Ans: C Ans: D
B. Excessive liner wear causes wear between piston ring and groove. B. Along the lower part of the liner wall opposite the oil control ring. 691 Improper cooling of a diesel engine cylinder liner due to the 692 The nuts of main bearings, connecting rod bolts and all other
accumulation of scale deposits, may cause _____________. moving parts are to be secured by ________.
C. Excessive, but uniform liner wear will not cause wear between C. Opposite the top ring shortly after piston travel has ended the A. low compression pressure A. hardened steel nut locks
piston ring and groove. compression stroke. B. increased piston wear B. cotter pins made of spring steel
D. Liner wear is distributed equally between the upper and lower D. Opposite the oil control ring when the crank is on bottom dead C. increased cylinder lube oil consumption C. split pins or other effective means
portions of the cylinder. center.
 Page 37 Page 38

D. poor contact between compression rings and liner D. hydraulic nuts as commonly found on large low speed engines Ans: D Ans: C
711 On a large low-speed main propulsion diesel engine, lower main 712 The rate of wear on a cylinder liner depends on the
Ans: B Ans: C bearing wear is usually measured by using a/an ______. _____________.
693 The easiest way to locate a defective diesel engine exhaust valves 694 Engine coolant accumulating in the diesel engine lubricating oil can
is by _____________. result from a _____________. A. dial indicator A. quality of air filtration
A. taking compression readings A. low oil pressure B. outside caliper B. effectiveness of lubrication
B. inspecting the valves visually B. high coolant pressure C. bridge gauge C. type of fuel used
C. comparing exhaust pyrometer readings C. leaking fuel injector D. tram rod D. all of the above
D. listening to the engine D. cracked cylinder head or liner Ans: C Ans: D
Ans: C Ans: D 713 Abnormal crankpin bearing and piston skirt surface wear indicate 714 To determine the main bearing clearances in a dieselengine, you
695 If it becomes necessary to clean the spray holes in a diesel engine 696 While overhauling a jerk-type fuel pump it is necessary to replace _____________. should use _____________.
fuel injector, you should use a suitable size piano wire and the pump plunger. Which of the parts listed below must also be A. a restricted air intake A. a depth micrometer
______________. replaced? B. a clogged connecting rod oil passage B. an anvil faced micrometer
A. gasoline A. Delivery check valve C. incorrect connecting rod alignment C. plasti-gauge
B. carbon solvent B. Pump barrel D. high cylinder firing temperatures D. a vernier caliper
C. degreasing compound C. Tubing to the injector Ans: C Ans: C
D. strong detergent D. Cam follower 715 The ring lands on a large, low-speed, main propulsion diesel engine 716 Incomplete combustion in a running diesel engine can cause piston
Ans: B Ans: B piston may crack due to _____________. rings to become stuck as a result of _____________.
697 An acceptable means of tightening connecting rod and mainbearing 698 In a diesel engine, when refitting piston rings youshould__________. A. insufficient cylinder liner wear A. residual carbon deposits
cap bolts is to measure the ___________. I. torque applied to each I. check the ring gap at the smallest diameter of the cylinder II. B. contaminated lubricating oil B. lube oil viscosity breakdown
nut and bolt assembly II. stretch of each nut before and after remove carbon from the ring groove C. high main lubricating oil system temperature C. uneven heat expansion of the rings
tightening D. insufficient ring groove clearance D. uneven heat expansion of the piston
A. I only A. I only Ans: D Ans: A
B. II only B. II only 717 If the compression rings on a diesel engine piston become stuck in 718 A condition contributing to diesel engine piston rings sticking in the
C. both I and II C. both I and II the ring groove, the cause may be due to ______________. ring grooves, is insufficient ring clearance at the ring ____________.
D. neither I nor II D. neither I nor II
Ans: A Ans: C A. excessive ring action A. gap
699 Problems with the diesel engine fuel injection pump are usually 700 Dirt lodged on the nozzle valve seat of a fuel injection nozzle will B. excessive ring temperature B. side
caused by _____________. cause _____________. C. improper ring rotation C. back
A. improper adjustment A. erosion and cratering of the nozzle orifices D. excessive ring face wear D. radial
B. contaminated fuel B. fuel leakage into the nozzle drain line Ans: B Ans: B
C. kinked fuel lines C. fuel leakage before and after injection 719 Low compression in a diesel engine could be caused by 720 Low compression pressure in a diesel engine is caused by
D. excessive engine vibration D. insufficient fuel delivery through that nozzle ________________. ___________.
Ans: B Ans: C A. worn or broken cylinder liner sealing rings A. low water in the expansion tank
701 When a diesel engine is operated with a piston ring having a cold 702 Due to excessive water in the fuel, a diesel engine fails to start. B. high cooling water temperature B. improperly seated valves
gap clearance less than that recommended by the manufacturer, Before the engine can be started, the water must be removed from C. worn or broken piston rings C. low fuel oil pressure
the ring will ____________. the ____________. D. low fuel oil pressure D. worn or broken cylinder liner sealing rings
A. seize and buckle A. fuel pumps Ans: C Ans: B
B. seat in more slowly B. cylinders 721 Low compression pressure in a diesel engine can be caused by 722 Which of the listed problems can be a cause of low compression
C. slap in the groove C. fuel strainers _____________. pressure in a diesel engine?
D. stick in the groove D. all of the above A. improperly seating intake valves A. Clogged air filter
Ans: A Ans: D B. leaking cylinder liner seal rings B. Leaky valve cage
703 Failure to remove the carbon ridge at the top of the cylinder when 704 If the piston ring gap remains insufficient when installing new rings, C. late fuel injection timing C. Burned exhaust valves
removing a piston may result in ___________. you should ___________. D. carbon deposits on the piston D. All of the above
A. damaged upper piston rings and/or ring lands A. install oversized rings Ans: A Ans: D
B. scored piston walls B. hone the cylinder liner to allow ring installation 723 Low compression pressure in a diesel engine may be the result of 724 When a nozzle tester is used to check the spray pattern of an
C. damaged cylinder liners C. compress the rings tighter with a compressing tool ______________. injection nozzle, _____________.
D. deformed piston skirts D. file the ends of the rings A. insufficient fuel supply due to fuel pump valves sticking or leaking A. the nozzle should operate within plus or minus 500 pounds of the
Ans: A Ans: D specified opening pressure
705 When inspecting piston rings through the ports of a two- 706 An examination of the piston compression rings of an efficiently B. excessive mechanical clearance between the piston crown and B. the nozzle should not make any noise when pressure is applied
stroke/cycle diesel engine, black areas on the sealing surfaces are operating diesel engine, should appear with a ___________. cylinder head
the result of ______________. C. excessively worn fuel pump plunger C. the valve should pop at 1/2 the actual set pressure
A. insufficient lubrication A. shiny face and bottom, black back and top D. excessive exhaust back pressure D. the oil spray could cause blood poisoning if the spray penetrates the
B. improper piston cooling B. shiny face, black top, back and bottom skin of the operator
C. blow-by C. shiny face, bottom, back and top Ans: B Ans: D
D. overload operation D. black face, bottom, back and top 725 When a piston is removed from a diesel engine for maintenance, 726 To reduce load during jacking operations, which of the listed
Ans: C Ans: A the piston should be examined for ___________. devices should be opened?
707 Excessive side clearance between a piston ring and its groove will 708 In certain cases, a cylinder liner can be refinished rather than
cause the ring to ______________. replaced. When properly honed, the _____________. A. scoring A. Fuel line
A. expand excessively under operating temperatures A. cylinder should be cleaned with kerosene B. cracks and burned spots B. Expansion tank
B. scuff the cylinder liner excessively B. cylinder liner should have a glazed appearance C. gummy deposits and sticking rings C. Cylinder test valves
C. hammer the piston land above the ring C. liner surface should have a crosshatch pattern D. all of the above D. Sea valve
D. hammer the piston land below the ring D. counterbore is slick and smooth Ans: D Ans: C
Ans: D Ans: C 727 After removing an old set of rings, which of the following conditions 728 After an engine has been started using a Bendix drive unit, the drive
709 One method of determining crankshaft misalignment is by 710 Which of the following statements concerning cylinder liner wear in a is indicated if a bright spot is found on each end of a broken piston gear, or pinion disengages from the flywheel due to
______________. single acting diesel engine is correct? ring? ______________.
A. laying a straight edge across the crank webs at the crankpin and A. Uniformly excessive liner wear will not cause wear on the piston A. Improper lubrication A. the action of a spring
measuring the distance to the crankpin in two places rings and grooves. B. Excessive diametrical tension B. rotation of the starting cam
B. measuring the crank drop on either side of each crank throw while B. Liner wear is distributed equally between upper and lower portions of C. Insufficient ring pressure C. the higher rotating speed of the flywheel
the crankshaft is slowly rotated through one revolution the cylinder. D. Insufficient gap clearance D. Clean the interior to remove oil and foreign matter.
Ans: D Ans: C
C. rotating the crankshaft through one revolution, pausing each 90° of C. Excessive liner wear causes wear between piston rings and 729 Bearing "crush" as applied to diesel engine main bearings, will result 730 Crank web deflection readings will give a positive indication of
rotation to measure bearing clearances, top and bottom grooves. in _____________. ____________.
A. positive seating of the bearings in their housings A. worn main bearing journals
D. taking micrometer readings between the crank webs opposite the D. Liner wear is normally greatest in the middle of the cylinder. B. above normal operating temperatures B. torsional stress deformation
crankpin every 90° of crank angle rotation C. damage to the journals C. slack thrust bearings
 Page 39 Page 40

D. damage to the bearings D. bearing shells shim dimensions C. allow for lube oil drainage behind the rings C. Fuel injection will occur earlier.
Ans: A Ans: A D. prevent combustion gases burning the ring grooves D. Fuel injection will occur later.
731 When accumulated carbon at the air inlet ports of a two- 732 The replacement piping for diesel engine high pressure fuel systems Ans: A Ans: D
stroke/cycle diesel engine is being removed, you should take care to must be the same length and diameter as the original piping to 751 In a large, low-speed, main propulsion diesel engine, if the injectors 752 A condition contributing to diesel engine piston rings sticking in the
avoid carbon _____________. _____________. have formed carbon around the nozzle holes, which of the following ring grooves, is insufficient ring clearance at the ring ____________.
A. entering the cylinder A. avoid unnecessary parts inventory would help avoid further buildup? I. gap II. side
B. particles becoming lodged under the intake valves B. keep torsional vibration constant A. Increase fuel injection pressure. A. I only
C. entering the water jacket C. use existing supports and braces B. Increase fuel preheat temperature. B. II only
D. particles entering lube oil D. lube oil system C. Decrease load limit on the governor. C. both I and II
Ans: A Ans: D D. Increase injector cooling water temperature. D. neither I nor II
733 A burned exhaust valve may be detected by a higher than normal 734 In a diesel engine, a leaking exhaust valve can cause Ans: D Ans: B
____________. _____________. 753 In a diesel engine, when installing new piston rings it isimportant to 754 The purpose of an interference angle in a diesel engine exhaust
A. firing pressure A. misfiring check _____________. I. ring gap clearance II. side clearance valve is to ________. I. work in conjunction with valve rotators to
B. exhaust temperature from a particular cylinder B. preignition rotate the valve II. break up seat deposits
C. cooling water temperature C. interrupted scavenging A. I only A. I only
D. compression pressure D. reduced scavenging B. II only B. II only
Ans: B Ans: A C. both I and II C. both I and II
735 The most severe cavitation erosion occurring on the waterside of 736 Exhaust valve grooving and corrosion is caused by certain D. neither I nor II D. neither I nor II
diesel engine wet cylinder liners normally occurs ____________. components of residual fuel oil. These components are sodium, Ans: C Ans: B
sulphur, and _____________. 755 When accumulated carbon at the air inlet ports of a two- 756 You are installing new piston rings on a single acting diesel engine
A. throughout the lower one-half of the liner A. vanadium stroke/cycle diesel engine is being removed, you should take care to piston. To check the ring gap clearance, the rings should be placed
B. throughout the upper one-half of the liner B. carbon avoid carbon particles _____________. at the ____________.
C. at TDC opposite the thrust side of the liner C. copper A. entering the lube oil A. point of minimum cylinder wear
D. near the middle of the thrust side of the liner D. ash B. entering the cylinder B. center of the cylinder
Ans: D Ans: A C. entering the water jacket C. point of maximum cylinder wear
737 Which of the listed cylinder liner surface conditions indicates proper 738 A well-lubricated bearing surface always appears __________. D. become lodged under the intake valves D. point of maximum ring wear
lubrication? Ans: B Ans: A
A. Dull black appearance. A. well knurled 757 A defective injector nozzle in a propulsion diesel engine can cause 758 Which of the following problems is the main source of fuel pump and
B. Bright appearance. B. slightly streaked _____________. injection system malfunctions?
C. Thin layer of lacquer. C. lightly glazed A. engine power losses A. Air in the fuel system
D. thick oil film D. highly polished B. smoking due to unburned fuel B. Improper adjustments
Ans: B Ans: D C. high exhaust temperature readings C. Coated fuel lines
739 To minimize the formation of carbon deposits on fuel injection 740 The principal hazard to personnel when a diesel nozzle tester is in D. all of the above D. Excessive vibration
nozzles, you should _____________. use is _____________. Ans: D Ans: B
A. avoid using liquid-cooled nozzles whenever possible A. electrical shock 759 When turning a new cylinder head stud on a lathe, the minimum 760 If you determine that entrained air in the fuel oil system is causing a
B. avoid low cooling water temperatures B. toxic fumes effective thread length of the stud is determined primarily by the diesel engine to stall, you should first check for _____________.
C. avoid prolonged overloading of the engine C. explosion _____________.
D. make certain the gasket seal between the nozzle and cylinder head D. blood poisoning A. stud length A. fuel leakage in the injector pump's discharge lines
is tight B. stud diameter B. worn gaskets in the transfer pump discharge lines
Ans: C Ans: D C. head nut diameter C. partially clogged fuel oil discharge strainers
741 You are inspecting the lower main precision bearings on a diesel 742 You are testing a non-popping closed fuel injection nozzle using a D. stud material D. loose fittings in the booster fuel pump suction piping
engine. You observe that about half the thin babbitt linings are of a nozzle tester. A pressure slightly less than design valve opening Ans: B Ans: D
milky white color. This condition is caused by _____________. pressure is applied. If no fuel appears at the spray tip, the 761 In a large low-speed diesel engine excessive piston clearance can 762 Which of the following procedures should be carried out to permit
_______________. be restored by ____________. the use of a crosshead engine with an inoperable aftercooler?
A. large dirt particles in the oil supply A. nozzle orifices are too small
B. insufficient lubricating oil and overheating B. nozzle orifices are eroded A. decreasing the thickness of the cylinder head gasket A. Bypass the aftercooler to operate at sea speed.
C. normal wear C. needle valve is defective B. inserting shims between the crankpin bearing box and the B. Run at reduced speed until the cooler can be repaired or renewed.
D. water contamination of the lube oil D. needle valve is seating properly connecting rod foot
Ans: D Ans: D C. replacing the complete bearing set C. Switch to diesel fuel and run at reduced speed.
743 Because of the close tolerances used in diesel engine fuel oil 744 Which of the fuel nozzles listed requires the LEAST maintenance? D. rotating the crankpin bearing until the proper end clearance is D. Nothing needs to be done due to the low heating value of heavy fuel
pumps, a worn plunger requires _____________. obtained
A. grinding the spare plunger to the barrel A. Pintle Ans: B Ans: B
B. replacing the plunger and the barrel B. Single hole 763 A faulty injector in one cylinder of an operating diesel engine can be 764 Which of the following conditions would cause carbon deposits to
C. highly polishing both the plunger and barrel C. Multi-hole located by ____________. form in the piston ring belt of a diesel engine?
D. replacing plunger only D. open A. cutting out individual injectors and noting engine performance A. Faulty combustion
Ans: B Ans: A
745 When inspecting pistons, liners, and rings of a large two- 746 Which of the listed devices could be used as a substitute for a ring B. checking lube oil temperature B. Excessive ring temperature
stroke/cycle diesel engine through the cylinder ports, a wet piston grooving tool used to remove hard carbon deposits from piston ring C. checking cam position C. Over lubrication
crown would indicate a ____________. grooves in preparation for installing new rings? D. using a timing light D. All of the above
Ans: A Ans: D
A. faulty piston lubricator A. Steel brush 765 A change in the quality of fuel atomization by a diesel engine fuel 766 When installing rings on a diesel engine piston, you should check
B. leaky fuel injector B. Fine emery cloth or steel wool injector would be caused by a/an ______________. the ring _____________.
C. broken compression ring C. A section of the removed compression ring A. increase in engine speed A. diametrical tension
D. faulty oil ring D. A case hardened scraper B. increase in cylinder turbulence B. gap clearance
Ans: B Ans: C C. leaking needle valve C. radial thickness
747 If the plunger or barrel of a fuel injection jerk pump becomes 748 Surface irregularities, such as erosion and pitting on injection pump D. reduction in cylinder turbulance D. face thickness
damaged, _____________. plungers, will _____________. Ans: C Ans: B
A. only the replacement of the entire pump would be acceptable A. increase ignition delay 767 A change in the degree of fuel atomization in a diesel engine greatly 768 Which of the following problems may occur if the clearance between
B. the injection pump and injection nozzle must be replaced B. affect fuel oil metering affects the _______________. a piston and cylinder liner is insufficient?
C. either the barrel or plunger must be replaced C. affect engine performance at low speed only A. air turbulence A. Excessive wear
D. the barrel and plunger must be replaced as a unit D. disappear due to fuel oil abrasion B. fuel penetration B. Scuffing of the liner
Ans: D Ans: B C. fuel spray tip angle C. Piston seizure
749 The side clearance of the compression rings on diesel engine 750 If lost motion is present in an individual fuel injection pump, which of D. fuel injection rate D. All of the above
pistons is necessary to _____________. the following problems will occur? Ans: B Ans: D
A. permit gas pressure behind and on top of the rings A. Fuel injection will be increased. 769 Black areas on the sealing surfaces of piston rings indicate 770 A bright shiny appearance of the sealing surfaces on diesel engine
B. prevent carbon accumulation behind the rings B. Fuel injection will remain unchanged. _____________. compression rings indicates _____________.
 Page 41 Page 42

A. lube oil pumping A. combustion gas blow-by A. In a two-stroke/cycle engine, the rings run hotter, requiring the end A. build up the piston crown by metal spraying
B. rotating rings B. excessive lubrication gap to be greater.
C. gas pressure behind the ring C. properly functioning rings B. Some provision must be made in a two-stroke/cycle engine to keep B. build up the cylinder head by metal spraying
D. passage of hot gases D. insufficient cylinder cooling the rings from binding in the ports.
Ans: D Ans: C C. No gap is required to exist between the ends of the ring when cold in C. insert shims between the crankpin bearing box and the connecting
771 The best tool to use for removing the carbon ridge at the top of an 772 Which of the devices is commonly used in measuring the a two-stroke/cycle engine, but a small gap is required in a four- rod foot
engine cylinder, prior to removing the piston, is to use clearances between the main engine bearings and the crankshaft? stroke/cycle engine.
____________. D. The end gaps should be staggered on either side of a piston in a two- D. install a thinner head gasket
A. an electric grinder A. Plasti-gauge stroke/cycle engine, while staggering is not necessary in a four-
B. a metal scraper B. Depth gauge stroke/cycle engine.
C. a reamer C. Copper shims Ans: B Ans: C
D. a three wing hone D. wooden gaging pegs 791 Bouncing of the valve gear in a diesel engine can be caused by
Ans: B Ans: A _____________.
773 Which of the following conditions can result in the cracking of the 774 Which of the following problems may occur when using fuel oil with a A. prolonged high speed operation
piston lands? high sulphur content? B. spring surge
A. High lubricating oil temperature A. Injection lag C. worn valve seats
B. Dirty lubricating oil B. Lube oil dilution D. excessively tightened spring retainers
C. Minimal cylinder liner wear C. Preignition Ans: B
D. Insufficient ring groove clearance D. Corrosion MOTOR - STARTING AND REVERSING SYSTEMS
Ans: D Ans: D 792 Where engine bores exceed 230 mm, a bursting disc or flame 793 What may be used to protect starting air mains against explosions
775 If the back clearance of a piston ring is excessive, _____________. 776 Which of the following conditions could contribute to the cracking of arrester is to be fitted ___________. arising from improperly functioning starting valves?
a diesel engine cylinder head?
A. compression pressure in the cylinder will be higher A. Leaking seal ring A. at the supply inlet to the control air manifold for non- reversing A. The starting air main shall be protected by the use of a rupture disc.
B. carbon will accumulate behind the ring B. Insufficient heat transfer from the exhaust valves engines
C. combustion gases will penetrate beneath the ring land C. Blocked cooling water passages to the head B. on the exhaust manifold prior to the inlet of the turbochargers B. No protection is necessary because all starting air valves are
D. piston side thrust will be increased D. Excessive scavenging air provided to the engine designed similar to check valves.
Ans: B Ans: C C. on all devices subject to the by-products of combustion or lubrication C. An isolation non-return valve is to be installed at the starting air
777 A properly honed diesel engine cylinder liner will ________. 778 A scored diesel engine cylinder liner will cause __________. system vapors supply connection to each engine.
A. prevent piston ring wear A. high firing pressure D. in way of the starting valve of each cylinder for direct reversing D. The materials used in the construction of the starting air mains will
B. shorten the ring break-in period B. abnormally high cooling water temperature engines having a main starting manifold contain any explosion.
C. prevent cylinder liner glazing C. rapid wearing of piston rings Ans: D Ans: C
D. appear slick and glazed D. combustion gases in the cooling water 794 The total air capacity for non-reversible main engines is to be 795 Starting a large propulsion diesel engine using diesel fuel during cold
Ans: B Ans: C sufficient for _______. weather conditions can be made easier by ______.
779 Which of the following operating conditions can occur when shims 780 After a long period of operation, a wear ridge, caused by piston ring
are removed from the joint between the foot of a marine type diesel action, will develop near the top of the cylinder liner. This ridge must A. six consecutive starts A. increasing the quantity of starting air
engine connecting rod and the bearing box? be removed when piston rings are renewed in order to prevent B. eight consecutive starts B. increasing the lube oil pressure
______________. C. ten consecutive starts C. heating the engine fuel supply
A. Decreased connecting rod bearing clearance A. excessive wear during the seating period D. twelve consecutive starts D. heating the engine jacket water
B. Increased connecting rod bearing clearance B. excessive lubrication of the top ring Ans: A Ans: D
C. Decreased compression ratio C. improper spreading of lubrication on the cylinder wall 796 A diesel engine is turned at normal cranking speed, but fails to fire. 797 Which of the following methods is used to prevent throttling of
D. Increased compression ratio D. breaking of the top ring, ring land, or both This can occur from _____________. compressed air through the diesel engine air starting valves?
Ans: C Ans: D
781 Crank lead can be adjusted to change which of the listed operating 782 When a hydraulic valve lifter is on the base circle of the cam, "zero" A. low lube oil temperature A. Holding the valve open for a long period
conditions? tappet clearance is maintained by the ______________. B. low starting air temperature B. Increasing the starting air pressure used
C. air in the fuel injection system C. Opening the starting air valve quickly
A. Longer combustion events. A. valve spring D. water in the starting air system D. Reducing the starting air valve size
B. Exhaust events starting before scavenging events. B. plunger spring Ans: C Ans: C
C. Exhaust events lasting longer than scavenging events. C. oil pressure 798 In the starting process of a diesel engine, the main object is to attain 799 Fluid type starting motors used for starting auxiliary diesel engines
D. Higher combustion temperatures D. rocker arm the compression conditions sufficient to ______________. may either be of the piston type or the _____________.
Ans: A Ans: B
783 In a diesel engine, blow-by is generally the result of worn 784 Which of the listed conditions can cause lacquer to be deposited on A. turn the flywheel A. gear type
_____________. a piston skirt? B. reduce friction B. vane type
A. valve guides A. High sulphur content fuel C. overcome inertia C. impeller type
B. oil control rings B. High lube oil temperatures D. ignite the fuel D. accumulator type
C. valve seats C. High vanadium content fuel Ans: D Ans: B
D. compression rings D. Excessive piston slap 800 A six-cylinder, four-stroke/cycle diesel engine is fitted with a rotary 801 In addition to a main engine driven starting air compressor, another
Ans: D Ans: B distributor type air starting system. The speed of the rotating air compressor, driven by a separate power source, is installed to
785 Scuffed cylinder liner wearing surfaces in a diesel engine can result 786 If a diesel engine driving a generator turns over freely but fails to fire distributor disc is _____________. _____________.
from _____________. properly, the cause could be ____________. A. one-half engine speed A. provide air for engine scavenging
A. chromium plating piston rings A. excessive compression pressure B. the same as engine speed B. provide air for engine supercharging
B. knurling the piston skirt B. air in the fuel lines C. twice engine speed C. supply a backup source of starting air
C. extended maximum power operation C. high fuel pressure D. four times engine speed D. supply the independent source of reversing air
D. applying load to a cold diesel engine D. excessive load Ans: A Ans: C
Ans: D Ans: B 802 The reversing mechanism on a direct reversing large low-speed 803 When the quick acting valve to admit starting air to an air start motor
787 When a diesel engine compression pressure is checked, the 788 In a diesel engine exhaust system, the cooling of the exhaust gases main propulsion diesel engine, operated by means of oil pressure, is activated, the valve should be opened rapidly to ____________.
indicator is connected to the _____________. below their dew point, will result in ____________. can serve to _____________.
A. cylinder exhaust ports A. increased engine back pressure A. bring the respective cam under the fuel pump roller A. prevent damage to the air line lubricator
B. injection line B. sulphuric acid corrosion B. rotate or displace the camshaft according to engine design B. ensure proper operation of the Bendix pinion
C. cylinder indicator cock C. surface pitting of the turbocharger compressor blades C. bring the respective cam under the air distributor pilot valves C. prevent damage to the valve seat
D. banjo oiler line D. moisture impingement on the turbocharger compressor blades D. all of the above D. increase the air charge density to the motor
Ans: D Ans: B
Ans: C Ans: B 804 Which of the listed diesel engine starting systems is most 805 Before any diesel engine hydraulic starting system is opened for
789 Which of the following statements is true regarding the installation 790 In a large, low-speed diesel engine the clearance between the piston susceptible to difficulties in cold weather? servicing or repair, you must _____________.
of piston rings on two-stroke/cycle, diesel engines as compared to crown and cylinder head is found to be excessive. In order to correct A. Direct cylinder admission air start A. place all control levers in the "HOLD" position
four-stroke/cycle, diesel engines? for this, you should ______________. B. Hydraulic B. ensure that the hydraulic fluid reservoir is full
C. Electric C. block all hydraulic hoses using high pressure covers
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D. Air motor starting D. bleed off all hydraulic pressure from the system B. plunger motors B. lube oil carbonization
Ans: C Ans: D C. gear motors C. discharge pulsations
806 The minimum speed an engine must attain before ignition can occur 807 A diesel engine fails to start, even though it can be barred over, but D. accumulator motors D. interstage vapor lock
depends upon __________. not cranked over. The probable cause is _______. Ans: A Ans: B
A. the type and size of the engine A. a seized piston 826 Starting air valves are held firmly on their seats by ____________. 827 Starting systems for large, low-speed, direct reversing, main
B. the condition of the engine B. an improperly fitted bearing propulsion diesel engines are usually _____________.
C. ambient temperature C. a closed or obstructed air starting line valve A. cam rollers on the camshaft A. hydraulic starting motor
D. all of the above D. insufficient compression B. spring force B. electric starting motor
Ans: D Ans: C C. air pressure on top of the valve differential piston C. direct air admission
808 If an auxiliary diesel engine equipped with an electric starting 809 During extremely cold weather, while starting an engine, it turns too D. air pressure on the bottom of the valve differential piston D. vane type air motors
system cranks very slowly after repeated attempts to start, the slowly and fails to start. This problem is most likely the result of Ans: B Ans: C
cause could be a/an ____________. ____________. 828 Diesel engine air start system check valves are opened by 829 In a hydraulic starting system, oil to the starting motor flows from the
A. low lube oil viscosity A. high fuel oil viscosity _____________. _____________.
B. low compression pressure B. low fuel oil temperature A. an air start cam A. accumulator
C. ring gear with broken teeth C. high lube oil viscosity B. cylinder compression pressure B. reservoir
D. overheated motor winding D. energized glow plugs C. starting air pressure C. hand pump
Ans: D Ans: C D. valve springs D. electric pump
810 Improper seating of an air starting check valve in an operating 811 Vessels having main engines arranged for air starting are to be Ans: C Ans: A
diesel engine is indicated by _____________. provided with at least _________. 830 When an air started, four-stroke/cycle diesel engine is being 831 If a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine is started by injecting air into the
A. noise coming from the air starting valve A. one automatic drain serving both containers cranked, the starting air is admitted to each cylinder during what cylinders, the pistons receiving the charge of starting air must be
B. an overheated air supply pipe to the cylinder head B. two air starting containers of approximately equal size would normally be the _____________. _____________.
C. continuous operation of the starting air compressor C. one control air container and one starting air container A. intake stroke A. on the power stroke
D. zero air pressure in the air starting system D. one additional means of starting the main engine B. compression stroke B. on the exhaust stroke
Ans: B Ans: B C. power stroke C. at the end of the power stroke
812 If control air systems are supplied from starting air receivers, the 813 Cold weather starting of a diesel engine is more difficult than warm D. exhaust stroke D. at the start of the intake stroke
capacity of the receivers should be sufficient _________. weather starting due to _____________. Ans: C Ans: A
832 An auxiliary diesel engine may fail to start due to _____________. 833 If a diesel engine rotates slowly when cranked, but does not fire, the
A. to provide for intermittent starting procedures A. use of low viscosity oil in cold weather ___________________.
B. for continued operation of these systems after capacity for the B. higher compression pressures reached due to smaller clearances A. low exhaust back pressure A. fuel control rack had admitted excessive fuel
required number of consecutive starts has been used existing in the engine during cold weather B. high lube oil temperature B. engine speed does not match the fuel rack setting
C. to provide a nonreversible engine a minimum of twelve consecutive C. increased drag of pistons and bearings due to increased oil viscosity C. insufficient cranking speed C. engine has failed to reach its firing speed
starts D. excessive fuel atomization D. starter pinion and ring gear contact is not correct
D. to enable six consecutive starts of a reversible engine D. increased moisture content of inlet air in cold weather Ans: C Ans: C
Ans: B Ans: C 834 Which of the routine maintenance procedures listed is required for 835 Which of the following problems can occur if you continually fail to
814 Starting aids such as glow plugs, are installed on _____. 815 A diesel engine may fail to start due to _____________. starting air receivers? drain off condensate from a starting air receiver?
A. large, direct drive diesel engines A. low air charge temperature A. Frequent draining of accumulated moisture. A. Corrosion and eventual failure of the tank.
B. diesel engines designed to burn residual fuels B. high cranking speed B. Frequent testing of relief valves. B. Gumming of the tank relief valves.
C. medium-speed, four-stroke/cycle diesel engines C. excessive fuel dilution of lube oil C. A close watch on temperature to prevent fluctuations in pressure. C. Immediate failure of components downstream of the compressed air
D. small diesel engines utilizing electric starting equipment D. high compression pressure system.
Ans: D Ans: A D. Frequent cleaning to remove oil and foreign matter. D. Boiling of the water oil mixture as pressure is reduced.
816 An eight cylinder, air started, two-stroke/cycle direct reversing, 817 On a diesel engine, using a distributer type air startingsystem, that is Ans: A Ans: A
marine diesel engine can be started from any crankshaft position not running, which of the following methods may be used to detect 836 When attempting to start a main propulsion diesel engine, the 837 A four-stroke/cycle, 1000 horsepower diesel engine fails to start at
only if it has ____________. leaking air starting valves? engine turns at the proper speed but will not start. You should check normal cranking speed with normal fuel pressure and ambient
A. at least three cylinders equipped with air start valves A. Open the cylinder test cocks and check for blowing air. the _____________. temperature. The reason for the failure could be _______________.
B. a minimum of five cylinders equipped with air start valves B. Check the position of the air start valve cams.
C. each upper cylinder head equipped with reversible air start valves C. Stop the air compressor and check for pressure drop throughout A. starting air pressure A. glazed liners or pistons
the system. B. scavenge air pressure B. high lube oil pressure
D. the cylinders on opposite ends equipped with air start valves D. Feel each air supply line to see which is warm from leaking air. C. overspeed trip C. excessive compression ratio
D. banjo oiler line D. worn valve seats and valves
Ans: A Ans: A Ans: C Ans: D
818 If a diesel engine starts firing, but is unable to come up to normal 819 After changing out the fuel filters the diesel engine fails to restart. 838 Which of the listed items should be secured before performing any 839 When starting air is admitted, a diesel engine turns over very slowly
speed, either without load or even under a small load, the cause The most probable cause for this condition is a/an ____________. maintenance on a solenoid operated air start valve? without firing. The cause may be ______________.
may be ______________.
A. insufficient fuel supply A. low compression A. Electric power A. an obstruction in an engine cylinder
B. faulty governor B. air-bound fuel system B. Lube oil standby pump B. water accumulation in some engine cylinders
C. high exhaust back pressure C. improper spark C. Hydraulic switch C. low starting air pressure
D. all of the above may cause this problem D. change in viscosity D. Motor drain D. low scavenge air pressure
Ans: D Ans: B Ans: A Ans: C
820 While underway, which of the following would be the FIRST step in 821 A ship is propelled by a direct reversing large, slow-speed, diesel 840 A pilot-operated, main air starting valve begins leaking in one 841 Hydraulic starters are installed on many lifeboat diesel engines
reversing a direct reversing large, low-speed, main propulsion, engine. One step in reversing the direction of propeller rotation for cylinder while the engine is operating. This malfunction is indicated instead of comparable air start systems, because ____________.
diesel engine? this vessel is by ______________. by ____________.
A. Manually trip the overspeed device. A. properly inflating the air operated clutch A. an increase in the exhaust temperature reading for that cylinder A. hydraulic starters are the least expensive of all starting systems
B. Interrupt the fuel flow to the engine. B. reversing the reduction gears
C. Disengage the safety interlock. C. changing the gear ratio B. an increase in the starting air manifold pressure B. the system does not require high pressure piping
D. Slide the camshaft to the neutral position. D. reversing the servomotor C. high exhaust pressure C. hydraulic systems turn diesel engines at higher rates of speed than
Ans: B Ans: D air starters
822 When starting a diesel engine at temperatures below 20°C, the 823 The starting air supply for a diesel engine is generally produced by D. an overheated air supply line to that cylinder D. the system can be manually recharged
frictional resistance to turning will be _____________. a/an _____________. Ans: D Ans: D
A. reduced by increasing lube oil pressure A. exhaust powered turbocharger 842 If a diesel engine fails to start, one of the likely causes is 843 A diesel engine may fail to start when being cranked, due to
B. controlled by reducing the compression ratio B. Roots-type blower air pump _____________. _____________.
C. proportional to the lube oil viscosity C. centrifugal air compressor A. low compression temperature A. high cetane number
D. eliminated by heating the intake air D. multistage reciprocating air compressor B. low ambient air pressure B. insufficient compression
Ans: C Ans: D C. high lube oil pump pressure C. low lube oil viscosity
824 Air motors used for starting some auxiliary diesel engines are 825 Intercoolers installed on starting air compressors, reduce the D. high fuel oil booster pump pressure D. high lube oil pressure
generally the type known as a/an ____________. possibility of ________________. Ans: A Ans: B
A. vane motors A. dust entering the high pressure stage
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844 If a hydraulic starting motor turns, but the diesel engine does not, the 845 A bendix drive starting motor disengages the drive gear from the B. fouling of the air intakes B. Continuous operation of the starting air compressor.
most likely cause is ____________. flywheel by ______________. C. improper injection timing C. Zero air pressure in the air starting system.
A. excessive viscosity in the hydraulic fluid A. spring force D. high exhaust temperatures D. Overheated starting air pipe to the cylinder head.
B. a malfunctioning overrunning clutch B. rotating of the starting cam Ans: A Ans: D
C. loss of accumulator precharge C. the high rotating speed of the flywheel 864 Each receiver in a starting air system which can be isolated from a 865 Air receivers installed in starting air systems are to be ________.
D. air in the hydraulic system D. applying accumulator pressure relief valve _______________.
Ans: B Ans: C A. is to be provided with a suitable fusible plug to relieve the pressure A. cylindrical in shape with service connections located at the top and
846 A diesel engine electric starting motor is operated under a no-load 847 If the diesel engine starter-drive mechanism fails to disengage after in case of fire bottom
condition. Continuing to operate the motor unloaded will the engine starts, which of the following situations will occur? B. will incorporate the use of an automatic unloading device B. opened and made available for inspection during biannual
_______________. inspections
A. disengage the throw out bearing A. The engine will stall. C. will not be approved for classification purposes C. provided with automatic drain traps for the removal of moisture
B. overspeed and cause serious damage B. The starter motor will have reverse current.
C. fail to develop normal speed C. The engine flywheel will be burred. D. and satisfy classification regulations shall be approved D. so installed as to make the drain connections effective under
D. cause the pinion to fail D. the starter motor will overspeed extreme conditions of trim
Ans: B Ans: D Ans: A Ans: D
848 During maneuvering operations for a direct reversing large, low- 849 The pilot valves in an air pilot starting system for a two-stroke/cycle, 866 A diesel engine may be hard to start if the _____________. 867 The total starting air capacity required for reversible main engines is
speed, main propulsion diesel engine, which of the following actions direct-reversing, main propulsion diesel engine are operated by to be sufficient for a least __________.
is used to stop the shaft from turning prior to reversing the engine either a ported distributor disc or a/an _____________. A. air intake is restricted A. six consecutive starts
rotation? B. engine is cranked too fast B. eight consecutive starts
A. Flywheel inertia A. regulator valve C. vibration dampener is faulty C. ten consecutive starts
B. Admission of starting air B. quick opening main air valve D. exhaust back pressure is low D. twelve consecutive starts
C. The way of the vessel C. pilot air start check valve Ans: A Ans: D
D. securing of fuel to the cylinders D. individual cam for each pilot valve 868 What preventative maintenance should be done frequently to diesel
Ans: B Ans: D engine starting air receivers?
850 A two-stroke/cycle diesel engine requires less starting air than a four- 851 Which of the listed types of starting systems is often used on large, A. Drain the accumulated moisture.
stroke/cycle diesel engine, of equal displacement, because the two- low-speed, direct reversing, main propulsion diesel engines? B. Test the relief valves.
stroke/cycle diesel engine _____________. C. Watch the temperature to prevent fluctuations in pressure.
D. Clean the interior to remove oil and foreign matter.
A. has little or no internal friction A. Electric Ans: A
B. has a lower effective compression ratio B. Hydraulic LUBRICATING SYSTEMS
C. operates with scavenge air under a positive pressure C. Air 869 Heat exchangers are most commonly found in a small auxiliary 870 One advantage of vacuum feed type cylinder lubricators over the
D. operates without energy absorbing intake and exhaust strokes D. all of the above diesel engine ____________. liquid sight glass type is ______________.
A. fuel oil system A. there are fewer moving parts
Ans: D Ans: C B. governing system B. adjustment is not required
852 The timing of diesel engine air starting valves is controlled by 853 Which of the types of motors listed is used in a hydraulic starter? C. air starting system C. better metering accuracy
_____________. D. lube oil system D. a lower grade of oil may be used
A. the air start valve timing gears and rods A. Piston Ans: D Ans: C
B. a cylinder check valve B. Gear 871 Which of the following devices controls the discharge flow rate of an 872 Mechanical lubricators for diesel engine cylinders are usually small
C. individual cams and valve gear C. Turbine attached, positive displacement, rotary gear, diesel engine, lube oil reciprocating pumps which are _____________.
D. an air manifold poppet valve D. centrifugal pump?
Ans: C Ans: A A. A pressure regulating valve A. operated manually once each hour
854 An accumulator used in a hydraulic starting system is generally 855 The device used to store a charged pressure for an hydraulic B. A pressure relief valve B. operated until the engine has started
located between the _____________. starting system is called the _____________. C. The engine speed C. placed into operation only at maximum load
A. pump and the compressor A. reservoir D. An orifice D. adjustable to meet lubrication requirements
B. storage tank and the pump B. hand pump Ans: C Ans: D
C. starting motor and the reserve tank C. accelerator 873 Which of the following statements is true concerning an oil cooler? 874 Lubrication for the main reduction gears used with diesel engines is
D. pump and the starting motor D. accumulator usually supplied by _____________.
Ans: D Ans: D A. The oil temperature is less than the cooling water temperature. A. oil from the main engine sump
856 The pinion of an electric starting motor used with a diesel engine 857 Auxiliary diesel engine electric starting motors use ____________.
engages the flywheel ring gear by a/an ____________. B. The oil pressure is less than the cooling water pressure. B. an independent lube oil system
C. The oil pressure is greater than the cooling water pressure. C. the stern bearing head tank
A. automatic follow-up A. alternating current D. The oil flow control valve is always installed in the oil input line D. the stern bearing sump tank
B. muff coupling and release B. 400 cycle per second motor-generators
C. friction-type clutch C. low amp, high voltage AC Ans: C Ans: B
D. bendrix drive or similar mechanism D. direct current 875 Which of the following devices is normally provided to prevent oil 876 A large, low-speed, crosshead, main propulsion diesel engine using
Ans: D Ans: D starvation in a diesel engine lubrication system utilizing the "full flow" residual fuel oils must have a cylinder oil having a ____________.
858 In a starting motor equipped with a Bendix drive, the pinion moves 859 A large two-stroke/cycle direct reversing diesel engine is to be principle?
and meshes with the flywheel ring gear due to __________. reversed. Prior to the admission of starting air you must A. Duplex strainer A. low TBN value
____________. B. Three-way valve B. high alkaline reserve
A. the mechanical linkage A. line up the engine for restarting with light diesel oil C. Pressure relief bypass line around the filter C. low fclearance point
B. the threaded sleeve's rotation B. reposition the fuel injection cam D. Mechanical straining filter D. high pour point
C. centrifugal force C. change the intake and exhaust valve cam positions Ans: C Ans: B
D. electromotive force D. place the starting cam in the intermediate position 877 Many lube oil filters have pressure gauges installed on both the inlet 878 The rate of cylinder lubricating oil metered to each cylinder of a
Ans: B Ans: B and outlet in order to indicate the pressure drop across the filter. In large, low-speed, main propulsion diesel engine is
860 In a medium-speed marine propulsion engine equipped with direct 861 Two air compressors are provided for the starting air system and normal operation, the pressure drop will _____________. ______________.
air starting valves, the cylinders without air starting valves fire first should be capable of ______.
because the ____________. A. slowly increase A. the same, whether at sea, or during maneuvering
A. operation is under higher compression A. charging the starting air containers within one hour B. slowly decrease B. adjusted during each hour of operation while at constant RPM
B. fuel is admitted only to these cylinders during cranking B. providing the minimum quantity of starting air at all times C. remain the same C. higher at sea than while maneuvering
C. compression is released during starting by opening the exhaust C. supplying all the air necessary to start both the main engine and an D. have no effect on filter operation D. lower at sea than while maneuvering
valve auxiliary at the same time Ans: A Ans: C
D. cylinders are not chilled by the expansion of the starting air D. topping of all receivers at the required design pressures 879 Lube oil cannot be efficiently filtered if its ____________. 880 A dirty lube oil strainer can result in _____________.
Ans: D Ans: A A. viscosity is too low A. crankcase dilution
862 If cranking a diesel engine is too slow while attempting to start, it will 863 In an operating diesel engine, which of the following conditions is an B. temperature is too low B. low lube oil temperature
result in _____________. indication of a leaking air starting valve? C. pump discharge pressure is higher than the system's pressure C. excessive oil consumption
A. insufficient heat of compression A. Noise coming from that air starting valve.
 Page 47 Page 48

D. pump capacity is greater than the system's needs D. low bearing oil pressure C. pressure drop through the filter C. clogging will not occur
Ans: B Ans: D D. relief valve D. dropping in pressure is half of that through a single stage filter unit
881 Lube oil filters remove contaminants more efficiently if the oil being 882 The pressure differential across a diesel engine lube oil system
filtered is _____________. duplex filter should be checked to _________. Ans: D Ans: A
A. under high pressure A. determine the need for filter changing 903 The highest indicated lube oil pressure in a diesel engine should be 904 In a diesel engine, maximum lube oil system pressure isnormally
B. under low pressure B. measure any change in oil viscosity expected when the engine oil is ________. controlled by _____________.
C. heated to reduce viscosity C. prevent damage to the filter A. cold at idle A. the capacity of the lube oil pump
D. cooled to increase viscosity D. determine the need for batch filtration B. warm at idle B. the speed of the lube oil pump
Ans: C Ans: A C. warm at full speed C. the outlet pressure of the lube oil pump
883 Lube oil in the fresh water cooling system of a diesel engine may 884 Most large, low-speed, main propulsion diesel engines use duplex D. warm at full speed and no fuel dilution exists D. a relief valve
result from a _____________. lube oil strainer to _____________. Ans: A Ans: D
A. camshaft seizure A. decrease the time required between cleanings 905 With respect to the flow of lubricating oil through a diesel engine, the 906 Lubricating oil systems for diesel engine journal bearings are usually
B. lube oil pump failure B. remove water contamination lube oil coolers are located after filters in order to _____________. lubricated by which of the following types of lubricating oil systems?
C. lube oil cooler failure C. ensure a positive flow of oil at all times
D. lube oil sump overflow D. ensure that all lube oil has been treated twice A. allow filtration of less viscous oil A. splash
Ans: C Ans: C B. decrease the pressure drop across the filter B. Gravity
885 Which harmful consequence may be the result of lube oil sludge 886 The TBN value of diesel engine lube oil refers to its ability to C. improve overall filtration C. Pressure
accumulation? _____________. D. All of the above D. bypass
A. Clogged oil pump suction screens. A. resist changes in viscosity with changes in temperature Ans: D Ans: C
B. Increased oil operating temperatures. B. resist emulsification 907 Which of the following characteristics of lube oil helps to reduce the 908 Which lubricating oil additive is used in diesel engines to reduce the
C. Sticking piston rings. C. neutralize acids amount of deposits in the piston ring belt during the combustion tendency for sludge and varnish to form on the engine parts?
D. All of the above D. resist oxidation at high temperatures process in a diesel engine?
Ans: D Ans: C A. Low viscosity index A. Fclearance point improvers
887 A dirty fuel oil filter is can be detected by ________. I. fuel oil 888 Sludge formation in a diesel engine lube oil system is caused by B. Low carbon forming tendencies B. Pour point improvers
analysis II. observing the pressure drop across the filter ____________. C. High film strength C. Inhibitors
A. I only A. carbonization of oils from the combustion chambers D. High noncorrosive qualities D. Foam suppressors
B. II only B. emulsions of lube oil and water Ans: B Ans: C
C. either I or II C. coagulation of unburned fuel below the piston rings 909 Motor vessels usually have independent lube oil systems for main 910 Where may a strainer be located in a diesel engine lubricating oil
D. neither I nor II D. All of the above. engine and main reduction gears because ______________. system?
Ans: B Ans: D
889 Two important considerations for the proper lubrication ofa diesel 890 The adverse effects of burning high sulphur fuel can be A. coolers are not needed for the gear system A. Suction line
engine include, the delivery of the oil insufficient amount, and the compensated for by using a cylinder oil having sufficient B. contaminants produced by the engine could harm the reduction B. Discharge line
____________. ________________. gears
A. cetane number A. dispersant additives C. non-additive oils are used in the main engine system C. Supply line
B. pour point B. floc point depressive additives D. different type centrifuges are required for the main engine and D. In any combination of the above
C. viscosity temperature C. alkalinity reduction gear lube systems
D. quality of the oil D. ignition quality Ans: B Ans: D
Ans: D Ans: C LUBRICATION - MAINTENANCE
891 Lubricating systems for diesel engines are usually designed to 892 The lube oil cooler is located after the lube oil filter in order for 911 To routinely clean a metal-edge type lube oil strainer, you should 912 When excessive fuel dilution is noted in the lube oil, the oil should be
initially provide lube oil to the engine _____________. _____________. _____________. _____________.
A. camshaft bearings A. the filter to operate more efficiently A. remove the disc element and immerse it in gasoline A. centrifuged
B. main bearings B. the lube oil cooler to be bypassed B. remove the disc element and immerse it in kerosene B. filtered
C. piston crowns C. positive lube oil pump suction to be assured C. rotate the disc element and drain off the sediment C. strained
D. cylinder walls D. galvanic action in the cooler to be minimized D. rotate the knife-edge cleaner blades and drain off the sediment D. changed
Ans: B Ans: A
893 A spring-loaded relief valve is located on some lube oil filters in full 894 Lube oil filters remove contaminants from oil more efficiently if the Ans: C Ans: D
flow systems to _____________. oil being filtered is _____________. 913 If a used lube oil analysis indicates excessive fuel dilution, the lube 914 A "detergent-type" lube oil, used in a diesel engine, should be
A. prevent overpressurization of the filter cartridge A. heated to reduce viscosity oil should be _____________. replaced when _____________.
B. prevent overpressurization of the filter casing B. cooled to increase viscosity A. changed A. fuel oil dilution is 5%
C. bypass the filter should it become clogged C. pumped rapidly through the filter B. centrifuged B. it begins to turn black
D. limit the lube oil outlet pressure D. pumped through the filter under high pressure C. filtered C. the exhaust shows traces of blue smoke
Ans: C Ans: A D. settled D. all of the above
895 Lubricating oil used in a diesel engine serves to _________. 896 A diesel engine should use which type of lubricating oil? Ans: A Ans: A
A. reduce the wear of bearing surfaces A. Nondetergent oil 915 Which of the contaminants listed would remain in the lube oil after 916 Most large, low-speed, main propulsion diesel engines use duplex
B. cool the bearing surfaces B. Cutting oil filtering? lube oil strainer to _____________.
C. assist in sealing bearing surfaces C. High grade vegetable oil A. Acid sludge A. decrease the time required between cleanings
D. all of the above D. Detergent oil B. Fuel oil B. remove all large and small foreign objects
Ans: D Ans: D C. Sediment C. ensure a positive flow of oil at all times
897 In a diesel engine, the function of lubrication oil is to provide 898 A diesel engine exposed to widely varying ambient temperatures D. Water D. ensure that all lube oil has been treated twice
_____________. should use a lubricating oil with ____________. Ans: B Ans: C
A. a film between the shafts and bearings A. a high viscosity index 917 Which of the following test points should be considered a 918 In a normally operating diesel engine, the main source of lubricating
B. cooling of the pistons and bearings B. a low viscosity index determining factor as to whether or not a diesel generator's lube oil oil contamination in the crankcase is a result of the
C. for removal of dirt or metal particles resulting from wear C. extreme pressure additives should be drained and renewed? ______________.
D. all of the above D. no additives A. An extremely low neutralization number. A. metal particles loosened by wear
Ans: D Ans: A B. An extremely high precipitation number. B. air when no air cleaners are used
899 When fuel enters the crankcase of a diesel engine, it 900 The thickness of the oil film to be developed in a diesel engine main C. The oil appears black in color. C. condensation of water vapors
_____________. bearing, depends upon the _____________. D. A minor increase in fclearance point. D. breakdown of the lubricating oil itself
A. dilutes the lube oil and reduces its viscosity A. bearing pressure Ans: B Ans: D
B. forms sulphuric acid in the lube oil B. viscosity of the oil 919 A magnetic strainer is used in the diesel engine reduction gear oil 920 A dirty diesel engine oil filter element can best be detected by
C. causes pitting and failure of the bearings C. rpm of the shaft system to remove small particles of _____________. _____________.
D. causes sludge deposits on valve stems D. all of the above A. water A. visual inspection of the elements
Ans: A Ans: D B. babbitt B. the pressure drop across the filter
901 Maximum lube system operating pressure for a diesel engine is 902 For a continuous operation diesel engine, a duplex filter unit would C. iron or steel C. high lube oil sump temperature
normally regulated by a/an _____________. be the best arrangement because _____________. D. acids D. decrease in oil viscosity from the filter
A. orifice in the pump suction A. changing filter elements would not interrupt engine operation Ans: C Ans: B
B. special filter design B. filtering occurs twice in each pass of oil through the system
 Page 49 Page 50

921 What could cause the bypass valve in a full-flow lubrication system 922 The pressure differential across a diesel engine lube oil system B. restricted lube oil passage in the engine B. turn the three-way valve
to open? duplex filter should be checked to _________. C. air leak in the lube oil cooler C. open the bypass valve and then close the isolation valves
A. Clogged filter element A. determine the need for filter cleaning D. air leak in the oil pump suction line D. close the isolation valves and then open the bypass valve
B. Bypass valve setting is too high B. measure any change in oil viscosity Ans: D Ans: B
C. Check valve stuck open C. prevent damage to the filter 943 In a full flow type lube oil system, the bypass relief valve will lift due 944 To determine if the lube oil filter elements need changing,
D. Fuel dilution of the lubricant D. determine the need for batch filtration to _____________. ________________.
Ans: A Ans: A A. a clogged filter element A. open the filter and inspect the elements
923 To properly clean the disks of a metal-edge type strainer in a diesel 924 A "Blotter test" is performed on the lube oil of a diesel engine to B. excessive lube oil pump discharge pressure B. check the lube oil pump discharge pressure
engine lube oil system, you should _____________. determine the _________. C. excessive lube oil flow C. check the lube oil header pressure
A. remove the disks and soak them in kerosene A. percent of fuel dilution of lube oil D. excessively hot lube oil D. check the pressure and drop across the filter
B. rotate the T-handle spindle one turn B. fclearance point Ans: A Ans: D
C. wire brush the disks to remove sludge C. relative detergency remaining 945 A decrease in flash point of diesel engine lube oil indicates lube oil 946 Which of the listed conditions can cause a diesel engine to use too
D. blow compressed air through the disks D. TBN number has become __________ . much lube oil?
Ans: B Ans: C A. contaminated with sludge A. Dirty lube oil filter
925 When fuel oil has seriously contaminated a diesel engine lubricating 926 How often should the lubricating oil of a diesel engine be changed? B. contaminated with carbon B. Too much piston ring wear
oil, you should ____________. C. diluted with fuel oil C. High lube oil viscosity
A. filter to remove the fuel oil A. After every trip D. diluted with water D. low lube oil temperature
B. use the settler to remove the fuel oil B. Every 4000 hours Ans: C Ans: B
C. remove the fuel oil by centrifuging C. According to manufacturer's instructions 947 Which of the following conditions is indicated when the lubricating 948 When a leak has developed in the lube oil cooler of an operating
D. drain and then renew the lube oil supply D. Every time they are shutdown oil of a diesel engine turns dark after a few hours of use? diesel engine, which of the listed operating conditions can be
Ans: D Ans: C expected to occur?
927 If the detergent type lubricating oil being used in a diesel engine is 928 Which of the following operational conditions will occur to the diesel A. The oil should be purified. A. Lube oil contaminated with saltwater
black, the oil _____________. engine lube oil at extremely high temperatures? B. The lubricating quality of the oil has dangerously deteriorated. B. Lube oil level decreases
A. must be centrifuged A. The oil oxidizes and forms carbon deposits.
B. must be filtered B. The viscosity increases. C. The oil is functioning normally. C. Lube oil contaminated with fresh water coolant
C. must be changed C. Engine oil consumption decreases. D. Normal engine operating temperatures have been reached D. lube oil level increases
D. is holding finely dispersed carbon in suspension D. Lubricating qualities of the oil are enhanced. Ans: C Ans: B
Ans: D Ans: A 949 The oxidation by-products forming in diesel engine lube oil can 950 Under normal conditions, the main source of crankcase oil
929 Oil oxidation, as a result of excessively high lube oil temperature, is 930 Metal particles accumulated from the wearing of components in a cause _____________. contamination is attributed to ______________.
harmful to a diesel engine because _____________. diesel engine can result from lube oil that has been contaminated A. pitting A. metal particles loosened by wear
with _____________. B. sludge B. air when air cleaners are not used
A. oil foaming will occur A. abrasive particles C. hard varnish C. condensation of water vapors
B. large quantities of oil are consumed B. metallic oxides D. All of the above. D. breakdown of the lubricating oil
C. lube oil viscosity is always decreased C. corrosive acids Ans: D Ans: D
D. corrosive by-products are usually formed D. any or all of the above 951 A condition that can increase the foaming tendency of lube oil is 952 One device used to determine the amount of fuel dilution of diesel
Ans: D Ans: D ________. engine lube oil is a/an ____________.
931 If the analysis of used lube oil indicates a high content of iron 932 If a used lube oil analysis indicates an excessive chromate content, A. excessively high oil temperatures A. autogenous ignition indicator
particles, this could indicate _____________. this means _____________. B. water or moisture contamination B. viscosity-dilution chart
A. corrosive deterioration of a bearing A. air filtration is inadequate C. fuel dilution C. precipitation number indicator
B. inadequate air filtration B. engine coolant is leaking into the lube oil D. carbon suspension D. modified neutrality chart
C. excessive ring and liner wear C. fuel oil is leaking into the lube oil Ans: B Ans: B
D. excessive cooling of lubricating oil D. the piston rings are excessively worn 953 Fuel oil contamination of an auxiliary diesel engine lube oil can result 954 Diesel engine lube oil can become contaminated as a result of
Ans: C Ans: B in _____________. _____________.
933 One simple laboratory analysis of used lube oil that can be carried 934 A decrease in the fclearance point of the diesel engine lube oil A. an increased fclearance point A. the water produced during combustion
out aboard ship is called the _____________. indicates the lube oil is _____________. B. higher lube oil pressures B. the sulphur in the fuel
A. paraffin test A. diluted with fuel oil C. an increased viscosity C. unburned fuel oil
B. blotter test B. diluted with water D. lower lube oil pressures D. all of the above
C. stability test C. contaminated with carbon Ans: D Ans: D
D. spectrographic test D. contaminated with sludge 955 Lubricating oil viscosity in an operating diesel engine can be 956 The Total Base Number(TBN) value of diesel engine lube oil refers
Ans: B Ans: A reduced by _____________. to its ability to _____________.
935 Which of the listed conditions can be used to determine if lube oil 936 A sudden decrease in the diesel engine lube oil viscosity could be an A. increasing cooling water flow A. resist changes in viscosity with changes in temperature
has been diluted by fuel? indication of ____________. B. increasing lube oil flow B. resist emulsification
A. Viscosity is lowered. A. loss of additives from the lube oil C. dilution by fuel oil C. neutralize acids
B. Octane number is altered. B. carbon deposits in the lube oil D. Adding SAE 70 oil D. resist oxidation at high temperatures
C. Pump speed is decreased. C. excessive centrifuging Ans: C Ans: C
D. Blowers' speed is decreased. D. excessive fuel dilution FUEL SYSTEMS
Ans: A Ans: D 957 To prevent vibration damage to the fuel supply line of a diesel 958 The light and medium fuels utilized in internal combustion engines
937 Which of the following faults would allow lube oil to enter the cooling 938 The color of the diesel engine detergent type lube oil in an operating engine, you may use ____________. provide a source of ________.
system of a diesel engine? diesel engine is black, this indicates _____________. A. a short length of heavy duty clear plastic tubing A. lubrication for pistons and rings
B. a length of approved flexible nonmetallic hose B. food for microbiological organisms
A. Excessive valve train lubrication A. "worn out" oil C. welded flange connections for all joints C. gases most detrimental to the ozone layer of the atmosphere
B. Leaking standby oil cooler core B. fuel dilution D. aluminum piping with expansion loops D. all of the above
C. Excessive lube oil pressure C. water dilution Ans: B Ans: B
D. Excessive lube oil in the system D. normal oil condition 959 Microbiological growths in marine fuel are a common occurrence 960 The growth rate of microbiological organisms as found in some fuel
Ans: B Ans: D that can be ________. supplies will __________.
939 If the chemical analysis of a lube oil sample taken from adiesel 940 Oil oxidation as a result of excessively high lube oil temperature, is A. extremely detrimental to equipment and operating processes A. increase in direct proportion to an increase in temperature
engine indicates an increased neutralization number the _________. harmful to a diesel engine because _____________. B. prevented by maintaining proper storage temperatures B. decrease if bleaches are added to the fuel on a regular basis

A. acidity has increased A. oil foaming will always occur C. removed from emulsified fuel oil during the centrifuging processes C. remain unchanged provided complete consumption of the fuel
B. viscosity has decreased B. large quantities of oil are consumed occurs monthly
C. demulsibility has improved C. lube oil viscosity is always decreased D. All of the above are correct. D. All of the above
D. foaming is guaranteed to occur D. corrosive by-products are usually formed Ans: A Ans: A
Ans: A Ans: D 961 Fuels as produced in a refinery are generally sterile, however, 962 In order for microbiological growths to thrive in a fuel tank it is
941 Unusually low oil pressure in the lube oil header of a diesel engine 942 To manually bypass a strainer or filter in a shunt type lube oil filtering contamination can occur as fuels are ________. necessary for ________.
is the result of a/an ____________. system, _____________. A. stored at the refinery A. high temperatures to exist
A. pressure regulating valve being stuck in the closed position A. first, parallel the drain lines B. stored on the vessel B. low temperatures to exist
 Page 51 Page 52

C. transported to the distribution sites C. small amounts of water to be present 981 A mixture of 45% cetane and 55% alpha-methyl-naphthalene is 982 The sludge tank installed in the diesel engine room is used to collect
D. All of the above are correct. D. large amounts of water to be present found to have the same ignition delay as a sample of diesel oil. The _____________. I. sludge from the fuel oil settling tanks and
Ans: D Ans: C sample can be described as having a/an __________. centrifuge II. water that has been collected in the settling tank.
963 Which of the following conditions is NOT an indication of microbial 964 Which of the substances listed is satisfactorily removed from the fuel
contamination? by a centrifugal oil purifier? A. cetane number of 55 A. I only
A. Objectionable odors A. Carbon particles B. cetane number of 45 B. II only
B. Increased air filter changes B. Lube oil C. octane number of 55 C. both I and II
C. Occurrences of flow restrictions C. Gasoline D. octane number of 45 D. neither I or II
D. Increased corrosion of tank plating D. Diesel fuel Ans: B Ans: C
Ans: B Ans: A 983 Injection lag in a diesel engine may be caused by _________. 984 Diesel engine injection lag is caused by _____________.
965 A dirty fuel oil filter element can be detected by ________. 966 Fuel oil having a low cetane rating could result in _______. A. a higher cetane number of fuel oil A. compressibility of the fuel
A. visual inspection of the element A. improved cold weather starting B. the diesel fuel used having a high viscosity B. high fuel oil supply flow
B. the pressure drop across the filter B. excessive fuel oil consumption C. mechanical rigidity in the lube pump mechanism C. scored plunger and barrel packing
C. high fuel oil tank temperature C. reduced ignition lag D. a decrease in the fuel pump delivery pressure D. excessive air turbulence
D. increase flow rate from the filter D. smoother engine operation Ans: B Ans: A
Ans: B Ans: B 985 Automatically fired auxiliary boilers use fuel oil strainer arrangements 986 Piping from booster pumps to injection systems are to be at least
967 In diesel engineering practice, the term used to express the ignition 968 With respect to diesel fuel, the ease with which a cold engine will of either the simplex type or _____________. ________.
quality of a particular fuel is _____________. start is dependent upon the _____________. A. filter bag type A. schedule 60
A. cetane number A. ignition quality of the fuel B. metal disc type B. schedule 80
B. octane number B. high heating value of the fuel C. absorbent type C. standard seamless steel
C. ignition index number C. amount of carbon residue after combustion D. duplex type D. none of the above
D. volatility point D. internal flow resistance in the injectors Ans: D Ans: C
Ans: A Ans: A 987 The fuel oil strainers located in the fuel oil service system of an 988 Which of the following represents the significance the fuel oil cetane
969 Which of the following statements is true concerning the cetane 970 Why are heavy fuels not usually prone to the problems of automatic auxiliary heating boiler are either the duplex type or the number?
number rating of diesel fuel? microbiological infection? _______________.
A. The cetane number is obtained by comparing the fuel with cetane, a A. Heavy fuels are subjected to better refining processes which prevent A. filter bag type A. The cetane number has no affect on injection lag.
colorless liquid hydrocarbon. the formation of these growths. B. Perry filter type B. The cetane number is an indication of the fuel's viscosity.
B. The higher the cetane number, the shorter the ignition lag. B. Most heavy fuels contain chemicals which prevent the growth of C. simplex type C. Ignition lag is reduced with fuels having a high cetane number.
fungi and other bacteria.
C. The highest cetane number of fuel is 100. C. Microbiological infection does not affect marine fuel but rather the D. absorbent type D. The cetane number is of little significance in the combustion
personnel who are involved with the handling, storage and process.
purification of the fuel. Ans: C Ans: C
D. All of the above. D. The necessary nutrients that the organisms feed on are in a more 989 Proper filtering and straining of diesel fuel is important because the 990 Which of the following statements is true concerning the cetane
complex form and not available for microbial degradation. _____________. number of diesel fuel?
A. fuel oil pump will overspeed if dirt is not removed A. The cetane number affects the amount of injection lag.
Ans: D Ans: D B. fuel oil transfer pumps cannot tolerate small amounts of grit in the oil B. The cetane number is of little significance in the combustion
971 Most type(s) of microbiological growths in fuel are __________. 972 Fuel oil strainers should be made of ____________. I. copper II. process.
brass C. fuel injectors may be damaged by foreign particles in the fuel oil C. Ignition lag is reduced with fuels having a high cetane number.
A. bacteria A. I only
B. fungi B. II only D. dirty fuel will clog the intake air filter D. The cetane number is an indication of the fuel's viscosity.
C. yeasts C. either I or II Ans: C Ans: C
D. All of the above D. neither I nor II 991 If a diesel engine runs out of fuel, you can expect trouble from 992 The cetane number rates fuels for diesel engines according to its
Ans: D Ans: D _____________. _____________.
973 Which of the following statements describes the unchecked growth 974 When fuel oil heaters are required for main engine operation, A. overheated injector pumps A. antiknock characteristics
of microbiological organisms within a fuel system? ____________. B. water condensed in the cylinders B. ignition qualities
A. The dying bacteria will cause a coating to be formed on the sides of A. each heater shall have the capacity to supply the main engine at full C. fuel dilution of the lube oil C. rates of vaporization
the tank thereby decreasing corrosion. power D. air in the fuel system D. viscosity
B. The fuel in the tank will loose its fluidity, solidify, and be the cause of B. at least two heaters of approximately equal size are to be installed Ans: D Ans: B
an expensive removal process. 993 The cetane rating of diesel fuel is an indication of the 994 The ignition quality of a fuel oil is an important operational
C. Corrosion of various metal components will occur due to the C. the system shall be designed to permit series or parallel operation ______________. consideration because it _____________.
formation of hydrogen sulfide gas. A. ignition quality of the fuel A. indicates the amount of abrasive material in the fuel
D. All of the above are correct. D. none of the above B. calorific value of the fuel B. affects the starting ability of a cold engine
Ans: C Ans: B C. fclearance point of the fuel C. determines the amount of fuel penetration
975 An indication of microbial contamination is ______. 976 One cause of diesel engine fuel ignition delay is _______. D. rate of fuel consumption D. affects the compression ratio of an operating engine
A. stripping of paint in tanks A. mechanical flexibility in the pump mechanism Ans: A Ans: B
B. reduced corrosion in fuel tanks B. late fuel injection FUEL SYSTEMS - MAINTENANCE
C. usually discovered during normally scheduled strainer cleaning C. early fuel injection 995 When cleaning a duplex strainer, it is important for _____________. 996 Which chemical listed is utilized to prevent and correct most
microbial infections occurring within fuel storage systems?
D. yellow slime or fibrous sludge D. ignition quality of the fuel oil A. the pressure to be bled prior to opening the compartment cover A. Bleaches
Ans: A Ans: D
977 The desirable properties of a marine fuel oil should include 978 A substance found in residual fuels which tends to cause exhaust B. the lube oil to be allowed to cool before removing the basket B. Banalities
_____________. valve corrosion and grooving, is ____________. C. the cleaning fluid used to be more viscous than the lube oil C. Biocides
A. high flash point and high viscosity A. carbon D. a new cover gasket to be installed when reassembling the unit D. Benzene additives
B. low flash point and high viscosity B. vanadium
C. low heating value and high sulphur content C. calcium Ans: A Ans: C
D. high heating value and low sulphur content D. hydrogen 997 The metal edge type filters used in diesel engine fuel oil and lube oil 998 Proper housekeeping to prevent the formation of microbiological
Ans: D Ans: B systems are normally cleaned in place by _____________. growths within a fuel system includes the prevention of water
979 Which of the listed factors will indicate the most about the ability of a 980 To minimize corrosion, fuel oil strainer disks, spacers and scraper accumulations and the use of _______.
fuel to ignite in a diesel engine? blades are made of _____________. A. back flushing the system and draining the filter A. steam coils
A. Viscosity A. brass B. opening the drain plug and blowing through the filter B. fuel oil centrifuges
B. sulphur content B. copper C. manually operating a built-in scraper and draining the filter C. fuel oil discharge filters
C. Pour point C. iron D. flushing with any approved solvent then draining the system D. chemical additives called biocides
D. Cetane number D. monel metal or stainless steel Ans: C Ans: D
Ans: D Ans: D 999 Which of the following conditions is NOT an indication of microbial 1000 An increased pressure differential between the inlet and outlet of a
contamination of the fuel supply? strainer usually indicates the strainer is _____________.
 Page 53 Page 54

A. Evidence of corrosion A. holed A. check and regulate the water level A. The fuel valve should be de-energized.
B. Pitting of metal surfaces B. fouled B. close the air cock once fires are lit B. The purge cycle should begin.
C. Presence of green slime C. clean C. blowdown the gauge glass C. An alarm should ring.
D. Brightening of copper bering metals D. dry D. crack the steam stop to assure protective steam flow D. The fuel oil pump should stop.
Ans: D Ans: B Ans: A Ans: A
1001 Small amounts of moisture are necessary to trigger the growth of 1002 Which of the following statements describes the results of excessive 1018 Which of the following actions takes place in the control circuit of an 1019 Which of the listed sequence of events occurs when an automatic
microbiological organisms found in some marine fuels. Some microbiological growths within a fuel system? automatically fired auxiliary boiler when the desired steam pressure auxiliary boiler is prepurged?
sources of water contamination are _________. is obtained?
A. tank surface leakage A. All excessive amounts of growth will cause the main engines of the A. A temperature sensing device opens the circuit breaker in the burner A. The damper on the inlet side of the furnace is moved to the open
vessel to stall due to the inability to supply the proper quantities of motor. position for a given number of seconds and then moved to the
fuel to satisfy the existing load. closed position.
B. humidity and condensation B. The deposits produced by these growths form blockages and flow B. The high limit control secures power to the entire oil firing system. B. The damper on the inlet side of the furnace is moved to the open
restrictions ultimately leading to improper atomization of the fuel into position for a given number of seconds and then moved to the low
the cylinders. fire position.
C. improper tank washing procedures C. Eventually the growth of these organisms will deplete the supply of C. The stack relay actuates the low limit control which breaks the C. The damper is moved to the closed position for a given number of
food available to them, which in turn will cause their demise. ignition circuit. seconds and then moved to the low fire position.
D. The stack relay secures power to the high voltage side of the ignition D. The damper in the uptakes is moved to the wide open position for a
D. All of the above D. If continual growth is permitted, a sweet odor similar to that transformer. given number of seconds and then moved to the low firing rate
associated with baking will be noticed when system components are position.
opened for inspection. Ans: B Ans: B
Ans: D Ans: B 1020 Which of the following conditions could cause the feed pump for an 1021 Fins are installed on the generating tube surfaces in waste heat
1003 The major cause of problems occurring with fuel injection equipment 1004 The microbiological growths that affect fuel supplies can easily be auxiliary boiler to lose suction? boilers to ____________.
is _____________. transported from one location to another by _________. A. Increased suction head pressure A. prevent soot fires in the exhaust system
B. Decreased feedwater temperature B. prevent exhaust gas erosion of the tubes
A. incorrect replacement of barrels and plungers of jerk pumps A. roaches and other insects C. Pump recirculating line being open too much C. increase the velocity of exhaust gas flow
B. overheating of the nozzle orifices B. air, solids, or liquids D. Excessive feedwater temperature D. increase the rate of heat transfer
C. cracked pump housings C. other non-hydrocarbon fuels Ans: D Ans: D
D. dirt in the fuel D. all of the above 1022 The purpose of a temperature sensing device installed in the stack 1023 Subtracting the return flow meter reading from the supply flow meter
Ans: D Ans: B of a small automatically fired auxiliary steam boiler is to secure the reading on a boiler equipped with a return flow fuel oil system,
1005 Air in the fuel lines to the fuel injection nozzles of a diesel engine will 1006 The major cause of fuel pump and injection system problems is oil burner _______________. determines the amount of oil ____________.
result in _____________. _____________. A. in the event of a flame failure A. circulated by the system
A. lower compression pressures A. improper adjustments B. in the event of a stack fire B. burner throughput
B. overheating without smoking B. contaminated fuel C. when the water level reaches the crown sheet C. returned to the settler
C. failure to start C. kinked fuel lines D. when the feed pump discharge pressure drops to a preset minimum D. discharged from the pump
D. a runaway without load D. excessive engine vibration
Ans: C Ans: B Ans: A Ans: B
1007 Fuel oil day tanks for diesel engines must be checked and cleaned 1008 Fuel oil is regularly transferred to the day tank in order to 1024 Variations in the amount of fuel oil burned in a return flow type 1025 When there is a flame failure in an automatically fired auxiliary
at regular intervals in order to remove ___________. _____________. burner, are controlled by the ____________. boiler, the ____________.
A. sludge A. allow impurities to settle out of the fuel A. atomizing steam pressure A. air supply is shut off
B. water B. allow air to escape from the fuel B. size of the whirling chamber B. fuel supply is shut off
C. micro-organism growth C. make fuel available for immediate use C. back pressure in the fuel oil return line C. water supply is shut off
D. all of the above D. all of the above D. area of the tangential slots D. safety valve lifts
Ans: D Ans: D Ans: C Ans: B
1009 Clogged diesel engine fuel oil filters can cause __________, 1026 A burner responsible for producing black smoke in an automatic 1027 Bottom blow valves are installed on auxiliary water-tube boilers to
A. loss of power auxiliary boiler, would be caused by a __________. _____________.
B. misfiring
C. low fuel oil pressure A. defective solenoid valve A. remove suspended and precipitated solids from the boiler water
D. all of the above
Ans: D B. dirty fuel nozzle B. completely drain the boiler in an emergency situation
AUXILIARY BOILER C. grounded high tension lead C. prevent hardened scale deposits in the water drum
1010 Generating tubes in waste heat boilers are finned to ____________. 1011 It is desirable for an auxiliary boiler safety valve to pop open and D. faulty ignition cable connector D. remove floating impurities from the oiler water surface
reseat quickly to __________. Ans: B Ans: A
A. reduce gas flow turbulence A. give warning that excessive boiler pressure has been reached 1028 A pulsating flame, accompanied by a burner developing black 1029 The solenoid valves in the fuel oil supply line to an automatically
smoke in an auxiliary boiler, is an indication that the fired auxiliary boiler, are automatically closed by ______________.
B. prevent exhaust gas corrosion B. prevent wire drawing of the disc and seat _____________.
C. increase the rate of combustion C. prevent valve pounding A. electrode setting is incorrect A. a decrease in feed temperature
D. increase the rate of heat transfer D. provide sufficient blowdown B. ignition current is too low B. high furnace air pressure
Ans: D Ans: B C. fuel oil pressure is too low C. high steam pressure
1012 A failure to any component of a flame safeguard control for an 1013 The amount of oil consumed by a return flow-type fuel atomization D. fuel nozzle is correctly positioned D. low steam pressure
automatically fired auxiliary boiler, will result in ______________. system, fitted with both supply and return meters, can be Ans: C Ans: C
determined by the ____________. 1030 Failure of the feed pump to deliver feedwater to an auxiliary boiler 1031 If the fuel/air ratio in an automatically fired auxiliary boiler is
A. the prevention of automatic restart A. supply meter reading only could be caused by _______________. insufficient, the result could lead to __________.
B. an immediate furnace explosion B. return meter reading only A. a low pump suction lift A. inefficient combustion
C. uncontrolled firing C. sum of the supply and return meter readings B. abnormally low water temperature B. dark smoke
D. automatic restart D. difference between the supply and return meter readings C. grounded probes in the water level control C. automatic shutdown
Ans: A Ans: D D. a high pump suction head D. all of the above
1014 The flame safeguard control system of a large automatic auxiliary 1015 If the fire goes out in an automatically fired auxiliary boiler and the Ans: C Ans: D
boiler will provide fuel shut off in the case of high ____________. burner continues to supply fuel, there is a potential danger of 1032 The diesel engine exhaust gas bypass, as fitted with some waste 1033 High stack temperature occurring in an auxiliary boiler could be a
______________. heat boilers, is installed to ____________. result of ____________.
A. water A. overpressure and dry firing A. prevent engine back pressure at heavy loads A. insufficient air for combustion
B. voltage B. a severe furnace explosion B. increase total engine efficiency at low loads B. complete combustion in the furnace
C. fuel pressure C. spalling damage to the brickwork C. prevent boiler corrosion at low engine loads C. secondary combustion in the uptake
D. steam pressure D. heat damage to the atomizer D. improve engine fuel consumption at any load D. high fuel oil temperature
Ans: D Ans: B Ans: C Ans: C
1016 Prior to lighting off a cold automatically fired auxiliary boiler, you 1017 When an automatically fired boiler has a flameout, which of the 1034 A waste heat boiler is installed on some diesel propelled vessels to 1035 The maximum pressure developed by a waste heat boiler is
should _____________. following actions should occur FIRST? _____________. determined by the main engine exhaust ____________.
 Page 55 Page 56

A. provide steam for emergency propulsion A. gas composition 1052 Fusible plugs are installed in fire-tube boilers to _____________. 1053 Which of the following conditions is responsible for the fuel oil to
B. provide steam for the turbogenerator B. gas temperature atomize when using a steam atomizer in an auxiliary boiler?
C. heat the waste water tanks C. pressure
D. steam for warming engines D. timing A. provide a means of draining the boiler A. Expansion of the steam in the furnace.
Ans: B Ans: B B. warn the engineer of low water level B. Expansion of the steam in the whirling chamber.
1036 Bottom blow valves are installed on auxiliary water-tube boilers to 1037 When an auxiliary boiler is panting and emitting black smoke, you C. cool the crown sheet at high firing rates C. Expansion of the steam in the orifice plate.
_____________. should _____________. D. open the burners' electrical firing circuits D. All of the above.
A. completely drain the boiler in an emergency A. increase the fuel oil temperature Ans: B Ans: A
B. prevent sludge from forming in the steam drum B. decrease the fuel oil temperature 1054 A feed pump for an auxiliary boiler might lose suction if the 1055 The purpose of the programmed purge cycle on an automatically
C. remove floating impurities from the boiler water surface C. decrease the fuel oil supply pressure ____________. fired auxiliary boiler is to _______________.
D. remove settled solids from the water drum D. increase the air supply A. boiler water level is low A. cool the furnace to prevent preignition
Ans: D Ans: D B. feedwater is too hot B. remove explosive vapours from the furnace
1038 With which of the following types of diesel engine arrangements is 1039 The purpose of the separating nozzle in the accumulator of a water- C. boiler steam demand is low C. evaporate accumulated unburned fuel oil
a waste heat boiler most likely to produce the maximum steam tube, coil-type, steam generator is to separate _____________. D. feedwater is too cold D. provide sufficient air in the furnace to allow ignition of the fuel
pressure, temperature, and flow conditions?
Ans: B Ans: B
A. Supercharged, four-stroke/cycle diesel engine A. dry steam from the steam and water mixture 1056 After undergoing extensive repairs, an auxiliary boiler, with a 1057 When preparing to light off a cold boiler equipped with a return flow
B. Supercharged, loop scavenged diesel engine B. condensate from feedwater maximum allowable working pressure of 10 kg/cm2, should be fuel oil system, the recirculating valve directs the flow of oil
C. Turbocharged, crossflow scavenged diesel engine C. superheated steam from saturated steam hydrostatically tested at a pressure of ______________. ____________.
D. Turbocharged, return flow diesel engine D. sludge accumulations from feedwater A. 10 kg/cm2 A. directly to the fuel oil heater inlet for further warm-up
Ans: A Ans: A B. 12.5 kg/cm2 B. back to the fuel oil settler for further filtration
1040 Which of the following methods is typically employed in the design of 1041 Within the cycle of a forced ciculation auxiliary water-tube boiler, part C. 15 kg/cm2 C. back to the suction side of the service pump
waste heat boilers to obtain maximum heat transfer, while of the water flashes into steam, and the remaining hot water is D. 20 kg/cm2 D. directly to the deep tanks
maintaining low overall weight? ____________ Ans: C Ans: C
A. Feedwater is preheated in a separately fired economizer. A. collected in the lower portion of the steam accumulator for 1058 The principal purpose of refractory and insulation installed in the 1059 The purpose of designing some waste heat boilers with sinuous fire
recirculation back to the heating coil or water tank firebox of an auxiliary boiler is to ____________. tubes, is to ____________.
B. An external superheater unit is located above the boiler in the gas B. returned to the lower drum via downcomers due to density difference A. prevent slag accumulation on the corbels A. increase exhaust gas velocity through the boiler
passages. for reheating B. direct the force draft into the space between the inner and outer B. reduce accumulations of carbon deposits on the heat transfer
C. An unfired exhaust gas preheater is added to increase the heat C. passes through the domestic heating system return line steam traps casings, to maintain a pressure seal surfaces
transfer rate. to the auxiliary feed supply tank C. protect the inner casing and reduce heat loss C. eliminate exhaust gas pulsations and noise
D. Steel fins are installed on the generating tube surfaces to increase D. automatically dumped into auxiliary feed heater and reheated by D. prevent flame impingement on the generating tube bank D. increase the rate of heat transfer to the waterside
the effective surface area. auxiliary exhaust back pressure Ans: C Ans: D
Ans: D Ans: A 1060 Excessive vibration of an automatically fired auxiliary boiler can be 1061 The amount of fuel oil atomized by a return flow oil burner is directly
1042 A variable capacity, pressure atomizing, fuel oil burner functions to 1043 The firing range of a variable capacity, return flow-type fuel atomizer caused by _____________. controlled by the ____________.
____________. is regulated to meet steam demand by varying the ____________. A. air or water in the furnace A. header supply valve
B. combustion pulses B. burner root valve
A. maintain a constant fuel temperature A. fuel oil damper setting C. fuel oil pump failure C. oil micrometer valve
B. provide a wide range of combustion B. fuel oil return pressure D. flame failure D. fuel oil back pressure
C. provide a constant fuel return pressure C. burner register opening Ans: B Ans: D
D. maintain smokeless fuel oil atomization D. atomizer orifice setting 1062 An exhaust gas bypass is installed on a waste heat boiler in order to 1063 In the event of a flame failure in an auxiliary water-tube boiler, you
Ans: B Ans: B ____________. must ______________.
1044 In an auxiliary boiler steam and water system, the highest pressure 1045 Fins are installed on the fireside of the water-tubes used in waste A. recycle exhaust gas to the turbocharger A. relight the boiler immediately to prevent loss of steam pressure
will be in the ____________. heat boilers to ____________.
A. steam stop valve A. decrease the velocity of gases flowing past the tubes B. bypass a portion of the exhaust gas at peak loads for better B. relight the fire off the brickwork as long as the bricks are cherry red
B. dry pipe B. increase the rate of heat transfer efficiency
C. feedwater system C. reduce accumulations of carbon deposits C. bypass exhaust gas at high loads to prevent excessive back C. purge the furnace of any combustible gases before attempting to
D. generating tubes D. direct the flow of gases pressure relight the fire
Ans: C Ans: B D. minimize moisture condensation in the boiler gas passages at low D. speed up the feed pump to prevent dry firing when the burner flame
1046 Large steam drums are not required in the design of a coil-type 1047 A horizontal fire-tube package boiler, incorporating a two-pass loads is reestablished
auxiliary water-tube boiler because _____________. design, is basically constructed with ____________. Ans: D Ans: C
A. steam and water are separated in the accumulator (fclearance A. the rear of the boiler being used as a combustion chamber 1064 A properly adjusted safety valve for an auxiliary boiler will 1065 An auxiliary boiler is equipped with a return flow fuel atomization
chamber) ____________. system, which uses a/an _____________.
B. the heat of combustion is sufficient to remove all moisture from the B. extensive fireside baffling used to its fullest, enabling increased heat A. attain maximum lift when it pops below its set pressure A. constant fuel supply pressure
steam transfer rates B. open with a sharp, clear pop at its set pressure B. constant fuel return pressure
C. the volume of steam is small at low pressures C. removable spiral metal gas retarders being inserted in the tubes to C. close sharply when the pressure drops to its set pressure C. variable fuel supply pressure
decrease the gas velocity to a minimum, thus extracting the D. operate most effectively when it has zero blowdown D. all of the above
maximum caloric heat value Ans: B Ans: A
D. automatic burner cycling controls steam volume and quality D. all of the above 1066 Constant capacity, pressure atomizing, fuel burners designed to 1067 The constant capacity, pressure atomizing, fuel oil burners designed
Ans: A Ans: C meet a wide variation in steaming loads on an auxiliary boiler, are to meet a wide variation in the steaming loads of an auxiliary boiler,
1048 Downcomers installed on auxiliary package boilers are protected 1049 Waste heat boilers may be equipped with vents on the feed water _____________. are ________________.
from direct contact with hot gases by ___________. heater heads to ____________. A. automatically supplied with warmer air on demand A. automatically cycled on and off in response to demand
B. automatically supplied with more fuel on demand B. automatically supplied with more fuel on demand
A. refractory and insulation A. prevent air binding C. equipped with standard variable capacity atomizers C. equipped with standard variable capacity atomizers
B. several rows of screen tubes B. release excess pressure D. cycled on and off in response to steam demand D. equipped with fuel nozzles having variable orifices
C. steel baffles C. allow for feedwater treatment Ans: D Ans: A
D. water wall tubes D. remove sediment 1068 The gauge glass on a coil-type auxiliary boiler is connected to the 1069 Excessive vibration from an auxiliary boiler could be caused by
Ans: A Ans: A ______________. ____________.
1050 Why should the main steam stop valve of an auxiliary boiler be 1051 A distorted furnace in a fire-tube auxiliary boiler may be the result of A. heating coil inlet and outlet A. combustion pulses
eased off its seat and then gently closed before lighting off? ____________. B. surge chamber B. insufficient air to the burner
C. accumulator C. loose hold-down bolts
A. To examine the valve stem for scars or nicks. A. firing for extended periods in the low fire mode D. water softener D. all of the above
B. To check for a tight bonnet seal. B. overheating, due to waterside deposits Ans: C Ans: D
C. To ensure that the valve will not be seized shut when hot. C. varying the water level above the crown sheet 1070 In comparison to straight flow mechanical atomizers, return flow 1071 Which of the following statements concerning the operation of a coil-
D. To check the valve packing. D. carrying excessive alkalinity in the boiler water atomizers provide relatively uniform atomization over a wide firing type forced circulation auxiliary water-tube boiler is correct?
Ans: C Ans: B range due to the ____________.
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A. back pressure regulation resulting in more complete combustion at A. Water is continuously circulated through a preheater before it enters 1090 The purpose of the safety relief valves installed on an auxiliary 1091 In a forced circulation auxiliary boiler, steam is formed in the
high firing rates the fclearance chamber. boiler is to ____________. ____________.
B. oil supply pressure not having to be reduced at low loads to the point B. Steam is generated in the heating coils and is force fed to an A. relieve excess fuel oil pressure during the "off" fire cycle A. heating coils
where poor atomization occurs accumulator. B. admit water to the dry pipe B. steam accumulator (fclearance chamber)
C. return flow atomizer being designed for best combustion at low firing C. Unevaporated boiler water collects in the bottom of the accumulator. C. throttle the forced draft fan output for proper combustion C. hotwell
rates D. reduce excess steam pressure in the boiler D. thermostat tube
D. rotational motion imparted by the tangential slots being greater in the D. Moisture is removed from generated steam in a radiant superheater. Ans: D Ans: B
return flow atomizer 1092 The safety valve installed on a coil-type auxiliary boiler is located on 1093 Auxiliary boilers are divided into several classifications, one of which
Ans: B Ans: C the ____________. is _____________.
1072 Which of the following statements concerning fire-tube boilers is 1073 Which of the following statements about a coil-type forced circulation A. thermostat tube A. fire-tube controlled circulation
correct? auxiliary water-tube boiler is correct? B. topmost coil B. fire-tube supercritical circulation
A. Combustion gases flow through the tubes. A. Steam is generated in the fclearance chamber. C. water tank C. water-tube natural circulation
B. Flames impinge on the tubes. B. Steam is recirculated to the heating coils. D. fclearance chamber D. water tube express circulation
C. Combustion occurs in the tubes. C. Response to steam demand is comparatively rapid. Ans: D Ans: C
D. Water flows through the tubes. D. Unevaporated feedwater drains to the bilge. 1094 Auxiliary boilers are divided into several classifications, one of which 1095 The tube sheets installed in a fire-tube auxiliary boiler are normally
Ans: A Ans: C is ______________. connected by ____________.
1074 Which of the listed problems will happen when the water level of a 1075 Excessive return oil pressure from a variable capacity return flow A. water-tube supercritical circulation A. girder stays
fire-tube type auxiliary boiler approaches the crown sheet? fuel oil burner system on an automatic auxiliary boiler, will cause B. water-tube forced circulation B. fire-tubes and stay-tubes
____________. C. fire-tube controlled circulation C. external boiler plating
A. The fusible plugs will melt. A. flame failure D. fire-tube express circulation D. separate crown sheets
B. The furnace will explode. B. burner smoking Ans: B Ans: B
C. Excess steam will be generated. C. ignition failure 1096 In a coil-type forced circulation auxiliary water-tube boiler, 1097 Which type of pump is typically used to supply fuel to a unit type
D. The furnace will overheat. D. burner failure ____________. auxiliary boiler?
Ans: A Ans: B A. steam demand response is comparatively rapid A. Centrifugal
1076 Fins are installed on the fireside of the water-tubes, used in waste 1077 An auxiliary boiler equipped with a return flow fuel atomization B. steam is recirculated through heating coils in the boiler B. Propeller
heat boilers, to ____________. system, has a _____________. C. unevaporated feedwater is discharged through the skim tube C. Reciprocating
A. decrease the velocity of gases flowing past the tubes A. constant fuel combustion rate D. steam demand response is slow D. Rotary
B. reduce the accumulation of soot deposits on the tubes B. constant fuel return pressure Ans: A Ans: D
C. create turbulence C. variable fuel supply temperature 1098 The principal purpose of refractory and insulation installed in the 1099 In a coil-type auxiliary water-tube circulation boiler _____________.
D. increase the heat transfer surface area D. variable fuel return pressure firebox of an auxiliary boiler is to ____________.
Ans: D Ans: D A. prevent flame impingement on the generating tube bank A. unevaporated feedwater collects in the bottom of the fclearance
1078 When a waste heat boiler is installed in the exhaust of a main 1079 The amount of oil atomized by the return flow variable capacity chamber
propulsion diesel engine, the exhaust gas bypass would be used atomizer, used with some automatically fired boilers, is controlled by B. direct the force draft into the space between the inner and outer B. all generated steam is recirculated through heating coils in the boiler
____________. the _______________. casings, to maintain a pressure seal
A. at high loads to prevent overheating A. amount of air admitted to the atomizer C. protect the inner casing and reduce heat loss C. heated water fclearancees to steam in the boiler heating coils
B. at low loads to prevent corrosion in the boiler B. oil pressure in the oil return line D. prevent slag accumulation on the corbels D. response to steam demand is slower than in a fire-tube boiler
C. during periods of high steam demand C. quantity of oil delivered by the service pump
D. when the turbochargerisinoperation D. proportioning device in the atomizer fuel valve Ans: C Ans: A
Ans: B Ans: B AUXILIARY BOILER - MAINTENANCE
1080 Which of the following items is necessary for all waste heat boiler 1081 Throttling a burner air register on an auxiliary boiler could result in 1100 Before any work is to be carried out on a burner in an automatically 1101 Which of the following procedures decreases the total dissolved
installations, regardless of design or manufacturer? ____________. fired auxiliary boiler, you should always _____________. solids concentration in the water of an auxiliary boiler?
A. Control of evaporation A. smoky boiler operation
B. A separate means to prevent feedwater contamination B. decreased fuel consumption A. block all control system relays closed A. Hydrazine treatment of condensate
C. Power circulating pump C. improved fuel combustion B. allow the boiler to cool completely B. Frequent compounding
D. exhaust gas bypass D. fewer soot deposits C. close all manually operated fuel valves C. Chemical cleaning
Ans: A Ans: A D. lock all safety interlock switches closed D. Bottom blowing
1082 When lighting off an auxiliary boiler, which of the problems listed 1083 Diesel engine waste heat boiler construction is usually of the fire- Ans: C Ans: D
could cause the burners to sputter? tube or _____________. 1102 How is the concentration of dissolved oxygen in the feedwater of 1103 A sprayer plate used in a return flow fuel oil atomizer is correctly
A. Cold fuel oil A. cyclone furnace boiler type an auxiliary boiler maintained at acceptable limits? installed if the oil __________.
B. Low fuel oil pressure B. dry back boiler type
C. Low atomizing steam pressure C. water-tube type A. Feedwater is cycled through a DC heater. A. passes through the whirling chamber before passing through the
D. Water in the fuel oil D. critical circulation boiler type tangential slots
Ans: D Ans: C B. Feedwater is treated with phosphates. B. passes through the tangential slots before passing through the
1084 Which of the following statements describes how the fueloil enters 1085 The variation in the amount of fuel oil burned in the operation of an whirling chamber
the whirling chambers of the sprayer plates usedin a auxiliary boiler auxiliary boiler, utilizing a return flow type atomization system, is a C. Oxygen is liberated in the three-stages of feedwater preheating. C. leaves the burner as a straight stream until mixed with the primary
return flow fuel oil system? function of the _____________. flow of combustion air
A. Through the outer barrel tube. A. fuel oil recirculating valve D. Oxygen is liberated by maintaining the highest practical feedwater D. leaves the burner as a straight stream until mixed with the swirling
B. Through the sprayer plate drilled passages. B. fuel oil back pressure temperature. atomizing steam
C. Through tangential slots in the sprayer plate. C. fuel supply pressure regulating valve Ans: D Ans: B
D. Through baffles in the orifice plate. D. automatic steam atomizer assembly 1104 A burner producing black smoke in an automatic auxiliary boiler, 1105 The water in an auxiliary boiler should be chemically tested daily for
Ans: C Ans: B would be caused by a/an ______________. alkalinity and _________________.
1086 The PRIMARY function of a waste heat boiler is to _________. 1087 Auxiliary boilers can be classified as ________________. A. incorrect electrode setting A. soap hardness
B. defective solenoid valve B. nitrogen content
A. reduce engine exhaust noise A. water-tube natural circulation boilers C. grounded high tension lead C. chloride content
B. reduce engine back pressure B. fire-tube boilers D. incorrect primary air setting D. dissolved CO2
C. recover heat which otherwise would be lost C. water-tube forced circulation boilers Ans: D Ans: C
D. increase turbocharger efficiency D. all of the above 1106 The water in an auxiliary boiler should be tested for chloride content 1107 For proper operation, auxiliary boiler feedwater must have which of
Ans: C Ans: D to determine ______________. the following characteristics?
1088 A SECONDARY function of a waste heat boiler is to _________. 1089 In a coil-type forced circulation auxiliary water-tube boiler A. total dissolved solids A. High oxygen concentration
_____________. B. salt contamination B. Low pH
A. reduce engine exhaust noise A. steam is recirculated through heating coils in the boiler C. water hardness C. Proper alkalinity
B. reduce engine back pressure B. hot water fclearancees to steam in the fclearance chamber D. chlorine contamination D. All of the above
C. increase engine cycle efficiency C. unevaporated feedwater is lost through the atmospheric vent Ans: B Ans: C
D. increase turbocharger efficiency D. response to steam demand is slower than in a fire-tube boiler 1108 The procedures recommended for auxiliary boilers having high 1109 The concentration of dissolved solids in the boiler water of an
salinity include ____________. auxiliary boiler could increase as a result of ___________.
Ans: A Ans: B
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A. treating with oxygen scavengers A. phosphate treatment A. broken electrode insulator A. sulfite or hydrazine
B. securing the boiler and giving it a bottom blow B. zero water hardness B. faulty steam pressure signal to the trial for ignition circuit B. sulfite or hygroscopic sulfite
C. increasing the pH C. dissolved oxygen deaeration C. broken 2000 volt supply lead C. bromide or hydrazine
D. reducing the phosphate level D. frequent bottom blows D. clogged fuel nozzle D. bromide or hygroscopic sulfite
Ans: B Ans: A Ans: D Ans: A
1110 If a tube ruptures in a water-tube auxiliary boiler due to low water, 1111 When checking for the presence of sulphite in the feedwater of an 1130 A firebox explosion in an automatically fired auxiliary boiler may be 1131 Why should handhole gaskets not be allowed to leak on an auxiliary
you should ____________. auxiliary boiler, you are in essence checking ____________. the result of ______________. boiler?
A. excessive purging before lighting off A. Water circulation in the boiler will be disrupted.
A. secure the fires and maintain feedwater to boiler to keep up the A. to ensure the compound additions are adequate for controlling B. insufficient trail for ignition period B. The gasket and its seating surface may become wire drawn.
water level dissolved oxygen C. a faulty transformer in the ignition circuit C. The gasket material will become hardened.
B. not secure the fires until water level falls out of sight in the gauge B. to ensure the compound additions are adequate for control of pH D. insufficient purging before lighting off D. Scale and sediment will form on the gasket.
glass Ans: D Ans: B
C. secure both the fires and the feed inlet valve C. the hardness of the makeup feed water 1132 After lighting off a cold, automatically fired, auxiliary boiler, as steam 1133 During maintenance inspections of a fire tube auxiliary boiler, you
D. secure the fires when the pressure drops to 50% of the maximum D. to ensure the automatic or manual blowdown rate and frequency is begins to form, you should ___________. should check for _____________.
allowable working pressure adequate for control of total dissolved solids A. close the air cock A. weaking of the tubes at the tube sheet
Ans: C Ans: A B. give the boiler a bottom blow B. burning of tube ends
1112 A coil-type automatically fired auxiliary boiler is to be laid up wet for 1113 A safety valve on an auxiliary boiler simmers constantly and can not C. test the safety valve C. fireside corrosion
an indefinite period. The boiler water should be treated to ensure be stopped by several quick blow-offs using the hand relieving gear. D. completely open the steam stop D. all of the above
that ____________. The problem may be __________. Ans: A Ans: D
A. the manufacturer's recommended pH is maintained A. loose dirt on the seat 1134 If poor combustion occurs in an auxiliary boiler due to an air damper 1135 Before any work is to be carried out on a burner in an automatically
B. there is no excess of oxygen scavenging chemicals B. exposed valve springs linkage being out of adjustment, you would adjust the linkage and fired auxiliary boiler, you should always _____________.
C. sludge formation cannot occur in the steam separator C. a clogged drain line then _____________.
D. waterside blowdown will not be required D. a damaged seat A. reset the pressure limit controls A. allow the boiler to cool completely
Ans: A Ans: D B. test the high and low fire solenoids B. close all manually operated fuel valves
1114 If an operating auxiliary boiler has a water pH reading of 7, you 1115 The water in a steaming auxiliary boiler should be tested daily for C. check the photocell window for carbon deposits C. lock all safety interlock switches closed
should ______________. ______________. D. check the burner ignition electrode gap D. block all control system relays closed
A. bottom blow the boiler A. dissolved oxygen Ans: C Ans: B
B. treat the water with caustic soda B. chlorides 1136 The pH value of water in a diesel engine closed cooling water 1137 A dirty atomizer sprayer plate in the burner of an auxiliary boiler,
C. treat the water with chemical scavengers C. sludge system should be maintained between _____________. would be indicated by ____________.
D. reduce the water alkalinity to recommended readings D. dissolved nitrogen
Ans: B Ans: B A. 6.0 to 7.5 A. carbon on the register doors
1116 Heavy soot accumulations in an auxiliary boiler could be caused by 1117 Which of the following actions should be taken when an auxiliary B. 8.0 to 9.5 B. a dazzling white atomizer flame
_____________. boiler is operation? C. 10.0 to 11.5 C. fluctuating pressure in the windbox
A. water in the fuel oil A. Clean all electrical connections. D. 12.0 to 13.5 D. an unevenly shaped burner flame
B. excessive cycling B. Lift the relief valves by hand. Ans: B Ans: D
C. high fuel oil pressure C. Inspect and clean all solenoid valves. 1138 The boiler water alkalinity in a coil-type auxiliary boiler should be 1139 A bypass line provided around a waste heat auxiliary boiler in a
D. improper burner maintenance D. Inspect for oil and water leaks. maintained at the pH recommended by the boiler manufacturer to diesel engine exhaust system, may be used to avoid boiler
Ans: D Ans: D _________________. ____________.
1118 Failure of the burner flame in an automatic auxiliary boiler would 1119 Improper maintenance of an automatic auxiliary boiler oil burner A. precipitate silica from solution A. corrosion at low engine loads
probably be a result of ______________. could result in ______________. B. reduce corrosion in the heating coil B. erosion at high engine loads
A. water in the fuel oil A. fuel pump failure C. prevent clogging and erosion in the coil C. overload at high engine loads
B. broken high tension leads B. fan motor failure D. maintain zero water hardness D. scaling at all exhaust temperatures
C. incorrect electrode setting C. increased feedwater consumption Ans: B Ans: A
D. full fuel pressure at the nozzle D. decreased boiler efficiency 1140 The amount of chloride content in the water of an auxiliary boiler can 1141 Which of the following actions should normally be taken during each
Ans: A Ans: D be reduced by ____________. watch when the auxiliary boiler is in operation?
1120 The water in an operating auxiliary boiler should be tested for 1121 In a fire-tube auxiliary boiler, you should expect to find the thickest A. adding hydrazine A. Clean the flame scanner photocell window.
alkalinity and chloride content each __________. scale on the waterside of the ____________. B. blowing down the boiler B. Inspect and clean all solenoid valves.
A. hour A. crown sheet C. adding phenolphthalein C. Lift the safety valves by hand.
B. day B. through stays D. adding a sulfite chloride scavenger D. Inspect for oil or water leaks
C. week C. hydrokineter Ans: B Ans: D
D. month D. belly plug 1142 In readying an auxiliary water-tube boiler for a routine hydrostatic 1143 The correct procedure for giving an auxiliary boiler a bottom blow, is
Ans: B Ans: A test, which of the following procedures should be undertaken prior to to begin _____________.
1122 The most common cause of scale formation in an auxiliary boiler is 1123 If the feed pump for an auxiliary boiler fails to deliver the feed water filling the boiler with fresh water?
______________. to the boiler, the cause may be ____________. A. The safety valve escape piping should be disconnected from the A. when the boiler has been secured long enough for most solids to
A. concentrations of calcium sulfate in the boiler water A. high steam pressure in the boiler valve body and a blank inserted. settle
B. fuel oil in the feedwater B. abnormally high feedwater temperature B. The boiler vent valves should be opened. B. when the boiler has been cooled to ambient temperature
C. improper treatment of the feedwater with calcium sulfate C. abnormally high boiler water temperature C. All handhole/manhole covers should be tightened up as much as C. only after raising the water level to within 1/2 inch of the high water
D. excessive feedwater alkalinity D. steam demand exceeding feed pump capacity possible to preclude any leaks. cutout
Ans: A Ans: B D. All of the above. D. only after bypassing the low pressure pressostat
1124 Why should the main steam stop valve of an auxiliary boiler be 1125 Which of the following actions should normally be taken during each Ans: B Ans: A
eased off its seat and then gently closed before lighting off? watch when the auxiliary boiler is operation? 1144 The concentration of total dissolved solids in the water of an 1145 When an auxiliary boiler is secured and you expect to relight the
auxiliary boiler can increase as a result of __________. unit within six hours, you should _____________.
A. To check the valve packing. A. Test boiler water alkalinity A. seawater contamination A. maintain a head of steam not less than 1kg/cm2
B. To examine the valve stem for scars or nicks. B. Inspect and clean burner fuel oil solenoid valves B. frequent surface blows B. completely fill the boiler with feedwater
C. To check for a tight bonnet seal. C. Lift the safety valves by hand C. dissolved oxygen deaeration C. flush the boiler and close the waterside airtight
D. To ensure that the valve will not be seized shut when hot. D. Blowdown the water gauge glass D. frequent bottom blows D. maintain steam pressure 1kg/cm2 below normal boiler load
Ans: D Ans: D Ans: A Ans: A
1126 Which of the following actions should normally be taken during each 1127 An automatically fired auxiliary boiler with carbon deposits formed on 1146 Before an auxiliary boiler is shutdown for an extended period of 1147 Improper maintenance of the fuel oil burners in an automatically
watch when the auxiliary boiler is in operation? its burner electrodes, will experience _________. time, the water in the boiler should have a pH value of fired auxiliary boiler, could result in ____________.
A. Clean all duplex oil strainers A. flame failure ____________.
B. Observe general boiler performance B. ignition failure A. 10 A. increased fuel consumption
C. Lift the safety valves by hand C. panting of the furnace B. 7 B. increased feedwater consumption
D. Inspect and clean burner oil solenoid valves D. sputtering of the burner flame C. 4 C. fuel pump failure
Ans: B Ans: B D. 1 D. combustion control system failure
1128 Flame failure in an operating automatically fired auxiliary boiler can 1129 Oxygen corrosion in auxiliary boilers is prevented by treating the Ans: A Ans: A
result from a _____________. boiler feed tank with either sodium ____________.
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1148 Excessive alkalinity of the water in an auxiliary boiler can cause 1149 Flame failure in an automatically fired auxiliary boiler can result from Ans: D Ans: B
____________. a/an ______________. 1168 A turbocharged diesel engine will have an intake manifold pressure 1169 A Roots-type blower installed on a direct reversible engine
A. caustic embrittlement of the boiler metal A. incorrect electrode setting _____________. _____________.
B. acidic corrosion of the boiler metal B. incorrect nozzle position A. constantly decreasing as engine load increases A. is engaged only when turning ahead
C. hard scale deposits on the boiler tubes C. clogged fuel nozzle B. constantly increasing as the amount of supercharging increases B. is geared so that air flow through the blower is always in the same
D. etching of the heat exchange surfaces D. broken high tension lead direction
Ans: A Ans: C C. approximately equal to exhaust manifold pressure at all times C. reverses rotation along with the engine
1150 The concentration of total dissolved solids in the water of an 1151 The daily inspection of an operating auxiliary boiler should include D. approximately equal to atmospheric pressure at all times D. exhausts to atmosphere when turning astern
auxiliary boiler can increase as a result of ___________. ____________. Ans: B Ans: C
A. seawater contamination A. lifting of all safety valves 1170 Which of the diesel engine components listed increases air density 1171 Which of the engine components listed increases air charge density
B. frequent surface blows B. an examination of the boiler firesides and helps to improve engine operating efficiency? and helps to improve engine operating efficiency?
C. dissolved oxygen deaeration C. checking for external fuel and water leaks A. Impeller A. Intake manifold
D. frequent bottom blows D. measuring steam quality B. Compressor B. Water-cooled exhaust system
Ans: A Ans: C C. Aftercooler C. Aftercooler
1152 Which of the following conditions could cause black smoke to be 1153 Waterside scale in a fire-tube boiler may cause ___________. D. Exhaust diffuser D. Exhaust diffuser
discharged from the stack of an auxiliary boiler equipped with turbine- Ans: C Ans: C
driven rotary cup atomizers? 1172 What is the function of the aftercoolers installed in the diesel engine 1173 Which of the designs listed will keep the lobes from making contact
A. Insufficient steam supply to the fuel oil heater. A. increased heat transfer air intake system? in a Roots-type blower?
B. Excessive opening of the dampers in the combustion air inlet. B. fireside erosion A. Decrease the air density A. Drive chain
B. Increase the exhaust temperature B. Blower timing gears
C. Improper turbine shaft speed in the atomizer assembly. C. high steam demand C. Decrease the lube oil temperature C. Air trapped between blower lobes
D. high drum water level D. overheated tubes D. Increase the air density D. Oil filter between blower lobes
Ans: C Ans: D Ans: D Ans: B
1154 A smoking burner with a pulsating flame in an auxiliary boiler, is an 1155 Which of the following conditions would cause "panting" in a 1174 In a turbocharger, inlet air velocity is increased in the 1175 In a Roots-type rotary blower, the volume of air delivered is directly
indication that the ______________. steaming auxiliary boiler? _____________. proportional to _____________.
A. fuel oil supply temperature is normal A. Insufficient combustion air A. inlet nozzle ring A. engine speed
B. burner electrode is incorrectly positioned B. Low water level B. stationary diffuser passages B. engine load
C. fuel/air ratio is incorrect C. Flame failure C. compressor outlet volute C. brake horsepower
D. ignition current is too low D. Faulty flame scanner D. rotating impeller vanes D. brake specific fuel consumption
Ans: C Ans: A Ans: D Ans: A
1156 If oil is dripping from the burner of a coil-type auxiliary steam 1157 Before any work is done on a burner in an automatically fired 1176 A Roots-type blower installed on some diesel engines, serves to 1177 In a turbocharged four-stroke/cycle diesel engine, the exhaust valve
generator, the cause may be _____________. auxiliary boiler, you should always ___________. _____________. remains open until after top dead center and the intake valve opens
A. the oil valve not seating properly A. block all control valves before top dead center to __________.
B. a loose burner nozzle B. allow the boiler to cool completely
C. carbon on the burner nozzle causing deflection of oil spray C. lock all safety interlock switches closed A. heat the cylinder for hotter compression A. produce a scavenging effect in the combustion space
D. all of the above D. close all manually operated fuel valves B. push out exhaust gases and replace them with fresh air B. equalize cylinder and exhaust manifold pressures
Ans: D Ans: D C. force cool air across the radiator, lowering the jacket water C. alleviate the difference in valve size between the intake and exhaust
SCAVENGING,TURBOCHARGING AND AIRCOOLING temperature
1158 Which of the two events listed occurs simultaneously in a two- 1159 Scavenging in a turbocharged, four-stroke/cycle diesel engine is D. maintain a positive charge of fresh air in the crankcase thus D. flush out condensate that collects after each compression stroke
stroke/cycle diesel engine? accomplished ___________. eliminating the chances of a crankcase explosion
A. Exhaust and scavenging A. during the valve overlap period Ans: B Ans: A
B. Scavenging and compression B. with only the exhaust valve open 1178 The small clearances existing between each of the blower lobes, 1179 Which of the following conditions may contribute to the formation of
C. Ignition and expansion C. at a pressure below atmospheric and between the lobes and casing of a Roots-type blower, must be deposits on the blades of the turbocharger turbine?
D. Exhaust and compression D. without cooling the cylinders or pistons maintained to ______________.
Ans: A Ans: A A. provide for normal timing A. Poor combustion
1160 Air scavenging of a diesel engine cylinder _____________. 1161 A diesel engine is supercharged in order to _____________. B. prevent blower oil leakage B. High cylinder oil consumption
A. blows out the exhaust gases A. lower the no-load RPMs C. provide adequate blower lubrication C. Leaking exhaust valves
B. supplies oxygen for combustion B. provide more air for combining with the fuel D. prevent abnormal air leakage D. All of the above.
C. cools the valves and cylinder walls C. increase the no-load RPMs Ans: D Ans: D
D. all of the above D. provide more fuel for combining with the air 1180 Which of the following conditions can cause below normal air 1181 If the turbocharger of a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine fails to
Ans: D Ans: B pressure in the intake manifold of a turbocharged diesel engine? operate, which of the following statements best describes the
1162 One characteristic of a pulse type turbocharging system is 1163 Which of the listed types of superchargers will NOT have a probable effect?
_____________. volumetric capacity proportional to engine speed? A. Excessive piston blow-by to the manifold. A. Intake manifold pressure will be high.
A. high average exhaust manifold pressure A. Exhaust gas turbocharger B. Insufficient cooling water flow. B. Intake manifold pressure will be unaffected.
B. greatly fluctuating inlet manifold pressure B. Roots blower C. Accumulated water in the air boxes. C. Exhaust temperatures will be high.
C. constant exhaust manifold pressure C. Piston type blower D. Clogged air intake filters. D. Exhaust temperatures will be low.
D. multiple exhaust pipes to the turbocharger D. Vane type blower Ans: D Ans: C
Ans: D Ans: A 1182 A sudden power loss from a turbocharged and aftercooled diesel 1183 Leaking oil seals on a diesel engine turbocharger can cause
1164 Which of the following turbocharging systems channels the exhaust 1165 A turbocharged, four-stroke/cycle diesel engine has a larger valve engine is an indication of a/an ______________. _____________.
gases of each individual cylinder directly into the turbine rotor overlap than a naturally aspirated four-stroke/cycle diesel engine, in A. turbocharger malfunction or failure A. the engine to run after the fuel has been secured
blades? order to increase the ______________. B. crankcase exhauster overload B. the engine to overspeed
A. Reaction A. temperature of the exhaust gases C. overload on the intercooler C. a fire
B. Pulse B. energy supplied to the turbocharger D. obstruction in the engine cylinders D. all of the above
C. Constant Pressure C. air pressure to the intake manifold Ans: A Ans: D
D. Variable pressure D. purge of exhausted gases from the cylinders 1184 Which of the following terms best describes the Roots-type blower 1185 Exhaust gases are generally removed from the cylinders of a two-
Ans: B Ans: D used to supercharge a diesel engine? stroke/cycle diesel engine by ______________.
1166 Which of the following statements is correct regarding a 1167 Why will a turbocharged diesel engine produce black smoke if A. Rotary vane A. natural aspiration
turbocharged four-stroke/cycle diesel generator? excessive additional load is applied too quickly? B. Positive displacement B. masked intake valves
A. At zero load the intake manifold pressure is greater than the exhaust A. Exhaust energy would draw excess air. C. Axial flow C. air cells
manifold pressure. D. centrifugal D. scavenging air
B. At full load the intake manifold pressure and exhaust manifold B. The inertia of the turbocharger rotor causes a time lag which delays Ans: B Ans: D
pressure are equal. the turbocharger speed increase. 1186 The speed of the turbocharger for a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine 1187 The principal difference between loop scavenging and crossflow
C. At full load the intake manifold pressure is less than the exhaust C. Exhaust gas pumping losses are increased due to turbine windage. driving a generator at constant speed depends on the scavenging, as used in single acting diesel engines, is the
manifold pressure. _____________. _____________.
D. At full load the intake manifold pressure is greater than the exhaust D. Exhaust gas back pressure falls slightly due to increased nozzle A. engine speed A. direction of air flow within the cylinder
manifold pressure. action. B. kilowatt load B. sequence of port opening
 Page 63 Page 64

C. fuel injection pressure C. method of opening exhaust ports C. driven by a camshaft C. diffuser passages
D. air intake manifold temperature D. volume of air admitted to the cylinder D. driven by separate motor D. inlet volute
Ans: B Ans: A Ans: A Ans: C
1188 Scavenging in a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine occurs during the 1189 The term "diesel engine scavenging" means ____________. 1208 Turbocharged four-stroke/cycle diesel engines utilize valve overlap 1209 The compression of air in a positive displacement rotary
_____________. for _____________. supercharging blower, occurs only _____________.
A. last part of the exhaust stroke, and the first part of the intake stroke A. delivering more air into the cylinder than it would normally receive A. improving cylinder scavenging A. between the rotating blower lobes
during an ordinary charging process B. preheating the combustion chamber B. between the casing and blower lobes
B. last part of the intake stroke only B. forcing the products of combustion out of the cylinder with the fresh C. reducing air charge density C. after the engine reaches operating speed
air charge D. preventing valve wear D. as air moves into the discharge passage
C. early part of the injection stroke only C. collecting the air charge at the air cleaner Ans: A Ans: D
D. early part of the power stroke D. combustion and expansion of hot gas 1210 If the turbocharger failed on an auxiliary diesel engine, which of the 1211 The power consumed during the scavenging process of a diesel
Ans: A Ans: B following conditions would probably occur? engine is known as the _____________.
1190 Cooling the intake air supplied to a diesel engine will 1191 Which of the following conditions is indicated by the presence of A. Full power cannot be developed. A. scavenging loss
_____________. water in the scavenging air receiver? B. The exhaust will contain black smoke. B. valve loss
A. reduce mean effective pressure A. Leaking cylinder head gaskets C. Complete combustion will be impossible. C. back pressure loss
B. decrease average compression pressure B. Leaking aftercooler D. All of the above. D. pumping loss
C. decrease air charge density C. Excessively low scavenge air temperature Ans: D Ans: D
D. increase power output D. Auxiliary blower failure 1212 A thin film of oil on the lobes of a Roots-type blower indicates 1213 In a main propulsion turbocharged diesel engine, the speed of the
Ans: D Ans: B _____________. turbocharger varies according to the _____________.
1192 Forcing the exhaust gases from the cylinder of an operating diesel 1193 "Loop," "uniflow," "crossflow," and "return-flow" are terms used to A. proper lubrication A. governor droop
engine with the aid of a blower is known as ________. describe various types of _____________. B. timing out of adjustment B. speeder spring tension
C. excessive cylinder lubrication C. fuel rack lag
A. scavenging A. control air circuits D. leaking rotor bearing oil seals D. load on the engine
B. forced draft B. supercharging Ans: D Ans: D
C. turbocharging C. turbochargers 1214 During the valve overlap period, the exhaust pressure of a 1215 Large, two-stroke/cycle, main propulsion, diesel engine cylinders
D. aspiration D. scavenging turbocharged, four-stroke/cycle diesel engine must be less than the can be successfully pressure charged during normal operation, by
Ans: A Ans: D intake manifold pressure to ensure ___________. using the ___________.
1194 The exhaust system for a turbocharged diesel engine functions to 1195 Which of the following beneficial results can be expected from A. effective cylinder scavenging and cooling A. exhaust gas temperature system
_____________. supercharging a previously naturally aspirated engine? B. constant pressure from the turbochargers B. exhaust load system
A. power the aftercoolers A. Increased turbulence C. cooler operation of the exhaust system C. constant or pulse pressure system
B. power the turbocharger B. Increased mechanical efficiency D. effective constant pressure for turbocharger operation D. constant volume system
C. reduce the cylinder scavenge effect C. Increased brake mean effective pressure Ans: A Ans: C
D. cool the turbocharger D. All of the above. 1216 In a multi-cylinder, constant pressure, turbocharged diesel engine, 1217 When would the available energy of the exhaust gases of a two-
Ans: B Ans: D the combined exhaust temperature at the turbocharger inlet reads stroke/cycle diesel engine be insufficient to drive an exhaust gas
1196 Which of the following conditions is realized by the turbocharging of 1197 Which of the turbocharging systems listed operates with the least higher than the individual cylinder exhausts. This means the turbocharger, resulting in the incorrect amount of air for combustion?
a previously naturally aspirated diesel engine? average back pressure in the exhaust manifold? _____________.
A. combined exhaust pyrometer is defective A. During operation at low speed
A. Ignition lag increases. A. Constant volume B. combined exhaust pyrometer is reading normally B. During operation at rated speed, but low power output
B. Lube oil system pressure increases. B. Constant pressure C. turbine blades are coated with carbon C. During acceleration
C. Brake specific fuel consumption increases. C. Pulse pressure D. turbine is overheating D. All of the above
D. Mechanical efficiency increases. D. Radial flow Ans: B Ans: D
Ans: D Ans: C 1218 In a two-stroke/cycle diesel engine, the process of scavenging 1219 The process of supplying a diesel engine cylinder with air at a
1198 The process of scavenging a two-stroke/cycle diesel engine serves 1199 Which of the turbocharging methods listed directs the exhaust begins as the ________. pressure greater than atmospheric is called _________.
to _____________. gases to the turbine at fairly uniform velocity and pressure? A. piston nears and passes TDC A. engine displacement
B. early part of the upstroke B. super-aspirating
A. improve fuel flow volume A. Constant pressure C. piston passes BDC C. air injection
B. cool the exhaust valves B. Pulse pressure D. early part of the downstroke D. supercharging
C. reduce the intake air charge density C. Constant velocity Ans: B Ans: D
D. increase the temperature of exhaust gases D. Axial flow 1220 The power output of a turbocharged diesel engine will drop if the 1221 A supercharged diesel engine, when compared to a similar naturally
Ans: B Ans: A cooling water flow through the aftercooler is interrupted because the aspirated diesel engine, will develop an increase in _____________.
1200 When used in conjunction with a turbocharger, the main function of 1201 Intake air flow from a diesel engine turbocharger is directly _____________.
an aftercooler is to ___________. proportional to engine __________. A. turbocharger stalls A. ignition lag
A. increase the density of the cylinder air charge A. exhaust gas pressure B. exhaust pressure increases B. engine horsepower
B. prevent turbocharger overheating B. exhaust gas temperature C. air charge density decreases C. lube oil system pressure
C. eliminate the need for a precooler C. speed D. scavenge effect increases D. specific fuel consumption
D. remove moisture from air compressed by the turbocharger D. load Ans: C Ans: B
Ans: A Ans: D 1222 If the speed of a turbocharged diesel engine is maintained constant 1223 Compared to a naturally aspirated diesel engine, a supercharged
1202 Some diesel engines are supercharged with a _____________. 1203 The purpose of an aftercooler is to _____________. the turbocharger speed will _____________. diesel engine has _____________.
A. decrease until the engine speed increases A. a cylinder air charge of higher pressure
A. slam charger A. reduce the turbocharger operating temperature B. increase as the load increases B. increased pumping losses
B. turbocharger B. increase the pressure of the inlet air C. decrease as the load increases C. less valve overlap
C. fuel atomizer C. increase the density of the inlet air D. remeins unchanged as the load decreases D. educed blowby
D. fuel injector D. reduce the blower operating temperature Ans: B Ans: A
Ans: B Ans: C 1224 Which of the following devices will increase the power output of a 1225 The relative air pressure in the inlet manifold of a turbocharged
1204 Most Roots-type blowers have two rotors which _____________. 1205 As engine RPM is increased from idle speed to full load speed, diesel engine without increasing its frictional load? diesel engine is usually _____________.
which of the conditions listed will decrease?
A. are extremely quiet at high speed A. Compression ratio A. Positive displacement blower A. greater than the average exhaust manifold pressure
B. rotate in the same direction B. Fuel/Air ratio B. Roots-type rotary blower B. less than the average exhaust manifold pressure
C. rotate in opposite directions C. Compression pressure C. Gear-driven centrifugal blower C. greater at the turbine wheel than at the impeller
D. decrease objectionable turbulence in the cylinders D. Lube oil pressure D. turbine-driven centrifugal blower D. greater at reduced engine speed
Ans: C Ans: B Ans: D Ans: A
1206 In a diesel engine, a positive displacement type blower isusually 1207 The high air velocity leaving the compressor of an exhaust gas 1226 Which of the Roots blower rotors listed below, will supply air to a two- 1227 The function of the aftercooler installed between the turbocharger
____________. turbocharger is converted to pressure in the __________. stroke/cycle, medium-speed, diesel engine with the least amount of and intake manifold on some diesel engines, is to _____________.
turbulence and pulsation?
A. gear driven by the engine A. inlet nozzle ring A. Three-helical lobes A. increase the density of the intake air
B. driven by an exhaust gas turbine B. turbine wheel blading B. Two-helical lobes B. decrease turbocharger power usage
 Page 65 Page 66

C. Three-cylindrical lobes C. reduce exhaust gas temperature D. cover the air inlet after removing the filter D. Decrease the amount of exhaust and intake valve overlap
D. Two-cylindrical lobes D. compensate for turbocharger RPM fluctuations Ans: D Ans: B
Ans: A Ans: A 1246 Which of the following problems can cause an above normal air 1247 Which condition indicates the air side fouling of an aftercooler on a
1228 Performance of a turbocharged engine can be improved by 1229 Aftercooling of a turbocharged diesel engine will result in temperature to develop in the intake manifold of a turbocharged and turbocharged diesel engine?
_____________. _____________. aftercooled diesel engine?
A. decreasing the amount of valve overlap A. higher torque but lower brake horsepower A. Faulty turbocharger turbine diffuser ring A. An increased air temperature differential between the cooler inlet
B. preheating the air intake B. lower torque but higher brake horsepower and outlet.
C. aftercooling the intake air C. higher torque and higher brake horsepower B. Faulty turbocharger compressor ring B. A decrease in the air pressure differential across the cooler.
D. preheating light fuels D. lower torque and lower brake horsepower C. Insufficient cooling water flow C. Excessive condensate forming in the air box.
Ans: C Ans: C D. Clogged air intake filters D. A decrease in the temperature differential between the cooler inlet
1230 The air supplied to the cylinders by a turbocharger is often reduced 1231 The lobes of a Roots-type blower are sometimes twisted into a spiral and outlet
in volume by a/an ______________. formed around the axes of rotation to ____________. Ans: C Ans: D
A. air compressor A. decrease air losses around the lobes 1248 A turbocharged and aftercooled diesel engine can overspeed due to 1249 Which of the following conditions may be attributed to a fouled
B. diffuser B. decrease maintenance _____________. turbocharger compressor inlet screen or filter?
C. aftercooler C. allow for higher blower operating speeds A. air in the hydraulic governor A. Decreasing scavenge air pressure.
D. venturi D. produce a more constant airflow B. high ambient air temperature B. Increasing exhaust temperatures before the turbine.
Ans: C Ans: D C. oil leaking into the turbocharger compressor end C. Reduction in engine speed.
1232 Some diesel engines are equipped with a Roots-type blower to 1233 An aftercooler installed between the turbocharger and the cylinder D. insufficient piston ring blow-by D. All of the above
provide ______________. air inlet _____________. Ans: C Ans: D
A. more air to combine with the fuel A. increases the density of the air GOVERNOR AND OVERSPEED CONTROL
B. more amps per kilowatt hour B. decreases the density of the air 1250 Diesel engines driving alternators operating in parallel must maintain 1251 Increasing the load on an engine equipped with a constant speed
C. higher no-load RPMs C. increases the specific heat of the air a set frequency regardless of load changes. The governor mechanical governor, will cause the engine speed to initially
D. higher voltage output D. decreases the specific heat of the exhaust characteristic used to accomplish this is known as ____________. ___________.
Ans: A Ans: A
1234 When the load is increased on a turbocharged diesel engine, the 1235 The large number of mechanical and pulsating vibrations developed A. actuation A. increase
amount of increased air supplied by the turbocharger will in a diesel engine may damage an attached _____________. B. sensitivity B. decrease
_____________. C. compensation C. fluctuate
A. lag behind the increased fuel supplied to the engine A. scavenged air pump because it is designed for steady state D. promptness D. remain constant
operation rather than pulsating gas load Ans: C Ans: B
B. enter the engine along with the increase in fuel B. reciprocating scavenge pump because of its direct linkage to the 1252 How is the diesel engine operating RPM affected when a "ZERO 1253 If the main propulsion diesel engine governor works irregularly with
crankshaft DROOP" setting is selected on the governor? a jerking motion, a possible cause can be _____________.
C. enter the engine before the increased fuel supply C. rotary blower because it operates at close tolerances over a small
range of speeds and delivers its air charge at a certain resonant A. The RPM will drop to low idle when load is applied. A. a sticking fuel control linkage
frequency B. The RPM must be manually controlled by the load limit knob. B. a malfunctioning overload cam
D. leave the turbocharger as a negative pulse D. gas driven turbocharger because it has a wide speed range and high C. The governor has no control over RPM in this mode. C. an unlocked overspeed trip
temperature materials that are subject to resonant vibration D. The RPM will remain the same with or without load. D. floating valves
Ans: D Ans: A
Ans: A Ans: D 1254 On a diesel engine equipped with an isochronous governor, if the 1255 The required amount in the change of speed necessary before a
TURBOCHARGER AND AIRCOOLER - MAINTENANCE "speed droop" control is reduced to the "zero" setting, the engine governor will make a corrective movement is known as
1236 When the timing gear backclearance for a Roots-type blower has 1237 If over a period of weeks the air-box pressure of a turbocharged, _____________. _____________.
become excessive, the problem is properly repaired by diesel engine, operating at full load, appears to be dropping off, the A. speed will drop drastically with any increase in load A. speed droop
_____________. cause can be _____________. B. will stop due to zero fuel supply B. sensitivity
A. renewing the drive gear A. open air-box drains C. will stall upon application of load C. stability
B. renewing the driven gear B. loss of cooling water to the diffuser D. speed will remain fairly constant despite load changes D. promptness
C. renewing both driving and driven gears as a set C. gradual fouling of the air filters Ans: D Ans: B
D. shimming and pinning the gears with proper backclearance D. improperly timed exhaust valves 1256 Air bubbles in a hydraulic governor can cause _____________. 1257 Which of the listed governor operating characteristics is considered
Ans: C Ans: C to be isochronous?
1238 Which of the following conditions would require the removal of a 1239 If you observe smoke coming from the turbocharger of an auxiliary A. sluggish response A. Zero speed droop
turbocharger for repair? diesel engine, you should ______________. B. speed droop variations B. Positive speed droop
A. Nicked blades A. check the air filter for obstruction C. isochronous governing C. Negative speed droop
B. Broken blades B. check for an exhaust leak D. sensitivity increase D. Varying speed droop
C. Stretched blades C. check the exhaust temperature Ans: A Ans: A
D. All of the above D. secure the engine 1258 Governor hunting is caused by _____________. 1259 A continuous fluctuation of the speed, due to overcontrol by the
Ans: D Ans: D governor, is known as _____________.
1240 Following the failure of one turbocharger on a large, crosshead, 1241 Corrosion and grooving on the blading of an exhaust driven A. governor undercontrol A. hunting
main propulsion diesel engine, fitted with multiple turbochargers, turbocharger is caused by certain components of residual fuel oils. B. excessive speed droop B. sensitivity
which of the following actions should be taken prior to further These components are vanadium, sodium, and C. insufficient speed droop C. promptness
operation of the engine? ________________. D. governor overcontrol D. speed droop
A. Blank off the exhaust gas inlet to the damaged turbocharger. A. copper Ans: D Ans: A
B. Secure cooling and lubrication to the damaged turbocharger. B. carbon 1260 A direct acting, pneumatically controlled governor for a diesel engine 1261 After each speed change, the compression of the diesel engine
C. Lock the rotor of the damaged turbocharger. C. hydrogen operates in a range of 0.7 to 3.5 bar. The fuel rack position is at 20 governor speeder spring is returned to a constant value, regardless
D. All of the above. D. sulphur mm when the governor air pressure is 2.1bar. If the governor air of the amount of movement of the fuel control mechanism and
Ans: D Ans: D pressure changes to 1.4 bar, the fuel rack is at engine load. Hence, this results in ____________.
1242 An operating turbocharged diesel engine that suddenly loses power, 1243 While maneuvering, you discover heavy smoke coming from the
is due to a/an _____________. turbocharger casing, you should ____________. A. 13 millimeters A. speed droop governing
A. restricted turbocharger air intake A. check the air filter for dirt B. 17 millimeters B. isochronous governing
B. oil leak into the turbocharger B. check for an exhaust leak C. 22 millimeters C. high sensitivity governing
C. dribbling injector C. check the cooling water temperature D. 24 millimeters D. relay-type governing
D. low fuel viscosity D. notify the bridge that you are going to shut the engine down Ans: A Ans: B
Ans: A Ans: D 1262 An overspeed trip stops a diesel engine when the engine 1263 In a simple hydraulic governor with speed droop, oil under pressure
1244 Which of the following precautions should be taken when cleaning 1245 Which of the listed adjustments must be made to a naturally _____________. is maintained ready for use in the _____________.
the air filter on a diesel engine equipped with a turbocharger? aspirated four-stroke/cycle diesel engine if a turbocharger is to be A. runs out of fuel A. power piston
installed? B. has low lubricating oil pressure B. governor sump
A. Reduce engine speed to idle before removing the filter. A. Increase the compression ratio. C. exceeds a set maximum speed C. spring-loaded piston accumulator
B. Soak the dirty filter in kerosene only. B. Increase the exhaust and intake valve overlap. D. has high cooling water temperature D. pressure pilot valve assembly
C. Blow out the air inlet with compressed air. C. Increase the ignition lag. Ans: C Ans: C
 Page 67 Page 68

1264 Internal combustion engines are to be fitted with governors to 1265 Which of the listed governor characteristics will greatly affect the A. They are suitable for use on main propulsion units. A. 10 mm
prevent the engines from exceeding the rated speed by more than load sharing relationship between paralleled diesel generators? B. They strive to maintain a constant prime mover speed for all values B. 14 mm
______. of steady load.
A. 10 percent A. Sensitivity C. They cause a proportional drop in prime mover speed as the load is C. 15 mm
B. 15 percent B. Power increased.
C. 20 percent C. Speed droop D. They have poor sensitivity at low RPM D. 20 mm
D. 25 percent D. Compensation Ans: B Ans: D
Ans: B Ans: C 1284 Governors used on diesel engines to limit the load must be equipped 1285 The principal characteristic of an isochronous governor is it will
1266 When the prime movers of two paralleled generators are equipped 1267 A change in engine speed is required before a governor is able to with _____________. _____________.
with mechanical-hydraulic governors, and are operating within their make a corrective movement of fuel rack. This aspect of governing A. a fixed maximum fuel stop A. slow the machine down as the load is increased
designed range, the unit with the least amount of speed droop will is commonly expressed as a percent and is known as B. a variable maximum fuel stop B. shut down the engine if it overspeeds
____________. _______________. C. pivotless centrifugal flyballs C. display excessive speed droop
A. pick up more of any increase in load A. governor sensitivity D. a proportional action compensation mechanism D. maintains a constant speed with variation of loads
B. pick up less of any increase in load B. governor promptness Ans: B Ans: D
C. share an equal amount of any increase in load C. speed droop 1286 Which of the following devices is common to both mechanical and 1287 Which of the following devices is a common basic element with
D. drop an equal amount of any decrease in load D. isochronous governing hydraulic governors? nearly all mechanical governors?
Ans: A Ans: A A. Direct linkage between the ball-head and fuel rack A. Power piston
1268 The direct acting mechanical governor used with some small diesel 1269 Sensitivity for a diesel engine governor is described as the B. A servomotor B. Control rack
engines, controls fuel flow to the engine by _____________. _____________. C. A compensating device C. Weights acted on by centrifugal force
D. Flyweights D. Isochronous droop spring
A. governor flyweight action on a pilot valve which controls fuel A. percent of speed change necessary for corrective action by the fuel Ans: D Ans: C
injection control 1288 On most diesel engines, the governor controls the output speed by 1289 The governor controlling a diesel engine modulates crankshaft
B. governor flyweight motion acting on fuel controls through suitable B. ability to maintain desired engine speed without speed fluctuation _____________. RPM by adjusting the _____________.
linkage A. controlling the amount of fuel injected into the cylinders A. intake air supply
C. positioning a butterfly valve in the fuel delivery system C. governor's speed of response to variations in engine load B. varying the speed of the turbocharger B. turbocharger speed
D. positioning a servomotor piston attached to the fuel controls D. ability to maintain constant speed regardless of engine load C. adjusting the compression ratio C. fuel injection pumps
Ans: B Ans: A D. changing the timing of the fuel injection camshaft D. engine speed droop
1270 The ability of the governor to prevent fluctuations in engine speed is 1271 An overcorrecting and unstable engine governor operation is known Ans: A Ans: C
termed _____________. as ____________. 1290 Which of the items listed causes a direct acting mechanical governor 1291 A spring-loaded centrifugal flyweight governor responds to reduced
A. sensitivity A. droop to operate the engine fuel control linkage? engine load with an immediate increase in _________.
B. stability B. dead banding
C. promptness C. dash potting A. Hydraulic oil pressure A. pilot valve oil pressure
D. speed droop D. hunting B. Servomotor action B. speeder spring force
Ans: B Ans: D C. Flyweight centrifugal force C. compensation needle valve clearance
1272 For most diesel propulsion and generator engines, the overspeed 1273 A directly connected or geared main propulsion diesel engine should D. Relay motion D. centrifugal force on the fly weights
trip device will stop the engine by ____________. be fitted with a/an ____________. Ans: C Ans: D
A. moving the governor control to stop A. constant speed governor 1292 A diesel generator has just been paralleled with an AC 1293 In addition to the normal governor, each main engine havinga
B. shutting off the lubricating oil supply B. variable speed governor turbogenerator, but the load can not be properly divided. This could maximum continuous output of 300 hp and over, which canbe
C. tripping the governor emergency stop lever C. isochronous hunting governor be caused by _____________. declutched or which drives a controllable pitchpropeller,
D. shutting off the fuel supply D. nutating disk governor ______________.
Ans: D Ans: B A. an incorrect diesel generator governor speed droop adjustment A. is not required to have any additional overspeed protection provided
1274 An AC diesel generator incapable of being paralleled with the main 1275 Which of the speeder springs listed is more suitable for a governor a hydraulic governor is used
bus normally employs an isochronous governor in order to installed on an engine operating over a wide speed range? B. a faulty reverse power relay within the main circuit breaker assembly B. and is a direct reversible engine, is required to have an overspeed
_____________. trip set to secure the fuel to the engine when its rated speed is
A. increase speed droop in proportion to load A. Spiral exceeded by more than 15 percent
B. maintain a frequency of 60 cycles per second B. Conical C. unsynchronized isochronous load distribution adjustments C. is to be fitted with a separate overspeed device so adjusted that the
C. increase or decrease engine speed upon load demand C. Cylindrical speed cannot exceed the maximum rated speed by more than 20
D. prevent attempts to parallel D. Helical percent
Ans: B Ans: B D. a different speed setting on each unit D. will not require any additional overspeed protection provided a
1276 In a simple mechanical governor, the _____________. 1277 An overspeed trip serves to _____________. mechanical type governor is used
A. centrifugal force rotates the ball-head A. stop the engine by cutting off the cooling water supply Ans: A Ans: C
B. flyweight centrifugal force is balanced by spring force B. stop the engine by closing the air intake 1294 The overspeed trip device installed in some diesel engines is
C. flyweight centrifugal force is balanced by hydraulic pressure C. slow the engine but not stop it automatically actuated by _____________.
A. spring force
D. speeder spring alone actuates the fuel control rod D. slow the engine to half of normal load B. hydraulic pressure
Ans: B Ans: B C. centrifugal force
1278 If the speeder spring of a main propulsion diesel engine governor 1279 A diesel engine is equipped with an isochronous hydraulic governor. D. mechanical linkage
breaks while operating at full load, the engineRPM will __________. A decrease in load will cause the engine speed to ____________. Ans: C
GOVERNOR - MAINTENANCE
A. increase until the overspeed trip actuated A. decrease only 1295 The most common contaminate of governor hydraulic fluid is 1296 The purpose of the compensating adjustment used in a diesel
B. hunt until stabilized by the droop rod B. increase only ____________. engine hydraulic governor is to _____________.
C. decrease to a slightly lower value C. decrease slightly then returned to original speed A. moisture A. compensate for low oil level
D. remain the same until manually changed D. remein constant B. dirt B. increase governor promptness
Ans: C Ans: D C. acid C. prevent governor hunting
1280 The hunting of a diesel engine may be caused by ___________. 1281 If an engine operates at 900 RPM at no load, and at 870 RPMat full D. air D. limit engine load
load, the speed droop is _____________. Ans: B Ans: C
A. excessive speed droop A. 0.031 1297 During a routine round of a diesel engine generator, you observe a 1298 A large change in ambient temperature, or using an oil of a viscosity
B. insufficient speed droop B. 0.034 low oil level in the governor sump. If there is no visible sign of different than the one recommended by the manufacturer in a
C. excessive sensitivity C. 0.037 external leakage, you should suspect the cause to be a/an mechanical hydraulic governor, will result in the need to adjust the
D. low governor power D. 0.04 ________. ____________.
Ans: D Ans: B A. leakage through the governor drive shaft oil seal A. pilot valve opening
1282 Which of the following statements best describes the operational 1283 A diesel engine is fitted with a pneumatically actuated governor, B. leakage through the power piston oil seal B. compensating needle valve
characteristics of an isochronous governors? having an operating range of 0.7 to4.2 bar. The current fuel rack C. uncovered sight glass ventilation orifice C. compensating spring tension
setting is 15 mm at 2.1bar. If the air pressure to the governor is D. defect in the sight glass gasket D. accumulator spring tension
increased to 2.8 bar, the fuel rack position is Ans: A Ans: B
 Page 69 Page 70

1299 Where one or more diesel driven AC generators are operating in 1300 Which of the following adjustments is always required whenever the Ans: B Ans: A
parallel, reducing the value of the speed droop to "zero" on one unit diesel engine governor oil has been drained and renewed? 1317 Which of the following conditions can cause above normal air 1318 How much will the jacket water temperature normallyincrease
will allow that unit to ____________. temperature to develop in the intake manifold of a four- between the inlet and outlet of medium orhigh-speed diesel engines?
A. gradually reduce its speed as load is applied A. Speed droop stroke/cycle, turbocharged, diesel engine?
B. change load without changing speed B. Compensation A. Clogged air intake filters A. 1° to 3°C
C. automatically divide and balance the loads C. Idle speed setting B. Piston blow-by B. 3° to 5°C
D. effectively anticipate the amount of fuel necessary to bring the D. Load limit control C. A defective aftercooler C. 5° to 10°C
engine up to the proper output to accept the increased load D. Faulty exhaust valves D. 15° to 25°C
Ans: C Ans: C
Ans: B Ans: B 1319 Trunk type diesel engine pistons are effectively cooled when heat is 1320 Ring groove inserts are occasionally used on aluminum alloy pistons
1301 If the compensating needle valve of a hydraulic governor is opened 1302 If the load on a diesel engine equipped with an isochronous hydraulic ____________. to ____________.
more than necessary the governor will _____________. governor is increased, after compensation is performed by the A. radiated through the engine block A. reduce the ring groove wear rate
governor, the engine speed will __________. B. transferred to water cooled cylinder walls B. seal against crankcase vapors
C. conducted through the piston crown C. lessen the wear on aluminum parts of the cylinder
A. have a larger than normal dead band A. remain the same D. transferred to escaping exhaust gases D. allow for the greater expansion rate of aluminum
B. produce excessive speed response to a load change B. increase Ans: B Ans: A
C. respond slowly to any change in engine load C. decrease 1321 Broken intake valve springs on one cylinder of a diesel engine can 1322 Excessive lube oil consumption in a diesel engine can be caused by
D. stabilize engine speed at the new governor setting D. fluctuate cause the engine to _____________. _____________.
Ans: B Ans: A A. overspeed A. late combustion
1303 Trapped air was bled from the hydraulic system of a diesel engine 1304 If a hydraulic governor has been refilled with oil, the engine should B. fire improperly B. plugged oil wiper rings
governor while it had been operating at idle speed. Oil was added to be operated until it reaches normal temperature, then the air should C. lose oil pressure C. low lube oil temperature
restore the correct level and the air vent plug tightened. The be purged, and the _______. D. overheat rapidly D. low lube oil pressure
compensating needle valve should then be gradually ______ Ans: B Ans: B
1323 When the cold tappet clearance is less than that specified by the 1324 During the power stroke of a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine, most
A. opened until hunting is eliminated A. rack position should be adjusted engine manufacturer, the diesel engine valves will _____________. of the side thrust of a trunk-type piston is absorbed by the
B. closed until it is approximately 1/16 of a turn open B. compensating needle valve should be opened fully _____________.
C. closed to cause the engine to hunt in order to purge trapped air from C. compensating needle valve should be adjusted to stabilize operation A. open earlier than normal A. piston skirt
the new oil B. close earlier than normal B. pinion
D. closed until engine hunting is eliminated D. speed limiting device should be adjusted C. remain open for a shorter duration C. crosshead
Ans: D Ans: C D. fail to open when the valves are warm D. compression rings
1305 Friction developing between the moving parts of a governor, 1306 If the operating speed of a diesel engine increases without an Ans: A Ans: A
governor linkage and control valve will cause the governor to apparent change in the engine control settings, you may suspect a 1325 Excessive lube oil consumption can result from worn or broken 1326 Excessive piston ring wear in a diesel engine will cause
_________. ________. _____________. _____________.
A. react with insufficient speed droop A. clogged intake air intercooler A. piston rings A. high lube oil viscosity
B. fail to react to small speed changes B. control air leak B. valve guides B. increased lube oil consumption
C. have excessive sensitivity to small speed changes C. leaking air starting valve C. valve seals C. low lube oil temperatures
D. remain in the neutral position D. malfunctioning governor D. all of the above D. high firing pressures
Ans: B Ans: D Ans: D Ans: B
1307 The major cause of trouble in a mechanical-hydraulic governor is 1308 Adjustments to the compensating needle valve in a hydraulic 1327 Excessive lubricating oil consumption in a running diesel engine can 1328 In a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine, badly worn intake valve guides
contamination of the hydraulic fluid by _____________. governor should be made with the engine at _____________. be caused by _____________. can cause excessive ____________.
A. clogged lube oil piping A. exhaust pressure
A. dirt A. maximum power at a normal load B. excessive valve-guide clearance B. exhaust temperatures
B. fuel oil B. maximum power and load under normal conditions C. high lube oil viscosity C. cooling water temperatures
C. governor cooling water C. half speed and normal temperature D. low lube oil temperature D. lube oil consumption
D. fuel oil tars D. normal operating temperature without a load Ans: B Ans: D
Ans: A Ans: D 1329 The camshaft on a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine is used to operate 1330 A diesel engine valve spring is under compression when thevalve is
1309 On a diesel engine equipped with a hydraulic speed control 1310 A diesel generator governor is hunting. After changing the oil the the _____________. _________. I. open II. closed
governor, hunting in many cases can be corrected by adjusting the governor is flushed and the compensation needle valve is adjusted; A. fuel injectors A. I only
_____________. but the hunting persists. You should NOW _____________. B. exhaust valves B. II only
C. intake valves C. both I and II
A. accumulator spring compression A. check air intake manifold pressure D. all of the above D. neither I nor II
B. balance piston B. calibrate the fuel pump rack settings Ans: D Ans: C
C. compensating needle valve C. set the speed droop adjustment to zero 1331 The force exerted by a valve spring to close the diesel engine 1332 Exhaust pipes for separate diesel engines can be combined only
D. proportional piston D. carefully check for binding in the governor linkage valves, is proportional to _____________. when _____________.
Ans: C Ans: D A. spring compression A. space limitations prevent separately run pipes
1311 Compensating needle valve adjustments to a hydraulic governor 1312 If a main propulsion diesel engine hunts excessively at idle speed, B. engine speed B. the engines are small auxiliary units
should be made with the engine _____________. you should ____________. C. the natural frequency of vibration C. they are arranged to prevent gas backflow to each engine
A. running at normal operating temperature without load A. adjust the idle speed control D. spring surge D. a waste heat boiler is installed
B. running at half speed and at normal temperature B. drain and flush the governor and replace the oil Ans: A Ans: C
C. running at maximum power and load under normal conditions C. adjust the compensating needle valve 1333 Spring surge in diesel engine valve springs can result in 1334 The satisfactory operation of diesel engine exhaust valves usually
D. developing maximum power at normal load D. adjust the load limit _____________. depends on ______________.
Ans: A Ans: C A. increasing effective spring force A. the proper back pressure
FOUR STROKE ENGINES - DESIGN,COMPONENTS AND OPERATION B. bouncing of the valve gear B. the cooling water temperature
1313 Which of the following methods is normally used to lubricate 1314 Clearance volume scavenging in a turbocharged, four-stroke/cycle C. splitting of the valve keeper collars C. correct timing and proper seating
bearings in a small high-speed diesel engine? diesel engine is accomplished ___________. D. failure of the valve to open D. accurate metering and the exhaust temperature
A. Spclearance lubrication A. during the valve overlap period Ans: B Ans: C
B. Pressure lubrication B. with only the exhaust valve open 1335 The angular distance a flywheel rotates between the firing of the 1336 On a medium-speed main propulsion diesel engine, the crankpin or
C. Sight feed lubricators C. at a pressure below atmospheric cylinders of a V-16, four-stroke/cycle diesel engine is crank journal bearings receive lubricating oil from _____________.
D. Mechanical lubricators D. without cooling the cylinders or pistons _____________.
Ans: B Ans: A A. 22.50‚ A. a spindle lubricator
1315 Trunk-type diesel engine pistons are most effectively cooled by heat 1316 The reversing cams of some four-stroke/cycle diesel engines are B. 33.75‚ B. an oil jet
_____________. brought into position by ____________. C. 45.00‚ C. internal spclearanceing
A. conducted through the engine block A. sliding the camshaft along its axis D. 90.00‚ D. drilled passages in the crankshaft
B. conducted to water cooled cylinder walls B. rotating the cam 180° Ans: C Ans: D
C. conducted through the piston crown C. rotating the cam followers 180°
D. losses to escaping exhaust gases D. moving the idler sprockets in the drive chain
 Page 71 Page 72

1337 In comparison to exhaust valves, intake valves of diesel engines
may be fabricated from low-alloy steels because _____________.
A. the beveled edges of the intake valves provide for self-centering
during seating
B. intake valves utilize stellite-coated valve seat inserts which reduce
wear
1338 Multiple concentric valve springs are often used with diesel engine Ans: D Ans: D
valves to ____________. 1355 The use of push rods are necessary in a diesel engine when 1356 When attempting to restart a warm high-speed engine, which of the
_____________. following reactions can you expect?
A. enable research and development of cam contour to be simplified A. the camshaft is located some distance below the rocker arms A. Excessive fuel use
B. operate the valve gear where a larger force is normally required, but B. the rocker arms are pivoted near their centers B. Higher than normal temperatures for start up
space limitations restrict the use of a single large spring C. two or more valves must be opened and closed at the same time C. Longer starting periods

C. the volume of air passing through intake valves is less than the C. allow for easier valve replacement D. hydraulic tappet clearance adjusters are used D. Higher than normal lube oil pressure
volume of air passing through exhaust valves Ans: A Ans: B
D. intake valves are less affected to the corrosive action of exhaust D. enable a total smaller valve spring force to keep the valve tight on its 1357 Proper lubrication of the main bearings is more easily obtained in a 1358 Cams used to activate mechanically operated air starting valves on
gases seat single acting four-stroke/cycle diesel engine than in a single acting four-stroke/cycle diesel engines should have which of the valve lift
Ans: D Ans: B two-stroke/cycle diesel engine because ____________. profiles listed?
1339 Before shutting off the fuel supply to stop a medium or high-speed 1340 Cooling water pumps driven by direct reversing diesel engines are
diesel engine, why is it necessary to allow the engine to idle for a usually of the straight impeller vane type pump with a concentric A. bearing pressure in a four-stroke/cycle single acting diesel engine is A. Abrupt lift with a short open period, and abrupt valve seating.
few minutes? housing to ____________. continually reversed
A. To let the waste heat boiler reduce it's rate of steam generation. A. provide cooling water flow when the engine is running either ahead B. bearing pressure in a two-stroke/cycle single acting diesel engine is B. Gradual lift with a short fully open period, and accelerated valve
or astern continually reversed closing.
B. To ensure the fuel nozzles are flushed clean. B. provide the greatest pump efficiency C. the maximum bearing pressure is higher in a single acting two- C. Abrupt lift giving full valve opening for a long period, with gradual
C. To clear the smoke stack. C. prevent pump clogging from marine growth stroke/cycle diesel engine valve seating.
D. To prevent internal damage from local overheating. D. prevent cavitation at the pump outlet D. two-stroke/cycle diesel enginesrequire more complicated lubrication D. Gradual lift giving full valve opening for a long period, with gradual
Ans: D Ans: A piping valve seating.
1341 In a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine, the camshaft rotates at 1342 Fuel oil begins injection into the cylinder of a four-stroke/cycle diesel Ans: A Ans: C
_____________. engine during the _____________. 1359 In a diesel engine, with the valves set to specification, the shape of 1360 Which type of gudgeon pin uses bearings in the piston bosses, but is
A. twice the crankshaft speed A. intake stroke the cam determines the valve _____________. fixed to the small end of the connecting rod?
B. half the crankshaft speed B. exhaust stroke A. point of opening A. Semi-floating
C. the same speed as the crankshaft C. power stroke B. speed of opening B. Full floating
D. a speed independent of the crankshaft D. compression stroke C. lift from its seat C. Solid
Ans: B Ans: D D. all of the above D. Fixed
1343 A piston in a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine makes four strokes 1344 What is the speed of the crankshaft in a four-stroke/cycle engine Ans: D Ans: A
during each __________. when the camshaft is turning at 750 rpm? 1361 A turbocharged, four-stroke/cycle diesel engine has a larger valve 1362 To reduce the weight of the reciprocating parts, pistons of high-
A. crankshaft revolution A. 375 RPM overlap than a naturally aspirated, four-stroke/cycle diesel engine in speed engines are made considerably shorter. This results in
B. mechanical cycle of operation B. 500 RPM order to increase the _____________. _____________.
C. period of two combustion cycles C. 750 RPM A. temperature of the exhaust gases A. less piston slap and quieter running
D. cycle of two events D. 1500 RPM B. energy supplied to the turbocharger B. increased crankshaft bearing wear
Ans: B Ans: D C. air pressure to the intake manifold C. slightly greater piston wear
1345 Regarding jerk-type fuel pumps as used on some auxiliary diesel 1346 What is the crank angle between any two crank throws in the firing D. cooling effect on the exhaust valves D. decreased side pressures
engines, the delivery cutoff point is controlled with a order of a four-stroke/cycle, in line, eight cylinder diesel engine? Ans: D Ans: C
_____________. 1363 Valves in the cylinder head of a diesel engine are opened by the 1364 High-speed, multi-cylinder, diesel engines commonly use
A. delivery valve spring A. 45° direct action of the _____________. counterweights placed opposite to the crankpins to ________.
B. spill port for leakoff B. 60°
C. check valve in the guide C. 90° A. exhaust pressure A. prevent bearing loads
D. helical groove on the plunger D. 100° B. valve spring pressure B. provide dynamic balance by equalizing centrifugal force
Ans: D Ans: C C. rocker arm movement C. counteract inertia forces
1347 The firing order of an in-line, four-stroke/cycle, six cylinder, auxiliary 1348 Precombustion chambers, air cells, and energy cells in high- speed, D. gudgeon pin movement D. provide a balance of rocking couples around the crankshaft
diesel engine is 1-5-3-6-2-4. When the #1 cylinder is firing at top small bore diesel engines all serve to increase _____________. Ans: C Ans: B
dead center, the #3 piston is ____________. 1365 A four-stroke/cycle six cylinder in-line diesel engine has a firing order 1366 In a diesel engine closed freshwater cooling system employing a
A. on the intake stroke A. firing pressure of 153624. When cylinder #6 is firing at top dead center, piston #4 is radiator, proper water temperature can be obtained by
B. on top dead center B. ignition quality of fuel ____________. _____________.
C. on the power stroke C. fuel/air ratio during compression A. at top dead center A. adjusting the radiator louvers
D. at bottom dead center D. turbulence B. on the compression stroke B. passing cooling water through a space heater
Ans: A Ans: D C. at bottom dead center C. passing cooling water through the lube oil cooler
1349 Which of the following statements represents the advantage of a 1350 In a full floating gudgeonpin, the pin is prevented from sliding D. on the intake stroke D. piping exhaust gases across the radiator front
precombustion chamber used in an auxiliary diesel engine? against the cylinder walls by _____________. Ans: D Ans: A
1367 In an auxiliary diesel engine bypass type lubricating oil system, the 1368 If a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine is running at 1550 RPM, the
A. Timing of injection does not need to be exact. A. snap rings main lube oil pump forces _____________. speed of the camshaft will be _____________.
B. Turbulence is eliminated. B. seal welding A. all of the oil used by the engine through a filter A. 525 RPM
C. Lower mean effective pressures are developed. C. a press fitting B. some of the oil used by the engine through a filter B. 775 RPM
D. Excellent control of combustion can be attained. D. a tongue-and-groove C. some of the oil used by the engine through a centrifuge C. 1550 RPM
Ans: A Ans: A D. cylinder clearance volume D. 1800 RPM
1351 The exhaust valve opens before bottom dead center in a four stroke 1352 A V-12 four-stroke/cycle 500 horsepower diesel engine is operating Ans: B Ans: B
engine to___________. I. allow for blow down II. reduce pumping under a normal load, the firing pressures are low and the exhaust 1369 An inline engine having a 225mm bore and more than eight cylinders 1370 An advantage of aluminum pistons, when compared to cast iron
losses temperatures are high. Which of the following problems is the most will _________. pistons is _____________.
probable cause of this condition? A. incorporate the use of two explosion relief valves A. greater high temperature strength
B. have three explosion relief valves B. better heat conductivity
A. I only A. Fuel pump rack setting is too far out. C. have at least eight explosion relief valves C. greater weight per cubic cm
B. II only B. The air intake filter is missing. D. not be required to have explosion relief valves D. increased resistance to wear
C. both I and II C. The exhaust back pressure is too high. Ans: B Ans: B
D. neither I nor II D. The fuel pump rack setting is too far in. 1371 An electric heater built into some smaller diesel engines is used to 1372 In a bypass type filtering system for a medium or high speed diesel
Ans: C Ans: C _____________. engine, the lube oil bypassing the filter __________.
1353 In order to keep excess oil from the intake ports in two-stroke/cycle 1354 One advantage obtained from the use of a precombustion chamber A. raise lube oil viscosity for easier starting in cold weather A. returns directly to the suction side of the pump
diesel engines, ______________. in a diesel engine is _____________. B. increase air inlet temperature B. returns directly to the sump
A. wide compression rings are used A. increased engine thermal efficiency C. increase compression ratio C. flows to the engine bearings
B. oil rings are located above the piston pin B. higher peak cylinder pressures D. increase jacket water temperature for easier starting in cold weather D. flows through a second-stage strainer, reheater, and returns to the
C. dense chromium plating is used on all piston rings C. higher developed BMEP sump
D. oil rings are located near the bottom of the piston skirt D. smoother combustion Ans: D Ans: C
 Page 73 Page 74

1373 The camshaft on a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine provides a means 1374 In a single acting, four-stroke/cycle diesel engine, the power impulse C. valve cover C. length of the cylinder liner
to operate the _____________. in an individual cylinder occurs ____________. D. engine frame D. speed of the engine
A. fuel injectors A. once every crankshaft revolution Ans: B Ans: B
B. exhaust valves B. once every two crankshaft revolutions 1391 In a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine, after the completion of the 1392 During the diesel engine power stroke, the side thrust of a trunk type
C. intake valves C. once every piston stroke power stroke, the piston will move _________________. piston is a result of the angle _____________.
D. all of the above D. twice every piston stroke A. up and draw in a fresh air charge A. formed by the connecting rod and cylinder center line
Ans: D Ans: B B. down to burn off fuel B. of the bevel on the piston oil control rings
1375 If fuel injection to a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine begins earlier 1376 Air motion is induced in a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine cylinder to C. down to compress the fuel air charge C. formed by the crank arm and crank pin
than designed, ignition may be delayed because the improve air fuel mixing, and is known as _____________. D. up and force out the exhaust gases D. formed bythe master and link connecting rods
____________. Ans: D Ans: A
A. cylinder compression pressure may not be high enough A. supercharging 1393 Which of the listed design features is found in an exhaust valve and 1394 A connecting rod in a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine is subject to
B. cylinder compression temperature may be too high B. scavenging NOT in an intake valve? ____________.
C. fuel oil injection pressure may not be high enough C. turbulence A. Hard alloy steel construction A. tension load twice each crankshaft revolution
D. scavenge and purge process is incomplete D. swept volume charging B. Beveled edges on the valve head B. compression load during power and compression strokes
Ans: A Ans: C C. Low alloy steel construction C. inertia load once every four crankshaft revolutions
1377 One of the most common methods in preventing a diesel engine 1378 In the operating cycle of a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine, blowdown D. Poppet type design D. bending loads at bottom and top dead center
piston pin from contacting the cylinder wall is by the use of to exhaust manifold pressure must occur before the piston begins Ans: A Ans: B
____________. the exhaust stroke to avoid _____________. 1395 A disadvantage of a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine is 1396 In a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine the intake valves open _______.
_____________.
A. non-floating pin A. pressure losses A. higher working temperature of piston and cylinder A. before TDC and close after BDC
B. tape rod bosses B. exhaust pulsations B. the use of scavenge ports B. after TDC and close after BDC
C. snap rings C. excessive scavenging C. fewer power strokes per revolution of the crankshaft C. before TDC and close before BDC
D. offset drilling D. pumping losses D. part of the fuel is burned as the piston is moving away from top dead D. after TDC and close before BDC
Ans: C Ans: D centre
1379 Exhaust pipes of multiple engine installations are not to be 1380 Proper lubrication of the main bearings is more easily obtained in a Ans: C Ans: A
interconnected, but are to be run separately to the atmosphere single acting, four-stroke/cycle diesel engine than in a two- FOUR STROKE ENGINE - MAINTENANCE
_______. stroke/cycle diesel engine because __________. 1397 Increasing the valve clearance between a valve stem and rocker 1398 If the oil control rings were installed upside down on a diesel engine
arm, will result in the valve _____________. piston, which of the following conditions would result?
A. unless arranged to prevent the return of gases to an idle engine A. the direction of pressure on the journals in four-stroke engines is
continuously reversing, whereas in two-stroke engines it is constant A. closing later A. Excessive oil pumping would occur.
B. opening sooner B. The rings would tend to overheat.
B. to a point not lower than the highest load line B. positive feed lubricators are installed on all bearings of four-stroke C. staying open for a shorter period of time C. The ring grooves would be blocked.
engines, whereas as a spclearance feed system is used on two- D. staying open for a longer period of time D. Tendency for ring breakage is increased.
stroke engines Ans: C Ans: A
C. at a location segregated from other ventilation systems C. four-stroke engines usually utilize a heavier grade of fuel oil than two- 1399 Which of the listed problems would be indicated by an accumulation 1400 If a clicking sound is being produced from within the valve
stroke engines of water in one cylinder, in addition to the crankcase of an idle diesel compartment of a diesel engine, the cause may be __________.
D. and shall be protected by a rain guard or similar device D. two-stroke engines usually consume less lube oil than four-stroke engine?
engines A. Excessive condensation in that cylinder. A. a loose valve stem and guide
Ans: A Ans: A B. Water in the fuel system. B. excessive tappet clearances
1381 During the power stroke, the side thrust of a trunk type piston is a 1382 Auxiliary diesel engines can be automatically shut down as a result C. Cracked cylinder liner. C. a stuck valve
result of the angle ____________. of __________. D. Leaking lube oil cooler. D. all of the above
A. formed by the connecting rod and the cylinder center line A. low lube oil temperature Ans: C Ans: D
B. formed by the piston in relation to the piston pin B. low lube oil pressure 1401 If there is a "clicking" sound in the valve compartment of adiesel 1402 Water accumulating in the crankcase of a diesel engine could
C. between the crankarm and crankpin C. high exhaust temperature engine, the cause may be _____________. indicate _____________.
D. between the master and link connecting rods D. high cooling water pressure A. a worn gudgeon pin A. a cracked cylinder liner
Ans: A Ans: B B. excessive tappet clearance B. excessive water in the fuel
1383 An emergency diesel generator should automatically shut down in 1384 Prior to starting most medium-speed propulsion diesel engines, C. worn connecting rod bearings C. a leaking intercooler
the event of __________. which of the procedures listed should be observed? D. all of the above D. excessive moisture in the scavenge air
A. dangerous overspeeding A. The expansion tank should be topped off. Ans: B Ans: A
B. a loss of lube oil pressure B. The fuel filters should be changed. 1403 A sudden drop in compression pressure in one cylinder of a diesel 1404 If the piston groove drain holes for the oil control rings become
C. the activation of the fixed CO2 system for the emergency generator C. The thermostatic water regulating valves should be manually engine can be caused by _____________. clogged, which of the following is likely to occur?
space opened. A. a leaking fuel injector nozzle A. The oil control rings will seat improperly and wear rapidly.
D. All of the above. D. The engine should be turned over slowly with the indicator cocks B. bourdon gauge B. The piston will overheat due to insufficient lubrication.
open. C. excessively early fuel injection C. Excessive oil will remain on the cylinder wall.
Ans: D Ans: D D. malfunctioning valves D. Light brown smoke will emanate from the engine exhaust.
1385 During warm-up the expansion of valve stems due to engine heat, is 1386 High lube oil temperatures developing in a diesel engine can result Ans: D Ans: C
allowed for by the _____________. from _____________. 1405 If you increase the clearance between a valve stem and rocker arm, 1406 Bearing clearances in small high-speed diesel engines should be
A. valve springs A. high oil pressure which of the listed conditions will occur? measured using _____________.
B. hydraulic governor B. excessive bearing end play A. Valve will open later. A. gauge blocks
C. tappet clearance C. plugged oil control rings B. Valve will close later. B. plasti-gauge
D. cooling system D. engine overload C. Amount of fuel injected will be increased. C. feeler gauges
Ans: C Ans: D D. Amount of fuel injected will be decreased. D. round solder wire
1387 In a medium speed diesel engine, a trunk type piston may becooled 1388 The shape of a cam on a diesel engine determines the valve's Ans: A Ans: B
by ____________.I. oil circulation though passages in the piston __________. 1407 A loud clicking noise occurring from within the valve compartment of 1408 On small diesel engines, a noticeable decrease in the time interval
crown II. heat transfer through piston rings and liner wall an operating diesel engine would indicate _____________. between the replacement of the lube filter cartridge indicates
____________.
A. I only A. point of opening A. worn valve seats A. piston ring blow-by
B. II only B. speed of opening B. tight rocker arm springs B. dirty air filter
C. either I or II C. lift from its seat C. excessive tappet clearance C. excessive oil pressure
D. neither I nor II D. All of the above are correct. D. weak rocker arm springs D. excessive oil temperature
Ans: C Ans: D Ans: C Ans: A
1389 One end of a cylinder for a medium or high-speed diesel engine is 1390 The side pressure per unit of area, resulting from the angularity of 1409 To check the setting of the overspeed trip on a diesel powered 1410 Immediately after starting a small high-speed diesel engine, you
sealed by the piston and rings, the other end is sealed by the the motion of the connecting rod, depends primarily on the generator, you would use a _____________. should check the _____________.
____________. ____________. A. tachometer A. cooling water temperature
A. crankcase A. weight of the piston B. torsion meter B. lube oil temperature
B. cylinder head B. length of the piston C. dynamometer C. fuel pressure
 Page 75 Page 76

D. pony brake D. lube oil pressure Ans: C Ans: C

Ans: A Ans: D 1431 If an auxiliary diesel engine coolant temperature is higher than 1432 In a trunk type diesel engine piston, the thickness of the head or
1411 Increasing the exhaust valve tappet clearance of a diesel engine will 1412 A faulty thermostatic bypass valve, in a diesel engine cooling normal, but the thermostat is determined not to be defective, you crown is determined by the ___________. I. strength requirement
result in the exhaust valve opening __________. system, can result in _____________. would suspect a/an ___________. II. heat dissipation requirement
A. later and closing earlier A. excessive time required for warming-up A. cavitation erosion in the water jackets A. I only
B. later and closing later B. excessive freshwater corrosion B. excess corrosion inhibitor in the coolant B. II only
C. earlier and closing earlier C. scale formation on the saltwater side C. dirty jacket water cooler C. both I and II
D. earlier and closing later D. saltwater mixing with the freshwater D. defective turbocharger D. neither I nor II
Ans: A Ans: A Ans: C Ans: C
1413 When using a fuel with a higher than normal sulphur content in an 1414 Which of the following problems can cause excessive consumption 1433 Heat damage to fuel injection nozzles on small high-speed diesel 1434 tappet clearance, or clearance refers to the _____________.
auxiliary diesel engine, you should _____________. of the lubricating oil in a diesel engine? engines, can be prevented by _____________.
A. maintain higher than normal jacket water temperature A. Dirty lube oil filters A. employing fuel oil as a cooling medium A. clearance between valve spindle and guide
B. change the lube oil more frequently than normal B. Excessive piston ring wear B. preventing hard carbon deposit on nozzle tips B. compression of the valve springs
C. maintain a higher air-box temperature than normal C. Excessively high lube oil viscosity C. avoiding fuel oil temperature exceeding builder's specification C. clearance between the valve seat inserts and the head
D. maintain a higher air-box pressure than normal D. Excessively low lube oil temperatures
Ans: B Ans: B D. ensuring good metallic contact between nozzles and cylinder heads D. clearance between the top of the valve stem and the rocker arm
1415 If the intake, or exhaust valve stem clearance is found to be 1416 Which of the following problems represents one possible cause of
excessive, in addition to too little movement of the rocker arms, you high lube oil consumption in a four stroke diesel engine? Ans: D Ans: D
should check for _____________. 1435 Which of the following precautions must be taken if an electric 1436 If the tappet clearance on a diesel engine is set improperly, which of
A. collapsed hydraulic valve lifters A. Worn intake valve guides immersion heater is used to keep the coolant in a diesel engine the following statements represents the most serious problem that
B. loose valve spring locks B. Pitted precombustion chambers warm during the time the engine is secured? can develop?
C. worn valve seats C. Loose valve tappets A. The coolant temperature must be maintained at 180°F. A. Too little clearance will cause noisy operation and excessive wear.
D. broken valve springs D. High exhaust back pressure
Ans: A Ans: A B. The thermostatic bypass valves must be manually opened before B. Too much clearance will cause the valve to open early and close
1417 The service life of a worn aluminum piston for an auxiliary diesel, for 1418 Which of the changes in the valve timing listed should be carried out the engine is started. late.
which no spares are readily available, can be extended by when a naturally aspirated four-stroke/cycle diesel engine is C. The pressure cap must be removed while the engine is secured. C. Too little clearance may prevent the valves from seating properly.
____________. converted to a supercharged engine?
A. turning down the piston skirt to concentric values A. Retard the intake valve opening and advance the exhaust valve D. Electrical power to the heater must be secured before the cooling D. Too much clearance may prevent combustion through loss of
closing period. system is drained compression.
B. knurling the piston skirt surface B. Advance the intake and exhaust valve opening period. Ans: D Ans: C
C. building up the piston skirt with a liquid epoxy material and then C. Advance the intake valve opening and retard the exhaust valve 1437 Bearing clearances in small high-speed diesel engines should be 1438 In an auxiliary diesel engine, the reason for knurling the piston skirt
remachining closing periods. measured with _____________. is to __________.
D. increasing the dimensions of the ring land grooves D. Retard the intake and exhaust valve closing period. A. gauge blocks A. improve skirt lubrication
Ans: B Ans: C B. plasti-gauge B. allow for expansion
1419 A loud clicking noise from the valve compartment of an operating 1420 Excessively worn, or polished ends on a diesel engine valve spring, C. feeler gauge C. transmit forces evenly
diesel engine would indicate _____________. indicate ________________. D. round solder wire D. improve the piston seal
A. worn valve seats A. burned exhaust valves Ans: B Ans: A
B. worn main bearings B. excessive spring compression 1439 When the cold tappet clearance is less than that specified by the 1440 If clearance between a piston and the cylinder wall is excessive,
C. excessive valve clearance C. spring surge manufacturer, diesel engine valves, operating at normal piston slap will occur. The slap itself is caused by ______________.
D. weak rocker arm springs D. worn valve seats temperatures, will ______________.
Ans: C Ans: C A. open later than normal A. alternation of side thrust
1421 Excessive valve clearance will cause a valve to open 1422 In a diesel engine, blow-by is a result of combustion gases leaking B. close later than normal B. a breakdown of the lube oil film on the cylinder wall
_____________. into the crankcase past the _____________. C. have less total lift C. worn piston boss piston pin bearings
A. early and close early A. gudgeon pin bushings D. fail to open when the valves are warm D. fluctuating gas pressure in the combustion space
B. early and close late B. compression rings Ans: B Ans: A
C. late and close early C. cylinder liner seals 1441 Excessive tappet clearance in an auxiliary diesel engine will cause 1442 Poor quality fuel being used in a turbocharged medium-speed, diesel
D. late and close late D. cylinder liner sealing ring the valves to open _____________. engine could result in ________________.
Ans: C Ans: B A. later and close sooner A. hard starting
1423 Reducing the clearance between a valve stem and rocker arm will 1424 Excessive vibration in an operating diesel generator may be caused B. sooner and close later B. excessive fuel consumption
result in the valve _____________. by _____________. C. sooner and close sooner C. loss of power
A. having a shorter duration of opening A. electrical overload D. later and close later D. all of the above
B. having a longer duration of opening B. surging at governed RPM Ans: A Ans: D
C. closing sooner C. loose engine mounting bolts 1443 Cold clearances between the skirt of an aluminum piston and the 1444 Improperly fitted piston rings in a diesel engine can cause
D. opening later D. coolant leaking into the cylinder cylinder liner is about ______________. _____________.
Ans: B Ans: C A. twice as large as with a cast iron piston A. excessive lube oil consumption
1425 If you were inspecting the valve springs on an auxiliary diesel 1426 If the valve tappets in a diesel engine are set at greater clearances B. the same size as with a cast iron piston B. lower than normal lube oil temperature
engine, your best indication of impending spring failure would be than those specified by the engine manufacturer, those valves will C. half as large as with a cast iron piston C. higher than normal exhaust back pressure
_____________. _____________. D. the same size as the crown of an aluminum piston D. excessive crankshaft endplay
A. a glazed surface on the spring A. open late and close early Ans: A Ans: A
B. nicks in the protective coating B. open late and close late 1445 A four-stroke, cycle, turbocharged, 1000 horsepower diesel engine 1446 A 16 cylinder main propulsion diesel engine is operating at 90% of
C. a buildup of sludge deposits C. fail to open when the engine is cold has been operating under load. The load suddenly increases, full load. All cylinder exhaust temperatures are indicated at 450°C,
D. cracks in the surface of the spring D. fail to open at normal operating temperature causing excessive black exhaust smoke, and a rapid rise in the lube except the No. 7 cylinder which is indicated at 550°C. All fuel racks
Ans: D Ans: A oil temperature. In response to this condition, you should _ are at 21-22 mm except No. 7 which is at 16mm.
1427 The overspeeding of the diesel engine driving an electric generator 1428 Excessive piston ring wear in a diesel engine will cause
could cause ______________. _____________. A. reduce load A. Replace and retime No. 7 cylinder fuel pump.
A. low voltage trip to trip A. high lube oil viscosity B. check your exhaust B. Pull No. 7 cylinder piston and examine the rings.
B. reverse power trip to trip B. abnormal lube oil consumption C. adjust cooling water temperature C. Examine the governor linkage for binding.
C. damage to windings C. low lube oil temperatures D. increase the lube oil flow D. Check the intake manifold pressure for evidence of burned intake
D. excessive exhaust temperatures D. high firing pressures valves.
Ans: C Ans: B Ans: A Ans: A
1429 Worn diesel engine intake valve guides can result in 1430 In a diesel engine, the spring force required for proper valve 1447 Irregular engine speed in a diesel generator can be caused by 1448 Decreasing the exhaust valve clearance of a diesel engine will cause
_____________. operation is determined by _____________. _____________. the exhaust valve to open ______________.
A. increased engine breathing efficiency A. maximum firing pressure A. high generator load A. earlier and have less lift
B. excessive tappet clearance B. minimum firing pressure B. low fuel viscosity B. earlier and remain open longer
C. excessive lube oil consumption C. cam contour C. high injection pressure C. later and have greater lift
D. lower than normal fuel consumption D. length of the spring D. binding in the fuel control linkage D. later and have less duration
 Page 77 Page 78

Ans: D Ans: B 1464 The burner assembly on an automatically fired auxiliary boiler fitted 1465 If the combustion control system of an automatically fired auxiliary
1449 A 16-cylinder diesel engine is operating at 75% load. All exhaust with variable capacity, pressure atomizing burners, maintains steam boiler fails to sustain burner ignition after a normal shutdown, you
temperatures are between 400° and 450°C, except the #3 cylinder pressure by ______________. should check for a/an __________.
reading of 300°C. All fuel rack settings are between 21 and 22 A. cycling on and off A. faulty photocell detector
millimeters, with the #3 rack at 17 mm. What will you do? B. changing fuel oil return pressure B. low steam pressure
C. changing the speed of a rotary cup C. high voltage on the ignition electrode
A. Reduce engine load. D. varying air pressure supplied to the nozzle D. open air damper
B. Stop the engine and change out the #3 fuel nozzle. Ans: B Ans: A
C. Increase the #3 rack setting and watch the exhaust temperature. 1466 A three-way thermostatic control valve regulates the diesel engine 1467 The primary function of a flame safeguard system, as used on an
cooling water temperature by passing a portion of the water automatically fired auxiliary boiler, is to prevent ____________.
D. Stop the engine and adjust the #3 cylinder pump timing. _____________.
Ans: C A. around the engine A. accidental dry firing and overpressure
AUTOMATION - INSTRUMENTATION B. around the cooler B. uncontrolled fires in the furnace
1450 Why do most temperature control valves in diesel engine closed 1451 Which of the following statements is true concerning pressure limit C. to the expansion tank C. explosions in the boiler furnace
freshwater cooling systems vary the flow of jacket water through the switches and pressostats installed on auxiliary boilers? D. overboard D. overheating of the pressure parts
cooler instead of through the engine? Ans: B Ans: C
A. Changing the rate of flow in the jackets could cause localized hot A. They are bimetallic elements sensing temperature differentials 1468 All automatically fired low pressure heating boilers must have an 1469 The fuel supply system to an automatic auxiliary boiler, will be
spots. corresponding to pressure changes. automatic ____________. automatically shutdown if the boiler ______________.
B. Emergency hand control would not be possible if water flow through B. They consist of a bellows assembly, linked with a snap action A. fuel cutoff as a result of low water A. salinity is abnormally high
the jackets were controlled. switch, through a pressure adjusting mechanism. B. pressure-control regulator B. steam demand is too high
C. Excessive cooling would take place in the heat exchangers at high C. They automatically relieve excessive steam pressure by acting as a C. feedwater control valve C. water level is abnormally low
loads. pilot to the safety valve. D. superheat control system D. feedwater flow is low
D. Excessive cavitation erosion would take place in the coolers. D. They automatically restart the burner sequence via the high water Ans: A Ans: C
level signal 1470 Automatic burner shutdown in an auxiliary boiler, as a result of a 1471 In a diesel engine closed freshwater cooling system, the amount of
Ans: A Ans: B component failure in the flame safeguard controls, will coolant flowing through the heat exchanger is controlled by the
1452 If the combustion control system of an automatically fired auxiliary 1453 A sudden flame failure in an operating auxiliary boiler, equipped with _______________. _____________.
boiler fails to relight the burner after a normal shutdown, you should an automatic combustion control system and burning light fuel, could A. prevent the boiler from automatically relighting A. suction pressure regulator
check for a/an ____________. be attributed to a______________. B. eliminate the need for furnace purging B. thermostatic bypass valve
A. low steam pressure A. dead or malfunctioning step up transformer C. cause automatic restart after a purge period C. sea water temperature
B. high voltage on the ignition electrode B. faulty ignition cable connector D. cause an explosion in the boiler furnace D. water level in the expansion tank
C. open air damper C. loose connection on the photocell Ans: A Ans: B
D. faulty photocell detector D. rapid fuel viscosity increase 1472 Under which of the following conditions must the combustion control 1473 Temperature control valves installed in the jacket cooling water
Ans: D Ans: C system for a small automatic auxiliary boiler secure the burner? system of a diesel engine, modulates the rate of water flow through
1454 In an automatically fired auxiliary boiler, restarting from the normal 1455 In a diesel engine cooling system, the high temperature alarm the __________.
shutdown cycle in response to steam demand, is initiated by a/an contact maker will be activated on excessively highwater discharge A. High water level A. cooling water pump
______________. temperature from the ____________. B. Low steam pressure B. nozzle cooling passages
A. modulating pressostat, sensing both steam pressure and A. raw water pump discharge C. Flame failure C. cylinder jackets
temperature D. High fuel oil temperature D. heat exchanger
B. pyrostat measuring decreased steam temperature B. expansion tank outlet Ans: C Ans: D
C. pressostat measuring only the steam pressure C. cooling water heat exchanger outlet 1474 At the beginning of the prepurge period on an automatic auxiliary 1475 After a normal, or safety shutdown, automatic combustion control
D. electrode sensing water level D. engine jacket water outlet boiler equipped with a programmed control system, the unit will not systems for an auxiliary boiler are designed to prevent the
Ans: C Ans: D restart if airflow is not sensed and ______________. immediate refiring of a burner in order for the ________________.
1456 Ignition failure in an automatically controlled auxiliary boiler can be 1457 The flame safeguard controls of a large automatically fired auxiliary
caused by ______________. boiler, may consist of a ____________. A. the damper is not sufficiently opened A. furnace to be repurged
A. carbon deposits on the electrode A. stack switch B. the damper is not fully closed B. electric charge to buildup in the igniter
B. excessive fuel oil temperature B. pyrostat C. oil pressure is not sensed C. fuel pump to restart
C. excessive return oil pressure C. photoelectric cell D. water pressure is not sensed D. drum level to stabilize
D. brickwork failure D. thermistor Ans: A Ans: A
Ans: A Ans: C 1476 Which of the following types of feedwater regulators is commonly 1477 Automatic combustion control systems for auxiliary boilers are
1458 Ignition failure in an automatically controlled auxiliary boiler could be 1459 Ignition failure in an auxiliary boiler can be caused by used with a water-tube, natural circulation, auxiliary boiler? designed to cycle burners on and off in response to the
caused by _____________. _____________. _______________.
A. carbon deposits on the flame scanner A. carbon deposits on electrodes A. Thermomechanical A. excess air pressure
B. high fuel oil temperature B. a jammed open oil solenoid B. Bimetallic element B. steam moisture content
C. low fuel oil viscosity C. excess fuel pressure at the nozzle C. Ring thermostat C. furnace temperature
D. high steam pressure D. an excessively long purge cycle D. Modulating pressostat D. steam pressure
Ans: A Ans: A Ans: A Ans: D
1460 Which of the listed failures, occurring in an automated diesel 1461 An emergency diesel generator cooling system is equipped with an 1478 If the operating element of a thermostatic valve installed in a diesel 1479 Automatic combustion control systems for some auxiliary boilers are
generator system, should cause an audible alarm at the engine room automotive type thermostat. If the thermostat bellows loses its engine cooling system malfunctions, it may result in designed to cycle burners on and off in response to ____________.
control station? charge, the thermostat will _____________. ______________.
A. Low cooling water outlet temperature A. open, and the coolant temperature will increase A. a low level in the engine expansion tank A. fuel supply pressure
B. High lube oil pressure B. open, and the coolant temperature will decrease B. excessively high coolant pressure B. fuel return pressure
C. Low lube oil temperature C. close, and the engine coolant temperature will increase C. improper temperatures C. steam pressure
D. Low starting air pressure D. close, and the coolant temperature will decrease D. malfunctioning of the jacket water heater D. furnace air pressure
Ans: D Ans: C Ans: C Ans: C
1462 When an auxiliary boiler is on the line, the output of the flame 1463 Diesel engine automated control systems may utilize sensing 1480 Engine protection by means of an alarm or shutdown control can be 1481 Control of the main propulsion diesel engines can be shifted from the
scanner can be checked by placing a microammeter in series with devices of dual function, with sensing ranges providing both alarm obtained with devices that are sensitive to _____________. engine room to the wheelhouse from the ___________.
the photoelectric cell circuit. The readings on high fire should be and engine shut down capability. Which of the key points listed
____________. would only require an alarm sensor? A. temperature A. wheelhouse control station
A. higher than those at low fire A. Lube oil pressure and temperature B. pressure B. engine room control station
B. equal to those at low fire B. Jacket water pressure and temperature C. engine speed C. captain's office
C. lower than those at low fire C. Engine overspeed D. all of the above D. chief engineer's office
D. lower than those at low fire, but the generated voltage will be higher D. Lube oil sump level Ans: D Ans: B
1482 To test the operation of the flame failure switch of an operating 1483 Electrically operated safety devices on auxiliary diesel engines
Ans: A Ans: D automatically fired auxiliary boiler, you should _____________. function to stop the engine by _____________.

A. de-energize the high voltage ignition system A. increasing the volume of intake air
 Page 79 Page 80

B. move the igniter away from the normal firing position B. shutting off the fuel supply D. steam pressure sensing device with linkage to the damper air vanes D. automatically regulates the quantity of oil and air flow to the burner
C. close the manual fuel valve with the burner firing C. increasing the engine back pressure
D. shift the controls to low fire D. overspeeding the engine Ans: D Ans: D
Ans: C Ans: B 1502 Which of the automatic boiler controls listed should be tested prior 1503 A photoelectric cell installed in an automatically fired auxiliary boiler
1484 The programmed control system of an automatic auxiliary boiler will 1485 On auxiliary boilers using individual flame scanners to monitor the to lighting off an auxiliary boiler? burner management system ________________.
terminate the light off process during the prepurge period if air flow main and pilot flames, the main flame scanner should be sighted to A. Automatic bottom blow valve A. opens the burner circuit upon sensing a flame failure
is not sensed and _________. ______________. B. Low water level cutoff switch B. must be bypassed at low firing rates
A. the damper is not sufficiently open A. detect pilot flames that are incorrectly positioned C. Voltage output of the ignition transformer C. requires mechanical linkage to secure the burner fuel supply
B. the damper is not fully closed B. view the refractory directly opposite the main burner D. Insulation resistance readings in the ignition system high tension D. detects a flame failure by monitoring radiant heat from glowing
C. oil pressure is not sensed C. avoid detecting the pilot flame leads refractory
D. water pressure is not sensed D. view the main flame in its outer periphery Ans: B Ans: A
Ans: A Ans: C 1504 If the jacket water temperature in an auxiliary diesel engine cooling 1505 Diesel engine control can be obtained by the bridge
1486 Automatic combustion control systems for some auxiliary boilers are 1487 If the flame of an automatically fired auxiliary boiler tends to move system is lower than normal, the probable cause is _________. _____________.
designed to cycle burners on in response to ____________. away from the burner tip when the firing rate is changed from low to
high, you should ____________. A. air binding of the engine cooling system A. at any time
A. low fuel pressure A. decrease the fuel pressure B. a cracked water cooled exhaust manifold B. only after the engine room control station is switched to "bridge
B. fuel return pressure B. adjust damper linkage to slow the opening rate of the dampers control"
C. blockage in the heat exchanger C. whenever the secondary station is switched to "bridge control"
C. low steam pressure C. adjust damper linkage to lengthen the purge period
D. furnace air pressure D. adjust the photocell to observe the new flame position D. faulty operation of the thermostat D. with the approval of the chief engineer only
Ans: C Ans: B Ans: D Ans: B
1488 Which of the following conditions will cause only one of the burner 1489 While an auxiliary boiler is operating at design load, which of the 1506 The temperature at which an adjustable bellows type thermostat 1507
solenoid valves to close on an automatically fired, two burner unit, following actions will occur if the automatic combustion control valve is set by ______.
auxiliary boiler? system detects a steam pressure drop? A. changing the position of the actuating bulb
A. Loss of the forced draft fan A. More burners will be lighted off. B. replacing the bellows with a heavier spring
B. Low boiler water level B. The registers will open fully. C. varying air loading pressure to the bellows
C. High boiler water level C. The fuel oil valve and air damper will open wider. D. changing spring compression to oppose bellows
D. A faulty coil in one the solenoid valves D. The steam flow will be automatically regulated Ans: D
Ans: D Ans: C POWER TRANSMISSION,GEARS AND CLUTCHES
1490 The main propulsion diesel engine jacket water temperature rises 1491 Constant capacity pressure atomizing fuel oil burners installed on 1508 Where diesel engine speed and clutch controls are combined into 1509 The control system for a controllable pitch propeller can be
above normal, with the raw water sea suction and the expansion automatically fired auxiliary boilers, respond to variations in load one operation by a single control lever, movement of the lever from programmed ___________.I. to produce a maximum combined
tank water level being normal. Which of the following problems is demand by ____________. the "stop" position to the "ahead" position will FIRST ____________. propeller and engine efficiency between pitch and a given engine
most likely the cause? speed II. for continuous operation of the engine at pre-setconditions
A. Faulty thermostatic bypass valve. A. automatically increasing the fuel/air ratio
B. Eroded zinc pencils in the heat exchanger. B. automatically cycling the burner on and off A. decrease the engine speed A. I only is correct
C. Steam formation in the expansion tank. C. responding to the boiler high and low water level limit switches B. increase the engine speed B. II only is correct
C. engage the ahead clutch C. both I and II are correct
D. Excessive leakage from jacket water pump seals. D. regulating the fuel oil service pump discharge pressure D. disengage the astern clutch D. neither I or II are correct
Ans: A Ans: B Ans: C Ans: C
1492 Burner ignition failure in an automatically fired auxiliary boiler would 1493 An automatically fired auxiliary boiler is required by Regulations to 1510 A diesel engine is operating at 1800 RPM and driving a propeller at 1511 The torque transmitted by an electromagnetic slip coupling is
be caused by ____________. be shutdown as a result of ____________. 600 RPM. What is the speed reduction ratio? dependent upon excitation and the _____________.
A. a burned out solenoid in the oil supply valve A. low boiler pressure A. 0.30 to 1 A. engine speed
B. high temperature excess air B. low water level B. 3.00 to 1 B. harmonic frequency
C. incorrectly setting the hotwell dump valve C. wide flame cone angle C. 3.33 to 1 C. amount of slip
D. an incorrectly positioned burner snubber assembly D. high fuel oil pressure D. 33.0 to 1 D. resonance
Ans: A Ans: B Ans: B Ans: C
1494 If the combustion control system of an automatically fired auxiliary 1495 When the steam pressure drops below a set value on an 1512 Which of the couplings listed will prevent shock loads from being 1513 In most marine single reduction gear units, the spur gear is driven by
boiler fails to restart from the normal shutdown mode, you should automatically fired auxiliary boiler, fitted with rotary cup atomizers, transmitted to an engine? the _____________.
check for ______________. the combustion control system will _________. A. Grid A. quill shaft
A. broken or grounded high tension leads A. increase the fuel oil control valve opening B. Dog type B. helical gear
B. a faulty ignition cable connector B. increase the rotary cup speed C. Friction C. pinion gear
C. an incorrect electrode setting C. decrease the back pressure regulating valve opening D. Hydraulic D. spur gear
D. all of the above D. decrease the supply steam control valve opening Ans: D Ans: C
Ans: D Ans: A 1514 Hydraulic couplings will transmit torque equal to the input torque by 1515 Helical reduction gears, as used with main propulsion drive trains,
1496 The jacket water temperature in a diesel engine closed freshwater 1497 On an automatically fired auxiliary boiler, the steam pressure limit means of energy changes in a rotating vortex of liquid. For the are constructed so that several teeth are meshed at the same time
cooling system is normally controlled by _____________. switch is wired into the burner electric circuit to ______________. vortices to form, there must be __________. to ____________.
A. slip between the impeller and runner A. eliminate propeller shaft end thrust
A. regulating the level of corrosion inhibitor in the primary cooling A. energized the flame scannercircuit when high boiler pressure is B. less than 2 per cent slip between the impeller and runner B. translate heavy load into high speed output
system reached C. axial thrust generated by the runner pinion shaft C. provide smooth continuous power transmission
B. the level of the freshwater expansion tank B. sound an alarm when the burner is shut off D. momentary torsional vibration transmitted by the driving impeller D. allow construction with fewer gear teeth
C. varying the engine load to meet temperature requirements C. shut off the burner when the cutoff pressure is reached
D. the operation of thermostatic valve D. maintain smokeless fuel oil atomization Ans: A Ans: C
Ans: D Ans: C 1516 Which of the following characteristics is true relative to meshing spur 1517 Gear-type flexible couplings are often used in diesel engine drive
1498 A failure of any component of a flame safeguard control for an 1499 The fuel oil supply system to an automatic auxiliary boiler, will gears? trains because they _____________.
auxiliary boiler will result in ____________. automatically shutdown if the boiler _____________. A. The gear of larger diameter will rotate at a slower RPM. A. require no lubrication under normal operating conditions
A. a furnace explosion A. steam demand is high B. Both gears will operate in the same direction. B. compensate for gross misalignment in the drive train
B. automatic burner shutdown B. salinity is high C. The teeth on the larger gear are larger than the teeth on the smaller C. are able to transmit high torque, even where slight misalignment
C. uncontrolled firing C. safety valve simmers gear. exists
D. automatic restart D. burner flame is extinguished D. Power can be transmitted at a 90° angle. D. will rapidly disconnect the engine from the line shaft
Ans: B Ans: D Ans: A Ans: C
1500 Control of the fuel oil metering valve in an automatically fired 1501 The pressostat is installed on an auxiliary boiler to sense steam 1518 When used with reversing reduction gears, medium-speed diesel 1519 The best method for determining the amount of eccentricity or offset
auxiliary boiler is accomplished by a ___________. pressure changes, it _______________. engines should be bolted to their foundations with fitted bolts at the misalignment between the disconnected propeller shaft coupling
A. pressure magnifying device in the steam coil outlet A. controls the flow of feedwater to the boiler drive end and clearance (loosely fitted) bolts in other locations. This flange and the reduction gear output flange is by using a
B. signal from feed water electrode B. monitors the boiler high water level is done to _____________. _____________.
C. metering device in the air supply line C. secures the fires when a fusible plug burns out A. maintain alignment when the ship's hull is working in heavy seas A. straight edge laid across the flange edges
 Page 81 Page 82

B. ensure engine vibrations correspond to the natural frequency of the B. thickness gauge between the separated flange faces 1538 A gear type flexible coupling is precision built for _____________. 1539 Effective hydraulic coupling operation depends upon a certain
hull amount of _____________.
C. permit the engine to expand away from the driven equipment as the C. bridge gauge to check the position of each flange in relation to the A. reduced torsional vibration and resonance A. slip
engine heats up and expands other B. increased slip and maneuvering capability B. mechanical friction
D. maintain engine thrust bearing clearances D. dial indicator mounted on one flange indicating any misalignment of C. high torque transmittal under limited misalignment conditions C. fluid overheating
the other flange D. low axial thrust transmission under minimal alignment irregularities D. torsional vibration
Ans: C Ans: D
1520 A flexible coupling is located between the _____________. 1521 Reduction gear casings are vented in order to _____________. Ans: C Ans: A
1540 When an additional load is applied to a diesel engine +which is 1541 When two diesel engines are electrically coupled in parallel to a
A. engine and the pinion A. allow windage to exist for cooling the gears using an air bladder clutch unit that is inadequately inflated, you can common propeller shaft, which of the operating conditions listed will
B. line shaft and tailshaft B. avoid a buildup of pressure within the gear case expect _____________. apply?
C. pinion and the bull gear C. avoid lube oil foaming within the case A. chipped reduction gear teeth A. Full horsepower is available ahead and astern.
D. thrust bearing and the worm gear D. allow for proper lubrication of the friction clutch shoes B. overheating because of slipping shoes B. One engine must be running ahead and the other astern.
Ans: A Ans: B C. pneumatic seizure C. Full reversing torque is not available.
1522 Which of the types of reduction gearing listed is best suited for 1523 Misalignment of the drive shaft and propeller shaft flanges can be D. excessive wear on the thrust bearings D. Mechanical gearing is not required
medium speed main propulsion units? detected by using a dial indicator or _____________. Ans: B Ans: A
A. Hypoid A. inside micrometer 1542 In an electromagnetic coupling, torque to the driven shaft is limited 1543 Proper operation of the main engine reduction gear set requires the
B. Helical B. feeler gauge and straight edge by the _____________. operator to monitor _____________.
C. Cyclical C. adjustable trammel A. overload trip A. the sump oil level
D. Spur D. sighting device B. coupling pullout value B. oil flow sight glasses
Ans: B Ans: B C. staybolt strength C. bearing temperatures
1524 Which of the bearing types listed is most commonly used in smaller 1525 When more than one propulsion diesel engine is connected to a D. shear-off coupling D. all of the above
vessel main propulsion reduction gears as thrust bearings? single propeller shaft through reduction gears, the gears are usually Ans: B Ans: D
_____________. 1544 When air is delivered under pressure to one of the glands of an air- 1545 To guarantee that a reduction gear bearing is receiving proper oil
A. Ball bearings A. single reduction bladder clutch, the ____________. supply, you should check the ___________.
B. Poured bearings B. double reduction A. inside diameter of the clutch gland increases A. lube oil temperature at the cooler outlet
C. Sleeved bearings C. triple reduction B. inside diameter of the clutch gland decreases B. lube oil strainer magnets
D. Tapered roller bearings D. quadruple reduction C. gland rotates out of contact with the drums C. bearing lube oil temperature
Ans: D Ans: A D. clutch begins to rotate with the engine D. lube oil pressure to the bearing
1526 Which of the following statements is correct concerning a hydraulic 1527 One advantage of hydraulic clutches over mechanical clutches in Ans: B Ans: C
coupling? diesel engine installations is ____________. 1546 When transmitted by a reduction gear, diesel engine speed is 1547 Which of the couplings listed is normally not repairable, and is
A. Rapid declutching is impossible. A. the power is transmitted at a very high efficiency of 60% reduced and the torque available for work ______________. usually replaced if completely damaged?
B. Accurate alignment between the rotating members is extremely B. the torsional vibrations are transmitted directly to the reduction gears A. remains the same A. Flexible disk-ring coupling
important. B. is reduced B. Gear-type coupling
C. Torque is controlled by the volume of oil in the coupling. C. each clutch has a separate oil gland for reverse operation C. is increased C. Grid spring coupling
D. Torsional vibrations from the engine are transmitted directly to the D. no mechanical connection exists between the driving and driven D. is eliminated D. Block and jam coupling
hull by the coupling. elements Ans: C Ans: B
Ans: C Ans: D 1548 When passing through mesh contact, the teeth of a reduction gear 1549 What type of reduction gear would most commonly be used with twin
1528 The magnetic lock between the armature and field in an 1529 In reducing engine speed to an efficient propeller speed by the use first go through a series of actions best described as __________. medium-speed propulsion diesel engines driving a single shaft?
electromagnetic coupling is established by _____________. of reduction gears, ____________.
A. controlled engine speed A. speed and torque are both reduced A. galling A. Single reduction, planetary
B. energizing the field coils B. speed is reduced and torque remains unchanged B. squeezing B. Single reduction, single input
C. brush contact with the armature C. speed is reduced and torque is increased C. sliding C. Single reduction, double input
D. rotating the primary rotor D. speed is sometimes unchanged while torque is increased D. slipping D. Double reduction, double input, articulated
Ans: B Ans: C Ans: C Ans: C
1530 When changing the direction of propeller shaft rotation in a diesel 1531 Airflex clutches are used to transmit power from a diesel engine to 1550 The air bladder clutch used with some reversing reduction drive 1551 In using reduction gears to obtain efficient propeller speeds,
plant equipped with a pneumatic clutch, you must pause at neutral the propeller shaft. A restricted orifice is used in the control air gears, consists of _____________. ____________.
to allow the _____________. system of this unit to _____________. A. twin-disk clutch plates A. they must be located at the after end of the engine
A. fuel rack to readjust A. delay deflation of the clutch being disengaged B. jaw-type clutch plates B. they can only be used with one engine at a time
B. engine to slow down B. delay inflation of the clutch being engaged C. multi-plate friction plates with sliding collars C. they eliminate the need for controllable pitch propellers
C. propeller to stop C. reduce the deflation time of both clutches D. two independent clutches D. they are connected to the engine with a flexible coupling
D. clutch to deflate D. reduce the inflation time of both clutches Ans: D Ans: D
Ans: D Ans: B 1552 Some medium and high-speed diesel engines require reduction gear 1553 Although slip in pneumatic clutches is normally undesirable in
1532 The power loss associated with slip in a fluid coupling appears as 1533 Slippage of an air operated friction clutch can result from units to provide a useful propeller speed. In most reduction gears, modern pneumatic clutch arrangements, some reduction gear units
__________. _____________. the spur gear ____________. are provided with an optional slip clutch which is used to an
A. chattering in the driving member A. an overloaded engine advantage in _____________.
B. heat in the hydraulic fluid B. prolonged slow speed operation A.
must churn the oil in the sump A. reducing high speed torque vibrations
C. vibration in the driving member C. weak disc springs B.
is connected to the propeller shaft B. controlling the warm up of clutch friction surfaces
D. leakage around the ring valve D. newly installed friction blocks C.
is driven at the highest RPM C. obtaining maneuvering speeds below engine idle speed
Ans: B Ans: A D.
compensates for alignment variations between the engine and pinion D. limiting shock loads transmitted to the engine in heavy weather
1534 Pitting in the area close to the pitch line and on the same end of 1535 When an additional load is applied to a diesel engine which is using gear
each gear tooth of a reduction gear unit would be caused by an inadequately inflated air bladder clutch unit, you can expect Ans: B Ans: C
_____________. _____________. 1554 The volume of available air supply required by an air clutch varies 1555 One of the most common causes of reduction gear failure is gear
A. corrosion on the gears A. pneumatic seizure with the _____________. wear caused by scoring as a result of ______________.
B. excessive gear speed B. overheating because of slipping shoes
C. dirt in the oil C. chipped reduction gear teeth A. size of the clutch A. surface fatigue of the gears
D. misalignment of the gears D. excessive wear on the thrust bearings B. volume of the supply line between the control valve and the clutch B. an inadequate lube oil film
Ans: D Ans: B
1536 Pitted reduction gear teeth having a deep blue color with evidence of 1537 Misalignment of the drive shaft and propeller shaft flanges can be C. frequency of engagement C. plastic flow of the gears
overheating have been operated with __________. detected by using a dial indicator or _____________. D. all of the above D. fretting corrosion from water contamination
Ans: D Ans: B
A. excessive speed A. inside micrometer 1556 In an electromagnetic slip coupling, the slip _____________. 1557 Which of the following statements represents an advantage of an
B. improper warm-up B. feeler gauge electromagnetic clutch?
C. extreme misalignment C. adjustable trammel A. reduces magnetic pull caused by non-concentric electromagnets A. It aids in maintaining power factor.
D. inadequate lubrication D. sighting device
Ans: D Ans: B
 Page 83 Page 84

B. reduces resonance and accentuates the turning moment B. Slip is held to a minimum when reversing shaft rotation. D. jacket water pressure must always be less than the sea water D. keep the engine room warm
irregularities pressure
C. transmits electromagnetic flux through the primary circuit C. Engine torsional vibrations to the driven shaft are eliminated. Ans: B Ans: A
D. generates the low frequency current which excites the secondary D. Large misalignments can be tolerated between the shaft and engine 1573 The device allowing for the change in volume of the cooling water in 1574 In a closed cooling system for a turbocharged, four-stroke/cycle
electromagnet coupling. a propulsion diesel engine closed cooling system is the diesel engine, fluctuating water pressure can be caused by
Ans: D Ans: C _____________. ________________.
1558 One advantage of electromagnetic slip couplings is A. fresh water expansion tank A. improper venting of the cooling system
_____________. B. sea water expansion tank B. carrying the expansion tank water level too high
A. torsional vibrations are reduced C. thermostatic expansion valve C. a totally clogged impeller in the cooling water pump
B. torque increases with a decrease in excitation current D. jacket water cooler accumulator D. an incorrectly set cooling system temperature control
C. the coupling rapidly responds to sudden changes of load Ans: A Ans: A
D. excitation and induction power losses appear as a change in torque 1575 The expansion tank in a diesel engine closed freshwater cooling 1576 In a closed cooling water system, which of the following problems
instead of rotational speed between the primary and secondary system is located at _____________. can cause the water pressure to fluctuate?
elements A. the highest point in the system A. An open vent in the cooling system.
Ans: A B. the lowest point in the system B. A fouled sea chest.
COOLING SYSTEMS C. or near the floor plate level C. A restricted water passage in the engine.
1559 Diesel engine jacket water is used in the distillation process as the 1560 In any diesel engine closed freshwater cooling system, the lowest D. or near the tank top level D. Air entrained in the cooling water.
____________. pressure exists at the _____________. Ans: A Ans: D
A. coolant for the distillate A. jacket water outlet COOLING SYSTEMS - MAINTENANCE
B. coolant for the brine cooler B. cooling water pump outlet 1577 The interior of some diesel engine saltwater heat exchangers are 1578 Corrosion inhibitors and/or soluble oils are added to diesel engine
C. means of heating the feedwater C. heat exchanger outlet protected from corrosion by the use of __________. cooling systems to _____________.
D. primary means of producing a vacuum within the distiller D. expansion tank atmospheric vent A. aluminum plates A. maintain low pH in the cooling water
Ans: C Ans: D B. lead cathodes B. reduce the cooling water temperature
1561 The expansion tank for a diesel engine closed cooling system is 1562 A closed freshwater cooling system is commonly used with marine C. copper baffle plates C. increase cooling water hardness
designed to maintain a constant head on the system and diesel engines because the _____________. D. sacrificial zincs D. form a protective film on metal surfaces
___________. Ans: D Ans: D
A. reduce water temperature A. need for water treatment is eliminated 1579 When checking zincs in a saltwater cooled heat exchanger, you 1580 A diesel engine cooling water system with a pH factor of 3.0
B. reduce water turbulence B. cooling water temperature differential is greater should _____________. indicates a condition of ____________.
C. provide an air cushion C. cooling water pumps are directly reversible A. paint the zincs to stop corrosion A. slight acidity
D. allow for an increase in water volume as the engine warms up D. jacket water temperature is more easily controlled B. insulate the zincs to alter the temperature B. slight alkalinity
C. replace the zincs if they are 50% consumed C. excessive alkalinity
Ans: D Ans: D D. file the zincs to change the shape D. excessive acidity
1563 Which of the following statements describes the function of an 1564 The outlet from an expansion tank of a closed freshwater cooling Ans: C Ans: D
expansion tank in a diesel engine cooling system? system should be piped to the ____________. 1581 Which of the listed effects would the film of alkaline chromate have 1582 Antifreeze solutions containing ethylene glycol, should not be mixed
A. Maintains a constant head on the system. A. cylinder head water outlet header on the metal surfaces of the cooling systemof a diesel engine? with corrosion protection oils, as the resultant mixture
B. Reduces the likelihood of air or steam pockets formation. B. cylinder jacket inlet main _____________.
C. Provides a low pressure point for the addition of makeup cooling C. heat exchanger inlet connection A. Increases the rate of heat transfer A. is dangerously flammable
water. B. Retards the flow of cooling water B. promotes scale buildup
D. All of the above. D. jacket water pump suction line C. Protects metallic surfaces from corrosion C. may cause frothing
Ans: D Ans: D D. Tends to increase corrosion D. has a higher chloride content
1565 High diesel engine cooling water temperatures can be caused by 1566 High diesel engine cooling water temperatures can be caused by Ans: C Ans: C
_____________. _____________. 1583 If the coolant temperature of a closed cooling water system for a 1584 Ethylene glycol, when used as a coolant in a closed cooling system
A. a worn water pump A. air in the cooling system diesel engine gradually increases, the trouble usually is for a diesel engine, is more advantageous than untreated raw water
B. not enough coolant B. an overhauled water pump _____________. because it _____________.
C. air in the cooling system C. correct amount of coolant A. a broken shaft on the freshwater pump A. provides a constant pH below 7
D. all of the above D. no air in the cooling system B. an excessive accumulation of scale in the heat exchanger B. provides better vapor-phase cooling
Ans: D Ans: A C. an incorrect thermostatic element operating range C. has a higher freezing point and a lower boiling point
1567 Higher than normal jacket water temperatures occurring in all 1568 The highest pressure in any closed diesel engine freshwater cooling D. lube oil in the cooling water D. has a lower freezing point and higher boiling point
cylinders of a diesel engine can result from a/an __________. system is at the _____________. Ans: B Ans: D
1585 In a diesel engine cooling water system, a pH of 6.0 indicates a/an 1586 Failure to ensure proper venting of the cooling system of a diesel
A. oil suction line restriction A. jacket water outlet ______________. engine can result in ____________.
B. correct amount of coolant B. expansion tank inlet A. slightly acidic condition A. excessive air charge density
C. cavitation erosion in the water jackets C. heat exchanger inlet B. slightly alkaline condition B. priming in the expansion tank
D. clogged sea suction strainer D. cooling water pump outlet C. overtreatment of water C. failure of raw water pump shaft seals
Ans: D Ans: D D. neutral condition of water D. local overheating and/or internal corrosion
1569 Which of the following statements is correct concerning diesel 1570 Which of the following statements is correct for the design and Ans: A Ans: D
engine cooling water systems? installation of diesel engine cooling water systems? 1587 If the jacket water temperature of an operating diesel engine 1588 If the raw water supply pressure for a diesel engine cooling system is
A. Each engine must have its own engine driven cooling water pump A. An alarm device with audible and visible signals is required for all suddenly rises above normal, the cause can be attributed to below normal, you should check for a ____________.
capable of providing cooling for all ranges of operation. cooling water systems. _____________.
A. an overfilled expansion tank A. broken thermostat
B. Propulsion engines with bores exceeding 200 mm are to be fitted B. Propulsion engines with bores over 200 mm are to be fitted with B. excess chromate treatment of the jacket water B. clogged sea strainer
with a means to display the cooling water temperature of each cooling water thermometers at each cylinder. C. a clogged raw water sea suction C. blown head gasket
cylinder. D. cavitation erosion of the heat exchanger tubes D. cracked head
C. At least two independent sea suctions are to be provided for C. Each totally enclosed cooling system shall be provided with a Ans: C Ans: B
supplying water to the engine jackets or to the heat exchangers. suitable head tank. MISCELLANEOUS QUESTIONS
1589 When reassembling the bowl of a disk-type centrifuge, the bowl or 1590 Which of the listed contaminants will be satisfactorily removed from
D. Suitable strainers are to be fitted between the circulating pumps and D. Drain cocks are to be provided at the lowest points of all cylinder locking ring is rotated ____________. fuel oil by centrifuging?
heat exchangers when sea water is used for direct cooling. water jackets. A. clockwise, due to the bowl rotating clockwise A. Sludge
B. clockwise, due to the bowl rotating counterclockwise B. Diesel fuel
Ans: C Ans: D C. counterclockwise, due to the bowl rotating clockwise C. Lube oil
1571 In a diesel engine jacket water cooler, with seawater cooling the 1572 Jacket water heaters are used on diesel engines to ________. D. counterclockwise, due to the bowl rotating counterclockwise D. Gasoline
fresh water, the ___________. Ans: C Ans: A
A. sea water temperature must never be warmer than 40°F A. help the engine start easier in cold weather 1591 Which of the following conditions is most likely to occur if oil 1592 If fuel oil were being discharged from the waste water outlet of a fuel
B. jacket water pressure should always be greater than the sea water B. maintain the proper jacket water pH containing moisture is continuously fed to a purifier operating as a oil disk type centrifuge, operated as a separator, you should
pressure clarifier? ________________.
C. jacket water temperature must always be less than 60°F C. maintain the proper expansion tank water level A. The purifier must be operated at a higher temperature. A. remove the discharge ring
 Page 85 Page 86

B. The purifier must be operated at a higher speed. B. reprime the purifier D. different type centrifuges are required for the main engine and D. diesel intake air
C. The purifier will gradually change operation to separation. C. slow the centrifuge to its proper speed reduction gear lube systems
D. The bowl will eventually fill with water. D. install an additional discharge ring Ans: D Ans: B
Ans: D Ans: B 1613 If the cooling water temperature and the lube oil temperature in a 1614 Which of the listed substances can be satisfactorily removed from
1593 A centrifuge will satisfactorily remove which of the following 1594 If the bowl of a disk type centrifugal purifier when operated as a diesel engine are too high, the cause can be _____________. diesel fuel by centrifuging?
contaminants from fuel oil? separator is not primed, the _____________.
A. Gasoline A. oil has a tendency to emulsify in the bowl A. a dirty lube oil strainer A. Sludge
B. Water B. purifier will act as a clarifier at the discharge ring B. internal water leaks B. Gasoline
C. Lubricating oil C. oil will be lost through the water discharge ports C. an oil suction line restriction C. Fuel oil
D. Sulphur compounds D. oil solids will be deposited only at the intermediate top disk D. excessive wear of the cooling water pump D. lube oil
Ans: B Ans: C Ans: D Ans: A
1595 Which factor determines the ring dam size for a fuel oil, tubular bowl 1596 The output pressure of a diesel engine lube oil pump is regulated by 1615 When fuel oil is accidentally mixed with lube oil which ofthe following 1616 Whether using a centrifuge or a simple filter, oil cleaning and
type, centrifugal purifier? a/an _____________. processes can be used to separate them? I. filtering II. settling filtration will be the most effective when the oil is at a
A. The viscosity of the fuel. A. relief valve _____________.
B. The quantity of water to be removed from the fuel. B. metering valve A. I only A. high temperature and a high viscosity
C. The specific gravity of the fuel. C. variable speed pump drive B. II only B. high temperature and a low viscosity
D. The quantity of dirt to be removed from the fuel. D. orifice in the lube oil header C. either I or II C. low temperature and a high viscosity
Ans: C Ans: A D. neither I nor II D. low temperature and low viscosity
1597 The lube oil pump used in a diesel engine is a ____________. 1598 How does water enter the crankcase of a diesel engine? Ans: D B
Ans:
A. volute pump A. Through the crankcase exhauster. 1617 A centrifugal fuel oil purifier should be shut down if _____________. 1618 The most effective method in removing water from diesel fuel oil is
B. centrifugal pump B. As water vapor contained in blow-by. by _____________.
C. diaphragm pump C. Demulsifying lube oil passing through the main bearings. A. more sealing water is needed A. centrifuging the fuel
D. gear pump D. Condensation from vapor formed in the expansion tank. B. the cover clamp needs tightening B. using it in the engine
Ans: D Ans: B C. the purifier has a bad vibration when started C. heating the fuel tanks
1599 Sacrificial zinc anodes are used on the saltwater side of diesel 1600 Cooling water pumps driven by direct-reversing diesel engines are D. water is discharged from the overflow line D. straining the fuel
engine heat exchangers to _____________. usually ____________. Ans: C Ans: A
A. reduce electrolytic action on heat exchanger metals A. curved impeller vane with tangential outlet 1619 For optimum results, centrifugal purification of heavy fuel oil should 1620 Valves and fittings used with diesel engine fuel oil pressure piping
B. keep heat transfer surfaces shiny and clean B. curved impeller vane with concentric outlet be accomplished with the fuel at the lowest practicable may be threaded in sizes up to and including 60 mm O.D., but
C. prevent rapid accumulation of marine growth C. straight impeller vane with concentric housing ______________. screwed unions ________.
D. provide a protective coating on heat exchanger surfaces D. straight impeller vane with tangential housing A. throughput A. are to be used on pressure lines in sizes 33 mm O.D. and over
Ans: A Ans: C
1601 Which of the following problems will cause above normal cooling 1602 Scale and dirt accumulation in the waterside of a lube oil cooler will B. additive percent B. over 33 mm O.D. will be permitted in lieu of flanged connections
water temperatures in a diesel engine using a closed freshwater be indicated by a gradual increase in the lube oil ____________.
cooling system? C. cetane number C. shall not be used in any instance where the fitting is subjected to
A. An air leak in the header tank cover A. TBN number excessive vibration
B. Benzotriazole found in the primary water B. viscosity D. TBN number D. are not to be used on pressure lines in sizes 33 mm O.D. and over
C. Eroded baffle in the cooler C. temperature
D. Low level in expansion tank D. foaming Ans: A Ans: D
Ans: C Ans: C
1603 Cooling water pumps driven by direct reversing diesel engines are 1604 In a bypass type lubrication system for a diesel engine, the dirty oil
usually of the straight impeller vane type pump with a concentric line to the centrifuge should be taken from the _____________.
housing to ____________.
A. facilltiate bi-directional operation A. lube oil pump suction line
B. provide the greatest pump efficiency B. lube oil pump discharge line
C. prevent pump clogging from marine growth C. bottom of the lube oil sump
D. prevent cavitation at the pump outlet D. outlet from the lube oil header
A
Ans: C
Ans:
1605 The depth of fuel oil in a tank is normally measured through the 1606 Standby, or emergency diesel generator day tanks should always
_____________. be kept full to reduce the possibility of __________.
A. vent line A. sediment contamination
B. overflow line B. fuel filter clogging
C. feed line C. moisture formation
D. sounding tube D. inadequate transfer pump suction head
Ans: D Ans: C
1607 When centrifuging heavy fuel oil, an important factor to consider is 1608 Valves used in diesel engine fuel oil pressure piping are to be
the _________.I. flow rate II. viscosity of the fuel oil _______________.

A. I only is correct A. so constructed as to permit packing under pressure

B. II only is correct B. solenoid released upon the failure of engine lubrication
C. both I and II are correct C. either of the gate or globe valve type
D. neither I nor II D. forge constructed under the approval of the Marine Inspector

Ans: C Ans: A
1609 Heavy residual fuel oils are heated prior to centrifuging to 1610 Lube oil pumps taking suction from the sump of most small marine
_____________. engines are usually _____________.
A. reduce fuel weight A. of the diaphragm type
B. increase specific gravity B. of the centrifugal type
C. separate fuel from lube oil C. of the positive displacement type
D. reduce fuel viscosity D. independently driven by electric motors
Ans: D Ans: C
1611 Which of the listed types of gasket material should be used on high 1612 A centrifuge is normally used to purify _____________.
pressure fuel oil lines on a diesel engine?
A. Fiberglass A. cooling water
B. Sheet asbestos B. fuel oil
C. Neoprene C. sea water
 Page 87 Page 88

ENGINEERING KNOWLEDGE - GENERAL 1639 The proper file for a finishing cut on soft metal, such as brass, is the 1640 To properly install a new blade in a hand hacksaw frame, the
____________. _______________.
WORKSHOP PRACTICE, SOLDERING, BRAZING, WELDING AND GAS CUTTING
A. smooth cut file A. teeth should point toward the handle
1621 Which of the following conditions will indicate a need for a finishing 1622 In machine shop practice, a center gage is used for checking the
B. warding file B. teeth should point away from the handle
cut to be taken on the pump shaft? angle of ______________.
C. mill file C. blade should be kept loose in the frame
A. Roughness A. drill points
D. second cut file D. blade should be 10 inches in length
B. Deep ridges B. screw threads
Ans: C Ans: B
C. Corrugations C. screw thread pitch
1641 The names plug, bottom, and taper refer to _________. 1642 Round split dies are usually adjustable to ________________.
D. All of the above D. 60° thread cutting tools
Ans: A Ans: D
A. pipe fittings A. allow threading on oversized stock
1623 Very small irregularities on the seat and disk of a globe valve may 1624 If a drill press is used to completely bore through a metal plate, feed
B. measuring instruments B. control the diameter of threads cut
be manually repaired with the valve in place by the process known pressure on the drill bit should be eased as the bit breaks through
C. machinist's hand taps C. to help start the die squarely on the round stock
as _____________. the bottom of the hole to prevent ________________.
D. drill press parts D. allow threading up to a shoulder
Ans: C Ans: B
A. honing A. drill bit breakage
1643 For cutting thin tubing or sheet metal, the proper hacksaw blade 1644 A metal file has become clogged with filings and should be cleaned
B. lapping in B. undersized holes
should have ______________. with a file ______________.
C. refacing C. straining the spindle
A. the teeth pointing towards the handle A. scraper
D. spotting in D. dulling the drill
B. the blade and teeth of "all-hard" quality B. card
Ans: B Ans: A
C. 14 teeth per inch C. oilstone
1625 Before the longitudinal carriage feed of a lathe is engaged, you must 1626 Which of the devices listed should be used to reshape a grinding
D. 32 teeth per inch D. dressing tool
be certain the _____________. wheel?
Ans: D Ans: B
A. spindle clutch is disengaged A. A round nose tool
1645 Taps and dies used for threading pipe are ____________. 1646 Copper tubing is best cut with a ________________________.
B. carriage clamp screw is loosened B. An oil stone
C. carriage stop clamp is tightened C. A wheel dressing tool
A. not hardened A. tubing cutter
D. thread dial indicator is zeroed D. A sharp nose tool
B. not fluted B. hand hacksaw
Ans: B Ans: C
C. tapered C. pipe cutter
1627 The taper produced by a lathe taper attachment is determined by 1628 A thread die will be easier to start if the end of the piece of material
D. straight D. flare cutter
setting the _________. to be threaded is slightly ____________.
Ans: C Ans: A
A. guide (swivel) bar A. peened
1647 If you are cutting external threads by hand and you start the die at 1648 The tool used to expand and "bell" the ends of small diameter
B. automatic cross feed B. reamed
an angle, the threads will _____________. copper tubing is a/an _____________.
C. tailstock off center C. center drilled
A. be out of round on the work A. adjustable tube roller
D. compound rest angle D. chamfered
B. be cut crooked on the work B. adjustable belling tool
Ans: A Ans: D
C. be rough, weak, and easily broken C. flaring tool
1629 To properly remove packing from a valve stuffing box, you should 1630 Tapping threads into a blind hole should be finished by using a
D. straighten out after the third revolution D. tubing expander
use a _____________. ____________.
Ans: B Ans: C
A. sharpened rod of silver solder A. short tap
1649 Before boring a blind tapered hole, a good shop practice to follow is 1650 When coming to the end of a cut using a hand hacksaw, you should
B. packing puller B. taper tap
to ______________. _____________.
C. chisel and hammer C. plug tap
A. use a tapered reamer A. stop applying the cutting fluid
D. screw driver D. bottoming tap
B. drill to the large diameter of the taper B. reduce cutting speed and pressure
Ans: B Ans: D
C. drill to the small diameter of the taper C. change to a finer cut blade
1631 Which of the following definitions accurately describes "tool feed" 1632 The "pitch" of a screw is the _____________.
D. bore a straight hole D. increase cutting speed and pressure
when referring to lathe work?
Ans: C Ans: B
A. The distance the tool advances with each revolution of the work. A. angle formed by adjacent flanks of a thread
1651 The complete tool used for manually cutting threads on pipe is called 1652 Which of the listed punches can be properly used to free a tapered
a pipe ________________. pin "frozen" in its hole?
B. The distance from the bottom of the cut to the uncut surface of the B. number of threads divided by the length of the threaded portion of
A. tool and die A. Drift punch
workpiece. the screw
B. stock and die B. Aligning punch
C. The distance the workpiece circumference moves past the cutting C. distance between corresponding points on adjacent threads
C. tap C. Center punch
tool point in one minute.
D. chaser D. Prick punch
D. The chip length that will be removed from the work in one minute. D. angle of taper formed by the centerline of the screw and the crests of
Ans: B Ans: A
the thread
1653 To properly make and fit a new gasket to a flange, you should 1654 Which of the following statements best defines "depth of cut" in lathe
Ans: A Ans: C
_________________. work?
1633 The diameter of a hole drilled for tapping threads into a piece of 1634 A tapered shank drill is removed from the drill press spindle with a
A. place the gasket over the flange and knock off the excess material A. The distance to tool point advances with each revolution of the work.
stock should be _____________. _____________.
with a lead mallet
A. larger than the tap diameter A. taper punch
B. remove excess gasket material by trimming with scissors or tin snips B. The distance from the bottom of the cut to the uncut surface of the
B. smaller than the tap diameter B. drill drift
workpiece.
C. the same size as the tap diameter C. vice grip
C. make up the flanged joint to make an impression of the flange C. The distance the workpiece circumference moves past the cutting
D. the same size as the bolt diameter D. leather mallet
surfaces to insure a pattern for proper alignment tool point in 1 minute.
Ans: B Ans: B
D. cut grooves into the flange with a chisel to ensure good gasket D. The chip length that will be removed from the work in 1 minute.
1635 Machine bolts are identified by their _____________. 1636 Diamond point chisels are best used for cutting ___________.
contact
Ans: B Ans: B
A. type of head A. oil grooves in bearings
1655 The terms rough, coarse, bastard, second cut, smooth, and dead 1656 For greater accuracy, some micrometers have a vernier scale
B. major diameter and length B. V-grooves and inside sharp angles
smooth refer to the ________. making it possible to read in increments of _______________.
C. threads per inch C. holes through metal plate
D. all of the above D. keyways having square corners
A. shape of the file A. one hundreth of a millimetre
Ans: D Ans: B
B. coarseness of the file teeth B. one thousandth of a millimetre
1637 When a lathe is used for thread cutting, the number of threads per 1638 To remove a hand held right-handed straight cut reamer after it has
C. size of the file C. one tenth of a millimetre
inch produced is determined by the speed relationship between the gone all the way through a hole, you should __________________.
D. cuts of the file D. one thosandth of a metre
_____________.
Ans: B Ans: B
A. drive motor and spindle A. turn the tap wrench clockwise, simultaneously raising the reamer
1657 A follower rest should be used with a lathe to machine 1658 Many micrometers are equipped with a ratchet stop at the end of the
__________________. thimble to _____________.
B. spindle and feed rod B. tap the reamer out with a softfaced hammer
A. large diameter stock between centers A. click at each increment of measure
C. lead screw and head stock spindle C. turn the tap wrench counterclockwise, simultaneously raising the
B. threads on long slender shafts B. prevent the user from closing the tool with too much force
reamer
C. work mounted on the lathe carriage C. stop the spindle from sliding out of the barrel
D. lead screw and feed rod D. work the reamer side to side to dislodge it
D. round stock to a finished dimension D. eliminate ratchet movement
Ans: C Ans: A
Ans: B Ans: B
 Page 89 Page 90

1659 To commence cutting threads with a metal lathe, you should engage 1660 The correct torque value for a micrometer torque wrench is reached C. 1bar C. blade from bending
the ___________. when _____________. D. 1.6bar D. cut from clogging
A. feed-change lever A. the scale is read on the handle Ans: C Ans: B
B. split or half-nut B. the dial is read on the handle 1681 A weld with triangular cross sections is used to join two surfaces at 1682 If you have to completely grind a new point on a high speed drill,
C. back gear lever C. an audible click is heard and the handle releases right angles to each other, and is called a ____________. which of the following could happen if it is cooled in cold water
D. thread-chasing dial D. a dial lights on the handle immediately after grinding?
Ans: B Ans: C A. seam weld A. The edges will be dulled.
1661 What basic dimensions are used in describing machine bolts? 1662 A micrometer would be used to measure ____________. B. plug weld B. The 59° angle will be lost due to metal contraction.
A. Diameter and length only A. microseconds C. tack weld C. Cracks may appear in the metal.
B. Diameter and cross section only B. round stock diameter D. fillet weld D. The cutting surface will become annealed by the cold water.
C. Diameter, length, and number of threads per inch C. electrical resistance Ans: D Ans: C
D. Diameter, head size, and shoulder length D. low voltages 1683 Which of the following procedures is used to bring a hole to finished 1684 Which of the devices listed can be used to measure any angle on a
Ans: C Ans: B size with high accuracy? blueprint or drawing?
1663 To safely change spindle speeds on a lathe, you must first 1664 The rotating part of a micrometer is the known as the A. Coring A. Vernier
_____________. _________________. B. Boring B. Protractor
A. disengage the spindle clutch A. anvil C. Broaching C. Planimeter
B. engage the feed change lever B. barrel D. Reaming D. Compass
C. disengage the feed reverse lever C. frame Ans: D Ans: B
D. stop the lathe rotation D. thimble 1685 When welding mild steel with a shielded metal-arc electrode, and 1686 Before drilling a hole in a piece of metal, the location of the hole
Ans: D Ans: D getting only shallow penetration, you should __________. center should be ______________.
1665 A twist drill gage can be used to measure the drill's 1666 When knurling a piece of work on a lathe, it is important to
________________. ________________. A. use a lower current A. marked with chalk
A. length A. operate the lathe at the slowest speed B. speed up your electrode travel B. prick punched
B. diameter B. use plenty of oil C. use larger electrodes C. scribed
C. clearance angle C. mount the knurling tool securely in the tool post D. increase the amperage D. blued
D. web thickness D. all of the above Ans: D Ans: B
Ans: B Ans: D 1687 Which of the factors listed governs the intensity of heat required for 1688 Which of the following statements is correct concerning welding
1667 If all of the metals listed below are two inches in diameter, which of 1668 For proper support when turning a long thin piece of work between any given welding job? sequences?
those listed can be cut with the highest operating lathe speed? lathe centers, you should use a ___________________. A. The strength of the bond only. A. First, weld the joints that will tend to contract the most.
B. The strength of the bond and the welding process being used. B. First, weld attachments which will restrain points of maximum
A. Cast iron A. faceplate contraction.
B. Machine steel B. steady rest C. The type of metal being joined only. C. Make a weld across an unwelded plate joint in adjoining members.
C. Aluminum C. draw-in collet chuck
D. Soft brass D. compound rest D. The type of metal being joined and the welding process being used. D. Each successive welded part should be restrained to lock in
Ans: C Ans: B stresses and avoid cracking.
1669 After cutting a piece of tubing to be flared, you should ___________. 1670 Shim stock thickness is measured by a/an __________________. Ans: D Ans: A
1689 A taper tap is correctly used for _________. 1690 A screwdriver should never be used as a ________.
A. remove inside burrs with a reamer A. shim gage A. starting threads in a hole A. pry bar
B. rough up the outside surface of the tube end with a file B. feeler gage B. producing tapered threads in a hole B. chisel
C. flare the tube before removing the burrs C. outside micrometer C. deepening the extent of existing threads in a hole C. punch
D. crimp the tube end in order to slip on the fitting D. inside micrometer D. finishing the threading operation in a blind hole D. all of the above
Ans: A Ans: C Ans: A Ans: D
1671 The best method of determining the number of threads per inch of a 1672 The temper is likely to be drawn out of a chisel edge when you 1691 Ball peen hammers are sized according to their ____________. 1692 A tap marked "1/4-20" will cut a thread _____________.
bolt or screw would be through the use of a __________. _____________.
A. overall length A. 1/4 inch in diameter with a pitch of 20 threads per inch
A. thread tool gage A. hold it next to a wet grinding wheel B. head weight B. 1/2 inch long having a total of 20 threads
B. machinist's scale B. soak it in hot oil for lengthy periods C. face diameter C. a total of 20 threads with a pitch of 1/4 inch
C. screw pitch gage C. grind the cutting angle too small D. peen head size D. 1/20 of an inch long and 1/4 inch in diameter
D. screw thread micrometer D. grind it for long periods of time with too much pressure Ans: B Ans: A
Ans: C Ans: D 1693 The Phillips screwdriver has a blunt end and flukes with an angle of 1694 When using a handheld hacksaw, you should apply pressure only on
1673 To get an accurate inside measurement of the diameter of a 1/2 inch 1674 Solder used for joining metal surfaces should have a ________. the forward stroke ____________.
hole, you should use a/an ____________. ______________. A. 10° A. only when cutting thin wall tubing
A. depth micrometer A. fusing point much higher than that of the metals being joined B. 45° B. only when cutting carbon steel
B. inside micrometer B. melting point lower than that of the metals being joined C. 30° C. only when cutting conduit
C. small hole gauge C. coating of Borax flux to raise the melting point D. 60° D. at all times
D. inside spring caliper D. composition of lead and tin if the solder is the "hard" type Ans: C Ans: D
Ans: C Ans: B 1695 The main difference between a common lathe dog and a safety lathe 1696 For cutting cast iron or soft steel, the proper hacksaw blade should
1675 The proper use of a flat chisel is for cutting ____________. 1676 Soldering flux aids the soldering process by _____________. dog is that the latter _____________. have ________.
A. inside corners A. softening the metals A. is more easily centered A. 14 teeth per inch
B. slots or keyways B. fusing the metals B. has a headless set screw B. 18 teeth per inch
C. half-round grooves C. removing oxides C. has a spring loaded catch C. 24 teeth per inch
D. flat stock D. hardening the metals D. allows for misaligned center holes D. 32 teeth per inch
Ans: D Ans: C Ans: B Ans: A
1677 The best type of chisel to use for cutting a keyway is the 1678 In an oxygen acetylene welding outfit, the torch tip orifice size 1697 Which of the files listed is produced with two safe edges? 1698 Screwdrivers designed for electrical use should have ______.
____________. ____________.
A. round nose chisel A. depends on the hose length A. Mill A. longer than normal shanks
B. flat cold chisel B. determines the amount of acetylene and oxygen fed to the flames B. Pillar B. larger than normal shanks
C. Half round C. shorter than normal shanks
C. diamond point chisel C. can be varied by rotating the tip D. Knife D. insulated handles
D. cape chisel D. depends on the regulator flow rate Ans: B Ans: D
Ans: D Ans: B 1699 The length of a file is always measured exclusive of the 1700 Which of the screwdrivers listed is designed for the precision
1679 When welding or burning with a oxygen-acetylene, the acetylene 1680 A coolant is usually used when cutting metal in a power hacksaw to ______________. assembly of small parts?
working pressure must not exceed ____________. prevent the _____________. A. edge A. Ratchet
B. tang B. Jeweler's
A. 0.1bar A. heat of friction C. point C. cabinet-tip
B. 0.3bar B. blade from overheating D. heel D. Square-shanked
 Page 91 Page 92

Ans: B Ans: B Ans: C Ans: C

1701 When cutting sheet metal too thin to be held in your hand while 1702 The type of tooth set on a hacksaw blade where the teeth are 1721 Some of the hazards associated with air-operated power tools may 1722 All portable electric tools should have a ground connection to
using a hand held hacksaw, the sheet metal should be placed continuously staggered with one to the left and one to the right is be avoided if the operator would _____________. prevent _____________.
between two ____________. known as ___________. A. inspect the hoses for cracks and other defects A. electric shock if the tool is shorted
A. blocks of steel A. alternate B. remove jewelry and loose clothing B. burning out the motor from an overload
B. blocks of wood B. double alternate C. bleed air pressure from the lines before breaking the connections C. overloading the motor from a short
C. pieces of sand paper C. raker
D. pieces of cloth D. wave D. all of the above D. grounding the plastic case through a short
Ans: B Ans: A Ans: D Ans: A
1703 A fine wire bristled brush used for cleaning files is called a 1704 Which of the following problems will cause a twist drill to cut 1723 A wrench that completely surrounds a nut, or bolt head is a/an 1724 Which of the wrenches listed is least likely to slip off a bolthead or
______________. improperly? ____________. nut?
A. file brush A. Improper lip clearance A. adjustable wrench A. Open end wrench
B. file card B. Improper cutting angle B. open end wrench B. Box end wrench
C. pulling brush C. Improper clearance angle C. tappet wrench C. Crescent wrench
D. cleaning card D. All of the above D. box wrench D. Spanner wrench
Ans: B Ans: D Ans: D Ans: B
1705 Protective equipment to be used while carrying out oxyacetylene 1706 Before welding is permitted on a fuel tank, it must be certified or 1725 A lathe dog, fitted with a headless set screw, is known as a 1726 A thread chaser is a hand tool that should only be used for
welding should always include ____________. declared _____________. ____________. ______________.
A. goggles A. safe for personnel A. clamp lathe dog A. restoring damaged threads
B. ear plugs B. safe for hot work B. standard lathe dog B. enlarging existing threads
C. non-sparking tools C. not safe for personnel C. safety lathe dog C. cutting original threads
D. steel toe safety shoes D. not safe for hot work D. common lathe dog D. straightening tapered threads
Ans: A Ans: B Ans: C Ans: A
1707 Why is a covering applied to a welding electrode, rather than using a 1708 You should never watch the arc generated during electricarc welder 1727 Which of the wrenches listed practically eliminates the possibility of 1728 To drill a hole in round stock, perpendicular to the axis of the piece,
bare electrode? with the naked eye because _____________. its slipping off while tightening a nut or bolt? the stock should be mounted in a _____________.
A. Protect the welder from electric shock. A. serious flash burns will result A. Open end wrench A. collet
B. Prevent arc blow. B. arc blow will burn your face B. Box end wrench B. V-block
C. Shield the arc during the welding process to prevent oxidation. C. the fumes are highly toxic C. Crescent wrench C. clamp
D. Monkey wrench D. morse sleeve
D. Stabilize the electron emission rate and produce uniform D. slag and metal splatter will get in your eyes Ans: B Ans: B
temperatures in the heat affected zone. 1729 If you are hand tapping holes in cast iron, you should 1730 A hacksaw blade is normally placed in the saw frame with the
Ans: C Ans: A _____________. ______________.
1709 Some of the hazards of working with electric power tools may be 1710 If a bolt or stud were to break off flush at the surface, which of the A. tap the holes without cutting oil A. maximum possible tension on the blade
avoided if the operator insures that _____________. listed actions must be done to begin its removal? B. flood the tap with mineral oil B. teeth pointing away from the handle
A. they are properly grounded A. Tap the bolt with a starting punch extractor. C. chamfer the edges of the holes C. blade tooth set adjusted for maximum cutting width
B. eye shields and gloves are worn B. Heat the bolt with an oxyacetylene torch. D. start tapping with a plug tap D. teeth angled toward the saw handle
C. loose clothing and jewelry are not worn C. Drill a hole in the center of the broken stud. Ans: A Ans: B
D. all of the above D. Use a screw extractor only. 1731 To accurately cut the proper size gasket for installation in a pipeline, 1732 When listed by pitch, which of the hacksaw blades listed would be
Ans: D Ans: C you should use _____________. the most suitable for cutting thin tubing?
1711 To ensure the stock is running true in a lathe, you should use a 1712 When using a wheel dressing tool to true up a grinding wheel, you A. tin snips A. 14 teeth per inch
____________. should always _____________. B. a jack knife B. 18 teeth per inch
A. center gage A. lubricate the dressing tool C. a gasket cutter C. 24 teeth per inch
B. gage block B. operate the grinder in neutral D. a pair of nail clippers D. 32 teeth per inch
C. dial indicator C. remove the tool rest from the grinder Ans: C Ans: D
D. micrometer D. wear goggles to protect your eyes 1733 Oxygen and acetylene cylinders should always be stored 1734 Protective equipment while carrying out oxyacetylene welding should
Ans: C Ans: D _____________. include the use of ____________.
1713 A manual process used to remove small irregularities by grinding 1714 While reaming a hole, the reamer should not be turned backwards if A. upright with the cylinder caps screwed on A. goggles
the contact surfaces together of a valve, is called _____________. the hole has not been fully reamed because _______________. B. horizontal with the cylinder caps screwed on B. cotton gloves
C. upright with the cylinder caps off C. trousers with deep pockets
A. spotting-in A. the cutting edges may be damaged D. horizontal with the cylinder caps off D. wool jackets
B. honing B. turning in the wrong direction will cause chatter Ans: A Ans: A
C. lapping-in C. the shank will loosen in the tap wrench 1735 When using a portable droplight, you should always insure that the 1736 Cracks may be prevented from developing at the corners of welded
D. refacing D. reverse rotation will make the hole oversize _____________. plating inserts by ____________.
Ans: C Ans: A A. bulb is protected by a shield or guard A. squaring the corners
1715 An eroded globe valve disk can be repaired by _____________. 1716 After a piece of pipe is cut, the opening in the end should be cleaned B. extension cord is always yellow and clearly marked "FOR DROP B. rounding the corners
out with a _____________. LIGHT USE ONLY"
A. taking a light cut in a lathe A. pipe reamer C. bulb capacity does not exceed 75 watts C. plug welding the corners
B. sandblasting with light weight grit B. pipe cleaner D. all of the above D. slot welding the corners
C. dressing the seat with crocus cloth C. taper tool Ans: A Ans: B
D. scraping with a bastard file D. hole cleaner 1737 Safety glasses should be worn when _____________. 1738 Internal pipe threads are cut with _____________.
Ans: A Ans: A A. using a hand portable grinder A. dies
1717 After a piece of pipe has been cut, a good shop practice to ream out 1718 An acetylene pressure regulator should never be adjusted to B. scraping paint with a hand scraper B. reamers
the burr left in the pipe. This is done to _______________. maintain pressures exceeding 1bar (103.4 kPa) because C. using a hammer and chisel C. taps
____________. D. all of the above D. tap drills
A. make a taper for starting the threading die A. the relief valve will lift Ans: D Ans: C
B. make the taper required for pipe threads B. the fusible plug will blowout 1739 Which of the following practices is considered to be safe for the 1740 When machining a long piece of work between centers, you must
C. remove tool marks which could interfere with flow C. rapid depletion of acetylene is hazardous handling and use of compressed gas cylinders? ________________.
D. prevent the burr from restricting flow in the pipe D. this gas become extremely unstable under this condition A. Using oxygen as a substitute for compressed air for pneumatic A. make sure that the lathe dog is securely jammed in the slot of the
Ans: D Ans: D tools. face plate
1719 When using a hand die to cut threads on brass stock, the threads 1720 The term referring to the number of teeth per inch on a hacksaw B. Routinely greasing or lubricating the valves on oxygen cylinders. B. correct for expansion of the work by readjusting the tailstock center
can be dry cut or may be lubricated with __________. blade is known as the _____________.
C. The storage of the cylinders in a well ventilated compartment. C. make sure that the work is only supported by the headstock center
A. graphite and oil A. set
B. white lead B. rake D. Cracking the valve on a hydrogen cylinder to clear dust and dirt. D. make sure the tailstock is tight against the work
C. lard oil C. pitch
D. kerosene D. thread gauge Ans: C Ans: B
 Page 93 Page 94

1741 If the point angle of a drill is less than 59°, the _______________. 1742 As the drill bit is being fed into a metal work piece, a squeaking A. wear gloves A. cause the file to overheat
sound from the tip of the bit indicates _____________. B. hold the tool lightly B. cause the file to slide across the work and prevent fast, clean cutting

A. hole will be drilled too large A. the bit is too large for the hole C. be certain it is a nonsparking type C. cause dust and metal particles to collect in the teeth
B. hole will take longer to drill B. the bit tip has not been properly ground D. wear safety glasses D. both B and C are correct
C. drill will not center properly C. insufficient force has been applied on the drill bit Ans: D Ans: D
D. drill will cut undersized D. a continuous chip is being taken by the drill bit 1763 The tool used to remove a ball bearing from the shaft of a motor is 1764 Pushing the file endways (or with the axis), under pressure, against
Ans: B Ans: B called a _____________. the work, is called ___________.
1743 While carrying out electric arc welding, there is alwaysthe danger of 1744 A hazard associated with electric arc welding is _____________. A. slugging wrench A. stroke filing
_____________. B. gear puller B. cross filing
A. developing burns to the retina of the eye A. the effects of radiation from the arc C. drift pin C. draw filing
B. fire B. flying sparks D. come along D. standard form filing
C. electric shock C. electric shock Ans: B Ans: B
D. all of the above D. all of the above 1765 Rapid wear on the extreme outer corners to the cutting edges of a 1766 All straight shanked twist drills must be mounted or held in a
Ans: D Ans: D drill bit is the result of the drill having ______________. _____________.
1745 What is the distinguishing difference between the Phillips and the 1746 In order to minimize distortion in a weldment due to shrinkage, you
Reed and Prince type screwdrivers? should ____________. A. too much cutting speed A. drill socket
A. The diameter of the shanks. A. use intermittent welds rather than continuous welds wherever B. not enough cutting speed B. tapered sleeve
possible C. too much clearance angle C. drill chuck
B. The angle of the tip flukes. B. make fewer passes with larger electrodes as opposed to a great D. not enough margin width D. morse sleeve
number of passes with small electrodes Ans: C Ans: C
C. The overall length of the screwdriver. C. use restraining forces such as clamps, jigs, and fixtures 1767 When drilling holes in metal, which of the materials listed does not 1768 The blade for a power hacksaw should be installed with the teeth
D. None of the above. D. all of the above have to be lubricated? ___________________.
Ans: B Ans: D A. Tool steel A. pointing either toward or away from the motor end of the machine
1747 Safe welding practice requires _____________. 1748 A hacksaw blade will break if ________.
A. checking the area for items that may catch fire A. the rate of cutting is too great B. Cast iron B. pointing away from the motor end of the machine
B. that a fire watch be posted B. the blade becomes loose in the frame C. Mild steel C. pointing toward the motor if using a 4 or 6 tooth blade and away from
C. checking for explosive gases C. too much pressure is applied to the blade the motor if using a 10 or 14 tooth blade
D. all of the above D. all the above D. Cast steel D. pointing toward the motor end of the machine
Ans: D Ans: D Ans: B Ans: D
1749 Which statement describes the function of the filler material used in 1750 Sawing faster than a rate of 40 to 50 strokes per minute while using 1769 When internal threading for piping where the work permits the tap to 1770 Setting up a welding job, where the work is the positive pole and the
acetylene cylinders? a hand held hacksaw will generally ____________. be run entirely through you can begin and end the tapping of the electrode is the negative pole for the arc, is known as a/an
hole by using a ____________. ____________.
A. It reduces the danger of explosion. A. sharpen the blade A. taper tap A. straight polarity welding circuit
B. It chemically reacts with acetone to produce acetylene. B. cause the blade to cut faster B. plug tap B. inert-arc welding circuit
C. It neutralizes the gas to render it harmless. C. dull the blade C. bottoming tap C. shielded-arc welding circuit
D. It is fire resistant and reduces fire hazards. D. not change how the blade cuts D. finishing tap D. reverse polarity welding circuit
Ans: A Ans: C Ans: A Ans: A
1751 Which term applies to a hacksaw blade having short sections of 1752 Acetylene should never be used at pressures in excess of 1barg(15 1771 Needle nosed pliers are best used to __________. 1772 Which material can be drilled at the highest speed?
teeth bent in opposite directions? psig) because the ____________. A. strip insulation from electric wire or cable A. Aluminum
A. Alternate A. acetylene cylinders have a maximum allowable pressure of 15 psig B. perform work in tight places ordinary pliers cannot B. Medium cast iron
C. cut recessed cotter pins C. Copper
B. Double alternate B. fusible plug will blow out D. tighten electrical wire clamps D. High carbon steel
C. Rake C. relief valve will lift Ans: B Ans: A
D. Wave D. slightest shock could cause an explosion 1773 A pipe, or Stillson wrench functions best when _____________. 1774 A tool used for measuring, or laying out angles is called a
Ans: D Ans: D ____________.
1753 When gas welding or burning, the acetylene working pressure must 1754 The terms rough, coarse, bastard, second cut, smooth, and dead A. the bite is taken midway up the jaw teeth A. trammel
be kept below 15 psi to prevent a possible ___________. smooth refer to the ________. B. the wrench jaws are at the widest open setting B. protractor
C. a maximum pull is exerted with one hand C. micrometer
A. explosion A. distance between the parallel cuts of a file D. an extension is placed on the wrench handle D. caliper rule
B. torch backfire B. size of the file Ans: A Ans: B
C. torch flameout C. coarseness of file teeth 1775 Large size pipe can be easily rotated with a _____________. 1776 When securing an oxyacetylene cutting outfit for an extended period,
D. acetone fire D. both A and C are correct you should close the ____________.
Ans: A Ans: D A. chain pipe wrench A. hand valves on the torch only
1755 Which of the screwdrivers listed is designed to protect small screws 1756 When arc welding, you can reduce the chance of a dangerous B. monkey wrench B. cylinder valves only
from being over tightened? electric shock by _____________. C. basin wrench C. cylinder valves and close torch valves with 4 to 5 pounds of
A. Magnetic screwdriver A. using insulated electrode holders pressure in the hoses
B. Torque limiting screwdriver B. wearing dry welding gloves D. strong back D. cylinder valves and close torch valves when pressure in hoses and
C. Variable speed screwdriver with a jacobs chuck C. avoiding wet or damp areas while using arc welding equipment regulators is zero
Ans: A Ans: D
D. Constant rpm screwdriver with a jacobs chuck D. all of the above 1777 Which of the chisels listed should be used for cutting oil grooves? 1778 To determine the diameter of a small hole, which of the listed tools
Ans: B Ans: D must be used with a small hole gage to get an accurate reading?
1757 Which of the files listed will have coarsely spaced teeth? 1758 Which of the files listed is provided with only one safe edge?
A. Second cut A. Mill A. Diamond point A. A Center gage
B. Dead smooth cut B. Pillar B. Flat cold B. Wire gage
C. Bastard cut C. Half round C. Round nose C. Micrometer
D. Smooth cut D. Bastard D. Square nose D. None of the above
Ans: C Ans: D Ans: C Ans: C
1759 For drilling or machining cast iron, which of the cutting lubricants is it 1760 Which of the screwdrivers listed is fastest and most convienent 1779 Which of the following procedures should be used with a chisel 1780 To measure the diameter of a piece of round stock, you should use
necessary to use? when tightening many screws? having a mushroomed head? a ___________.
A. Lard oil A. Square shank A. Remove the ragged edges by grinding. A. dial indicator
B. Soluble oil B. Offset B. Do not strike the mushroomed portion. B. wire gauge
C. Kerosene C. Ratchet C. Use only light hammer blows with the chisel. C. micrometer
D. None of the above D. Standard D. Knock off the ragged edges with a hammer. D. circular slide rule
Ans: D Ans: C Ans: A Ans: C
1761 When using a chisel, you should ___________. 1762 A file coated with oil and stowed away will ________.
 Page 95 Page 96

1781 To set the dividers to the proper radius, you should use a 1782 Which of the instruments listed is used to measure the gauge of a Ans: A Ans: C
_______________. piece of sheet metal? 1803 Double cut files are most effective when used for 1804 Which of the listed types of files is the best for producing a fine finish
A. micrometer A. Gauge calibrator _______________. on metal?
B. scribing circle B. Wire gauge A. sharpening tools A. Mill
C. steel rule C. Inside micrometer B. draw filing B. Float
D. calipers D. Circular mil C. finish work C. Warding
Ans: C Ans: B D. rough work D. Second cut
1783 When drilling a hole in a piece of work chucked in a lathe, you 1784 A tailstock "dead center" has been given that name because it Ans: D Ans: A
should mount the drill chuck in the ____________. ____________. 1805 If the drill point lips are ground at different angles, the drill will 1806 Proper hacksaw cutting is accomplished when pressure is applied
A. compound rest A. is dead centered on the tailstock spindle _____________. only on the __________.
B. cross feed B. does not revolve A. overheat rapidly from rubbing A. backward stroke
C. tailstock C. must be removed by clamping in the chuck B. cut an oversized hole B. forward stroke
D. headstock D. fits into the dead center of the workpiece C. cut a continuous chip C. front of the hacksaw frame
Ans: C Ans: B D. jam in the hole and break D. top of the hacksaw frame
1785 The lathe steady rest is normally used for supporting one end of a 1786 For boring holes in mild steel and general work, the correct included Ans: B Ans: B
_____________. angle of a drill point is _____________. 1807 Which of the following types of files will produce a fine finish when 1808 A hacksaw blade will start a cut more easily if you _____________.
A. short heavy casting held in a three jaw chuck A. 29° draw filing?
B. long workpiece for facing, drilling, and boring B. 45° A. Mill cut A. apply maximum pressure at the start of the cut
C. short workpiece being machined to an internal taper C. 90° B. Bastard B. coat the saw blade with soap before starting the cut
D. tubular workpiece being parted between centers D. 118° C. Double cut C. turn the saw blade at right angles to the saw frame
Ans: B Ans: D D. Second cut D. file a nick where the cut is to be started
1787 When steel, cast iron, or other metals with surface scale are being 1788 If you are machining work held between lathe centers, and the lathe Ans: A Ans: D
turned, the first roughing cut should be taken centers begin to squeal, you should first _____________. 1809 When drilling holes larger than 12.5mm, a smaller pilot hole should 1810 When cutting external threads on a steel pipe with a die, you should
___________________. be drilled first to ___________. _____________.
A. slowly to prevent tool chatter A. lubricate the centers A. ensure the maximum cut by the large drill A. start the die at a slight angle with the work to create tapered threads
B. deep enough to get under the scale B. stop the lathe
C. lightly to avoid dulling the tool C. change the cutting bit B. provide a path for the dead center of the drill B. tap the die with a hammer to break up the chips
D. rapidly in a continuous chip D. run the lathe at a slower speed C. allow the use of a drill with a lesser lip clearance angle C. continue turning until the end of the pipe has gone through the die
Ans: B Ans: B and is flush with the die face
1789 The terms rough, coarse, bastard, second cut, smooth, and dead 1790 If the drill point lips are of unequal length, the drill will wobble and D. increase the cutting speed of the drill bit D. never use a lubricant
smooth refer to the ________. ______________. Ans: B Ans: C
A. parts of the file A. cut a continuous chip 1811 To cut angle iron and heavy pipe with a hand hacksaw, you should 1812 When using the draw file method, which of the listed types of files
B. shape of the file B. jam in the hole and break use a blade with what number of teeth per inch? will produce a fine finish?
C. distance between the parallel cuts on the file C. cut an oversized hole A. 14 A. A double cut file
D. size of the file D. overheat rapidly from rubbing B. 18 B. A bastard file
Ans: C Ans: C C. 24 C. A single cut file
1791 Which of the lathe operations listed is best done with the carriage 1792 Which of the screwdrivers listed is produced with a tip to fit screws D. 32 D. A second cut file
locked in position? with a fourway or cross slot? Ans: C Ans: C
A. Facing work held in a chuck. A. Standard 1813 The tool best suited for cutting pipeline flange gaskets to the correct 1814 The tool used for cutting external pipe threads is called a pipe
B. Turning work held between centers. B. Phillips size is ____________. _____________.
C. Threading internal threads. C. Allen A. a pair of tin snips A. cutter
D. Boring an angled hole. D. Torx B. a jack knife B. stock and die
Ans: A Ans: B C. a gasket cutter C. threader
1793 The most accurate method of setting an inside caliper is to use a/an 1794 The dead center of a lathe can be properly used only after the end of D. a ball peen hammer D. ratchet cutter
_____________. the work piece has been ____________. Ans: C Ans: B
A. thread micrometer A. counter bored 1815 If you are taking a roughing cut on a steel workpiece in a lathe and 1816 Increasing the feed pressure on a drill as its point begins to break
B. outside micrometer B. tapered see blue chips coming off that workpiece, you should through the bottom of the workpiece will cause the drill to
C. engineer's scale C. center drilled _______________. ___________.
D. dial indicator D. convexed A. decrease the flow of lubricating oil to the tool A. break cleanly through the bottom of the workpiece
Ans: B Ans: C B. reduce the cutting tool height above center B. cut an elongated hole in the bottom of the workpiece
1795 A taper may be turned on a lathe by _____________. 1796 The tang of a file is the part that ___________. C. reduce the tool feed or depth of cut C. form a tapered hole in the bottom of the workpiece
A. setting over the tailstock A. does the cutting D. decrease the cross compound speed D. dig into the workpiece and tend to whirl it around
B. using the compound rest B. fits into the handle Ans: C Ans: D
C. using the taper attachment C. has crosscut teeth 1817 To finish tapping a blind hole, it is best to use a _____________. 1818 Enlarging one tube end so the end of another tube of the same size
D. all of the above D. is opposite the handle will fit inside is termed ____________.
Ans: D Ans: B A. taper tap A. belling
1797 The best tool to use when attempting to widen the opening of a 1798 A hand hacksaw blade is normally installed in the saw frame with the B. finishing tap B. stretching
flanged joint, in preparation for renewing the gasket, is a teeth pointing away from the saw handle, because ____________. C. bottoming tap C. flaring
_____________. D. plug tap D. swaging
A. gasket cutter A. the blade will always break if installed otherwise Ans: C Ans: D
B. spud wrench B. cutting fluid must flow down the teeth 1819 Which of the following statements represents the difference between 1820 When drilling holes larger than 1/2 inch, drilling a smaller hole first is
C. scraper C. the blade will overheat if installed otherwise a four-jaw independent chuck and a three-jaw universal chuck? a good practice. This is called a pilot hole, and the pilot drill should
D. flange spreader D. cutting pressure is most easily put on the forward stroke have a diameter ________________.
Ans: D Ans: D A. The jaws on the three-jaw chuck can be individually adjusted. A. slightly larger than the web thickness of the larger drill
1799 A metal scribe should only be used to _____________. 1800 Open end wrenches are _____________.
A. remove packing A. nonadjustable solid wrenches B. The jaws on the four-jaw chuck can be individually adjusted. B. equal to at least 1/2 the diameter of the larger drill
B. mark on metal B. intended for gripping round objects C. The three-jaw chuck will hold square, round, and irregular shapes in C. smaller than the dead center of chisel edge of the larger drill
C. punch gasket holes C. not suitable for tubing fittings either a concentric or an eccentric position.
D. clean file teeth D. used with a speeder handle D. Since the three-jaw universal chuck is automatically self-centering, D. small enough to ensure the maximum cut by the larger drill
Ans: B Ans: A it is always more accurate than the four-jaw independent chuck.
1801 A roughened checkered surface is machined by a lathe on round 1802 Hand taps are provided in sets of three, with each being known as
stock using a ______________. _____________. Ans: B Ans: A
A. knurling tool A. taper, plug, and finish 1821 Which of the following conditions is true concerning a radiograph 1822 Which of the precautions listed should to be observed when working
B. checkering tool B. short, medium, and long taken on a large welded piping repair? with oxy-acetylene welding equipment?
C. chamfering tool C. taper, plug, and bottom A. A discontinuity in the form of a crack would appear as a thin light line A. Bottles should be labeled air and gas.
D. threading tool D. starting, through, and finishing against the dark background of the film.
 Page 97 Page 98

B. Porosity, a discontinuity caused by entrapped gas, would occur as B. Keep cylinders away from exposure to cold temperatures. 1841 Which of the files listed will have closely spaced teeth for finishing to 1842 When mounted in a hand held hacksaw frame, which of the blades
various sized round dark spots. a smooth surface? listed could cut smoothly through a metal file?
C. As long as the plane of a crack is not in direct alignment with the C. Keep oxygen regulators and valves coated with a light film of oil. A. Smooth cut A. Wave set
direction of radiation, detection is certain. B. Bastard cut B. Hardened
D. All of the above. D. Keep gas cylinders supported so that they can not tip over. C. Second cut C. Rod
Ans: B Ans: D D. Rough cut D. Flexible
1823 When using a portable droplight, you should always insure that 1824 Which practices should be followed at all times when using an Ans: A Ans: C
_____________. electric grinding machine? 1843 A new file should be broken in carefully by filing a piece of 1844 Which of the files listed is tapered on three sides and is used to file
A. the bulb is protected by a shield or guard A. Wear goggles or face shield. ________. acute internal angles?
B. the extension cord is yellow and clearly marked B. Be certain that the frame is properly grounded. A. monel stock using heavy pressure A. Mill
C. the bulb capacity does not exceed 75 watts C. Be properly trained in the use of this tool. B. brass stock using heavy pressure B. Round
D. all of the above D. Each of the above practices. C. bronze stock using light pressure C. Square
Ans: A Ans: D D. stainless steel stock using light pressure D. Triangular
1825 The proper tool used for cutting new external threads is called a 1826 Careful handling of compressed gas bottles should include Ans: C Ans: D
thread _____________. _____________. 1845 Which of the files listed can be used for sharpening a tool? 1846 File lengths are determined by the _____________.
A. chaser A. stowing, to avoid them from crashing into one another A. A double cut file. A. overall length of the file
B. die B. keeping them away from flame, high heat, and direct sunlight B. A single cut file. B. distance between the face and the edge of the file
C. broach C. keeping the valve protection caps in place C. Any bastard cut file. C. distance between the point and the heel of the file
D. tap D. all of the above D. Only a double bastard cut file. D. length of the tang only
Ans: B Ans: D Ans: B Ans: C
1827 Hidden edges in objects are represented in blueprints by 1828 The operation of machining a uniformly roughened or checked 1847 Which of the listed metals can usually be drilled without lubrication? 1848 If the speed of a drill is too great, the drill will _______________.
___________________. surface on round stock in a lathe is called _____________.
A. Steel A. cut faster
A. a thin solid line A. checkering B. Brass B. cut slower
B. a thick solid line B. crosshatching C. Monel C. rapidly dull
C. dashed lines having alternating long and short dashes C. knurling D. Tungsten D. not cut
D. dashed lines having approximately equal length dashes D. swaging Ans: B Ans: C
Ans: D Ans: C 1849 If the cutting edges of a drill are ground at different angles, the 1850 Some heavy duty screwdrivers are made with a square shank to
1829 The welding process using an electric arc developed between a flux 1830 To properly use a lathe crotch center to drill an oil hole in a bushing, ___________. _____________.
covered electrode and the metal being welded is known as you would mount the crotch center in the ________________. A. drill will not cut A. allow it to be used as a pry bar
____________. B. hole will be oversized B. prevent the shank from bending
A. flux cored arc welding A. compound rest C. hole will be undersized C. permit striking with a hammer
B. resistance spot welding B. headstock D. drill will seize immediately D. allow turning with a wrench
C. shielded metal arc welding C. tailstock Ans: B Ans: D
D. submerged arc welding D. chuck 1851 When welding, a flux is used to __________. 1852 A pipe or Stillson wrench should only be used on __________.
Ans: C Ans: C
1831 Which of the screwdriver tips listed will fit screws with afourway or 1832 The tool used to prepare copper tubing for the installation of fittings A. control penetration A. hexagonal objects
cross type slot? is called a _____________. B. reduce metal fatigue and warpage B. round objects
A. Standard screwdriver A. swaging tool C. reduce oxidation C. square objects
B. Phillips screwdriver B. stretcher D. increase heat transfer D. flat objects
C. Reed and Prince screwdriver C. flaring tool Ans: C Ans: B
D. Both B and C are correct D. spreader 1853 A plug tap is correctly used for ___________. 1854 Prussian blue is used to _____________.
Ans: D Ans: C A. starting threads in a hole A. check heat exchangers for leaks in the waterside
1833 When the insulation breaks down within a metal encased, portable, 1834 Edges on objects not visible in the view shown are represented in B. reversing the threads in a hole B. check the fit of a seat and disc of a valve
electric tool, _____________. blueprints by ___________________. C. the second cut when threading a blind hole C. check for leaks in a R-12 system if a Halide torch is not available
A. added safety features are built into the receptacle to allow continued A. a thick solid line
use of the tool D. finishing the threads in a blind hole D. trace condensate flow in an impulse steam trap
B. care should be taken to insert the plug correctly when energizing B. dashed line having alternating long and short dashes Ans: C Ans: B
the tool 1855 The center head of a combination square set is used to 1856 A drill that wobbles while the drill press is in operation may
C. you should stand on a grounded deck plate before energizing the C. dashed lines having approxiamately equal length dashes ______________. ______________.
tool A. check degrees of angle A. be bent
D. line voltage may be placed on the tool casing making it dangerous D. Hidden edges are not represented because they are "hidden". B. find right angles B. have a severely worn shank
to operate C. locate the center on round stock C. have been placed in the chuck off center
Ans: D Ans: C D. check the angle of thread cutting tools D. all the above
1835 Which of the following listed pressures is the maximum acetylene 1836 The type of tooth set on a hacksaw blade where two adjoining teeth Ans: C Ans: D
gas pressure that can be safely used in gas welding? are staggered to the right, then two to the left, and continue to 1857 To ensure a good weld, post heating is required whenever an arc 1858 To get an accurate measurement using a 12 inch machinist's steel
alternate in this manner is known as ________. weld repair is made _______________. rule, you should measure _____________.
A. with a straight polarity rod A. from the one inch graduation mark
A. 10 psi A. Alternate B. with a reverse polarity rod B. from the zero end on the scale
B. 15 psi B. Double alternate C. to a cast component (casting) C. on the narrow edge of the rule
C. 25 psi C. Racker D. to a part of the ship's main structure D. on the unmarked edge of the rule
D. 35 psi D. Wave Ans: C Ans: A
Ans: B Ans: B 1859 A welding electrode is marked E-6010, this designation means that 1860 Before power to a lathe is turned on, it is a good shop practice to
1837 A drilled hole is accurately finished to size with a _____________. 1838 When using a hand held hacksaw the correct maximum rate of _________. first hand feed the carriage to ensure _________________.
speed for cutting should be ________.
A. center drill A. 10 to 20 strokes per minute A. the electrode may be used in the flat position only A. the carriage is lubricated
B. finish drill B. 80 to 100 strokes per minute B. the minimum tensile strength of the weld metal will be 70,000 psi B. the lathe is level
C. broach C. 40 to 50 strokes per minute
D. reamer D. 70 to 80 strokes per minute C. either insulated or uninsulated electrode holders may be used C. all locking devices have been released
Ans: D Ans: C D. the electrode is to be used for shielded metal arc welding D. the workpiece is secure in the lathe
1839 Double cut files are used for ________. 1840 Using a file without a handle may result in ________. Ans: D Ans: C
A. quick removal of metal A. your work becoming rounded 1861 To check the thickness of a piece of thin shim stock before using it 1862 In order to tighten the bolts of a crankpin bearing to the exact
B. finish work B. injury to your hand to make a bearing shim, you should use a ____________. tension specified by the engine manufacturer, you should use a/an
C. rough work C. overheating of the file ____________.
D. both A and C D. pinning A. feeler gage A. hook spanner
Ans: D Ans: B B. micrometer B. dial wrench
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C. machinist's rule C. offset box end 1883 Which of the following types of files is generally used for finishing? 1884 The tool used in precision work to smooth or enlarge a slightly
D. depth gage D. torque wrench undersized hole, is called a ____________.
Ans: B Ans: D A. A double cut file A. round out
1863 When using a deflecting beam torque wrench, the torque is 1864 Which of the following statements concerning braze welding is/are B. A single cut file B. round file
_____________. correct? C. Any bastard cut file C. reamer
A. read on a scale mounted on the handle of the wrench A. Braze welding is an exceptionally good method of repairing D. Only a double bastard cut file D. hole driller
malleable (special heat-treated) iron. Ans: B Ans: C
B. read on a dial mounted on the handle of the wrench B. A braze welded joint should be cooled immediately with cold water or 1885 A mill file is used to _____________. 1886 Prussian blue is used for ________________________.
forced air draft to reduce the intensity of the heat path. A. produce a very fine finish by draw filing A. grinding in valves
B. produce a coarse finish by push filing B. spotting in valves
C. indicated by an audible click C. Repairs to working parts or containers used in chemical processes, C. file lead C. lapping valves
especially strong alkaline solutions, are effectively accomplished D. file plastic D. refacing valves
with braze welding. Ans: A Ans: B
D. indicated by a release or break of the handle D. All of the above. 1887 A file handle is fitted to the file's ____________. 1888 The best hacksaw blade to use for cutting brass is the
Ans: A Ans: A _____________.
1865 When welding with an oxyacetylene outfit, _____________. 1866 Solder is an alloy of _____________. A. tang A. flexible blade
A. open the acetylene valve until the hose pressure is 26 PSIG A. tin and lead B. point B. all-hard blade
B. open the acetylene cylinder valve only 1/4 to 1/2 turn and leave the B. beryllium and antimony C. taper C. all-soft blade
wrench on the valve stem D. heel D. hollow core blade
C. a leaking hose must be repaired by binding with tape C. copper and lead Ans: A Ans: B
D. a flashback of flame into the hose is normal D. silicon and selenium 1889 When drilling blind holes with a standard drill press, the proper 1890 Two separate workpieces are to have a taper cut with the same
Ans: B Ans: A method of stopping the progress of the drill boring through the work taper per inch, using the offset tailstock method. After the first piece
1867 Tinning a soldering iron will __________. 1868 Flux is used when soldering, in order to __________. is by __________. is completed, the tailstock offset must be changed if there is a
A. prevent the tip from overheating A. decrease the melting point of the solder change in the _______________.
B. protect the tip from scratches B. make the solder "flow" A. moving the working table A. length of the workpiece
C. add extra weight to the tip C. ensure proper tinning B. using a depth stop B. diameter of the workpiece
D. prevent tip oxidation when heated D. clean the joint area C. adjusting the spindle return spring C. angle of the cutting tool
Ans: D Ans: D D. gaging chuck motion D. none of the above
1869 When stock is being turned in a lathe the outside diameter is 1870 A chisel with a mushroom head should not be used because Ans: B Ans: A
reduced by an amount equal to _____________. ____________. 1891 With reference to the oxyacetylene welding of high carbon steels, 1892 The designation E7028-A1 is typically located on an arc welding
A. the depth of cut A. the chisel cannot be struck squarely hard-facing, and the welding of nonferrous alloys, such as monel, electrode. Which of the listed letters and/or digits correctly identifies
B. one half the depth of cut B. pieces may fly off the chisel and injure your eyes the best flame to use is termed a/an ________________. the welding position for which the electrode is recommended?
C. twice the depth of cut C. the hammer head may be chipped
D. twice the rate of feed D. it must be held firmly by the head to strike it A. oxidizing flame A. E
Ans: C Ans: B B. neutral flame B. 70
1871 Soft solders have relatively low melting points and consist mainly of 1872 To measure the circumference of a piece of pipe, you should use a C. nitriding fusion C. 2
______________. ___________. D. carburizing flame D. A1
A. silver base alloys A. machinist's steel rule Ans: D Ans: C
B. lead base alloys B. flexible steel rule 1893 In an oxyacetylene welding outfit, each cylinder has a regulator and 1894 A workpiece has been mounted between centers and a test cut
C. copper base alloys C. hook rule two pressure gages. One pressure gage indicates cylinder pressure machined at each end to check alignment of the lathe centers. If the
D. nickel base alloys D. folding rule and the other gage is used to indicate test cut on the tailstock end is deeper than the test cut on the
Ans: B Ans: B ___________________________. headstock end, the tailstock must be moved __________.
1873 If you are cutting off a piece of stock in a lathe and the workpiece 1874 Generally speaking, when using a twist drill to bore a hole in metal,
tends to climb over the top of the cutoff tool, you should the harder the metal, the greater should be the drill's A. tip pressure A. away from you to correct alignment
_____________. ______________. B. upstream pressure B. toward you to correct alignment
A. increase the lathe spindle speed A. diameter C. hose pressure C. closer to the headstock to reduce the amount of offset
B. increase the height of the tool cutting edge B. lip clearance D. arc pressure D. away from the headstock to decrease the misalignment
C. stop the lathe and tighten the chuck C. included point angle Ans: C Ans: A
D. stop the lathe and lubricate the dead center D. cutting speed 1895 An offset screwdriver is best used for _____________. 1896 Oiling a file as a rust preventative will cause ___________.
Ans: B Ans: C A. tightening Allen head screws only A. overheating
1875 A dial indicator is used to measure ______________. 1876 The drill size is marked on the _____________. B. tightening or loosening "offset type" machine screws B. pinning
A. shaft eccentricity A. point C. driving self-tapping screws only C. fast cutting
B. positive readings only B. shank D. screws you cannot reach with a straight shaft screwdriver D. binding
C. scribed layout lines on vertical surfaces C. margin Ans: D Ans: B
D. torque of a shaft D. flute 1897 A grinding wheel is trued with a _____________. 1898 The edge of a file not having any teeth is known as a _____.
Ans: A Ans: B A. lathe tool A. smooth edge
1877 When using a micrometer to measure a drill for size, you should 1878 A small hole gauge is used in conjunction with a/an B. dressing tool B. safe edge
measure across the drill ______________. _________________. C. garnet stone C. flat edge
A. margins A. feeler gauge D. round file D. dead edge
B. flutes B. micrometer Ans: B Ans: B
C. shank C. surface gauge 1899 One of the steps required to increase the drilling speed of a drill 1900 Pressure-relief devices on gas welding cylinders are located in
D. web D. angle gauge press is to _____________. ___________.
Ans: A Ans: B A. move the drive belt to a smaller diameter motor pulley A. the cylinder valve
1879 A micrometer screw has a pitch of _____________. 1880 Pipe thread taps are _____________. B. move the drive belt to a smaller diameter spindle pulley B. the shoulder of the cylinder
A. 40 threads per cm A. not hardened C. change the terminal connections of the drive motor C. the bottom of the cylinder
B. 50 threads per metre B. not fluted D. change to a larger diameter spindle D. all of the above
C. 75 threads per mm C. tapered Ans: B Ans: D
D. 100 threads per mm D. straight 1901 An aligning punch is used to ___________. 1902 Pipe threads are cut with a taper to ____________.
Ans: A Ans: C A. line up corresponding holes in adjacent parts A. prevent overtightening the joint
1881 Which of the following files will produce the finest surface on a 1882 The 60° taper angle machined on work supported by lathe centers B. completely loosen a jammed bolt B. provide a leakproof fit
workpiece being finished filed in a lathe? is most easily machined by the ___________. C. mark centers and lines in layout work C. permit easy joint disassembly
A. A mill file A. taper attachment D. make a starting mark for a drill D. produce a fine even thread
B. A double cut file B. compound rest Ans: A Ans: B
C. Any bastard cut file C. tailstock setover method 1903 Heavy pressure on the ends of a file will cause the work surface to
D. All warding files D. headstock setover method become _______________.
Ans: A Ans: B A. tapered
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B. smooth 1922 Which of the listed reasons could cause frost to form on the suction 1923 If a refrigeration compressor crankcase is sweating, the trouble
C. rough line of a refrigeration compressor? could be caused by _____________.
D. rounded A. Shortage of refrigerant in the system. A. excessive superheat
Ans: D B. Expansion valve is stuck open. B. a minor amount of air in the system
REFRIGERATION AND AIR CONDITIONING C. Liquid line service valve is closed. C. normal oil circulation with the refrigerant
1904 Short cycling of a refrigeration compressor refers to 1905 The heat gained per pound of refrigerant in the evaporator is known D. Condenser cooling water temperature is too high. D. the expansion valve being stuck in the open position
_____________. as the _____________. Ans: B Ans: D
A. frequently grounding out A. latent heat of vaporization 1924 If the refrigeration compressor crankcase is sweating, the cause 1925 Crankcase sweating in a refrigeration system is caused by
B. frequently starting and stopping B. sensible heat may be due to _____________. _____________.
C. running too fast C. refrigerating effect A. a shortage of refrigerant A. a stuck solenoid valve
D. running too slow D. specific heat of vaporization B. the compressor running continuously B. a shortage of refrigerant
Ans: B Ans: C C. liquid refrigerant returning to the compressor C. too much oil in circulation
1906 When liquid reaches the compressor of a refrigeration system 1907 Which of the refrigerants listed is considered safe and ideal for most D. the compressor short cycling on the high pressure cutout D. too much superheat
through the suction line, the condition is called _____________. marine applications? Ans: C Ans: C
1926 Liquid line gas may cause erosion of the expansion valve's internal 1927 If a refrigeration system compressor crankcase is sweating, you
A. flooding back A. R-21 components and could cause the valve to ________. should _____________.
B. superheating B. Ammonia A. overheat A. add refrigerant to the system
C. overflowing C. R-12 B. hunt B. adjust the thermal expansion valve to the proper setting
D. recycling D. Sulfur dioxide C. freeze shut C. adjust the float valve to the proper holding pressure
Ans: A Ans: C D. freeze open D. open the hand expansion valve
1908 The heat removed from the refrigerant in the condenser of a 1909 The FIRST thing to do to ensure that a refrigeration unit will not start Ans: B Ans: B
refrigeration plant is the _____________. while undergoing repairs, is to ____________. 1928 The compressor in the ship service refrigeration system is short 1929 If a refrigeration compressor were short cycling on the low pressure
A. latent heat of expansion A. secure and tag the electrical circuit cycling on the high pressure cutout switch. The probable reason for cutout switch, the probable cause for this might be the
B. sensible heat of condensation B. place a crow bar in the flywheel of the unit this is the ____________. ____________.
C. heat of compression C. inform all persons in the area not to start the unit A. discharge valves are leaking excessively A. system was overcharged with refrigerant
D. all of the above D. make a log book entry B. discharge valves are leaking slightly B. high pressure switch was improperly adjusted
Ans: C Ans: A C. condenser is getting insufficient cooling water flow C. expansion valve strainers were fouled
1910 In a refrigeration system, the refrigerant absorbs the latent heat of 1911 Personnel working with refrigeration systems, and subject to the D. system is low on refrigerant D. suction valves were leaking slightly
vaporization in the _____________. exposure of refgerants should wear ________________. Ans: C Ans: C
A. compressor A. face shield 1930 The refrigeration system compressor is short cycling on high head 1931 When handling contaminated oil from a hermetically sealed
B. condenser B. a respirator pressure when the sea water cooling temperature is 22°C. In this refrigeration compressor unit that has burned out its motor, you
C. receiver C. rubber gloves situation, you should ____________. should _____________.
D. evaporator D. an all purpose gas mask A. check for sufficient cooling water flow through the condenser A. store the oil in a clean refrigerant drum
Ans: D Ans: A
1912 The heat required to change a substance from a solid to a liquid 1913 The only means of removing the latent heat of condensation from a B. purge noncondensable gases from the receiver B. use rubber gloves
while at its freezing temperature, is known as the latent heat of refrigerant in the normal refrigeration cycle is by _________. C. reset the thermostatic expansion valve C. circulate the oil through a filter drier
_____________. D. completely purge the high pressure side of the system D. remove the oil with a portable charging cylinder
A. fusion A. passing it through the expansion valve Ans: A Ans: B
B. vaporization B. condensing refrigerant in the system condenser 1932 When a refrigeration compressor motor fails to start, the FIRST 1933 The accumulation of air and other noncondensable gases in a
C. condensation C. passing the gaseous refrigerant through the heat interchanger on thing that should be checked for is a ____________. refrigeration system will ____________.
the suction side of the compressor A. loose expansion valve control bulb A. cause a loss of the liquid seal
D. sublimation D. maintaining a high pressure on the system's receiver B. low differential setting on the H.P. cutout B. create a vapor lock in the liquid receiver
Ans: A Ans: B C. blown fuse in the motor circuit C. collect in the condenser
1914 The amount of moisture in a given sample of air, when compared 1915 When it is necessary to open a refrigeration system for repairs and D. faulty suction pressure regulator D. cause foaming of the oil in the crankcase
with the amount of moisture the air could hold if totally saturated at the system will be open for more than a few minutes, the open ends Ans: C Ans: C
the existing temperature of the sample, is called ____________. of the system should be ____________. 1934 If a large difference exists between the compressor discharge 1935 While troubleshooting a refrigeration system for low head pressure,
pressure and the pressure corresponding to the existing condensing liquid refrigerant flooding back from the evaporator is determined to
A. absolute humidity A. dehydrated temperature in a refrigeration system, you should ____________. be the cause. It may be necessary to ___________.
B. specific humidity B. purged
C. effective humidity C. plugged A. increase the flow of the cooling water through the condenser A. change the expansion valve adjustment
D. relative humidity D. evacuated
Ans: D Ans: C B. adjust the high pressure cutout to maintain the desired pressure B. readjust the water regulating valve to increase the flow of water
1916 People familiar with ammonia refrigeration systems become 1917 When subjected to high heat from a open flame, or an electric
accustomed to its odor and may forget that the vapors heating element, which of the listed refrigerants will break down and C. open the hot gas bypass temporarily to reduce capacity C. purge air from the condenser
_____________. produce phosgene gas? D. purge noncondensable gases to reduce the excess pressure D. clean the waterside of the condenser
A. in a low concentration can cause death A. CO2
B. will dissolve in perspiration and cause caustic burns B. Methyl chloride Ans: D Ans: A
C. will burn or explode C. R-22 1936 Air entering an air-cooled refrigeration system is indicated by 1937 Refrigerant is normally subcooled in a refrigeration or air conditioning
D. all of the above D. Sulphur dioxide ____________. system condenser to _____________.
Ans: D Ans: C A. frosting of the liquid line A. maintain adequate coil back pressure
1918 A refrigeration system contaminated with moisture can be affected 1919 Some chloronated flourocarbon refrigerants may decompose into a B. higher than normal head pressure B. prohibit flashing in the liquid line
by _____________. toxic irritating gas if it is ____________. C. a clear sight glass C. reduce refrigerant volume in the system
A. acid formation A. stored at temperatures below 60 degrees Fahrenheit D. abnormally cold reefer boxes D. reduce compressor discharge line loading
B. sludge formation B. charged into a system having copper fittings Ans: B Ans: B
C. ice in the expansion valve C. allowed to mix with compressor oil 1938 Subcooling is a method of reducing the temperature of the liquid 1939 Flash gas formed in the liquid line of a refrigeration system may
D. all of the above D. exposed to an open flame or hot surface refrigerant below its _____________. cause ____________.
Ans: D Ans: D A. freezing point A. pressure at expansion valve inlet to increase
1920 In a direct expansion type cargo refrigeration system, a box is 1921 If the suction line between the evaporator and compressor is frosting B. floc point B. expansion valve pins and seats to erode
normally changed from chill to freeze by adjusting the up, the cause may be due to the thermal expansion valve C. condensing temperature C. expansion valve capacity to increase
_____________. _____________. D. compression temperature D. pressure difference across the expansion valve to increase
A. hand expansion valve A. thermal bulb coming loose from the suction line Ans: C Ans: B
B. compressor suction valve B. needle valve is stuck closed 1940 The component of a refrigerating system in which the refrigerant 1941 In a refrigeration system, the heat normally producing the flash gas
C. solenoid bypass C. thermal bulb is in a cold air stream vaporizes and absorbs heat is known as the _____________. at the thermostatic expansion valve, is obtained from
D. back pressure regulating valve D. all of the above _____________.
Ans: D Ans: A A. condenser A. the hot gas bypass connection at the threeway valve
B. vapor generator B. the portion of liquid refrigerant which does not flash
 Page 103 Page 104

C. accumulator C. exposure to the high ambient temperature within the coil Ans: B Ans: D
D. evaporator D. exposure to the high ambient temperature of the cooled space 1960 The surging that occurs in a centrifugal air conditioning compressor 1961 The dew point is reached when the wet bulb temperature is
is a result of _____________. ____________.
Ans: D Ans: B A. low pressure in the condenser A. equal to the dry bulb temperature
1942 Which of the listed statements is correct concerning refrigeration 1943 The term "oil foaming" in refrigeration practice, is used to describe B. the existing load on the evaporator producing a thermodynamic B. twice the dry bulb temperature
systems? the _____________. head exceeding the normal maximum of the compressor
A. Dehydrators must be used continuously in a refrigeration system. A. release of dissolved lubricant from the refrigerant in the crankcase
C. low pressure in the condenser at low load C. 38.8°C less than the dry bulb temperature
B. A 25 ton refrigeration system has the same cooling effect as melting B. release of miscible refrigerant from the lubricant in the crankcase D. high pressure in the evaporator at high load D. 10°C above the dry bulb temperature
25 tons of ice in 24 hours. Ans: B Ans: A
C. A thermostatic expansion valve is used to control refrigerated C. sudden evaporation of entrapped air from the refrigerant liquid 1962 If the superheat value of a thermostatic expansion valve is set too 1963 The function of a heat interchanger used in a refrigeration system is
space temperature. low, the ________. to _____________.
D. The liquid receiver functions to collect and remove D. sudden evaporation of entrapped moisture from the crankcase A. the suction line will be abnormally cold and liquid may slug back to A. lower the temperature of liquid refrigerant before entering the
noncondensable gases. lubricant the compressor expansion valve
Ans: B Ans: B B. the suction line will be hot due to a reduced amount of refrigerant B. reduce the possibility of liquid refrigerant from flooding back to the
1944 The refrigerant leaves the evaporator of a refrigeration system as a 1945 Which of the listed refrigeration system components keeps the returning to the compressor compressor
low pressure _____________. refrigerant circulating through the system? C. the temperature of the refrigerant within the condenser will remain C. minimize sweating of the suction line
A. subcooled liquid A. Expansion valve the same
B. high temperature liquid B. Condenser D. the temperature of the refrigerant passing through the subcooler will D. All of the above.
C. oil saturated liquid C. Evaporator decrease
D. superheated vapor D. Compressor Ans: A Ans: D
Ans: D Ans: D 1964 Rather than design an infinite variety of valve sizes for use as 1965 If a liquid drying agent is used in a refrigeration system already
1946 When refrigerant leaves the receiver, it flows next on to the 1947 Excessive oil foaming in the crankcase of a refrigeration compressor thermostatic expansion valves, some manufacturers use equipped with a solid drying agent, the liquid drying agent will
_____________. at start up can cause _____________. _____________. _____________.
A. evaporator coils A. compressor damage from improper lubrication A. an adjusting cap to meet the various size differences A. release the moisture already trapped in the solid drying agent
B. liquid strainer B. refrigerant absorption by the lubricant B. a flexible diaphragm B. react violently with the solid drying agent
C. compressor C. increased viscosity in the lubricant C. internal restrictors of different sizes C. cause toxic gases to from in the refrigerated space
D. condenser D. carbon deposit on the compressor suction valves D. a feeler bulb with an adjustable pressure line D. solidify the refrigerant oil in the compressor crankcase
Ans: B Ans: A Ans: C Ans: A
1948 If a refrigeration system, equipped with a reciprocating compressor, 1949 If a refrigeration compressor is running continuously without 1966 What maintenance may be carried out on a thermostatic expansion 1967 Overcharging an air-cooled refrigeration system will cause the
has a solenoid valve that is leaking during the "off" cycle, this could lowering the temperature in the refrigerated space, the trouble may valve? ____________.
cause __________. be _____________. A. The thermal bulb may be recharged. A. relief valve to lift
A. low suction pressure A. a shortage of compressor oil B. The rate action may be increased. B. compressor to run continuously
B. high superheat in the outlet coil B. warm food in the refrigerator C. The proportional action may be varied. C. system to automatically change over to the hot gas defrost cycle
C. noisy compressor operation upon starting C. excessive condenser cooling water
D. refrigerant slugs in the receiver D. a shortage of refrigerant D. The inlet screen may be cleaned. D. compressor to short cycle
Ans: C Ans: D Ans: D Ans: D
1950 The quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of a unit mass 1951 "Flooding back" is a condition where the liquid refrigerant 1968 Which statement about calibrating a newly installed thermostatic 1969 The presence of gas in the liquid line is undesirable and can be
of a substance 1° is known as __________. _____________. expansion valve is correct? eliminated by _____________.
A. latent heat A. vaporizes in the condenser A. The procedure requires a refrigeration wrench and a digital A. increasing the distance between the evaporator and condenser
B. sensible heat B. reaches the compressor through the suction line thermometer to measure box temperature.
C. specific heat C. flashes in the liquid line B. No special tools are required as long as the solid state circuit control B. using a larger expansion valve
D. variable heat D. condenses in the receiver panels are functioning properly.
Ans: C Ans: B C. This procedure is done at the factory with tools not available to a C. subcooling the liquid
1952 Leaking suction valves in a refrigeration compressor are indicated by 1953 Badly leaking refrigeration compressor discharge valves will cause mariner.
_____________. _____________. D. An accurate thermometer and suction pressure gage are essential D. installing the evaporator at a higher level than the condenser
A. higher than normal suction pressure A. overfeeding of the expansion valve to this process.
B. lower than normal suction pressure B. damage to the condenser Ans: D Ans: C
C. lower than normal evaporator temperature C. constant running of the compressor 1970 Constant superheat is maintained at the evaporator outlet of a 1971 As the electric current flow to a modulating suction valve increases,
D. noticeable increase in compressor noise D. flooding of the receiver refrigeration coil by a _______________. the _________.
Ans: A Ans: C A. solenoid valve A. compressive forces against the spring will increase
1954 If the suction pressure at the refrigeration compressor is below 1955 If a refrigeration compressor had a higher than normal suction B. low pressure cutout switch B. suction pressure of the compressor will rise
normal, the cause can be _____________. pressure, the problem could be a result of ________. C. king valve C. evaporator coil pressure will decrease
A. refrigerant overcharge A. a minor accumulation of air or noncondensable gases in the system D. thermal expansion valve D. amount of superheat formed will increase
Ans: D Ans: A
B. overfeeding by the expansion valve B. a constant loss of refrigerant 1972 If the temperature of the ammonia gas in the discharge piping and 1973 Which piping material is recommended to be used in extra heavy
C. a restricted suction strainer C. leaking compressor suction valves the condenser of a refrigeration system remains above 130°C, the duty sizes in ammonia refrigeration system construction?
D. due to short cycling of the compressor D. a slightly higher than normal liquid level in the receiver _________.
Ans: C Ans: C A. refrigeration effect increases A. Steel
1956 Which of the conditions listed may be an indication of an excessive 1957 If the refrigeration compressor was developing higher than normal B. unit will begin to subcool B. Monel
amount of refrigerant circulating through the system? discharge pressure, this could be a result of _____________. C. vapor will cease to condense C. Bronze
D. process of sublimation will begin D. Copper
A. Sweating of the compressor crankcase A. air or noncondensable gases in the system Ans: C Ans: A
B. Colder than normal solenoid valve B. leaking discharge valves 1974 At ambient temperature and atmospheric pressure, R-12 is a/an 1975 Ammonia is lighter than air and if a leak should occur its
C. Frosting of the evaporator C. leaking suction valves _____________. concentration will be _____.
D. Weeping of the purge valve D. liquid refrigerant flooding back from the cooling coil A. corrosive liquid A. lower near the top of an enclosed space
Ans: A Ans: A B. flammable gas B. dependent upon available free hydrogen ions
1958 When the refrigeration system compressor suction pressure 1959 If the water failure switch should fail to shut down the refrigeration C. odorless gas C. of minimum importance during venting procedures
corresponds to an elevation in coil temperature, a low pressure compressor, the refrigerant pressure will build up in the high D. superheated liquid D. lower near the deck of an enclosed space
cutout switch is set to automatically start the compressor. The pressure side of the system to the point where the _____________. Ans: C Ans: D
normal stopping point of the compressor is set by adjusting the ____ 1976 If your skin comes in contact with liquid ammonia refrigerant, you 1977 A lower thermostatic temperature setting will provide a desired
should immediately _________. degree of comfort in a room where _____________.
A. cut-in point of the low pressure cutout switch A. compressor discharge valves would be damaged A. contact physicians health care A. low relative humidity is maintained
B. low pressure cutout switch differential B. condenser tubes would rupture B. apply an antibacterial ointment B. triple banded squirrel cage fans are used
C. cutout point of the high pressure cutout switch C. system relief valve would open C. flush the affected area with water C. air circulation is a maximum
D. high pressure cutout switch differential D. high pressure cutout switch would function D. remove all necessary clothing D. high relative humidity is maintained
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Ans: C Ans: D 1998 In addition to the recovery of refrigerant, recovery machines not 1999 As the amount of moisture in the air increases, the difference
1978 The pressure in a high pressure refrigeration system about to be 1979 Which of the following refrigerants will normally require water cooled necessarily able to pull a vacuum can also evacuate a system of between the dry bulb and wet bulb temperatures will ____________.
opened for repair should be _____________. compressor components? __________.
A. 1 to 2 bar g A. R-134 A. non-condensable gases A. increase
B. 4 to 7 bar g B. Ammonia B. oil B. decrease
C. 11 to 12 bar g C. R-22 C. moisture C. remain unchanged
D. 0 bar g D. All of the above are correct. D. acids D. be greatest at dew point
Ans: D Ans: B Ans: A Ans: B
1980 The flame of a sulphur candle in the presence of an ammonia leak 1981 Under normal conditions ammonia refrigerants should be added at 2000 Which of the refrigerants listed is considered to be clorine free? 2001 Solenoid valves used in refrigeration systems may be classified as
will turn ________. the ___________. ______________.
A. pink A. high side of the system A. R-12 A. normally open, de-energized
B. white B. suction service connection B. R-221 B. normally closed, energized
C. yellow C. discharge service connection C. R-142 C. normally open or normally closed
D. blue D. expansion valve sideport connection D. R-152a D. normally energized or normally de-energized
Ans: B Ans: A Ans: D Ans: C
1982 To service a 60 ton air conditioning package, the easiest way to 1983 Refrigerant entering the compressor of a refrigeration system should 2002 Small appliances with less than 1.5kgs of refrigerant should be 2003 The expansion valve used in a refrigeration system regulates the
determine the type of refrigerant used is to_________. be in which of the following conditions? __________. _____________.
A. use your service gage set and refrigeration card A. Sub-cooled liquid A. liquid charged A. superheat of the gas leaving the compressor
B. look at the unit name plate B. Sub-cooled vapor B. vapor charged B. back pressure in the evaporator
C. ask the Chief Engineer C. Superheated vapor C. either vapor or liquid charged C. temperature in the refrigerated space
D. look on the top of the TXV D. Liquid D. initially liquid charged and then topped with a vapor charge D. degree of superheat of the gas leaving the evaporator
Ans: B Ans: C Ans: B Ans: D
1984 Inhalation of high concentrations of CFCs may have which of the 1985 Refrigerant leaving the metering device in a refrigeraton system is a 2004 The carbon ring of a refrigeration compressor crankshaft mechanical 2005 The oil observed in the sight glass of an operating refrigeration
following effects? _________. seal is held in position against the stationary ring by using a/an compressor appears to be brownish in color. This is indicative of
A. drowsiness A. sub-cooled liquid _______________. ______________.
B. loss of concentration B. sub-cooled vapor A. spring A. carbonization caused by air in the system
C. cardiac arrhythmia's C. saturated liquid/vapor mixture B. elliptical retaining assembly B. bearing wear or piston scoring
D. all of the above D. saturated liquid C. belleville spring C. head gasket breakdown
Ans: D Ans: C D. thrust washer D. copper plating caused by moisture in the system
1986 The four most commonly used refrigerants listed in order, from the 1987 Large quantities of halogenated floro-carbons when released from Ans: A Ans: D
most damaging to the least damaging to the ozone layer refrigeration systems, will contribute to ozone depletion in the 2006 Why should the refrigerant stored in a recovery cylinder be allowed 2007 Which of the listed refrigerants has been more suitable than the
are________. _________. to equalize with room temperature? others for use in a centrifugal refrigeration compressor?
A. R-11, R-12, R-502 and R-22 A. bathosphere A. to prevent the rupture disk from blowing A. R-12
B. R-22, R-12, R-11 and R-502 B. ionosphere B. this is a way to check refrigerant level in the cylinder B. R-11
C. R-502, R-12, R-22 and R-11 C. stratosphere C. this is the only way to read refrigerant pressure accurately C. Ammonia
D. R-11, R-12, R-22 and R-502 D. troposphere D. the recovery cylinder could explode if the temperature rose too D. Carbon dioxide
Ans: A Ans: C quickly
1988 Which of the following is not part of the high side of a refrigeration 1989 Which of the listed chemicals will eventually reach the stratosphere Ans: C Ans: B
system? and react unfavorably with ozone? 2008 Which of the listed statements describes the reason why oil foaming 2009 Which of the precautions listed should be taken before opening any
A. condenser A. fluorine occurs when starting a refrigeration compressor? part of a refrigeration system?
B. receiver B. chlorine A. If the oil level is not initially high, this condition is the result of A. Make certain that a positive pressure exists in the system to prevent
C. accumulator C. halogen agitation created by the movement of the mechanical components. entrance of moisture.
D. liquid line D. carbon
Ans: C Ans: B B. This condition is the result of the sudden low pressure created in B. Find the leaks in the system with a Halide torch.
1990 Which can be considered as a drop-in replacement refrigerant? 1991 Pressure in the control tubing of a thermostatic expansion valve the crankcase at start up causing the release of refrigerant
depends directly upon the _____________. accumulated within the oil.
A. R-500 A. temperature in the box C. This will occur only if crankcase heaters are used. C. Use the hot gas defrost line to remove frost on coils.
B. R-123 B. superheat in the tail coil D. This phenomenon is inherent only in hermetically sealed units and D. Set the high pressure cutout on manual to prevent automatic
C. R-134a C. compressor suction pressure is always provisional. starting.
D. none of the above D. heat transferred from the saturated liquid in the evaporator Ans: B Ans: A
Ans: D Ans: B 2010 In refrigeration systems, which type of contamination will the 2011 A quick method used to test a water cooled condenser for refrigerant
1992 To protect a recovery or recycling machine when removing 1993 In preparing to remove the air from a refrigeration condenser for a reclamation process be unable to separate? leaks is to test the _____________.
refrigerant from a burned out system, a filter drier should be installed large multibox water cooled system, all of the refrigerant in the A. mixed refrigerants A. cooling water for proper pH
in ________. system should be ____________. B. acid B. receiver for water content
A. the system liquid line A. at a superheated temperature C. moisture C. air vents on the condenser heads with a halide torch
B. the machine inlet B. pumped to the receiver D. air D. condenser tubes hydrostatically
C. the system suction line C. pumped to the evaporator Ans: A Ans: C
D. the container inlet D. at a saturated temperature 2012 In a vapor compression refrigeration system with a freeze, dairy, and 2013 A properly adjusted thermostatic expansion valve will have a
Ans: B Ans: B thaw box, a solenoid valve should be installed ___________. constant valve opening under a condition of constant
1994 HCFC-22 has been recovered from a refrigeration system during 1995 The process of removing refrigerant from a system and storing it _____________.
replacement of the condenser. The refrigerant can be _____. without testing or processing is known as ___________. A. immediately before each expansion valve A. supply pressure
B. on the inlet side of the receiver B. suction pressure
A. recycled into a system that had used HCFC-11 A. reclaiming C. in the liquid line bypassing the expansion valve C. refrigerant superheat
B. reclaimed as a low pressure system refrigerant B. recouping D. in the vapor line bypassing the oil separator D. compressor speed
C. returned to the system C. recycling Ans: A Ans: C
D. must be destroyed, as it can no longer be used D. recovering 2014 Concerning the operation of refrigeration systems, frosting or 2015 An economizer, or heat interchanger, is installed in a refrigeration
Ans: C Ans: D sweating of a liquid line is usually indicative of _____. system to _____________.
1996 Which of the following represents a low-pressure refrigerant as 1997 When using nitrogen to pressure leak test a system, the nitrogen A. high surrounding relative humidity A. reduce the possibility of sweating of the suction line
defined by EPA regulation? tank should always have a __________. B. a refrigerant line restriction B. reduce the temperature of liquid refrigerant prior to entering the
A. R-12 A. cut off valve expansion valve
B. R-22 B. blue top C. water in the system C. reduce the possibility of liquid refrigerant flooding back to the
C. R-502 C. level indicator compressor
D. R-123 D. regulator D. proper cooling taking place D. all of the above
Ans: D Ans: D Ans: B Ans: D
2016 Before charging a refrigeration unit, the refrigerant charging lines 2017 The amount of HCFC-123 in a storage cylinder is measured by
should be _____________. __________.
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A. flushed with clean refrigerant oil A. saturation pressure D. before the back pressure regulating valve D. Neither I nor II
B. purged with the refrigerant B. volume Ans: A Ans: C
C. washed with an ammonia and alcohol solution C. weight 2034 When a refrigeration compressor is in the "off" cycle, the thermal 2035 The discharge valves used in a refrigeration compressor are leaking
D. grounded to the compressor D. saturation temperture expansion valve will_________. badly and _____________.
Ans: B Ans: C A. always be wide open when the compressor restarts A. the reeds should be reground
2018 Which of the processes listed would be the most satisfactory 2019 Water regulating valves are installed to vary the water flow through B. continue to operate as if the system were in operation B. the reeds should be replaced
method to use to lower the humidity of the air being circulated by an the water cooled refrigeration condensers in response to C. remain open until evaporator pressure equalizes, then close until the C. should continue to operate at minimum efficiency
air conditioning system? ____________. compressor restarts
A. Cooling the air to a temperature just above dew point. A. compressor speed D. always be completely closed until the compressor restarts D. the high pressure cut-out should be readjusted to operate efficiently
B. Heating the air to a point at which moisture will boil off, then B. compressor discharge temperature
recooling it. Ans: B Ans: B
C. Cooling the air to a point below dew point, then reheating it. C. compressor discharge pressure 2036 The output capacity of a centrifugal refrigeration compressor may 2037 The purpose of the water failure switch in a refrigeration system is to
D. Heating the air and then cooling it to a point below dew point. D. condenser discharge temperature be controlled manually by _____________. react to a loss of cooling water by __________.
Ans: C Ans: C A. controlling the compressor speed A. stopping the compressor
2020 In a two stage centrifugal air conditioning system, the liquid 2021 Immediately before the actual charging process is started, refrigerant B. throttling the compressor suction B. bypassing refrigerant to the receiver
refrigerant passes through the condenser directly to the oil charging lines should be loosely connected and _____________. C. reducing condenser water flow C. closing the high pressure cutout switch
_____________. D. all of the above methods D. opening the high pressure cutout switch
A. evaporator A. flushed with clean refrigerant oil Ans: D Ans: A
B. chiller B. purged with refrigerant gas 2038 Which of the listed components for a refrigeration system is required 2039 The dehydrating agent normally used in a refrigeration system is
C. economizer C. washed with an ammonia and alcohol solution for a two box system, but not for a one box system? ______________.
D. expansion valve D. grounded to the compressor
Ans: C Ans: A A. Hand expansion valve A. slaked lime
2022 The primary purpose of the thermostatic expansion valve in a typical 2023 Which of the fluids listed is normally used to condense the primary B. Automatic expansion valve B. sodium chloride
multi-box shipboard refrigeration system is to _____________. refrigerant in a shipboard central air conditioning system? C. High pressure cutout switch C. activated alumina
D. Liquid line solenoid valve D. calcium chloride
A. control the refrigerated space temperature A. Air or Nitrogen. Ans: D Ans: C
B. regulate the compressor suction pressure B. Seawater or Fresh water. 2040 If atmospheric pressure decreases while the air temperature remains 2041 Which of the fluids listed is suitable for use as a secondary
C. regulate the amount of refrigerant superheat leaving the evaporator C. Sodium Nitrate brine. constant, the air will ______________. refrigerant?
A. give up moisture as condensation A. Methyl alcohol
D. control the refrigerant temperature entering the evaporator D. Calcium Sulfate brine. B. have greater capacity to absorb moisture B. Brine
Ans: C Ans: B C. become supersaturated at high relative humidity C. Carbon dioxide
2024 The amount of refrigerant in a storage cylinder is measured by 2025 The device which normally stops the refrigeration compressor before D. absorb less free atmospheric moisture D. Cuprous chloride
_____________. the relief valve starts to open is the _____________. Ans: B Ans: B
2042 Which of the listed materials can be used as a desiccant in a 2043 Capacity control of a centrifugal refrigeration compressor can be
A. pressure A. low pressure cutout switch refrigeration system? accomplished by _____________.
B. volume B. back pressure cutout switch A. Silica gel A. varying the speed of the compressor
C. weight C. high pressure cutout switch B. Activated alumina B. varying the suction pressure
D. temperature D. relief valve bypass C. Anhydrous calcium sulfate C. varying condenser water flow rate
Ans: C Ans: C D. All of the above D. all of the above
2026 The lubrication oil in the sump of a secured refrigeration compressor 2027 Vapor seals used in the insulation on refrigerated spaces serve to Ans: D Ans: D
is heated to _____________. _____________. 2044 To add refrigerant to the high side of an air conditioning system, you 2045 When multiple refrigeration evaporators are served by the same
A. reduce absorption of refrigerant by the oil A. prevent Freon vapor from saturating the insulation should introduce the refrigerant through the _____________. compressor and operate at different temperatures, the pressure in
B. prevent refrigerant vaporization B. hold water vapor on the cold side of the insulation the coldest evaporator is ___________.
C. remove entrained water C. reduce the possibility of moisture laden warm air entering the A. discharge service valve as a vapor A. higher than the pressure in warmest evaporator
insulation B. suction service valve as a liquid B. the same as any evaporator in the system
D. remove wax and gum D. reduce the possibility of moisture laden cold air from entering the C. charging valve as a liquid C. lower than the pressure in the warmest evaporator
insulation D. condenser purge valve as a vapor D. controlled by adjusting the thermal expansion valve
Ans: A Ans: C Ans: C Ans: C
2028 A typical shipboard domestic multi-box refrigeration system operates 2029 Which of the following methods is normally used to control the 2046 When adding oil to a refrigeration system, you must be certain that 2047 The pressure in a low pressure refrigeration system about to be
with one compressor and condenser. What is the purpose of the temperature of air distributed from individual cooling coils in an air _____________. opened for repair should be _____________.
sensing line connected to the thermal bulb at the evaporator coil conditioning system using a chilled water circulation system? A. all air is removed from the pump and fittings A. 10 to 12 psig
outlet? B. the suction strainer is not blocked B. 4 to 7 psig
A. To open or close the solenoid valve when the box temperature A. A room thermostat activates an electric heater at each individual C. the discharge pressure is not too high C. 0 to 1 psig
increases or decreases. chilled air outlet when necessary. D. the condenser is secured D. 25 inches of hg vacuum
B. To open the back-pressure regulating valve when evaporator coil B. Varying the number of passes the air makes across the coils. Ans: A Ans: D
pressure increases. 2048 The back pressure regulating valve used in a refrigeration system 2049 After a refrigeration plant has been open for repairs, it is advisable to
C. To direct evaporator outlet pressure to the lower part of the solenoid C. Varying the temperature of the water through the coils. serves to _____________. purge air from the system by _____________.
bellows. A. maintain a constant pressure in the suction line heat exchanger A. slightly opening the purge valve on the condenser
D. To transmit the pressure (proportional to the coil superheat) to the D. Varying the quantity of water flowing through the coils.
thermal expansion valve. B. limit the minimum pressure in the evaporator B. cracking the valve bonnet assembly on the thermostatic expansion
Ans: D Ans: D valve
2030 For the proper control of the air temperature in an air conditioning 2031 In order to achieve greater dehumidification, you wouldadjust the air C. limit the maximum pressure in the suction line heat exchanger C. turning over the compressor flywheel with the suction line valve open
system using chilled water circulation, which of the listed conditions conditioning system by __________. I. reducing the chill water flow
should remain constant regardless of load changes? through the cooling coil II. increasing the preheater temperature D. maintain a minimum discharge head on the compressor D. loosening the purge connection attached to the receiver head
Ans: B Ans: A
A. Chilled water system supply temperature. A. I only 2050 A purge connection installed on the refrigerant side of a water 2051 The charging of a refrigerating system should be carried out by
B. Chilled water system return temperature. B. II only cooled condenser is used to _____________. adding _____________.
C. Compressor discharge temperature. C. Both I and II A. free tubes of accumulated scale A. refrigerant vapor to the receiver only
D. Compressor suction pressure. D. Neither I nor II B. charge the system with refrigerant B. liquid refrigerant to the low side only
Ans: A Ans: D C. remove noncondensable gases C. liquid refrigerant to the high side only
2032 In a large refrigeration system having more than one evaporator, a 2033 A partially fouled liquid line strainer in therefrigeration system will D. ensure positive air circulation D. liquid refrigerant to the high or low side
king solenoid valve should be installed and located ____________. cause ___________. I. a loss of refrigeration effect II. the strainer Ans: C Ans: C
outlet piping to be cooler than the inlet 2052 When the temperature in a refrigerated space rises above its normal 2053 Unless designed for such operation, two compressors should not be
A. just after the receiver A. I only set point, which of the listed actions should occur FIRST? operated in parallel in a refrigeration system because the
B. before the condenser B. II only ____________.
C. between the condenser and receiver C. Both I and II
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A. The thermal expansion valve will close. A. operation of two compressors will overload the expansion valve 2072 Some refrigeration systems have chemical moisture indicators 2073 In a refrigeration system, where multiple evaporators are operating
installed in conjunction with the sight glass in the liquid line. If at different temperatures, and serviced by a single compressor and
B. The compressor will start. B. condenser pressure will be too high causing condenser failure excess moisture is present in the system, the indicator will condenser, the control of individual coil temperatures should be
_____________. carried out by adjustment of the ____________.
C. The solenoid valve will open. C. lubricating oil may be transferred from one compressor to the other
A. activate the driers A. thermostatic expansion valve
D. The automatic defrost timer will activate. D. evaporator would fail due to low suction pressure B. change color B. back pressure regulating valve
Ans: C Ans: C C. secure the compressor C. king valve
2054 The thermal bulbs for expansion valves used in air conditioning 2055 A purge recovery system is used in a centrifugal air conditioning or D. add a predetermined amount of liquid drier D. box temperature solenoid valve
systems are charged with _____________. refrigeration system to _____________. Ans: B Ans: B
A. fluids other than the system charge A. purge lube oil from the liquid refrigerant 2074 A liquid indicator sight glass is useful in determining whether or not 2075 A liquid sight flow indicator in a refrigeration system is examined and
B. the same refrigerant as the system B. recover water purged from the system a refrigeration system is sufficiently charged. It is generally located gas bubbles are noted in motion with the fluid flow. This means
C. a mixed charge of fluids C. separate foul gases from the receiver in the ____________. _____________.
D. mercuric sulfate D. purge noncondensable gases without losing refrigerant A. high pressure liquid line A. the system is fully charged
Ans: B Ans: D B. low pressure liquid line B. there is air leaking in from the condenser
2056 In addition to pressure, most refrigerant compound gages are also 2057 Which of the listed conditions would cause the thermal expansion C. high pressure vapor line C. ice crystals are forming in the refrigerant
calibrated in _____________. valve to open? D. low pressure vapor line D. the system contains less than a full charge of refrigerant
A. saturated gas temperature A. Rise in the gas temperature within the cooling coils Ans: A Ans: D
B. superheated gas temperature B. Compressor cutting out 2076 Frost appearing on the evaporator coils of a multi-box direct 2077 In a water-cooled refrigeration system, the condenser cooling water
C. absolute temperature C. Compressor cutting in expansion refrigeration system _____________. regulating valve is controlled by ___________.
D. absolute pressure D. A drop in the temperature of the cooling coils A. is best removed by means of an ice pick A. temperature of the cooling water
Ans: A Ans: A B. will increase the refrigeration effect B. refrigerant pressure
2058 In refrigeration systems with multiple evaporators, the metering of 2059 The primary purpose of the liquid line strainer used in a refrigeration C. can be removed by passing hot vapors through the coils C. amount of refrigerant in the system
refrigerant to each refrigerated space is accomplished by system is to prevent dirt and scale from entering the ____________. D. can be quickly removed by simply shutting down the coils D. temperature of the refrigerant after compression
_____________. Ans: C Ans: B
A. the king expansion valve A. solenoid and expansion valves 2078 When a refrigerated space reaches the desired temperature in a 2079 A totally white or yellow colored flame produced by a Halide torch
B. individual coil expansion valves B. compressor and receiver multi-box refrigeration system, which of the listed actions will occur being used to test for refrigerant leaks indicates _________.
C. a solenoid valve in the liquid line C. condenser and liquid line FIRST?
D. individual back pressure regulating valves on all but the coldest box D. evaporator coil piping A. The solenoid valve will close. A. no R-12 leakage
B. The expansion valve will open. B. a partially clogged torch exploring tube
Ans: B Ans: A C. The low pressure cutout switch will stop the compressor. C. a defective torch reaction plate
2060 Excessively tight drive belts installed between a motor and a 2061 Air conditioning duct-work begins at the large mixing chamber called D. The high pressure cutout switch will stop the compressor. D. a minute quantity of R-12 leakage
refrigeration compressor pulley may cause ____________. the _____________. Ans: A Ans: B
A. overheated bearings A. exhaust chamber 2080 All refrigerant recovered from small appliances must be 2081 When air contains some moisture, but is not saturated, the dew point
B. unnecessary motor loading B. plenum chamber __________. temperature is _____________.
C. noisy operation C. intake chamber A. sent to a designated reclaim facility for processing A. between the wet and dry bulb temperatures
D. all of the above D. vapor chamber B. contained in a refillable recovery cylinder B. equal to the total heat of air
Ans: D Ans: B C. destroyed as unusable C. higher than the wet bulb temperature
2062 If the people in an air conditioned room complain of being too cool, 2063 The dew point of air is reached when the wet bulb temperature is D. used to clean out burn-outs D. lower than the dry bulb temperature
the trouble might be that the _____________. _____________. Ans: B Ans: D
A. preheater has failed to cutout A. twice the dry bulb temperature 2082 When pumping down an air conditioning system to test the low 2083 The thermal bulb of an expansion valve that is attached to the
B. air velocity is too low B. 5°C above the dry bulb temperature pressure cutout switch, you should _____________. evaporator tail coil should be _____________.
C. relative humidity is high C. 3°C above the dry bulb temperature A. stop the compressor A. installed on the bottom of the suction line
D. relative humidity is too low D. equal to the dry bulb temperature B. secure the condenser B. installed between the suction strainer and compressor
Ans: D Ans: D C. close the "king" valve C. insulated before setting the superheat adjusting screw
2064 In reference to air conditioning, when air attains the maximum 2065 If air at 35°C dry bulb temperature and 50% relative humidity is D. stop the circulating pump D. insulated after installation
amount of moisture it can hold at a specific temperature, it is said to conditioned to 24°C dry bulb temperature and 50% relative humidity, Ans: C Ans: D
be _____________. it is an example of _____________. 2084 Purging is the process used to _____________. 2085 In a direct expansion evaporator, the coils are ___________.
A. superheated A. cooling only A. eliminate moisture from the refrigeration system A. covered with insulation
B. saturated B. cooling and humidifying B. separate refrigerant from oil B. half covered with insulation
C. condensed C. cooling and dehumidifying C. remove noncondensable gases from the refrigeration system C. surrounded by air
D. convected D. adiabatic cooling D. decrease the total amount of refrigerant in the system D. surrounded by water
Ans: B Ans: C Ans: C Ans: C
2066 When the relief valve opens it discharges high pressure refrigerant 2067 Dichlorodifluoromethane when vaporized in the presence of an open 2086 Which of the devices listed is used to limit frosting of evaporator 2087 In addition to removing water from a refrigerant, most dehydrators
vapor to the _____________. flame, will form ____________. coils on multiple box installations served by one compressor? also effectively remove entrapped _____________.
A. liquid strainer A. carbon dioxide gas
B. refrigerant inlet of the condenser B. phosgene gas A. Back pressure control valve A. acid
C. inlet side of the evaporator C. trichlorodifluoromethane B. Automatic expansion valve B. air
D. suction side of the compressor D. sulphur dioxide C. Capillary tube C. dichlorodifluoromethane
Ans: D Ans: B D. Solenoid valve D. desiccant
2068 A pressure drop in the liquid line of a refrigeration system may cause 2069 Moisture is removed from a refrigeration system by Ans: A Ans: A
_____________. _____________. 2088 When you find a small refrigerant leak with a halide torch, the color 2089 The thermostatic expansion valve in a refrigeration system opens
A. the solenoid valve to seize A. bleeding refrigerant from the condenser of the torch flame will be _____________. when the pressure _____________.
B. the compressor to hunt B. opening a drain petcock on the oil separator A. orange A. decreases in the evaporator
C. flash gas to form in the liquid line C. condensing the water in the heat exchanger B. blue B. decreases in the expansion valve control bulb
D. the expansion valve to freeze open D. using a dehydrator cartridge C. white C. increases above the expansion valve diaphragm
Ans: C Ans: D D. green D. increases in the solenoid valve
2070 In an operating refrigeration system low on refrigerant, a liquid line 2071 Moisture entering a typical refrigeration system will most likely Ans: D Ans: C
sight glass will _____________. _____________. 2090 When a refrigerated compartment of a multi-box system served by 2091 During the initial pull down of the box temperatures in a refrigeration
A. be clear A. boil in the condenser one compressor reaches the correct temperature, the temperature system, which of the devices listed is used to prevent excessive gas
B. be blue B. be removed by the liquid line strainers control in that one compartment is achieved by a/an pressure at the compressor suction?
C. be light green C. cause sweating and frost on the evaporator coils _____________.
D. show bubbles D. freeze in the expansion valve A. expansion valve A. Suction pressure hold back valve
Ans: D Ans: D B. back pressure regulating valve B. High pressure cutout
C. solenoid valve C. Solenoid valve
D. low pressure cutout switch D. Low pressure cutout
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Ans: C Ans: A C. Both I and II C. Both I and II

2092 The device used to limit the passage of moisture through a 2093 In an atmosphere of 100% relative humidity, the wet bulb D. Neither I nor II D. Neither I nor II
refrigeration system is the _____________. thermometer would register a temperature _____________. Ans: C Ans: B
A. humidifier A. above the dry bulb temperature 2112 The effective temperature of air is dependent upon _______. I. 2113 One of the primary steps in assisting someone who has been
B. aerator B. below the dry bulb temperature relative humidity II. air velocity overcome by ammonia vapors is to _____________.
C. dehydrator C. the same as the dry bulb temperature A. I only A. loosen all clothing
D. trap D. above the dry bulb temperature, but below the saturation B. II only B. provide the victim with smelling salts
temperature C. Both I and II C. rinse the affected area with water
Ans: C Ans: C D. Neither I nor II D. give the patient plenty of fresh air
2094 When a refrigeration system is being charged through the low side, 2095 Copper piping has been used in refrigeration systems because Ans: C Ans: D
the _____________. _____________. 2114 Which recovery phase will reduce the loss of oil during the recovery 2115 To test for a suspected large refrigerant leak from a refrigeration
A. refrigerant should be added as a vapor A. it is creep resistant at low temperatures of refrigerants from small appliances such as a water cooler? system in an enclosed area, you should ____________.
B. suction service valve must be back seated B. it offers less internal friction
C. discharge service valve must be front seated C. iron is corroded by R-12 A. vapor recovery A. apply liquid ammonia to the suspected leak
D. refrigerant drum should be turned upside down D. leaks are more easily detected in copper B. liquid recovery B. apply a soap solution to the area of the suspected leak
Ans: A Ans: B C. inital recovery C. a halide leak detector to all piping joints
2096 Loss of refrigerant during the purging process can be kept to a 2097 In a refrigeration system, if the cooling water to thecondenser fails, D. vapor-liquid recovery D. apply a hydrostatic test with water
minimum by ____________. the __________. Ans: A Ans: B
A. operating the dehydrator continuously A. box temperature solenoid valve will close 2116 One benefit of proper air circulation in a refrigerated cargo space is 2117 The high pressure cutout switch will stop the refrigeration centrifugal
B. purging through the discharge service valve B. expansion valve will close _____________. compressor when there is _____________.
C. cracking the purge valve briefly C. compressor will shutdown A. more temperature differential A. a stoppage of condenser cooling water flow
D. closing the liquid line king valve D. king valve will open B. increased moisture content B. fouled condenser tubes
Ans: C Ans: C C. reduced slime and mold C. excessive air in the system
2098 In a small appliance using HFC-134a you would expect to see the 2099 Which of the listed types of refrigeration compressors can be D. increased density of the air D. all of the above
greatest temperature drop across the __________. designed with short large diameter suction lines? Ans: C Ans: D
A. evaporator A. Reciprocating 2118 Dehydrators are usually located in the liquid line of refrigeration 2119 A liquid line solenoid valve controls refrigerant flow to the evaporator
B. capillary tube B. Rotary systems in order to _____________. by _____________.
C. compressor C. Screw A. remove oil from the refrigerant A. throttling the refrigerant
D. receiver D. Centrifugal B. prevent icing of the expansion valve B. fully opening or closing
Ans: B Ans: D C. reduce compressor discharge line sweating C. sensing the superheat in the tail coil
2100 Which of the methods listed is most frequently used to control 2101 The safest and quickest method of adding refrigerant to a D. prevent liquid slugging in the suction line D. sensing the temperature in the liquid line
evaporator refrigerant flow rate in a shipboard refrigeration system? refrigeration system is to add the refrigerant through the Ans: B Ans: B
_____________. 2120 Low side passive charging of a refrigeration system may be speeded 2121 The individual box temperatures of a multibox refrigerationsystem
A. Direct expansion with constant superheat A. discharge service valve as a vapor up by _____________. are controlled by _____________.
B. Indirect expansion with constant superheat B. suction service valves as a liquid A. warming the service cylinder with a torch A. expansion valves
C. Low side float control C. charging valve as a liquid B. warming the service cylinder with hot water B. solenoid valves
D. High side float control D. condenser relief valve as a vapor C. inverting the service cylinder C. back-pressure valves
Ans: A Ans: C D. inclining the service cylinder D. regulation of the cooling water
2102 The primary purpose of a thermostatic controlled solenoid valve 2103 The purpose of running a refrigeration compressor motor in short Ans: B Ans: B
used in a multi-box refrigeration system is to _____________. intermittent spurts when starting the system after a prolonged 2122 The thermostat controlling the operation of the solenoid valve to a 2123 Charging liquid CFC-11 into a system under a heavy vacuum could
shutdown is to _____________. refrigerated box senses _____________. cause __________.
A.
control the refrigerated compartment temperature A. allow refrigerant vapor cycling time A. evaporator coil inlet temperature A. the purge unit to operate
B.
bypass refrigerant flow to the evaporator B. insure proper operation of the compressor B. evaporator coil outlet temperature B. system secondary refrigerant to freeze
C.
maintain the proper refrigerant superheat C. let the refrigerated compartment cool gradually C. compressor discharge temperature C. air and moisture to enter the reciever
D.
stop the compressor when the evaporator reaches the proper D. determine actual compressor oil level D. the refrigerated box temperature D. rupture disk to rupture
temperature Ans: D Ans: B
Ans: A Ans: B 2124 Which materials should be used for ammonia refrigeration system 2125 When checking the oil level in a refrigeration compressor, the most
2104 In a refrigeration system, the thermal expansion valve sensing bulb 2105 Prior to making repairs on an evaporator located in a large, multi- evaporator cooling coil construction? accurate reading is obtained ____________.
is located _____________. box refrigeration system, you should remove the refrigerant by A. Copper tubing with copper fins A. immediately after purging
_____________. B. Copper tubing with aluminum fins B. immediately after charging
A. near the evaporator coil outlet A. pumping it from the system to a clean empty drum C. Aluminum tubing with copper fins C. after being secured for 3 hours with the sump heater secured
B. near the evaporator coil inlet B. draining the system through the purge valve connection
C. on the liquid line strainer C. pumping all refrigerant to the receiver D. All of the above may be used. D. immediately after shutdown following a prolonged period of operation
D. at the solenoid valve outlet D. exhausting it to the atmosphere
Ans: A Ans: C Ans: C Ans: D
2106 An evaporator pressure regulating valve (back pressure regulator) 2107 When the solenoid valves in a refrigeration system have closed, the 2126 The temperature in a refrigerated space is controlled by adjusting 2127 Standard driers used in many container type refrigeration systems
is installed in the evaporator coils of some refrigeration systems to compressor will be stopped by the _____________. the thermostat connected to the _____________. may contain ________________.
_____________. A. suction line solenoid A. activated charcoal or silica gel
A. prevent compressor overload A. low water cutout B. thermostatic expansion valve B. special chemicals to increase adsorbtion rates
B. maintain a minimum evaporator pressure B. low pressure cutout C. liquid line box solenoid C. activated alumina or silica gel
C. control liquid refrigerant pressure C. high pressure cutout D. low pressure cutout switch D. all of the above may be used
D. regulate refrigerant outlet superheat D. spring-loaded relief valve Ans: C Ans: C
Ans: B Ans: B 2128 The water regulating valve installed in a refrigeration system is 2129 The maximum level of moisture permitted in an operating
2108 If the air temperature increases while atmospheric pressure remains 2109 Refrigeration isolation valves are of the double seated type in order operated by the _______________. refrigeration system is ______________.
constant, the air will _____________. to ______________. A. compressor discharge temperature A. 5 parts per million
A. have a greater capacity to absorb moisture A. allow for operation as a suction or discharge valve B. compressor discharge pressure B. 8 parts per million
B. absorb less free atmospheric moisture B. permit repacking under pressure C. solenoid C. 10 parts per million
C. become supersaturated at high relative humidity C. conserve space D. sensing line from the tail coil D. 15 parts per million
D. give up moisture as condensation D. allow for removal or replacement without shutting down Ans: B Ans: D
Ans: A Ans: B 2130 When used as a refrigerant, ammonia containing moisture will act as 2131 The thermal expansion valve reacts directly to the _____________.
2110 In order to achieve greater dehumidification with an airconditioning 2111 Subcooling of the refrigerant to reduce the percent offlash gas is a corrosive mixture to __________.
system, you should _________. I. reduce the cooling coil accomplished ___________. I. as the refrigerant passes through the A. steel components A. temperature in the space being cooled
temperature II. increase the reheater temperature expansion valve II. in most water cooled condensers B. brass and bronze metals B. liquid refrigerant pressure at the solenoid valve
C. stainless steel components C. pressure drop across the evaporator coils
A. I only A. I only D. All of the above are correct. D. refrigerant gas superheat at the coil outlet
B. II only B. II only Ans: B Ans: D
 Page 113 Page 114

2132 In an operating, water-cooled, multi-box refrigeration system, both 2133 When hot gas defrosting a refrigeration system, one way to A. R-22 A. R-22
low discharge and high suction pressures are being simultaneously overcome the possibility of a large slug of liquid refrigerant entering B. R-123 B. R-123
experienced. The probable cause for this condition is a/an the compressor suction is to use the installed _____________. C. R-134a C. R-134a
____________. D. R-227 D. R-227
A. overcharge of refrigerant in the system A. subcooler Ans: B Ans: B
B. fouled shell-and-tube condenser B. liquid extractors 2152 Moisture is removed from CFC-12 using a recycler by __________. 2153 Of the four refrigerants CFC-11, CFC-12, HFC-134a, and HCFC-22;
C. improper superheat adjustment on the low side C. re-evaporator HCFC-22 operates at the __________.
D. discharge relief valve leaking back to the suction side D. drain lines A. bleeding noncondensables off A. lowest system pressure with the lowest boiling point
Ans: D Ans: C B. opening a drain petcock on the oil separator B. highest system pressure with the lowest boiling point
2134 Refrigerant recovery equipment that is considered as being system 2135 The suction pressure switch controlling the refrigeration compressor C. condensing the water in the condenser C. lowest system pressure with the highest boiling point
dependent __________. operation is actuated by _____________. D. using a dehydrator cartridge D. highest system pressure with the highest boiling point
A. must have its own power source A. pressure acting on a bellows Ans: D Ans: B
B. recovers refrigerant with the aid of components in the system B. temperature acting on a bellows 2154 When installing a mechanical shaft seal on a refrigeration 2155 The watch engineer finds the cargo refrigeration compressor has
compressor, extreme care must be taken to prevent _________. blown the shaft seal. In this situation, he should __________.
C. are portable units C. temperature acting on a thermal element
D. can only recover liquid refrigerant D. pressure acting on compressor suction valves A. any lubricant from contacting the carbon surface that would cause A. secure the compressor at once and close the suction and discharge
Ans: B Ans: A the expulsion of the saturated teflon film valves
2136 If you find the pressure of a R-12 refrigeration system to be worked 2137 When taking readings at the suction service valve of an operating B. dirt and foreign particles from coming in contact with the highly B. pump the system down and isolate the leak
on is 0 bar g, ___________. refrigeration compressor __________. polished sealing surfaces
A. only recover the vapor refrigerant A. the pressure, or temperature reading is only required, as the C. the teflon film from being damaged by the corrosive effects of C. close the suction valve, secure the compressor, and then replace
refrigerant is saturated excessive handling the shaft seal
B. only recover the liquid refrigerant B. the pressure and temperature reading is required as the refrigerant D. shaft scoring due to improper use of the installation tools provided D. tighten the shaft seal packing to reduce leakage, slow the
is probably subcooled with the seal kits compressor, and operate the expansion valves by hand until repairs
C. recover liquid and vapor refrigerant and have it reclaimed C. the pressure and temperature reading is required as the refrigerant can be made
is superheated Ans: B Ans: A
D. do not recover the refrigerant D. is unimportant as accurate readings at this location can not be 2156 Routine maintenance on a Central Control Room hermetically sealed 2157 HCFC-123 presents health threats to service technicians, which may
obtained air conditioning unit should include _____________. include its ___________.
Ans: D Ans: C A. changing the air filter A. flammability as a liquid
2138 The low pressure cutout switch will cause the compressor in a 2139 If the electric coil to a refrigeration system modulation valve B. recharging the system B. freezing in the compressor
refrigeration system to short cycle if the ________. develops an open, the valve will _______________. C. changing compressor lubricant C. toxic threat
A. expansion valve thermal bulb loses its charge A. move to the open position due to the flow of refrigerant across the D. renewing container vacuum D. being caustic and strong offensive odor
valve orifice Ans: A Ans: C
B. differential pressure between the cut-in pressure and cutout B. move to the open position due to the spring pressure acting upon the 2158 The most cost-effective method of recovering refrigerant from a 2159 In an air conditioning system, low head pressure associated with a
pressure is too small armature chiller with more than 2.5 kgs of refrigerant, to meet EPA reciprocating compressor can be the result of __________.
C. expansion valve freezes in the closed position C. tend to move to a centered position, thereby maintaining box requirements is to use a __________.
temperature A. liquid pump A. broken valve springs
D. refrigerant has too much oil in circulation D. remain in whatever position it was in prior to developing the open B. vapor recovery machine B. tight drive belts
C. liquid followed by vapor recovery C. high line voltage
Ans: B Ans: B D. vapor followed by liquid recovery D. air in the system
2140 The liquid line, thermostatically controlled, solenoid valve is operated 2141 Most refrigerants are originated primarily from which of the following Ans: C Ans: A
in response to the ____________. base molecules? 2160 An obstructed expansion valve may be indicated by an incompletely 2161 If a thermostatic expansion valve is adjusted for too high a superheat
A. superheat in the tail coil A. ammonia and carbon dioxide cooled evaporator and ______________. value _________________.
B. temperature of the box B. ammonia and ethane A. a higher than normal discharge pressure A. all of the system liquid will flow to the evaporator coil
C. compressor suction pressure C. methane and sulfur dioxide B. frosting at the evaporator inlet B. an insufficient amount of liquid will be fed to the evaporator
D. compressor discharge pressure D. ethane and methane C. a decrease in the amount of frosting across the drier C. an excessive amount of liquid will be fed to the evaporator
Ans: B Ans: D D. frosting at the suction side of the compressor D. only the required amount of refrigerant will enter the evaporator
2142 Refrigerant recovery cylinders are color coded__________. 2143 One function of the thermal expansion valve is to _________. regardless of the required superheat value
A. gray top and yellow lower body A. act as a pilot from the solenoid valve Ans: B Ans: B
B. gray top and light blue lower body B. regulate the amount of refrigerant flow to the coil 2162 If an expansion valve is adjusted for too low a superheat value 2163 Any air mixture whose dew point remains constant will also have an
C. light blue top and yellow lower body C. regulate the water flow _________. unchanging _____________.
D. yellow top and gray body D. turn the compressor off and on A. the efficiency of the unit will be increased A. dry bulb temperature
Ans: D Ans: B B. too much liquid will be passed back to the evaporator B. wet bulb temperature
2144 All refrigerant recovered from burned out small appliances must be 2145 Which of the following refrigerants is an interim retrofit replacement C. the box temperature will increase causing an expansion of the C. specific humidity
__________. for R-11? volume of air
A. sent to a designated reclaimation facility for processing A. R-500 D. the refrigeration effect will increase contributing to uncontrolled box D. specific volume
B. contained in a refillable cylinder B. R-134a temperatures
C. destroyed although it can be reused C. R-12 Ans: B Ans: C
D. used to clean out burn-outs D. R-123 2164 A reheater in an air conditioning system functions to 2165 A water regulating valve controls the refrigeration condenser
Ans: A Ans: D _____________. cooling water flow in response to condenser _____________.
2146 When a thermostatic expansion valve is installed in a container 2147 If passive recovery is used on a refrigeration unit with a non-
refrigeration system, the sensing bulb may not require insulation if operating compressor, the recovery should be made A. control inlet air temperature A. cooling water outlet temperature
the bulb is installed _______________. through____________. B. control inlet air volume B. liquid refrigerant outlet temperature
A. outside of the cooled air stream A. high side only C. maintain relative humidity at 15% C. liquid refrigerant outlet pressure
B. in the cooled air stream B. low side only D. restore conditioned air temperature to a comfortable level D. refrigerant vapor inlet pressure
C. on the tail end of the condenser outlet pipe C. high and low side Ans: D Ans: D
D. at the mid-horizontal level of a vertically run tail coil D. venting to atmosphere, cannot be recovered 2166 In a refrigeration plant, one purpose of the receiver is to 2167 Oil separators installed in refrigeration systems serve to
Ans: A Ans: C ____________. _____________.
2148 Which of the following instruments can be used to measure the rate 2149 When current to a refrigeration system modulating valve is A. cool the refrigerant gas A. remove excess oil from the system
of air flow? increased, the _________. B. superheat the refrigerant liquid B. remove oil entrained in high pressure liquid lines
A. Thermometer A. valve is moving to a more open position C. store the refrigerant C. return oil entrained in refrigerant vapor back to the compressor
B. Anemometer B. temperature of the box is increasing crankcase
C. Psychrometer C. suction pressure of the compressor will decrease D. condense the refrigerant D. all of the above
D. Areometer D. amount of air flowing through the condenser is decreased Ans: C Ans: C
Ans: B Ans: C 2168 Properties of a good refrigeration oil include ____________. 2169 The receiver used in a refrigeration system _____________.
2150 Which of the refrigerants listed is considered as a suitable 2151 Which of the refrigerants listed is considered as a suitable and A. low wax content A. stores liquid refrigerant
replacement for R-11? limited ozone producing alternative for R-11? B. high pour point B. collects noncondensable gases
 Page 115 Page 116

C. high viscosity C. allows refrigerant subcooling A. Shortage of refrigerant oil. A. slugging in the condenser
D. all of the above D. prevents compressor surging B. Slight shortage of refrigerant. B. the evaporator coil to frost
Ans: A Ans: A C. Excessive condenser cooling water flow. C. the compressor to short cycle
2170 The purpose of the low pressure cutout switch is to 2171 The sensing line for the low pressure cutout switch to a refrigeration D. Faulty expansion valve. D. the thermal expansion valve to malfunction
_____________. system is located _____________. Ans: B Ans: B
A. maintain liquid refrigerant at the suction of the compressor A. in the chill box 2190 The low pressure side of a refrigeration system is considered to 2191 If the discharge valves on a refrigeration compressor are leaking
B. maintain a preset suction pressure to the compressor B. before the receiver exist from the _____________. badly, the compressor should __________.
C. start and stop the compressor at preset operating pressures C. on the suction side of the compressor A. expansion valve to the compressor A. run continuously
D. operate at minimum efficiency D. on the discharge side of the compressor B. receiver to the expansion coil B. not start
Ans: C Ans: C C. expansion valve to the evaporator C. have high discharge pressure
2172 The purpose of the refrigeration system low pressure cutout switch 2173 The temperature of the refrigerant in the evaporator coil depends D. condenser to the expansion valve D. short cycle on the high pressure switch
is to _____________. mostly upon the _____________. Ans: A Ans: A
A. protect the compressor from liquid flood back A. refrigerant pressure in the evaporator 2192 If the evaporator coil of a single box, air cooled refrigerator 2193 In a compression refrigeration cycle, the temperature of the liquid
B. protect the compressor from low discharge pressure B. cooling water temperature to the condenser accumlates frost, the compressor will most likely _____________. refrigerant experiences its greatest decrease in the _____________.
C. start and stop the compressor upon system demand C. heat load in the refrigerator compartment
D. start the compressor after a drop in the evaporator pressure D. solenoid valve in the liquid line A. run continuously A. evaporator
Ans: C Ans: A B. short cycle on low pressure cutout B. compressor
2174 One cause of high head pressure occurring in a refrigeration system 2175 The oil separator (trap) used in a shipboard refrigeration system is C. short cycle on high pressure cutout C. expansion valve
can be _____________. located between the ____________. D. fail to start D. condenser
A. insufficient cooling water flow to the condenser A. compressor discharge valve and the condenser Ans: B Ans: C
B. a low refrigerant charge in the system B. condenser and the receiver 2194 A refrigerant with oil in solution has a _____________. 2195 The temperature of a refrigerant gas is the highest _______.
C. the liquid valve is open too much C. receiver and the king valve A. higher boiling temperature for a given pressure than does a pure A. at the compressor discharge
D. high evaporator superheat D. receiver and the expansion valve refrigerant
Ans: A Ans: A B. lower boiling temperature for a given pressure than does a pure B. at the compressor suction
2176 An oil separator is a device used to remove oil from the 2177 Low compressor head pressure in a refrigeration system can be refrigerant
_____________. caused by _____________. C. boiling pressure equal to that of a pure refrigerant at a given C. in the expansion valve
A. liquid refrigerant A. insufficient condenser cooling water pressure
B. receiver B. excessive condenser cooling water D. boiling point will not be affected by entrained oil D. in the receiver
C. gaseous refrigerant C. air in the refrigeration system Ans: A Ans: A
D. expansion valve D. excessive refrigerant in the system 2196 Refrigerant is circulated through a refrigeration system by the 2197 If condensation collects and drips off an evaporator coil, the
Ans: C Ans: B _____________. temperature of the coil is _____________.
2178 If the head pressure of a reciprocating refrigeration compressor is 2179 A low refrigeration compressor discharge pressure can be caused by A. compressor A. a maximum of 21°F
excessive, ____________. _____________. B. condenser B. above 0°C, but below the dew point
A. the relief valve should open before the high pressure cutout A. warm food in the refrigerator C. expansion valve C. 21°F but, above the dew point
B. the relief valve should open and allow the excess refrigerant to flow B. wasted zinc plates in the condenser D. evaporator D. below 32°F and below the dew point
to the receiver Ans: A Ans: B
C. the high pressure cutout switch should operate before the relief C. leaky compressor discharge valves 2198 Thermostatic expansion valves can be adjusted for _________. 2199 Refrigerant enters the condenser as a _____________.
valve opens
D. you should close in on the suction valve D. faulty door gaskets on the refrigerator A. suction pressure only A. high pressure liquid
Ans: C Ans: C B. head pressure only B. low pressure vapor
2180 High suction pressure to a refrigeration system compressor is 2181 If a refrigeration compressor had developed a high suction pressure, C. superheat only C. high pressure vapor
caused by _____________. the problem could be a result of ________. D. suction pressure and box temperature D. low pressure liquid
A. the expansion valve is insufficiently opened A. a minor accumulation of air or noncondensable gases in the system Ans: C Ans: C
2200 Which of the listed components is considered to separate the high 2201 The sudden reduction of pressure occurring within the crankcase of
B. the expansion valve being open too wide B. a leaking king valve pressure side of a refrigeration cycle from the low pressure side of a refrigeration compressor during starting causes the
C. the king valve is insufficiently open C. a clogged subcooler the cycle? ___________.
D. a dirty dehydrator D. liquid refrigerant flooding back from the cooling coil A. The condenser and the expansion valve A. sudden evaporation of wax crystals in the lubricant
Ans: B Ans: D B. The king valve and the solenoid valve B. sudden evaporation of entrapped air in the lubricant
2182 When a refrigeration compressor has developed a high head 2183 Which of the following problems could cause the high pressure C. The compressor and the expansion valve C. release of refrigerant from the oil/refrigerant mixture
pressure as a result of a refrigerant overcharge, you should cutout switch to shut down the compressor in a refrigeration D. The condenser and the solenoid valve D. release of dissolved lubricant from the refrigerant
______________. system? Ans: C Ans: C
A. increase the amount of cooling water to the condenser A. A shortage of liquid refrigerant. 2202 Which of the following statements is correct concerning a typical 2203 Foaming of the oil in a refrigeration compressor crankcase is caused
B. decrease the amount of cooling water to the condenser B. Excessive frost on the evaporator. shipboard multi-coil refrigeration system? by _____________.
C. add more refrigerant to the system C. Excessive condenser cooling water. A. The liquid receiver functions to collect and remove A. refrigerant boiling out of solution from the lube oil
D. remove some refrigerant from the system D. Insufficient condenser cooling water flow. noncondensable gases.
Ans: D Ans: D B. A thermostatic expansion valve is used to control refrigerated B. liquid refrigerant flooding the compressor and system
2184 Which of the conditions listed could cause excessively low 2185 An excessive charge of refrigerant in an air-cooled refrigeration space temperature.
refrigerant pressure at the compressor suction? system can cause _____________. C. Refrigerant temperature in an evaporator is directly related to C. lube oil viscosity being reduced by refrigerant dilution
A. Insufficient flow of condenser cooling water. A. oil foaming in the compressor refrigerant pressure.
B. The system is low on refrigerant. B. higher than normal suction and discharge pressures with a higher D. Dehydrators must be used continuously in a refrigeration system. D. compressor suction pressure suddenly increasing
box temperature
C. The solenoid valve to the chill box is "frozen" in the open position. C. higher than normal discharge pressure with a normal box Ans: C Ans: A
temperature 2204 A cracked diaphragm in a thermostatic expansion valve will cause 2205 If a refrigeration compressor will not start, the reason may be
D. The high pressure cutout switch is inoperative. D. the compressor to run continuously the valve to _____________. _____________.
Ans: B Ans: C A. return to a neutral position A. the pressure regulating valve is not closing
2186 Noise in a refrigeration compressor can be caused by 2187 A warmer than normal compressor suction line might be caused by B. flood the evaporator B. an excessive lack of refrigerant in the system
____________. _____________. C. open C. badly leaking discharge valves
A. worn bearings and piston pins A. insufficient lubrication D. close D. worn piston rings
B. slugging due to flooding back B. insufficient refrigerant Ans: D Ans: B
C. too much oil in circulation C. excess refrigerant 2206 Sludge may be formed in the oil in the crankcase of a reciprocating 2207 The refrigeration compressor in a water cooled refrigeration system
D. all of the above D. excessive opening of the expansion valve air conditioning compressor as a result of _____________. is short cycling on the high pressure cutout switch. One reason for
Ans: D Ans: B this could be the ____________.
2188 Which of the conditions listed will cause a refrigeration compressor 2189 If a substantial difference is maintained between the refrigerant A. refrigerant bubbles in the lube oil A. system is low on refrigerant
to run constantly without simultaneously decreasing the temperature and the box air temperature within the refrigerated B. refrigerant reducing the lube oil viscosity B. high pressure cutout switch is improperly adjusted
temperature in the refrigerated space? compartment, this may result in _____________. C. oxidation of the lube oil from overheating C. discharge valves are leaking slightly
D. reducing the floc or cloud point of the oil D. discharge valves are leaking excessively
 Page 117 Page 118

Ans: C Ans: B C. wet bulb "depression" C. prevent air from being cooled below the dew point
2208 Air trapped in a refrigeration system using a water-cooled condenser 2209 A refrigeration unit will tend to short cycle when operating D. partial saturation temperature D. eliminate all noxious odors in the compartment
is usually indicated by ____________. ____________. Ans: C Ans: B
A. unusually high head pressure when compared to the existing A. under heavy loads 2228 Which of the following statements is correct concerning a halide 2229 Which of the locations listed would be considered as the most
temperature of the liquid refrigerant torch leak detector? common place to install a dryer in a refrigeration system?
B. higher than normal liquid level in the receiver B. during hot gas defrost
C. unusually lower than normal discharge pressure when compared to C. under light loads A. The probe should be moved rapidly over the area of a suspected A. Between the compressor and the condenser.
the existing temperature of the liquid refrigerant leak.
D. higher than normal liquid refrigerant temperature D. during starting conditions B. The torch is effective in locating large leaks only. B. Between the thermal expansion valve and the evaporator.
Ans: A Ans: C C. The flame will turn green in the presence of R-12. C. In the suction line.
2210 Sludge may form in the crankcase of an air conditioning compressor 2211 Excessive circulation of the lubricating oil with the refrigerant in a D. A refrigerant gas mask must be worn while using the torch. D. In the liquid line.
as a result of _____________. refrigeration system will cause _____________. Ans: C Ans: D
A. bubbling refrigerant A. carbon deposits on the compressor suction valves 2230 Cylindrical driers installed in halocarbon refrigerant systems should 2231 If the flame of a Halide leak detecting torch burns yellow, which of
B. overheating and oxidation B. the evaporator temperature to increase be arranged _____________. the problems listed is indicated?
C. lowered operating temperatures C. rapid corrosion of the thermal expansion valve A. so that the liquid enters at the top and leaves at the bottom when A. A restricted exploring tube
D. reducing the cloud or floc point D. no operating problems located in the liquid line
Ans: B Ans: B B. so that the liquid enters at the bottom and leaves at the top when B. A refrigeration leak
2212 If a refrigeration crankcase compressor were short cycling on the 2213 If a liquid sight flow indicator in a refrigeration system shows gas located in the liquid line
low pressure cutout switch, the cause might be that the bubbles in motion passing inside of the glass, there is C. so that the gas enters at the bottom and leaves at the top when C. A faulty reactor plate
____________. _____________. located in the suction line
A. system was overcharged with refrigerant A. too much refrigerant in the system D. horizontally if the drying agent is calcium oxide D. Normal operation
B. system was low on refrigerant B. oil entrained in the refrigerant Ans: B Ans: A
C. suction valves were leaking slightly C. less than a full charge of refrigerant in the system 2232 Tubing connections for refrigeration systems may be made by 2233 In a small appliance using HFC-134a you would expect to see the
D. relief valve was leaking slightly D. ice crystals forming in the refrigerant _____________. greatest temperature drop across the __________.
Ans: B Ans: C A. flaring A. evaporator
2214 The temperature at which water vapor in the atmosphere begins to 2215 Which of the problems listed could be indicated if a sight glass in the B. soldering B. receiver
condense is called the ____________. refrigerant liquid line is full of bubbles? C. silver brazing C. compressor
A. dew point temperature A. Proper refrigerant charge D. all of the above D. condenser
B. condensation temperature B. Faulty expansion valve Ans: D Ans: D
C. psychometric temperature C. Insufficient refrigerant 2234 When air is at its dew point and there is no change in either the 2235 In a refrigeration system, the amount of superheat absorbed by the
D. absolute humidity temperature D. Solenoid valve stuck open temperature or pressure, the air ______________. refrigerant is adjusted at the ____________.
Ans: A Ans: C A. has a low absolute humidity A. compressor
2216 Which of the listed operations will cause an automatically controlled 2217 Saltwater is typically provided to a refrigeration system to B. has the lowest relative humidity B. condenser
refrigeration compressor to restart? _____________. C. cannot give up its moisture C. evaporator coil
A. Closing of the solenoid valve A. cool the expansion valve D. will gain no additional moisture D. expansion valve
B. Closing of the expansion valve B. prevent refrigerant superheating Ans: D Ans: D
C. An increase in the suction pressure C. condense the refrigerant gas 2236 Which of the following statements is true concerning the use of 2237 A thermal expansion valve installed in a refrigeration system is
D. Decreasing the suction pressure D. prevent motor overheating dehydrators in refrigeration systems? controlled by _____________.
Ans: C Ans: C A. Dehydrators must be used continuously. A. the solenoid valve energizing coil
2218 R-12 is generally considered to be a safe, nontoxic, nonflammable, 2219 In the presence of an open flame or hot surfaces, chlorinated B. Dehydrators are usually installed in the liquid line. B. regulating the king valve
and nonexplosive refrigerant. It can, however, become highly toxic flourocarbon refrigerants decomposes and form _____________. C. Dehydrators are used when pumping down the system. C. a thermal bulb on the evaporator coil
when _____________. D. Dehydrators are used when purging the system. D. an electrically operated controller
A. superheated outside the system A. petroleum crystals Ans: B Ans: C
B. in contact with an open flame B. phosgene gas 2238 The thermostat controlling a refrigerated cargo box two-way solenoid 2239 A dehydrator installed in a refrigeration system is used to remove
C. heated to the boiling point C. water vapor valve senses _______________. _____________.
D. all of the above D. carbon monoxide A. evaporator coil inlet temperature A. noncondensable gases and vapors
Ans: B Ans: B B. the refrigerated box temperature B. oil from the refrigerant
2220 Ammonia when used as a refrigerant is valuable because of its high 2221 For safe storage, the maximum allowable temperature to which C. evaporator coil outlet temperature C. refrigerant from the oil
efficiency, it is however _____________. refrigerant bottles should be exposed is _____________. D. degree of refrigerant superheat D. moisture from the system
Ans: B Ans: D
A. toxic A. 37.8°C 2240 A solenoid valve used in a refrigeration system should be installed 2241 The normal operation of a refrigeration compressor should be to
B. flammable B. 52°C ______________. cycle on _____________.
C. explosive C. 66°C A. with the axis of the solenoid horizontal, sensing temperature of the A. in response to the low pressure cutout switch and off in response to
D. all of the above D. 79°C box, and upstream of the thermal expansion valve the high pressure cutout switch
Ans: D Ans: B
2222 Which of the following terms represents the form of heat removed 2223 When air at a given temperature, contains the maximum amount of B. upright, sensing temperature of the box, and upstream of the B. in response to the high pressure cutout switch and off in response to
from the refrigerant in the condenser of a refrigeration system? moisture for that temperature, the air is said to be ______________. thermal expansion valve the low pressure cutout switch
C. upright, sensing temperature of the box, and downstream of the C. and off in response to the low pressure cutout switch
A. Latent heat of vaporization A. superheated thermal expansion valve
B. Heat of compression B. saturated D. upright, sensing superheat of the tail coil, and upstream of the D. and off in response to the high pressure cutout switch
C. Superheat C. condensing thermal expansion valve
D. All of the above D. evaporating Ans: B Ans: C
Ans: D Ans: B 2242 If two compressors must be operated in parallel in order to maintain 2243 When starting a reciprocating refrigeration compressor that has
2224 Which of the following factors will have the greatest effect on the 2225 The pressure range between the system cut in and cut out pressures the box temperatures, a careful watch should be kept on the been shutdown for a period of time, you should manually throttle the
heating load within a conditioned space? in a refrigeration unit is known as _____________. _____________. _____________.
A. discharge pressure gauges of both compressors A. sea water valve
A. Solar gain A. opposing operational drag B. suction pressure gauges of both compressors B. king valve
B. Infiltration and ventilation air B. pressure distribution C. expansion valves of both evaporator coils C. suction valve
C. Occupants inside the space C. differential D. oil levels in both compressor crankcases D. expansion valve
D. Entertainment equipment within the space D. system purge Ans: D Ans: C
Ans: B Ans: C 2244 Leaking discharge reed valves in a refrigeration compressor should 2245 What is the color of the flame produced by a halide torch when there
2226 When using a sling psychrometer to determine relative humidity, the 2227 Cold storage compartments used for frozen or chilled foods, may be be _____________. is no refrigerant present?
indicated difference between the dry bulb and the wet bulb reading equipped with medium velocity air coolers to establish rapid A. reground A. Orange
is the _____________. convection and to __________. B. relapped B. Blue
A. relative humidity A. prevent shrinkage and drying of stored foods C. replaced C. Red
B. dew point B. deliver cooled air to all areas of the compartment D. rewound D. Green
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Ans: C Ans: B Ans: D Ans: D

2246 When a refrigeration compressor is in the "off" cycle, the thermal 2247 Some "hot gas" defrost systems reheat the refrigerant just prior to its 2266 A thermostatic expansion valve is designed to respond to 2267 The thermostatic expansion valve is designed to maintain constant
expansion valve _____________. returning to the compressor to _____________. _____________. _____________.
A. is always wide open A. increase the circulation of liquid refrigerant A. refrigerated space temperature A. refrigerant flow
B. is always completely closed B. prevent chill shocking the compressor suction valves B. compressor suction pressure B. box temperature
C. is open only until evaporator pressure is equalized C. improve the efficiency of the expansion valve C. vapor discharge pressure in the cooling coils C. outlet superheat
D. operates as if the system were in operation D. reduce the damaging effects of liquid slugging D. superheat in the tail coil D. coil pressure
Ans: D Ans: D Ans: D Ans: C
2248 When adding oil to a refrigeration system, precautions must be 2249 If a refrigeration system were short of refrigerant, the condition would 2268 Three of the refrigerants covered under the low pressure system 2269 When adding oil to a refrigeration system, precautions must be
taken to ensure that _____________. result in ____________. regulations are_________. taken to ensure that _____________.
A. the compressor suction pressure is not too high A. continuous running of the compressor A. CFC-11, CFC-113 and CFC-114 A. the compressor suction pressure is not too high
B. all air is purged from the pump and charging fittings B. high suction pressure B. CFC-11, CFC-113 and HCFC-123 B. all air is purged from the pump and charging fittings
C. the high pressure cutout switch is held open to prevent accidental C. high discharge pressure C. CFC-11, CFC-114 and HCFC-123 C. the high pressure cutout switch is held open to prevent accidental
starting starting
D. the condenser is completely shutdown first D. short cycling of the compressor on the water failure switch D. CFC-11, CFC-114 and CFC-502 D. the condenser is completely shutdown first
Ans: B Ans: A Ans: B Ans: B
2250 If only the chill box solenoid valve remains open, therefrigeration 2251 When the sensing bulb of a thermostatic expansion valve is charged 2270 A reheater, as used in an air conditioning system, is designed to 2271 A secondary refrigerant commonly used in shipboard air
compressor will eventually be stopped by______________. with a fluid different from the charge used in the system, it is said to control the _____________. conditioning systems is _____________.
be _____________. A. chilled water temperature A. methyl chloride
A. chill box thermostatic temperature switch A. blended charged B. dew point temperature B. water
B. low water cutout switch B. straight charged C. primary air temperature C. carbon dioxide
C. low pressure cutout switch C. mixed charged D. dry bulb temperature D. trichloroethylene
D. high pressure cutout switch D. cross charged Ans: D Ans: B
Ans: C Ans: D 2272 A room humidistat initiates the lowering of the humidity of the 2273 Newly developed refrigerants, used to reduce stratospheric ozone
2252 Which of the valves listed is normally closed when charging the 2253 In a vapor compression type refrigeration cycle, the refrigerant conditioned supply air to a space, while the actual process is depletion, are sometimes refered to as azeotropic. This means that
refrigeration system through the high side? temperature decreases the most in the _________. accomplished by ____________. the resulting liquid_________.
A. raising the cooling coil temperature and lowering the reheater A. will condense at a temperature lower than the boiling point of the
A. Dehydrator inlet valve A. evaporator temperature componant withthe lowest boiling point
B. Liquid line king valve B. condenser B. raising both the cooling coil temperature and the reheater B. boils at a temperature equal to the boiling point of the component
C. Suction line valve C. compressor temperature with the lowest boiling point
D. Thermal expansion valve D. expansion valve C. lowering both the cooling coil temperature and the reheater C. will condense at a temperature equal to the highest condensation
Ans: B Ans: D temperature point of the component with a condensation point equal to any one
2254 In a refrigeration system, silica gel is used in the 2255 If the compressor is heard to knock while pumping down the low side of the components
__________________. for repairs, this is an indication of ____________. D. lowering the cooling coil temperature and raising the reheater D. boils at a temperature independent of any individual components in
A. condenser A. worn piston rings temperature the mixture
B. dehydrator B. faulty bearings Ans: D Ans: D
C. liquid strainer C. air being introduced to the system 2274 If a refrigeration compressor were short cycling on the low pressure 2275 The prohibition against the venting of halogenated floro-carbon
D. hygrometer D. foaming of the crankcase oil cutout switch, the cause might be that the ____________. refrigerants to the atmosphere requires that, at a minimum, the
Ans: B Ans: D refrigerant must be __________.
2256 A device used to hold open the refrigeration compressor suction 2257 When two refrigerated spaces in a refrigeration system are served A. system was overcharged with refrigerant A. recovered
valve that normally draws gas from the suction manifold, but returns by a single compressor and condenser, yet are maintained at B. system was low on oil B. reclaimed
it to the suction line without compressing it is called a different temperatures, a back pressure regulating valve serves to C. suction valves were leaking slightly C. recycled
_____________. provide ____________. D. system was low on refrigerant D. destroyed
A. discharge line bypass A. a higher pressure in the evaporator coil in the colder box Ans: D Ans: A
B. cylinder unloader B. a higher pressure in the evaporator coil in the warmer box 2276 If the discharge valves on a refrigeration compressor are leaking 2277 Considering equal capacities, which refrigeration system can employ
C. suction line bypass C. a lower pressure in the evaporator coil in the warmer box slightly, the compressor will ___________. the smallest compressor?
D. relief valve D. equal pressures in the evaporator coils of both boxes A. run continuously A. Ammonia
Ans: B Ans: B B. not start B. Carbon Dioxide
2258 A common secondary refrigerant used in air conditioning systems 2259 Refrigerant flow through a thermostatic expansion valve is greatest C. short cycle on the water low pressure switch C. Dichlorodifluoromethane
aboard ship is _____________. when the _____________. D. short cycle on the high pressure switch D. Monochlorodifluoromethane
A. R-123 A. evaporator is warm and empty of refrigerant Ans: A Ans: A
B. water B. evaporator is cold and empty of refrigerant 2278 What is the maximum volume to which refillable refrigeration 2279 In addition to moisture, a refrigerant dehydrator charged with silica
C. nitrogen C. low side and high side pressures are equal cylinders should be filled? gel is designed to absorb _____________.
D. Carrene D. low side pressure and thermal element pressure equalize A. 60% full A. refrigerant
Ans: B Ans: A B. 70% full B. acids
2260 In a refrigeration system, air is purged at the __________. 2261 Thermostatic expansion valves are opened ______________. C. 80% full C. noncondensable gases
D. 90% full D. refrigerant oil
A. expansion valve A. by spring pressure and closed by refrigerant pressure Ans: C Ans: B
B. filter/drier B. by refrigerant pressure and closed by spring pressure 2280 Which refrigerant listed has the highest latent heat per kg? 2281 The chemical formula for ozone is represented as ________.
C. evaporator C. and closed by spring pressure A. R-22 A. O
D. condenser D. and closed by refrigerant pressure B. Ammonia B. O2
Ans: D Ans: B C. R-134 C. O3
2262 Which of the listed substances is used as an absorbing agent in the 2263 The purpose of heating the oil in the sump of a secured refrigeration D. Sulfur Dioxide D. Oz
shipboard dehydration of refrigeration systems? compressor is to _____________. Ans: B Ans: C
A. Ethylene glycol A. reduce the absorption of refrigerant by the lubricating oil 2282 Average condensing pressures of an ammonia refrigeration system 2283 Which of the following devices is the safest to use when locating
B. Sodium bromide B. prevent acidic pitting range between __________. ammonia leaks?
C. Silica gel C. remove entrained water A. 8 and 11bar g A. Litmus paper
D. Methyl glycol D. remove wax and gum B. 9 and 11.5bar g B. Sulphur candle
Ans: C Ans: A C. 9.5 and 12 bar g C. Halide torch
2264 A partially fouled liquid line strainer in therefrigeration system will 2265 Which of the design features listed for a refrigeration valve are used D. 10 and 13 bar g D. All of the above are recommended.
cause ___________. I. an increase in the percent of flash gas II. to reduce the possibility of loss of refrigerant from the system? Ans: D Ans: A
desireable subcooling of the liquid 2284 Pure anhydrous ammonia is considered noncorrosive to ______. 2285 For most refrigeration split systems that use one sight glass, a good
A. I only A. Back seating location for the sight glass is just ________.
B. II only B. Valve caps A. iron only A. before the compressor suction line
C. Both I and II C. Packless diaphragms B. steel only B. after the compressor discharge
D. Neither I nor II D. All of the above. C. copper-bearing metals C. upstream of the condenser
 Page 121 Page 122

D. None of the above are correct. D. upstream of the liquid metering device 2304 Alkylbenzene ISO 32 cST refrigerant oil is miscible and suitable to 2305 The speed of a belt driven ventilation fan can be increased without
Ans: C Ans: D use with___________. changing the motor speed by using a _____________.
2286 Overfilling a refrigerant container is extremely dangerous because of 2287 A flapper valve, also known as a beam valve, is frequently used in
the high pressures generated. The generation of pressure is refrigeration compressor discharge valves, and is designed to A. R-22 A. smaller diameter fan
the_________. _____________. B. R-32 B. smaller diameter drive pulley
A. vapor pressure of the refrigerant A. feed discharge pressure to the suction line C. R-134a C. larger diameter fan
B. discharge pressure of the recovery compressor B. aid in hot gas defrosting D. R-143a D. larger diameter drive pulley
C. hydrostatic pressure of the expanding liquid C. pass liquid slugs Ans: A Ans: D
D. discharge pressure from the recovery cylinder D. equalize system pressure for compressor cycling 2306 An untagged refrigerant cylinder is found in your storage area. It is 2307 In a refrigeration system, the bulb for the thermalexpansion valve is
Ans: C Ans: C light (sky) blue, and the refrigerant it contains is __________. always located _____________.
2288 What is the equivalent tonnage of a refrigeration system rated at 2289 R-12 has been a suitable refrigerant for use in high temperature
48,000 BTU per hour? applications with _____________. A. CFC-12 A. in the middle of the evaporator coils
A. 2.5 A. reciprocating compressors B. CFC-11 B. near the evaporator coil outlet
B. 3 B. rotary compressors C. HCFC-22 C. near the evaporator coil inlet
C. 4 C. centrifugal compressors D. HFC-134a D. at the begining of the bottom row of the evaporator coils
D. 5 D. all of the above Ans: D Ans: B
Ans: C Ans: D 2308 Refrigeration systems using forced air circulation evaporators have 2309 The color of the refrigeration oil can indicate various operating
2290 If you know that a refrigeration system is leaking refrigerant, you 2291 Which of the devices listed will indicate the proper operation of a a tendency to cause rapid dehydration of foods unless conditions of the compressor/ refrigeration system in which it is
would first___________. refrigeration system dryer? _______________. used. Black oil can be an indication of _____________________.
A. recover the refrigerant A. Dryer sensing bulb
B. charge the system B. Mcleod gage A. a complete change of air takes place within each 30 second interval A. copper plating caused by moisture in the system
C. look for traces of oil C. Particulate test
D. evacuate the system D. Moisture indicator B. foods are packaged in corrugated storage boxes B. bearing wear or piston scoring
Ans: C Ans: D C. the air is circulated slowly with a minimum temperature change C. carbonization resulting from air in the system
2292 In a multi-evaporator refrigeration system, a solenoid valve is 2293 Which of the following statements regarding refrigeration systems
installed in the liquid line before _____________. is/are true? D. a humidifier is installed within the refrigeration system D. gasket breakdown
A. the receiver A. In any refrigeration system, oil and refrigerant are always present. Ans: C Ans: C
2310 To add refrigerant to the low side of an air conditioning system, the 2311 The color of the oil observed in the sight glass of an operating
B. each expansion valve B. Refrigerant is the working fluid and is required for cooling. refrigerant should be introduced through the _____________. refrigeration compressor experiencing bearing wear or piston scoring
C. the condenser C. The main purpose of the oil is to lubricate the compressor. would appear _______________.
D. the oil separator D. All of the above A. suction service valve as a vapor A. gray or metallic
Ans: B Ans: D B. suction service valve as a liquid B. black
2294 In a refrigeration system, the condenser cooling water regulating 2295 In a refrigeration system with a Thermostatic expansion valve, the C. discharge service valve as a vapor C. clear, because the heavier particles would gravitate to the bottom of
valve is directly controlled by the ____________. component installed after the metering device is the ___________. the sump
D. charging valve as a liquid D. as a light blue-green
A. temperature of the cooling water A. evaporator Ans: A Ans: A
B. compressor discharge pressure B. receiver 2312 When replacing a thermostatic expansion valve sensing bulb, it is 2313 Expansion valve maintenance should include which of the following
C. amount of refrigerant in the system C. compressor necessary to ________. procedures?
D. temperature of the refrigerant after expansion D. solenoid valve A. apply a light film of oil to increase heat transfer A. Cleaning of in-line filters.
Ans: B Ans: A B. apply a light film of oil to prevent oxidation B. Ensuring that the thermal bulb is in good contact with the suction
2296 How does a refrigeration solenoid valve differ from a modulating 2297 What differentiates "system-dependent" and "self-contained" line.
valve? recovery devices in refrigeration systems? C. apply a heavy coating of grease to function as a heat sink C. Checking that the thermal bulb is in the proper location.
A. A solenoid valve can only be installed in liquid lines. A. self-contained recovery devices can only be used on large CGC and D. carefully coat the device with silicone sealant to reduce the effects of D. All of the above.
HCFC units convective cooling
B. A liquid line solenoid valve is either completely opened or closed, B. self-contained recovery devices usually contain a compressor, Ans: B Ans: D
whereas a modulation valve is positioned according to the strength system-dependent recovery devices do not 2314 Which chemical symbol represents ammonia? 2315 When opening or closing compressor service and line valves on a
of the applied electrical signal. typical refrigeration system, you _____________.
C. Solenoid valves are only used in low voltage refrigeration control C. the system compressor must be working to use system dependent A. AM3 A. should turn valves slowly to avoid thermal stresses due to low
systems, while modulation valves are used in high voltage devices, the system compressor may or may not be operational temperatures
applications. when self-contained devices are used B. AMn3 B. must first remove the seal cap
D. Both valves operate in exactly the same manner, only the D. there is no difference between the devices C. NM3 C. should examine the gasket frequently to ensure that it is flat
manufacturer's terminology is the differentiating factor. D. NH3 D. should never tighten the packing gland
Ans: B Ans: B Ans: D Ans: B
2298 When air is at its dew point it is at its ______________. 2299 The refrigerants referred to as CFC's are __________. 2316 Which of the refrigerants listed has a boiling point of -33°C at 2317 If a refrigeration system is overcharged with refrigerant, one result
A. lowest absolute humidity A. fully halogenated atmospheric pressure? will be ____________.
B. lowest relative humidity B. partially halogenated A. Methyl Chloride A. low suction pressure
C. highest absolute humidity C. not halogenated at all B. Sulfur Dioxide B. higher than normal compressor head pressure
D. highest relative humidity D. completely filled with hydrogen atoms C. Ammonia C. increased system operating efficiency
Ans: D Ans: A D. Brine D. short cycling on the low pressure cutout
2300 If you find an extremely large refrigerant leak while using a halide 2301 CFC refrigerants exposed to high temperture or direct flame, will Ans: C Ans: B
torch, your flame will _______________. decompose and may produce ___________. 2318 If the superheat value of the thermostatic expansion valve is 2319 A small obstruction at the thermostatic expansion valve inlet will
A. change from blue to orange A. methyl chloride adjusted too high the _________. result in which of the following conditions?
B. "flare up" and remain lighted B. ammonia A. box temperature will continually rise A. Suction pressure fluctuation.
C. probably go out C. hydrofluoric acid B. rate at which condensation occurs on the evaporator coils will B. Hunting as indicated by fluctuations of the discharge pressure.
D. stay blue D. ozone increase
Ans: C Ans: C C. suction line of the compressor will be abnormally warm C. Expansion valves are designed to pass small foreign particles so
2302 In a chilled water air conditioning unit using a reciprocating 2303 The movement of the armature within a modulating valve as used on no adverse condition will occur.
compressor, the refrigerating effect of the primary refrigerant can be some refrigeration systems is opposed by the ________. D. rate at which condensation occurs within the coils will increase D. Ice is the sole cause of this and will soon melt due to superheat; no
increased by _____________. adverse condition will occur.
A. increasing refrigerant pressure in the coil A. pressure of the flash gas developed Ans: C Ans: A
B. increasing chilled water flow through the cooler B. vacuum formed as the refrigerant flows through the valve 2320 Relative humidity can be determined by using a psychrometric chart 2321 If a refrigeration compressor in a multi-box system runs continuously,
C. subcooling the refrigerant in the condenser C. weight of the armature and a/an ______________. the cause might be a _____________.
D. superheating the refrigerant in the compressor D. spring force A. hydrometer A. high pressure switch stuck in the closed position
Ans: C Ans: D B. sling psychrometer B. clogged mechanical scale trap
C. aneroid barometer C. shortage of refrigerant
D. compound barometer D. defective thermal bulb
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Ans: B Ans: C 2340 Which of the conditions listed represents the greatest effect of 2341 In the refrigeration system, a shortage of refrigerant is indicated by
2322 "Respiratory heat" is a term applied primarily to which of the 2323 If the thermal bulb of an expansion valve is incorrectly placed at the excess frost accumulation on the evaporator coils? _____________.
following cargoes? center of the coil instead of the end, it will _____________. A. Keeps the refrigerated space cooler. A. the compressor short cycling on high pressure cut out switch

A. Fresh vegetables A. increase the capacity of the coil B. Reduces the efficiency of the plant. B. high suction pressure
B. Meat B. increase the superheat at the bulb C. Takes the load off the compressor. C. high head pressure
C. Frozen vegetables C. deliver more refrigerant to the coil D. Has no affect on the system. D. bubbles in the sight glass
D. All of the above D. decrease the capacity of the coil Ans: B Ans: D
Ans: A Ans: D 2342 In a refrigeration system, the amount of refrigerant admitted to the 2343 Excessive oil foaming in the crankcase of a refrigeration compressor
2324 The refrigeration system low pressure cutout switch is actuated by 2325 A one ton air conditioning system has which of the listed operating evaporator is directly related to _________. is most likely to occur when the compressor _____________.
_____________. characteristics?
A. an electric system manager A. It forces 1,000 kgs. of refrigerant through the evaporator per day. A. the compressor discharge pressure A. has run continuously for a long period
B. condenser cooling water temperature B. suction pressure is below normal
B. a sensing bulb at the tail coil of the evaporator B. It forces 1,000 kgs. of air per hour across the evaporator coils. C. the solenoid valve differential pressure C. oil level is below normal
D. the superheat of the refrigerant in the tail coil D. starts after a long idle period
C. pressure changes in the suction line C. Its cooling power equals that of melting 1,000 kgs. of ice per day. Ans: D Ans: D
2344 The refrigerant gas returning to the compressor should be 2345 In which of the listed refrigeration system components does
D. failure of the king solenoid valve D. It contains 1,000 kgs. of refrigerant. _____________. superheating of the refrigerant take place?
Ans: C Ans: C A. superheated A. Expansion valve
2326 An increasing head pressure in a refrigeration system, without any 2327 A thermostatic expansion valve is properly controlling evaporator B. saturated B. Evaporator
corresponding change in the cooling water inlet temperature, would superheat. Adjusting this valve to lower the superheat will result in C. dense C. Drier
probably be caused by _____________. a/an ________________. D. flooded D. Receiver
A. restriction in refrigerant piping A. evaporator pressure decrease Ans: A Ans: B
B. air and noncondensable gases in the condenser B. evaporator coil over-feed 2346 Under normal conditions, the refrigerant enters the compressor in 2347 Excessive oil foaming in the crankcase of a refrigeration compressor
C. water in the refrigerant C. evaporator capacity increase an operating refrigeration system as a _____________. can result in _____________.
D. flooding back of liquid refrigerant from the evaporator D. expansion valve diaphragm rupture
Ans: B Ans: B A. liquid A. overheated compressor bearings
2328 An important consideration in selecting a lubricating oil for use in a 2329 A pressure drop through the refrigerant liquid line may cause B. dry saturated gas B. excess lube oil viscosity
refrigeration compressor is for the oil to ____________. _____________. C. wet saturated gas C. carbon deposits on the compressor piston rings
D. superheated vapor D. wax crystals forming in the lubricant
A. have a high viscosity index A. solenoid valve to seize Ans: D Ans: A
B. mix readily with refrigerant B. compressor to hunt 2348 In a refrigeration system, foaming of the crankcase oil may cause 2349 Which of the listed characteristics can be applied to R-12 vapor?
C. have a high freezing point C. formation of flash gas in the liquid line the _____________.
D. have a low pour point D. expansion valve to freeze open A. expansion valve to overfeed A. It is corrosive.
Ans: D Ans: C B. compressor to knock B. It is odorless.
2330 Which of the problems listed would cause the discharge 2331 Which of the conditions listed is one indication of an excessive C. water regulating valve to fail C. It is visible as a blue fog.
temperature of an R-12 refrigeration compressor to increase? amount of refrigerant in the system? D. crankcase drains to plug D. It has a distinctive taste.
Ans: B Ans: B
A. Thermal expansion valve frozen open. A. Safety valve lifting 2350 Sludge may form in the lubricating oil crankcase of a reciprocating 2351 The presence of bubbles in a refrigeration system liquid line may
B. Suction gas heat exchanger bypassed. B. Prolonged running air conditioning compressor as a result of _____________. ____________.
C. Condenser clogged or fouled. C. Short cycling
D. High pressure cutout switch inoperative. D. Oil absorbed in the crankcase A. wax precipitation in the lube oil A. promote refrigerant dehydration
Ans: C Ans: C B. contamination by dust, scale, or moisture B. be absorbed in the receiver
2332 If the suction pressure for an operating refrigeration compressor is 2333 If one box in a multiple box, direct expansion type refrigeration C. refrigerant bubbles in the lube oil C. cause low condensing pressure
below normal, the cause may be _____________. system was experiencing an excessively low temperature, this could D. refrigerant reducing the lube oil viscosity D. carry moisture and lead to corrosion
be a result of ____________. Ans: B Ans: D
A. an excess of liquid refrigerant A. liquid refrigerant returning to the compressor 2352 The compressor in an air-cooled condensing refrigeration system 2353 Which of the listed statements is a characteristic of the liquid
B. the expansion valve overfeeding B. excessive frost on the cooling coils is short cycling on the high pressure cutout switch. A probable charged power element used with thermostatic expansion valves?
C. a fouled compressor suction strainer C. a leaking hand expansion valve reason for this is the ____________.
D. the compressor short cycling D. an oversized expansion valve A. system is overcharged with refrigerant A. At the designed operating temperature, the liquid refrigerant charge
Ans: C Ans: C has changed to a vapor.
2334 In a refrigeration system equipped with a reciprocating compressor 2335 If R-12 is maintained at approximately 8kg/cm2 when discharged by B. system is low on refrigerant B. The liquid refrigerant tends to collect at the bellows or diaphragm
and a water cooled condensing unit, leaking compressor discharge the compressor, which of the listed values would represent its and reduces the valve sensitivity.
valves will result in ________. saturation temperature? C. discharge valves are leaking excessively C. The sensing bulb is empty of liquid refrigerant charge at the
A. refrigerant flooding of the compressor A. -18C designed operating temperature.
B. low suction pressure B. -6°C D. discharge valves are leaking slightly D. The sensing bulb is never emptied of liquid refrigerant under normal
C. noisy compressor operation C. 10°C operating conditions.
D. low head pressure D. 37.8°C Ans: A Ans: D
Ans: D Ans: D 2354 If a refrigeration compressor is short cycling on high head pressure, 2355 A constant hissing sound at the thermal expansion valve will always
2336 If you change from a low pour point lubricant to a highpour point 2337 To correct the condition of slugging and flooding back in a you should ____________. indicates _____________.
lubricant in a refrigeration system, __________. refrigeration system, it may be necessary to ______________. A. purge the condenser if the waterside is dirty A. proper refrigerant control
B. check for proper water flow through the condenser B. a faulty refrigerant control valve
A. compressor lubrication will be improved A. re-adjust the discharge pressure C. increase the high pressure cutout setting C. a lack of refrigerant
B. oil will not leave the crankcase B. clean the expansion valve screen D. reduce the cooling water flow D. the flow of 100% liquid refrigerant passing to the evaporator
C. compressor valves will be damaged C. add refrigerant
D. oil may congeal in the evaporator D. adjust the expansion valve Ans: B Ans: C
Ans: D Ans: D 2356 Which of the problems listed could cause erosion of the expansion 2357 Refrigeration system compressor crankcase sweating is an
2338 If a refrigeration system were short of refrigerant, the condition 2339 Frost appearing on one set of evaporator coils of a multi-box, direct valve disks and seats? indication of _________.
would result in ____________. expansion type refrigeration system _____________. A. Overcharging the system with refrigerant A. insufficient lube oil circulating through the system
A. continuous running of the compressor A. increase the value of superheat to the fluid leaving the coils B. Faulty compressor suction valve B. excessive circulation of lube oil through the system
B. high suction pressure B. will assist in increasing the refrigeration effect C. Failure of the high pressure cutout C. insufficient refrigerant in the system
C. high discharge pressure C. can be removed by passing hot vapors through the coils D. Flash gas formed in the liquid line D. an overworked compressor
D. short cycling of the compressor on the water failure switch D. can be quickly removed by simply shutting off fluid flow to the coils Ans: D Ans: B
2358 A refrigeration system compressor crankcase is sweating or 2359 Sweating of the refrigeration system compressor crankcase is
Ans: A Ans: C unusually cold. This is an indication of _________________. caused by _____________.
A. a shortage of refrigerant in the system A. too much superheat
 Page 125 Page 126

B. air in the system B. insufficient superheat C. Ammonia C. Low specific heat

C. an accumulation of liquid refrigerant in the crankcase. C. suction pressure too low D. Carbon Dioxide D. Low boiling point
D. a shortage of oil in the crankcase D. excessive refrigerant returning to the compressor Ans: C Ans: D
Ans: C Ans: D 2374 All refrigeration systems must be protected with a ________. 2375 A purge cycle is required on all low pressure chillers because
2360 The effect of high vapor superheat in a refrigeration system, is a/an 2361 On all vessels equipped with refrigeration units of over 0.566 cubic __________.
____________. metres (20 cubic foot) capacity, _____________. A. pressure relief device A. such a chiller can operate at a pressure below atmospheric pressure
A. increased capacity of the compressor A. a gas mask suitable for protection against each refrigerant used, or a
self contained breathing apparatus must be provided B. refrigerant receiver B. evacuation of all air from a chiller is not possible
C. high pressure cut-out C. chillers are often opened for mainatenance
B. more efficient operation of the thermal expansion valve B. it is the sole responsibility of the chief engineer to ascertain that all D. low pressure cut-out D. because of the refrigerant's low boiling point
members of the engineering department are familiar with the use of Ans: C Ans: A
gas masks or breathing apparatus 2376 Moisture in the refrigerant may _____________. 2377 An ammonia leak will turn moistened pink litmus paper _____.
C. decreased capacity of the compressor C. spare charges shall be carried for at least 50% of each size and A. freeze on the expansion valve seat and reduce the flow of liquid A. orange
variety of gas masks and/or self contained breathing apparatus refrigerant
B. emulsify the oil in the condenser B. red
D. loss of receiver capacity D. all of the above C. freeze in the king valve C. purple
Ans: C Ans: A D. clog the oil trap D. blue
2362 Frosting or sweating of the suction line of a reciprocating 2363 Which of the following statements is correct concerning the testing of Ans: A Ans: D
refrigeration compressor indicates a condition which could result in an R-12 refrigeration system for leaks in an enclosed compartment? 2378 To prevent motor overload during start-up of a hermetically sealed 2379 A sight glass is installed in the liquid line to indicate the condition of
severe damage due to _____________. centrifugal refrigeration system, the compressor suction gas the refrigerant charge and may also indicate the _____________.
A. minor amounts of oil in the refrigerant A. To gain sensitivity, the largest possible flame should be used with variable inlet guide vanes remain _____________.
the halide torch.
B. liquid slugging B. The flame of a halide torch will turn blue in the presence of R-12. A. closed until the motor is connected across the line at full voltage and A. condition of the expansion valve
current drawn is up to full load current
C. insufficient refrigerant C. Halide torches are useful in locating very small R-12 leaks. B. opened until the motor is connected across the line at full voltage B. moisture in the system
D. a failed heat interchanger D. Rapid leak testing is possible with the halide torch since there is no and current drawn is below full load current
time lag between the time air enters the exploring tube until it hits C. closed until the motor is connected across the line at full voltage and C. condition of the compressor suction valves
the reactor plate. current drawn is below full load current
Ans: B Ans: C D. opened until the motor is connected across the line at full voltage D. condenser temperature
2364 Which of the following statements regarding low pressure, 2365 The principal purpose of subcooling liquid refrigerant prior to its and current drawn is up to full load current
reciprocating, air compressor valves is correct? entering the expansion valve is to _____________. Ans: C Ans: B
A. A relatively large clearance space is required for the valves. A. increase the refrigerating effect by decreasing the amount of flash 2380 The primary purpose of the thermostatic expansion valve as used in 2381 The primary function of a back pressure regulator installed in a
gas most refrigeration plants is to _____________. refrigeration system is to _____________.
B. Mechanical operating valve gear is required to open and close the B. allow the refrigerant to enter the throttling device in a saturated A. regulate refrigerant passage through the solenoid valve A. limit the minimum evaporator pressure to ensure excessively low box
valves. condition temperatures are not reached
C. Only the suction valve requires a push rod and rocker arm C. increase the refrigerating effect by increasing the amount of flash B. ensure that liquid refrigerant returning to the compressor has the B. maintain a constant compressor suction pressure regardless of load
mechanism for valve operation. gas proper superheat
D. Due to the physical construction of the valves, a relatively small D. minimize the temperature drop of the liquid as it passes through the C. maintain a constant degree of superheat at the evaporator coil outlet C. maintain an evaporator coil pressure that assures excessively cold
cylinder clearance space is required. solenoid valve to the outlet side coil temperatures
Ans: D Ans: A D. maintain constant evaporator coil pressure independent of suction D. adjust compressor suction pressure to load demands
2366 When you adjust a thermostatic expansion valve ____________. 2367 Each pressure vessel containing refrigerants, which may be isolated, pressure variations
shall be ___________. Ans: C Ans: A
A. refrigerant must be bled off the sensing line before adjustments are A. subject to annual hyrdrostatic tests to be performed in the presence 2382 A large evaporator coil has been determined to have a pressure 2383 The compressor used in an air-cooled air conditioning system is
made of a marine inspector drop of 0.3bar g and can be compensated for by__________. I. short cycling. A service check determines the suction pressure is
B. all refrigerant must be pumped into the receiver before adjustments B. protected by a relief valve set to relieve at a pressure not exceeding adjusting the Thermostatic expansion valve spring compression and above the normal cut-in point with an exceptionally high head
are made 110 percent of the maximum allowable working pressure of the raising the super heat value II. installing an externally equal pressure and high superheat at the evaporator. This is probab
vessel
C. time must be allowed for conditions to stabilize in the evaporator C. stored in an upright position in addition to being secured so as to A. I only A. loosely fitted compressor drive belt
before further adjustments are made prevent accidental release of the refrigerant within a confined space B. II only B. partially opened liquid service valve
C. Both I and II C. reduction in condenser air flow (dirty condenser)
D. all refrigerant must be routed through the dehydrator while changing D. protected by a relief valve set to relieve at a pressure not exceeding D. Neither I nor II D. fully closed discharge service valve
the superheat setting the maximum allowable working pressure of the vessel Ans: B Ans: C
2384 In a refigeration system, once the compound gage manifold lines are 2385 In addition to the main outermost scale on the low side compound
Ans: C Ans: D attached to the service connections, you should ascertain that the gage fitted to the portable service manifold, there are often one or
2368 When removing the primary refrigerant from a system using water 2369 If the combination moisture indicator and sight glass indicates an valves on the gage manifold are closed, and then __________. more other scales on the face of the gage. These are
as a secondary refrigerant, it is important to follow which accumulation of moisture within the system, which of the listed _____________.
procedure(s) to safeguard the equipment? procedures would be the most practical to follow? A. open the discharge valve service port by closing the service valve A. pressure scales for different refrigerants
A. Insure that the water doesn't become contaminated with oil in the A. Secure the system, disassemble and de-ice the thermostatic
direct contact heat exchanger. expansion valve. B. continue to backseat the discharge service valve by turning it B. pressure scales for varying ambient temperatures
B. Insure that the water and refrigerant separator is functioning B. Close the king valve, pump down the system, isolate the drier, clockwise
properly. remove and replace with new drier element. C. open the discharge valve service port by closing the service valve C. temperature scales for varying ambient pressures
C. Insure that the water is drained or continually circulating to avoid C. Purge the entire system to the atmosphere, replace the drier, and approximately 1/4 to 1/2 of a turn
freeze-up. add freon. D. open only the valve connected to the discharge service fitting on the D. temperature scales for different refrigerants
D. Leave some refrigerant in the system to prevent the water from D. none of the above outlet of the king valve
contaminating the referigerant if there is a leak. Ans: C Ans: D
Ans: C Ans: B 2386 When repairing a refrigeration system, a swedge would be used to 2387 Which of the installation steps listed is necessary for the proper
2370 The receiver used in a refrigeration system _________. 2371 Which refrigeration system will require the use of an oil trap? carry out which of the following operations? operation of the thermostatic expansion valve?
A. stores liquid refrigerant A. Brine A. Swedges are used to remove any sweated edges formed on the A. Clean outlet pipe and secure bulb tangential to the flow of
B. collects noncondensable gases B. Ammonia tubing while soldering. refrigerant.
C. allows refrigerant to be subcooled C. Methyl Chloride B. Swedges are used during the breaking-in of refrigeration B. Clean off oxidation from the surface of the suction line and sensing
D. prevents liquid refrigerant from slugging to the compressor D. All of the above. compressors and drive motors. bulb with fine abrasive cloth.
Ans: A Ans: B C. A swedge is no longer used with repairing refrigeration systems due C. Remove excess lengths of the sensing bulb capillary tube from the
2372 Which of the following refrigerants is considered to be the oldest in 2373 A refrigerant used in a mechanical refrigeration system should have to progressive changes in the tool industry. device to increase sensitivity.
use? which of the following characteristics? D. Swedges can be used to expand an end of one tube to fit onto a D. Heat shrink insulating material around the device once the bulb has
A. Methyl Chloride A. High boiling point tube of the same external diameter. been properly secured.
B. Sulphur Dioxide B. High freezing point Ans: D Ans: B
 Page 127 Page 128

2388 An economizer or heat exchanger in a refrigeration system, using a 2389 In an air conditioning system, moisture is removed from the air by Ans: C Ans: D
reciprocating compressor, functions to ____________. _____________. 2402 Which of the following statements describes the accepted method 2403 During tests to discover why a refrigeration compressor is running
for testing a thermostatic expansion valve? excessively, it is determined that the refrigerated space temperature
A. reduce the possibility of liquid refrigerant slugging the compressor A. filters is nearly normal, the suction pressure is slightly above normal, and
the head pressure is low. In this situation, you
B. raise the temperature of liquid refrigerant B. separators
C. cool the suction vapor returning to the compressor C. ducted traps A. Heat the bulb by using a halide torch or similar device and observe A. leaking door gaskets
D. raise the refrigerant saturation temperature in the evaporator D. dehumidifiers the valve stem movement.
B. Remove the power head from the unit, heat the bulb with a torch B. high cooling water temperature
Ans: A Ans: D while using a scale to measure the distance the diaphragm has
2390 A large evaporator coil has been determined to have apressure drop 2391 A particular space is air conditioned by a 25 ton water cooled moved.
of 5 psig and can be compensated for by__________. I. doing system. While troubleshooting, the space is found to be too warm, C. Chill the bulb in ice water while observing the compressor for an C. air in the system
nothing as this is typical of refrigeration systems II. throttling the and the compressor is not operating. A service check determines the increase in suction pressure.
suction of the compressor to prevent the occurance of compressor suction pressure to be above the normal cut-in D. Place the sensing bulb in ice water and then warm by hand. D. a shortage of refrigerant
Observe flood-through and temperature change at the suction line.
A. I only A. A liquid line service valve is partially closed.
B. II only B. The expansion valve feeler bulb is loosely clamped to the suction Ans: D Ans: A
line. 2404 A refrigeration system is equipped with a reciprocating compressor 2405 A reciprocating refrigeration compressor may be tested for leaking
C. Both I and II C. The suction pressure control contacts are stuck open. and a water cooled condensing unit. If the system is overcharged, discharge valves by stopping the compressor, turning the discharge
D. Neither I nor II D. A suction line is kinked or partially obstructed and blocking the resulting high head pressure will be caused by _____________. service valve all the way in, and then turning the compressor over by
refrigerant circulation. hand. If the discharge valves are leaking, the comp
Ans: D Ans: C
2392 Double trunk pistons are used in some refrigeration compressors to 2393 Hot gas bypass is one of the methods used to _____________. A. the expansion valve overfeeding the evaporator A. rising and falling with each stroke
reduce refrigerant boil off by _____________. B. a leaking compressor suction valve B. increasing with each stroke
C. an incorrectly adjusted high pressure cutout C. decreasing with each stroke
A. increasing compressor volumetric efficiency A. relieve excessive compressor head pressure D. refrigerant flooding the condenser D. decreasing to a vacuum
B. producing higher compression pressures B. produce flash gas at the expansion valve Ans: D Ans: A
C. minimizing free contact between refrigerant and oil in the crankcase C. reduce flooding of the receiver at low loads 2406 One refrigeration ton is equal to _____________. 2407 Moisture in a refrigeration system can cause _____________.

D. eliminating the need for a shaft seal D. defrost the evaporator coils A. 45kcal/hr A. freezing the expansion valve closed
Ans: C Ans: D B. 500kcal/hr B. corrosion of system piping
2394 When multiple refrigerated boxes are maintaining individual 2395 The best time to check the oil level in the compressor in a typical C. 3,024kcal/hr C. improper temperature regulation
temperatures and supplied by a single refrigeration compressor, refrigeration system is when the compressor is stopped after a long D. 750,000kcal/hr D. all of the above
the individual box temperatures are controlled by the period of running. This is because the ____________. Ans: C Ans: D
_____________. 2408 The ratio of the weight of moisture contained in a given volume of
A. suction valves A.
oil has had time to mix properly with the refrigerant air, to the weight of moisture that the same sample would hold if
B. solenoid valves B.
refrigerant has had time to separate from the oil saturated, is called the _____________.
C. expansion valves C.
oil trap has been able to return sufficient oil to the sump A. absolute humidity
D. compressor speed D.
oil heaters are secured; thereby, ensuring that a false level is not B. relative humidity
read C. specific humidity
Ans: B Ans: B
D. total humidity
2396 The presence of flash gas in the high pressure lines of arefrigeration 2397 Inspection of the water-sides of chillers and condensersfor leaking
Ans: B
system is undesireable because ___________. I. erosion of the tubes should be conducted on a regular basis. How frequently on a
TXV valve seat can be increased II. refrigeration system capacity minimum basis should these inspectionsbe conducted? PUMPS AND EDUCTORS
will be reduced 2409 How is water traveling along the shaft of a centrifugal pump 2410 Which of the listed types of pumps is NOT likely to be installed in a
A. I only A. once a month prevented from entering the shaft bearing? main drainage or evacuation system?
B. II only B. once every six months A. Shaft seal A. Reciprocating pump
C. Both I and II C. once a year B. Water flinger B. Centrifugal pump
D. Neither I nor II D. once every other year C. Drain hole C. High pitch rotary vane pump
Ans: C Ans: B D. Lantern ring D. Eductor pump
2398 A multiple evaporator coil unit is equipped with a suction-pressure 2399 To prevent the unnecessary loading of an air conditioning system Ans: B Ans: C
regulating valve. This valve must be bypassed when pumping down while maintaining the designed dry bulb temperature and relative 2411 Why are removable sleeves installed on centrifugal pump shafts? 2412 A boiler forced draft pressure gage indicates 15 cms of water. This
the system for repairs because reduction of suction pressure would humidity in an air conditioning system, you should __________. corresponds to a pressure of ____________.
cause the valve to _____________. A. They make it easier to replace the pump shaft packing. A. 150 mm WG
B. They can be economically replaced as they wear out. B. 200mm WG
A. rupture A. admit only enough fresh outside air to provide proper ventilation C. They can be removed when it is necessary to lighten the weight of C. 300mm WG
the pump.
B. open B. reduce the air reheating system load D. They increase the strength of the shaft. D. 500mm WG
C. close C. lower the compressor head pressure Ans: B Ans: A
D. chatter D. operate the purge recovery unit continuously 2413 An inadequate reciprocating bilge pump discharge is most often 2414 Increasing the speed of a rotary pump above its rated speed will
Ans: C Ans: A caused by ___________. result in which of the following conditions to occur?
2400 When purging a gage manifold, which of the fittings listed is normally 2401 In a refrigeration system, which of the following statements describes A. defective intake valves A. Loss of suction
tightened last? the actions occurring when a solenoid valve, used in conjunction B. clogged suction strainers B. Increased clearances
with an unloader head, is energized? C. scarred cylinder walls C. Decreased clearances
A. The hose fitting at the discharge valve is tightened last after purging A. The solenoid valve directs high pressure gas to the valve lifting D. clogged drain valves D. Decreased slippage
the low pressure line. device raising the suction valve off its seat and causing one specific Ans: B Ans: B
cylinder to become unloaded. 2415 Propeller pumps are used primarily where there is a need to move a 2416 If a centrifugal pump is driven by a constant speed electric motor
B. The fittings at the discharge and suction valves of the compressor B. The solenoid valve directs high pressure gas to the underside of large volume of liquid. However, their use is limited by a maximum and produces a discharge pressure less than designed, the cause is
are both closed simultaneously to prevent objective cross flows. the unloading piston, causing it to rise and allowing the recirculating total head of ____________. probably _______________.
ports to be opened. A. 6 to 12 metres A. excessive pump speed
C. The hose fitting at the suction service valve is tightened last after C. When the solenoid valve becomes energized, the valve ports B. 10 to 17 metres B. excessive suction head
purging the center connection. become closed, allowing discharge pressure to build up above the C. 12 to 20 metres C. worn wearing rings
piston, shifting it and causing it to unload. D. 17 to 24 metres D. gross pump misalignment
D. The low pressure hose fitting at the gage manifold is the only fitting D. The solenoid valve allows the refrigerant to pass from the suction Ans: C Ans: C
that is connected first and tightened last. chamber to the top of the unloader piston, causing the piston to lift 2417 Which features of a centrifugal pump reduce the need for renewing 2418 A centrifugal pump may fail to deliver water when first started if the
and unload the cylinder. worn impellers and pump casings? _________.
 Page 129 Page 130

A. Close radial clearance between impeller hub and casing A. water seal pipe is plugged B. ensure the balance piston is on the downstroke B. directly increase the velocity of the liquid being pumped
B. Low rotational speed of impeller B. pump is not primed C. center the steam pistons in the cylinders C. convert the potential energy of the liquid to kinetic energy
C. Removable end plate C. seal ring is improperly located D. measure the present port openings to ensure reassembly will be the D. separate air from the liquid being pumped
D. Replaceable impeller and casing wearing rings D. impeller is flooded same
Ans: D Ans: B Ans: C Ans: B
2419 When piston rod packing persists in leaking on a reciprocating 2420 If you were operating a centrifugal water service pump with worn 2437 Which of the following methods applies to how a vacuum is created 2438 The total length of stroke in a reciprocating steam pump can be
steam pump, the cause may be _____________. wearing rings, the _______________. by a jet pump or an eductor? adjusted by ____________.
A. Centrifugal force converted into potential energy. A. increasing or decreasing the number of packing rings around the
A. a loose tappet collar A. pump would be very noisy piston rod
B. clogged suction strainers B. pump would vibrate excessively B. A reciprocating plunger directly applying force to a fluid. B. variations in the throttle adjustment
C. an open snifter valve C. pump would develop insufficient flow C. A rapidly moving stream of fluid passing through a nozzle. C. twisting the stayrod in a clockwise direction
D. misalignment of the crosshead guide D. stuffing box would leak excessively D. A propeller drawing a fluid through a venturi nozzle. D. changing the setting of the tappet collars on the pilot valve
Ans: D Ans: C operating rod
2421 The pump packing gland has been repeatedly tightened by small 2422 A centrifugal pump vibrates excessively during operation. Upon Ans: C Ans: D
increments until the gland has bottomed. Which of the actions listed disassembling the pump it is found that the impeller is out of 2439 Which of the following centrifugal pump components converts the 2440 If a bilge pump is able to develop vacuum, but is unable to
should be carried out next if the leakage continues to be excessive? balance. Without an available spare, you should ____________. liquid kinetic energy of velocity to the potential energy of pressure? sufficiently pump out the bilges, you would check for all of the
following EXCEPT ________.
A. Replace all of the packing. A. drill holes through the heavy side of the impeller until it balances A. Impeller A. the circuit breaker
B. Electric motor B. for leaks in the suction piping
B. Replace with larger cross-sectional turns of packing. B. weld counterweights to the light side of the impeller C. Volute C. relief valve is not properly seated
C. Replace the soft packing with packing turns that are covered with C. remove metal from the heavy side by machining in a lathe D. Eye D. the suction strainer
lead wrap. Ans: C Ans: A
D. Continue to add more turns of packing. D. acid wash and scrape the heavy side until it balances 2441 One of the consequences in continuing to operate a centrifugal 2442 If an operating bilge pump is developing good vacuum, but is unable
Ans: D Ans: C bilge pump with the discharge valve closed, is that the to discharge any water, which of the following problems is the most
2423 If the discharge valve is closed before the drive motor is stopped, 2424 In order to properly remove air from the casing of a centrifugal pump _______________. probable cause?
which of the following types of pumps will most likely be damaged? when starting, the pump should have a ___________________. A. motor overload will open A. The wearing rings are excessively worn.
B. relief valve will open B. The suction strainer is clogged.
A. Centrifugal A. positive head C. pump will overheat C. The discharge valve is clogged.
B. Gear B. negative suction head D. motor will overheat D. The shaft is worn.
C. Propeller C. mechanical seal Ans: C Ans: B
D. Turbine D. vent valve attached to the casing at the top of the volute 2443 In a centrifugal pump, the seal piping directs liquid from the 2444 In a reciprocating pump, the position of the pilot valve is controlled
Ans: B Ans: D discharge side of the pump to the _____________________. by the position of the ______________.
2425 Air leakage between the shaft and stuffing box packing in a 2426 The suction-force principle of operation is a typical characteristic of A. packing gland A. main steam piston valve
centrifugal pump is prevented by ______________. _______________. B. wearing ring B. piston in the steam cylinder
A. a compressed packing gland A. centrifugal pumps C. stuffing C. cushioning valve
B. lantern rings between the packing rings B. jet pumps D. lantern ring D. governor valve spindle
C. a liquid seal C. propeller pumps Ans: D Ans: B
D. the stuffing box gland D. reciprocating pumps 2445 Which of the following statements is true concerning centrifugal 2446 A centrifugal pump attempting to develop flow against a closed
Ans: C Ans: D pumps? discharge valve has a/an ______________.
2427 Assume identical impeller diameter, width and speed. Which of the 2428 Most pump manufacturers recommend that the suction piping A. They are particularly suited for pumping high viscosity fluids. A. capacity of 0%
following impellers will produce the greatest liquid velocity? dimension for centrifugal pumps be ____________. B. They are started with the discharge valve opened. B. efficiency of 100%
C. The flow of liquid is developed by imparting energy due to the C. internal slippage of 0%
A. A single stage straight vane impeller A. one size smaller than the pump suction nozzle rotation of an impeller.
B. A single stage curved vane impeller B. the same size as the pump suction nozzle D. They are always mounted in a horizontal position. D. shut off horsepower rating of 100%
C. A dual integeral impeller unit operating at 10% lower speed C. one size larger than the pump suction nozzle Ans: C Ans: A
D. A dual impeller with multiple stepped curved vanes D. installed with a short radius elbow at the pump 2447 The capacity of a rotary pump, delivering a constant viscosity fluid, 2448 If a centrifugal pump operating with a positive suction head becomes
Ans: B Ans: C will decrease when the discharge pressure is increased, due to air bound, your FIRST response should be to ______________.
2429 A lantern ring is _____________. 2430 A pump is defined as "a device that _____________." ___________.
A. the bottom ring in a set of piston rings A. produces pressure A. decreased suction pressure A. vent the casing
B. the oil slinger on a spring bearing B. imparts energy to a fluid to move it from level "A" to level "B" B. increased suction pressure B. close the discharge
C. used to distribute seal water throughout the pump stuffing box C. creates a vacuum to move a liquid in all installations C. reduced slippage C. tighten the packing
D. increased slippage D. reprime the pump
D. the lifting ring on each running light D. is to develop a pressure differential Ans: D Ans: A
Ans: C Ans: B 2449 If you have a simplex single acting reciprocating pump making 100 2450 Generally, centrifugal pumps operating without a positive suction
2431 In which of the following descriptions would centrifugal pump 2432 Most pump manufacturers recommend that the discharge piping for strokes/minute with a 6" diameter cylinder, a 7" stroke, operating head must be primed before they will move liquid on their own. The
impeller cavitation most likely occur if the impeller diameters, centrifugal pumps be one size larger than the pump discharge with a 90% volumetric efficiency, what is the capacity of this pump? priming is usually accomplished with a _____________.
rotating speed, and liquid temperature are the same? nozzle to __________.
A. 105 gpm A. regenerative pump
A.
In the second stage of a two-stage pump. A. reduce the pump discharge pressure B. 39 gpm B. rotating liquid piston pump
B.
A single-stage impeller with straight vanes. B. reduce the frictional losses due to fluid flow C. 77 gpm C. jet pump
C.
A single-stage impeller with curved vanes. C. increase the pump discharge pressure D. 107 gpm D. turbine pump
D.
A two-stage pump with an operating speed 100 RPM less than D. allow rapid venting of entrained air Ans: B Ans: B
specified. 2451 A recirculating, or bleed off line is installed on a centrifugal pump in 2452 To thoroughly pump out the bilges using a horizontally mounted
Ans: C Ans: B order to _____________. centrifugal pump, the ___________.
2433 The purpose of the wearing rings used in a centrifugal pump is to 2434 Clearances between the impeller hub and casing of a centrifugal A. establish a back pressure at the labyrinth seal to eliminate leakage A. pump must always be primed
___________________. pump are checked with the use of _____________.
B. equalize pressure on both sides of the suction valve disc B. volute must impart a radial and rotary motion of the water
A. prevent an internal explosion in the pump when it is overheated A. wooden wedges C. prevent the pump from overheating when operating at shutoff head C. suction side connection must guide the liquid to the lantern rings

B. enable a visual inspection of the pump while it is running B. an accurate set of feeler gages D. decrease the net positive suction head D. stuffing box should not be allowed any water leakage
C. insure a proper alignment of the pump coupling to the driver C. a machinist's rule Ans: C Ans: A
D. accomodate for friction between the impeller and the casing D. a depth micrometer 2453 A crackling noise coming from a centrifugal pump casing is an 2454 Excessive wear on a centrifugal pump shaft sleeve will
Ans: D Ans: B indication of _______________. ____________.
2435 The first step when beginning to set the slide valves on a duplex 2436 The basic function of the centrifugal pump impeller is to A. insufficient packing A. cause severe vibration when the pump is operating
reciprocating pump is to ____________. ____________. B. an oversized lantern ring B. cause excessive leakage past the packing gland
A. open the relief valve to prevent accidental starting A. directly increase the pressure of the liquid being pumped C. excessive suction lift C. cause damage in the stuffing box
 Page 131 Page 132

D. reversed pump rotation D. allow interstage leakage in the pump casing glands Ans: C Ans: D
Ans: C Ans: B 2473 The static suction lift of a pump is the difference in elevation 2474 Which of the following statements represents the advantage of
2455 Excessive wear on the packing rings nearest the pump packing 2456 It is possible to mount a double suction centrifugal pump impeller between the _____________. rotary pumps as compared to reciprocating pumps?
gland, while the rings nearest the impeller remain in good condition, with the vanes facing in the wrong direction. This would cause the A. centerline of the pump and the level of the liquid in the suction well A. The high discharge pressure of the rotary pumps permits a larger
is caused by ____________. pump ___________. when the source of liquid is below the pump volume of fluid per unit time than the reciprocating pump.
A. failure to insert and individually seat the rings, one ring at a time A. head capacity to improve
B. centerline of the pump and the suction liquid level when the source B. Rotary pumps are capable of pumping more fluid than reciprocating
B. insufficient tightening of the packing gland B. discharge to be reversed of liquid is above the pump pumps of the same weight.
C. failure to tighten the packing gland in a single adjustment C. efficiency to decrease C. centerline of the pump and the level of the discharge liquid C. Rotary pumps occupy only one-half the space of reciprocating
D. cutting the rings nearest the gland too short D. slippage to decrease pumps.
Ans: A Ans: C D. liquid levels of the suction and discharge D. Rotary pumps eliminate discharge slippage of the pumped liquid,
2457 Radial thrust developed in high pressure centrifugal pumps can be 2458 The usual symptoms of cavitation in a centrifugal pump is while this does not hold true for a reciprocating pump.
eliminated by the use of _____________. _______________. Ans: A Ans: B
A. single volutes A. noise and vibration 2475 Which of the listed devices is used to control the admission of steam 2476 A distinguishing feature of an eductor, when compared to other
B. a single diffusion nozzle B. an increase in discharge pressure to the steam cylinder of a reciprocating pump? pumps, is the ______________.
C. a diffusion ring C. an increase in suction pressure A. Valve operating differential A. discharge end being smaller than the suction end
D. a modified Kingsbury thrust bearing D. lifting of the relief valve B. Crosshead arm B. small size of impeller
Ans: C Ans: A C. Pump rod C. lack of moving parts
2459 If misalignment between a pump and its driving source exceeds that 2460 If the shaft packing for a centrifugal pump requires replacement D. Pilot valve and operating rod D. ease at which the wearing rings may be changed
specified by the pump manufacturer, the shaft _________________. more frequently than normal, a possible cause may be __________. Ans: D Ans: C
2477 Which of the devices listed is common to all types of pumps? 2478 Lantern rings are provided on centrifugal pumps to ________.
A. flexible coupling will absorb all such misalignment A. worn bearings
B. total end float travel will be excessive B. worn mechanical seals A. A power end and fluid end A. allow illuminated inspection of shaft and packing
C. lateral float will be greatly increased C. a flooded pump suction B. A propeller and educator B. provide a passage for the stuffing box sealing liquid
D. bearings will be overloaded and will fail D. wrong direction of pump rotation C. A volute and impeller C. adjust leakage at the shaft gland
Ans: D Ans: A D. A turbine and piston D. allow for distortion of the wearing rings
2461 When shifting suction from one fresh water tank to another, if the 2462 Which of the listed types of steam end piston rod packing should be Ans: A Ans: B
fresh water pump loses suction you should___________. used in a steam reciprocating pump? 2479 If a centrifugal pump vibrates and is noisy when operating, the cause 2480 Which of the following terms is used to identify the pressure of the
could be _____________. liquid entering a pump?
A. loosen the mechanical seal A. Reinforced rubber packing A. worn gland sealing shaft A. Suction head
B. vent the pump casing B. Wire impregnated high temperature packing B. worn wearing rings B. Pump head
C. check the discharge strainers C. Low pressure braided asbestos packing C. a bent shaft C. Discharge head
D. all of the above D. High pressure graphite packing D. reversed pump coupling D. Total head
Ans: B Ans: D Ans: C Ans: A
2463 Which of the following conditions will prevent a shipboard pump from 2464 Liquid is kept from leaking out at the shaft ends of a helical gear 2481 Excessive lost motion in the valve mechanism of a duplex 2482 One of the main functions of wearing rings, as used in a centrifugal
achieving its maximum suction lift? pump by _____________. reciprocating pump will cause the _____________. pumps, is to _____________.
A. Leaks developed in the suction piping. A. overlapping spaces between gear teeth A. pump to short stroke continuously at both ends of the stroke for both A. maintain radial alignment between the pump impeller and casing
B. Friction losses as a result of improperly sized pipe. B. a roller bearing cylinders
C. Gases or vapors released in the liquid as a result of greater than C. a stuffing box B. pistons to stop in mid-stroke B. absorb all impeller shaft end thrust
normal pressure drops. C. pump to operate sluggishly C. prevent water leakage to the atmosphere
D. All of the above. D. the use of shaft end caps D. cushioning valves to wear D. prevent wear of the pump casing and/or impeller
Ans: D Ans: C Ans: C Ans: D
2465 Which of the listed types of seals is used effectively for pumps 2466 If you heard a "crackling" sound occuring within a centrifugal pump, 2483 The seal piping obtains liquid from the discharge side of the pump 2484 Which of the pumping systems listed for use aboard ship will most
handling toxic or highly flammable liquids that cannot be permitted to the most probable source of the noise would be the and directs the liquid to the _____________. likely use a propeller type pump?
escape into the atmosphere? ______________. A. packing gland A. Fluid power transmission system
A. Conventional stuffing box A. shaft sleeves B. wearing ring B. Main circulating system
B. External mechanical seal B. discharge volutes C. stuffing C. Steering gear system
C. Double mechanical seal C. wearing rings D. lantern ring D. Fuel oil service booster system
D. Rubber bellows mechanical seal D. pump suction Ans: D Ans: B
Ans: C Ans: D 2485 When securing a steam reciprocating pump, which of the valves 2486 On many modern tankers, which of the following devices is used to
2467 Closed impellers differ from open impellers in that closed impellers 2468 The factors that determine the service life of packing in a pump will listed should remain open? reduce cargo pump leakage to the pump room bilge?
__________. include which of the following conditions? A. Steam supply valve A. Flinger rings
A. allow liquid to enter the eye from one direction only A. type of pump B. Steam exhaust valve B. Mechanical seals
B. have side walls which extend from the eye to the outer edge of the B. condition of the shaft C. Steam cylinder drain valve C. Shaft sleeves
vane tips D. Water cylinder drain valve D. Clipper seals
C. have small impeller eyes C. length of time in use Ans: C Ans: B
D. are not vented above the impeller eye D. all of the above 2487 At which of the following intervals must the cargo pump relief valves 2488 Which of the following intervals do Regulations require the remote
Ans: B Ans: D on tank vessels be tested? cutout for the fuel oil service pumps to be tested?
2469 Foot valves are primarily designed to ______. 2470 A centrifugal bilge pump requires priming ________________. A. Prior to each fuel discharge operation. A. Prior to each sailing
B. At least once each voyage. B. Once each month
A. give a pump motor or driver positive protection when operating in a A. primarily to lubricate the shaft seals C. At least once a year. C. At each fire and boat drill
shutoff condition D. At each biennial inspection. D. At each inspection for certification
B. provide a means of supplying sealing fluid for the impeller shaft B. due to the inability of this type of pump to lift water to cover the Ans: C Ans: D
stuffing box suction (eye) of the impeller 2489 You suspect a problem with the centrifugal fire pump on your ship, 2490 If a centrifugal pump is driven by a constant speed prime mover and
C. enable a pump and its suction line to remain primed prior to starting C. to initially unload the pump by having its head pressure equal to and begin to slowly close the discharge valve. Your suspicion is produces a flow rate less than the designed specifications, the
the pump discharge pressure confirmed when the ______________. cause could be _____________.
D. afford the pumping system protection against water hammer and D. in order to overcome the potential energy of water in the discharge A. discharge valve is closed off and there is no change in the discharge A. suction absolute pressure greatly exceeds corresponding vapor
surging line pressure pressure of liquid being pumped
Ans: C Ans: B B. discharge valve is 80% closed and the relief valve lifts B. excessive suction head
2471 To maintain design discharge pressure from a centrifugal pump, the 2472 In a direct expansion type multi-box refrigeration system, the C. suction valve is closed off, and the discharge pressure begins to C. pump packing gland misalignment
design clearance must be maintained between the compressor is set up to cycle on and off by the _____________. decrease
______________. D. suction valve is closed off, yet the relief valve does not lift D. worn wearing rings
A. shaft and impeller A. pressurestat Ans: A Ans: D
B. motor and pump shaft B. high pressure cutout
C. casing and impeller wearing rings C. solenoid valve
D. lantern ring and impeller D. low pressure cutout switch
 Page 133 Page 134

2491 When repacking a reciprocating pump with more than four rings of 2492 What would be the probable cause if a pump were unable tomaintain 2509 If the viscosity of the liquid being transferred remains constant as 2510 If it were necessary for you to frequently replace the bearings of the
packing, the packing is cut square, installed with the ends abutted, necessary discharge pressure to a system? I. failure of the coupling the discharge pressure increases, the rotary pump condensate pump, the trouble could be the result of ___________.
and each succeeding ring staggered with the butted ends used on a close-coupled pump II. fracture of one packing gland ______________.
_____________. bolt A. capacity will increase A. misalignment
A. 45° apart A. I only B. capacity will decrease B. a plugged water seal line
B. 90° apart B. II only C. suction pressure will increase C. salt water contamination of the condensate
C. 120° apart C. Both I and II D. suction pressure will decrease D. worn wearing rings
D. 180° apart D. Neither I nor II Ans: B Ans: A
Ans: B Ans: D 2511 Pitting in the suction areas of a centrifugal pump bronze impeller is 2512 Charring or glazing of the inner circumference of the packing rings
2493 What would be the result of throttling the suction valve tothe point 2494 What would be the probable cause if a pump were unable tomaintain usually caused by ____________. in a centrifugal pump, is caused by _________.
where the flow was less than that recommended by a centrifugal necessary discharge pressure to a system? I. failure of the internal A. cavitation A. undertightening the packing
pump manufacture? I. The discharge head would be reduced. II. parts of the pump II. failure of the system relief valve B. electrolysis B. failure to seat the packing rings
The pump would begin to cavitate. C. abrasion C. insufficient lubrication of the packing
A. I only A. I only D. corrosion D. packing ring rotation
B. II only B. II only Ans: A Ans: C
C. Both I and II C. Both I and II 2513 One of the many problems occurring with centrifugal pump shaft 2514 When new, a rotary pump is designed to have 0.005 mm clearance
D. Neither I nor II D. Neither I nor II packing is the excessive wear on the rings nearest the packing between the rotors and the pump casing in order to develop a 180
Ans: B Ans: C gland. If the rings nearest the impeller remain in good condition LPM flow rate at 21bar. After one year of operation, the clearance
2495 Mechanical shaft seals used on water service pumps require 2496 Reduced capacity, accompanied by vibration and noise at the during the same operating period, the wear is most likely cause has increased to 0.020mm, with the discharge pressure
lubrication of the seal faces to minimize deposits of foreign matter suction of a centrifugal pump, results from cavitation in the fluid
on those surfaces. Which of the following pressures and lubricants being pumped. Cavitation describes the formation of A. insufficient lubrication of the lantern ring A. less than 180 LPM because of increased clearance
are required? _____________. B. packing rings rotating in the stuffing box B. 180 LPM because the pressure is unchanged
A. Water under negative pressure. A. vapor pockets C. overtightening the packing in one adjustment C. greater than 180 LPM because of reduced slippage
B. Water under positive pressure. B. water hammer action D. some rings being cut too short D. greater than 180 LPM because of increased efficiency
C. Oil under positive pressure. C. fluid friction Ans: C Ans: A
D. Oil under negative pressure. D. steam knock 2515 If it were necessary for you to frequently replace the packing on the 2516 When the danger of freezing exists, all steam driven reciprocating
Ans: B Ans: A main condensate pump, the trouble could be the result of pumps and deck equipment should be __________.
2497 A liquid is being transferred by a centrifugal pump. As the liquid 2498 After renewing spiral packing in a centrifugal pump stuffing box, the ______________.
passes through the volute, its velocity decreases and packing should be seated, then the packing gland nuts A. running at low speed for a long time A. cycled at least once a day
______________. _____________. B. excessive condensate recirculation B. cycled once every 4 days
A. its pressure increases A. left in that position C. defective casing gasket C. cycled once every week
B. its pressure decreases B. loosened until the gland clears the stuffing box D. worn bearings D. watched carefully while idled
C. the potential energy decreases C. tightened to compress the packing Ans: D Ans: A
D. the kinetic energy increases D. loosened, and then retightened until they are only finger tight 2517 A twin-screw, rotary, positive displacement pump is provided with 2518 Which of the following valve arrangements permits the reciprocating
Ans: A Ans: D timing gears. If it were possible to change the lead (pitch) of the pump liquid piston to take suction from the suction chamber, and
2499 Which of the following statements is true regarding a positive 2500 A centrifugal pump gradually develops insufficient discharge screws, which of the following statements would represent the true simultaneously discharge through the discharge chamber during the
displacement rotary pump? pressure. What corrective action is required? effect on the pump characteristics? up and down strokes?
A. Theoretically, there is no limit to shut off head pressure. A. Replace the wearing rings. A. The longer the lead, the lower the flow rate. A. Two sets of suction and discharge valves in the liquid cylinder.
B. Theoretically it is self priming. B. Throttle in on the discharge valve.
C. The discharge side should be protected against excessive pressure C. Replace the wearing rings, shaft, and impeller. B. The shorter the lead, the higher the pressure potential. B. Two sets of valves, one set each for suction and discharge located
build up via a relief valve. in the water chest.
D. All of the above. D. Throttle in on the suction valve. C. The longer the lead, the lower the axial velocity. C. One set of valves in the water chest and another set in the liquid
Ans: D Ans: A cylinder.
2501 If a centrifugal pump develops insufficient discharge pressure as a 2502 If a centrifugal pump sealing line becomes restricted while operating D. The shorter the lead, the higher the inlet pressure requirements. D. Two relief valves, one on each of the liquid cylinder.
result of worn wearing rings, which of the following corrective actions under a negative suction head (suction lift), the inner end of the
is required? stuffing box will be ___________. Ans: B Ans: B
A. Replace the rings. A. under a vacuum and air will tend to leak into the pump 2519 The discharge rate or capacity of a centrifugal pump will vary directly 2520 The discharge head of a centrifugal pump will vary directly with the
B. Throttle in on the discharge valve. B. sealed by the fluid being pumped and no leakage will occur as the ____________. ______________.
C. Always replace the wearing rings and the impeller as a set. C. under pressure and fluid will tend to leak into the pump A. change in the impeller diameter A. change in impeller diameter
D. Throttle in on the suction valve. D. sealed by the seal cage or pump lantern ring B. square of the impeller radius B. square of the impeller diameter
Ans: A Ans: A C. cube of the impeller diameter C. cube of the impeller diameter
2503 When adding packing to a seal involving motion, you must be 2504 Heavy wear in a particular area of the inner circumference of a D. impeller efficiency for large changes in its size D. impeller efficiency for large changes in the size of the impeller
careful to prevent ____________. packing ring may be caused by ____________.
A. excessive friction in the joint A. a high suction head Ans: A Ans: B
B. wear of the moving part B. rotating rings 2521 Theoretically, a double suction impeller is in hydraulic axial balance. 2522 Centrifugal pumps, used to handle hot liquids, must have a minimum
C. deterioration of the packing due to excessive tightening C. badly worn bearings In actuality this balance is rarely achieved due to flow through them under all operating conditions. This flow serves to
D. all of the above D. a loose stuffing box gland _________________. ____________.
Ans: D Ans: C A. an unbalanced force exerted from the direction of the impeller A. prevent overheating and damage to pump rotating parts due to
2505 What would be the result of throttling the suction valve tothe point 2506 The shaft sleeves have recently been replaced on a centrifugal salt nearest the driving motor rubbing
where the flow was less than that recommended by a centrifugal water service pump. The packing gland is now drawn tightly up B. unequal or nonuniform flow to the suction eyes of the impeller B. maintain the net positive suction head of the pump
pump manufacturer? I. The designed discharge head would be against the casing. Despite the use of standard procedures to housing
reduced. II. The packing life would be greatly reduced. tighten the packing gland, water continues to pour out along C. excessive sealing water flow to the stuffing box C. maintain hydraulic differential in the pump impeller passages
D. flexible shaft design which causes rapid wear of the outboard shaft D. purge the pump of noncondensable vapors and gases
A. I only A. the sleeves "O" ring seals were not installed bearing
B. II only B. suction head pressure has become excessive Ans: B Ans: A
C. Both I and II C. the sealing water flow to the stuffing box is blocked 2523 To operate a centrifugal fire pump at reduced capacity, you should 2524 Sealing lines provide sealing liquid flow to the stuffing box of a
D. Neither I nor II D. only two sections of the lantern ring were installed ___________________. centrifugal pump ____________.
Ans: B Ans: A A. readjust the relief valve A. to help lubricate the shaft packing
2507 A double suction centrifugal pump impeller has been installed in the 2508 If a centrifugal pump were continually operated with the discharge B. throttle the suction line B. to limit the outflow of seawater from the stuffing box of a pump
reverse direction, and will ______________. valve closed, the _____________. provided with a high suction head
A. have a greater head capacity A. motor controller overload would open C. throttle the discharge valve C. in place of sealing gages
B. operate with increased impeller efficiency B. pump would eventually overheat D. open the priming line D. in place of mechanical seals
C. discharge through the suction side of the pump casing C. relief valve would continuously cycle open Ans: C Ans: A
D. require more power to turn the shaft D. motor would overheat 2525 The centrifugal pump component responsible for converting the 2526 The total static head of a system resisting the operation of a
Ans: D Ans: B mechanical energy of the liquid being pumped, to that of kinetic centrifugal pump is the difference in elevation between the
energy is the ____________. __________________.
 Page 135 Page 136

A. electric motor A. discharge liquid level and the suction liquid level Ans: D Ans: A
B. volute B. discharge liquid level and the pump centerline 2545 Water leaking from a pump packing gland is kept away from the 2546 One of the main differences between the various types of screw
C. impeller C. suction liquid level and the pump centerline bearing housing by the use of ______________. pumps is in the __________.
D. diffusion nozzle D. suction submergence level and the pump discharge A. shaft sleeves A. stuffing box diameter
Ans: C Ans: A B. lantern rings B. direction of rotation of the screws
2527 When repacking a stuffing box fitted with a lantern ring, which of the 2528 To safely remove the piston rod packing from the steam end of a C. water flingers C. pitch of the screws
following precautions should be observed? reciprocating pump, you should __________. D. water seals D. type of driving gears
A. Replace all of the packing rings. A. use a packing hook Ans: C Ans: C
B. Block off the sealing water connection. B. open the throttle valve and "blow" the old packing out 2547 With respect to centrifugal pump impellers, which of the following 2548 A centrifugal pump designed to handle a liquid with a temperature of
C. Be certain that all packing is fitted loosely to the shaft. C. do nothing, as this type of pump utilizes O-rings in lieu of packing descriptions represents the correct centrifugal pump classification? 120°C or greater must be provided with ___________.

D. For good lubrication, apply a fine grade lapping compound between D. open the steam chest and pry the packing loose with a scraper A. Single stage or multistage A. a semi-mechanical seal
the shaft and packing. B. High pressure or low pressure B. helical grooved wearing rings
Ans: A Ans: A C. Open or close coupled C. self adjusting packing
2529 Most pump manufacturers recommended that the discharge piping 2530 An advantage of a helical gear pump over a simple gear pump is D. Horizontal or vertical D. a liquid seal line
for centrifugal pumps be ____________. that the helical gear pump is capable of ___________. Ans: A Ans: D
2549 The function of seal cages, or lantern rings installed in the 2550 What is a function of the wearing rings used in most centrifugal
A. one size larger than the pump discharge nozzle A. maintaining a steadier speed centrifugal pump stuffing boxes, is to ______________. pumps?
B. the same size as the pump discharge nozzle B. delivering liquids over greater distances A. cool the shaft A. Absorb erosion of high velocity discharge stream.
C. one size smaller than the pump discharge nozzle C. operating for longer periods of time B. lubricate the packing B. Seal pump shaft against entry of air.
D. installed with a short radius elbow at the pump D. producing a smoother discharge flow C. seal air from entering along the shaft C. Isolate the discharge side from the suction side.
Ans: A Ans: D D. distribute the sealing liquid within the stuffing box D. Dampen the turbulent discharge flow.
2531 When installing a new rotary pump, the suction piping should 2532 The function of a centrifugal pump double volute casing is to Ans: D Ans: C
___________________. ____________. 2551 The brake horsepower of a centrifugal pump will vary directly as the 2552 The primary function of a centrifugal pump volute is to
A. be of the same diameter as the pump suction connection A. reduce radial thrust to the impeller ___________. _____________.
B. be at least one size larger than the pump suction connection B. double the liquid velocity through the pump when compared to a A. diameter of the impeller A. develop a high velocity liquid
single volute B. square of the diameter of the impeller B. convert velocity to pressure
C. be the next size smaller than the pump suction connection C. reduce hydraulic end thrust C. cube of the diameter of the impeller C. limit hydraulic end thrust
D. be sloped to the pump D. provide the effect of multi-staging D. impeller efficiency for large changes in the size of the impeller D. initiate flow
Ans: B Ans: A
2533 Why should the use of metallic or semi-metallic packing hooks or 2534 During the inspection of a low pressure pump, the wearing ring is Ans: C Ans: B
pullers be avoided on bronze or brass shafts, rods, plungers, or determined to have a clearance of 0.3mm - 0.4mm, you should 2553 If the flow of water from a centrifugal pump is allowed to be stopped 2554 Which of the materials listed is used as the dynamic seal material on
sleeves? ___________. by closing the discharge valve while the pump continues to run for mechanical seals installed on most centrifugal pumps used in water
A. Heat transfer is restricted. A. replace the worn wearing ring an indefinite period, the ____________. service?
B. Scoring may result. B. install a new oversized casing ring A. relief valve will open A. Copper.
C. Valve seat will be damaged. C. machine the worn wearing ring and refit B. water pressure will lower continually to shut off head B. Copper and carbon.
D. Bonnet corrosion may result. D. leave the existing wearing rings in place C. water pressure will tend to rise continuously C. Carbon.
Ans: B Ans: D D. liquid may overheat and vaporize D. Bronze.
2535 Operating a rotary pump at speeds in excess of design 2536 Which of the following conditions would prevent a steam Ans: D Ans: C
requirements could cause ____________. reciprocating pump from delivering its rated capacity? 2555 The static suction head of a horizontal centrifugal pump, is the 2556 When a reciprocating pump is operating at maximum speed, the
A. decreased clearances between rotating parts A. Excessive suction lift difference in elevation between the ____________. cushioning valves should be ______________.
B. decreased slippage to the suction side of the pump B. Air trapped in the discharge expansion chamber A. discharge liquid level and the suction liquid level A. wide opened
C. air binding in the discharge ports C. A leaking snifter valve allowing air to enter the suction side of the B. discharge liquid level and the pump centerline B. half opened
pump C. suction liquid level and the pump centerline C. 3/4 opened
D. erosion and excessive wear D. All of the above D. suction submergence level and the pump discharge D. almost completely closed
Ans: D Ans: A Ans: C Ans: D
2537 Permanent centrifugal pump shaft damage due to erosion, 2538 If a centrifugal pump operating with a positive suction head vibrates, 2557 After the installation of new impeller wearing rings by pressing them 2558 When renewing the shaft packing on a centrifugal pump equipped
corrosion, and wear at the stuffing box is usually prevented by or becomes noisy, the cause could be ____________. onto the pump impeller hub, it is advisable to ____________. with an external liquid sealing supply, you should
________________. ________________.
A. wearing rings A. excessive pump speed A. dynamically balance the shaft and impeller A. always turn down the shaft in a lathe to ensure a snug fit
B. renewable sleeves B. worn wearing rings B. check the shaft and impeller assembly on centers to see if the ring B. ensure that the lantern ring is aligned with the sealing supply
C. a hardened sprayed metal coating C. air leakage into suction line surfaces are true opening
D. internally flooded lantern rings D. insufficient venting C. visually inspect the rings after about an hour of service C. check the stuffing box for irregularities with a dial indicator
Ans: B Ans: D D. all of the above D. make sure the seal cage is always positioned at the base of the
2539 Which of the following is NOT an identifiable characteristic of a 2540 The pressure of a liquid leaving the pump can be referred to as the stuffing box
steam reciprocating pump? ___________. Ans: B Ans: B
A. Direct-acting A. total head 2559 Which of the following statements concerning deep well cargo 2560 Which of the listed pumps is NOT a positive displacement pump?
B. Diffuser B. discharge head pumps is correct?
C. High-pressure C. net positive suction head A. A pumproom is not necessary. A. Centrifugal
D. Vertical D. suction head B. The impeller is located at the upper end of the shaft. B. Reciprocating
Ans: B Ans: B C. Special priming provisions are necessary. C. Gear
2541 To absorb the wear resulting from impeller rotation and abrasives in 2542 If the existing vapor pressure is subtracted from the indicated D. The prime mover is connected at the lower portion of the shaft. D. Rotary
the liquid, a centrifugal pump is usually fitted with pressure at the pump suction, the remainder is the
_______________. ______________. Ans: A Ans: A
A. lantern rings A. pump head 2561 The diffusion ring installed in many high pressure centrifugal 2562 The three basic parts of any eductor are the nozzle, the suction
B. bearings B. total suction head pumps, such as feed pumps, ____________. chamber, and the _____________.
C. casing volutes C. discharge head A. eliminates axial thrust A. injector
D. wearing rings D. apparent net positive suction head B. imparts kinetic energy to the water passing through the pump B. compressor
Ans: D Ans: D C. alleviates the need for a double suction impeller C. diffuser
2543 If the capacity of a centrifugal pump decreases gradually over a long 2544 Which of the listed conditions can lead to cavitation in a centrifugal D. eliminates radial thrust to the impeller D. siphon
period of time, you should replace the ____________. pump? Ans: D Ans: C
2563 To prevent air pockets from forming in a centrifugal pump suction 2564 Devices which utilize the rapid flow of a fluid to entrain another fluid
A. packing gland A. Vapor pockets formed in the suction flow stream. line installed angled from normal, any gate valve should be installed and thereby move it from one place to another are called
B. mechanical seals B. Rough casing volute surfaces. with the ____________. _____________.
C. lantern rings C. Worn wearing rings. A. bonnet above suction pipe centerline A. mixed flow pumps
D. wearing rings D. Heavy fluid in the flow stream. B. centerline above the suction pipe centerline B. jet pumps
 Page 137 Page 138

C. stem pointing upward at right angles to the pipe C. volute pumps B. They should always be started with the discharge valve opened. B. relief valve would open
D. stem horizontal or pointing downward below the pipe D. centrifugal pumps
Ans: D Ans: B C. A priming pump is always required to flood the impeller suction. C. pump would eventually overheat
2565 If you heard a "crackling" noise in a centrifugal pump, the most 2566 Excessive wear on a centrifugal pump shaft sleeve will
probable cause of the problem would be _____________. _______________. D. They should always be started with the sealing line valves closed. D. motor would overheat

A. insufficient speed A. cause new packing to be torn and scored Ans: A Ans: C
B. cavitation B. cause severe pump vibration at operating speed 2581 Reduced capacity, accompanied by vibration and noise at the 2582 When operating with a negative suction head, which of the following
C. excess discharge pressure C. damage the packing gland stuffing box suction of a centrifugal pump is a result of ____________. types of pumps will require priming?
D. excessive net positive suction head D. damage the pump casing interstage seals A. cavitation A. Reciprocating
Ans: B Ans: A B. water hammer B. Centrifugal
2567 Operating a rotary gear pump far below its rated speed when 2568 One of the many troubles occurring with centrifugal pump shaft C. fluid friction C. Rotary
handling low viscosity liquids, will cause its volumetric efficiency to packing is the excessive wear on the rings nearest the packing D. steam knock D. Gear
____________. gland, while the rings nearest the impeller remain in good condition. Ans: A Ans: B
This wear may be caused by ____________. 2583 The function of seal cages, or lantern rings installed in the 2584 A centrifugal pump must have a stuffing box liquid sealing line and
A. increase steadily as the moving gears develop less vibration A. air entrained in the fluid pumped centrifugal pump stuffing boxes, is to ______________. seal cages installed if the pump _____________.
B. decrease to where the pump no longer develops flow B. packing rings rotating in the stuffing box A. cool the shaft A. suction head is high, and is handling a cool, debris free liquid
C. remain unchanged due to its positive displacement characteristics C. some packing rings being cut too short B. lubricate the packing B. is handling a liquid with a temperature of less than 66oC
C. seal air from entering along the shaft C. suction lift exceeds 250mm Hg Vac
D. fluctuate due to the amount of slip variation D. improper adjustment of the gland nuts D. distribute the sealing liquid within the stuffing box D. discharge is less than 2kg/cm
Ans: B Ans: D Ans: D Ans: C
2569 The capacity of a rotary pump, when operated at a constant speed, 2570 Inspection of a low pressure gear pump for cavitation will usually be 2585 If a centrifugal pump is being driven by a steam turbine and the 2586 The proper design of a centrifugal pump must include a seal cage
will decrease with an increase in the pump _________. indicated by a wear pattern _____________. discharge valve is closed off, the pump will __________. and sealing line when the pump _______________.
A. slow down A. takes suction from a low temperature pressurized tank
A. discharge volume A.
along the inlet side of the housing B. run cooler B. takes suction from a hot well
B. suction pressure B.
along the discharge side of the housing C. speed up by 5% until the discharge valve is reopened C. is handling a liquid at less than 66°C
C. steeped speed C.
at the extreme upper and lower peripheries of the housing D. no longer continue to internally convert the resultant energy D. has a high positive suction head
D. rotor clearances D.
even throughout the entire periphery of the housing when matched imparted to the pump
machined gear sets are used Ans: D Ans: B
Ans: D Ans: A 2587 One of three available centrifugal salt water service pumps is in 2588 Two individual centrifugal pump impellers of the same diameter,
2571 The capacity of a centrifugal pump can be increased by the 2572 Which of the following conditions would be hazardous if you were operation with a sea water temperature of 10°C. The cooling width, and rotating speed are to be compared, one is cast with
installation of a larger diameter impeller. Another means of using two centrifugal pumps to discharge a flammable liquid? temperature of all systems supplied by this pump appear to be high. straight vanes, the other with curved vanes. Which of the following
increasing the pump capacity is to _________________. Therefore, you should ___________. statements is correct?
A. increase speed A. Both pumps operating at the same speed and discharging into a A. only need to start a second pump and operate it in parallel A. The straight vane impeller develops a higher level of kinetic energy.
common line.
B. increase the size of the cardent assembly B. Each pump operating at a different speed and discharging into a B. start a second pump and place it on line, close the discharge valve B. The straight vane impeller has the potential for producing a greater
common line. on the original pump and watch for a rise in the discharge pressure discharge pressure.
C. reduce wearing ring clearances C. Both pumps operating at the same speed taking suction from a
common line. C. after starting the second pump open the casing vent valve of the first C. The curved vane impeller is less likely to develop cavitation.
D. change the pump to a "close coupled" arrangement D. Each pump operating at a different speed and taking suction from a pump, then secure the first pump
common line. D. after starting the second pump secure the first pump and do nothing D. The curved vane impeller will develop a greater increase in the liquid
Ans: A Ans: B else with the salt water service system velocity.
2573 Excessive air leakage into the suction side of a centrifugal pump 2574 Increasing the speed of a centrifugal pump will result in an increase Ans: B Ans: D
would be indicated by which of the following operational problems? in its capacity. Another means of increasing the capacity of a 2589 A centrifugal pump produces flow with a resulting discharge head by 2590 Which of the following statements about pump operations is NOT a
centrifugal pump is to increase the _________. energy conversion. It is typical for the energy conversion to follow correct statement?
A. The pump delivers full capacity when started, but gradually slackens A. diameter of the discharge piping, with all other factors remaining the the order of ______________.
off to an abnormally low flow. same A. mechanical energy to kinetic energy to potential energy A. In order for a fluid to be pumped, a fluid must be made to flow.
B. The pump packing gland overheats after short operating periods. B. diameter of the suction piping, with all other factors remaining the
same B. mechanical energy to potential energy to kinetic energy B. A substance must be cold in order for it to be pumped.
C. The motor overcurrent protective device continually shuts the pump C. width of the impeller only C. potential energy to mechanical energy to kinetic energy C. The kinetic energy imparted by the pump can be used to force a
down. liquid through a hydraulic system.
D. Pounding noises can be heard at the pump suction chest. D. diameter of the impeller D. kinetic energy to mechanical energy to potential energy D. A pump must receive its energy from an external source.
Ans: A Ans: D Ans: A Ans: B
2575 One of the disadvantages of screw-type positive displacement rotary 2576 A centrifugal pump, normally operated under a positive suction 2591 The simplest method to use for determining if a centrifugal pump is 2592 Which pump installation would require an external source of sealing
pumps is that they have ___________. head, has its impeller replaced by one with a larger suction eye. operating as designed, is to ____________. water?
What effect will this change have on the pump? A. closely observe the pump discharge temperature A. Main circulator pump jacket water cooling
A. high internal velocities A. The pump motor will electrically trip off the line. B. close off the discharge valve, and watch for a rise in pressure B. Salt water service pump
B. performance characteristics sensitive to viscosity change B. The pump will deliver more gallons per minute at the same RPM.
C. momentarily close off the suction valve, and watch for a rise in C. Auxiliary condensate pump
C. low tolerance for entrained air and gases C. The pump will deliver less gallons per minute at the same RPM. pressure
D. use a clamp on ammeter and compare the readings to past records D. Bilge pump
D. low range of flows and pressures D. The capacity in gallons per minute will not be affected by the impeller
suction eye size. Ans: B Ans: D
Ans: B Ans: B 2593 If two centrifugal pumps, driven by two independent electric motors, 2594 When replacing packing rings in the stuffing boxes of reciprocating
2577 If a horizontal centrifugal pump becomes air bound, the pump should 2578 A centrifugal pump operating against a closed discharge valve has operating at unequal speeds are discharging an inflammable liquid pump piston rods, the ends of the rings should be cut
be vented at the _____________. a/an ______________. through a common discharge line, the higher speed pump may _________________.
A. suction line A. capacity of 100% cause the slower pump to ___________.
B. discharge flange B. efficiency of 0%
C. top of the volute C. internal slippage of 0% A. stop A. square
D. bottom of the casing D. shut off horsepower rating of 100% B. turn backward B. beveled
Ans: C Ans: B C. overheat C. step-designed
2579 Which of the listed statements is correct concerning the starting of 2580 If a centrifugal bilge pump were continually operated with the D. overspeed the driving end D. diagonal
centrifugal pumps? discharge valve closed the ____________. Ans: C Ans: A
A. They should always be started with the discharge valve closed. A. motor overload would open 2595 What should be done if localized scoring is discovered on a pump 2596 A multistage centrifugal pump can be BEST described as having
shaft sleeve during routine maintenance inspection? _____________.
 Page 139 Page 140

A. Reassemble the pump and provide more water leak off for A. two or more impellers housed together in one casing and mounted B. Packed stuffing box glands must be cooled by the liquid being B. using wear rings with a larger than normal outside diameter and
lubrication. on a single shaft pumped, but mechanical seals do not require cooling. having the casing "crush" them in place
B. Check for parallel alignment of the sleeve radial face to the sleeve B. a single stepped impeller mounted in a progressively staged casing C. If packing fails, the pump can be kept running temporarily by C. using one dowel pin pressed into the side of the ring, then fitting the
bore. tightening the gland, but if a mechanical seal fails it must be totally pin into a hole drilled into the side of the casing ring grove
C. Reassemble the pump and set the governor to obtain a slower C. a large radial clearance between the impeller and casing to prevent renewed to stop the leakage.
speed. overheating due to friction D. The sealing surface of a mechanical seal is parallel to the shaft, but D. using an extended lip formed on one half of the ring and using the
D. Correct the cause of scoring and install a new shaft sleeve. D. an increase in the discharge velocity of the liquid with a the sealing surface of a packed gland is perpendicular to the shaft. upper casing half to trap the lip when the casing is reassembled
corresponding decrease in pressure through the stages
Ans: D Ans: A Ans: C Ans: D
2597 A pump shaft that is bent or distorted should normally be 2598 An increase in rotor clearances in a rotary pump will 2611 When a centrifugal pump is operating with a positive suction head, 2612 Which of the following statements is correct with regards to the
____________. _________________. the inner end of the stuffing box is _____________. operation of a centrifugal cargo pump?
A. repaired by a suitable welding process A. increase discharge pressure A. under a vacuum and air tends to leak into the pump through the A. Oil is discharged from the center of the impeller through the outlet.
B. straightened by applying heat and torsion B. decrease pump capacity shaft stuffing box
C. reconditioned by metallizing and machining C. decrease pump cavitation B. under a pressure and fluid tends to leak from the pump along the B. Gravity causes the oil to flow toward the discharge.
D. replaced with a satisfactory spare D. decrease reaction ring clearance shaft and through the stuffing box
Ans: D Ans: B C. sealed by a vacuum and no leakage will occur C. The self-priming feature of the centrifugal pump enables it to draw its
2599 Which of the units of measurement listed below are used to express 2600 Positive displacement, helical gear pumps are well suited for own suction as it starts.
positive and negative suction heads when calculating pump head or pumping oil because _____________. D. sealed by the seal cage or pump lantern ring D. The discharge capacity varies directly with the speed of the impeller.
hydraulic horsepower?
A. Inches of mercury for positive head and feet of water for negative A. stuffing boxes eliminate the leakage problems usually associated Ans: B Ans: D
head with other gear pumps 2613 Pump efficiency may be lost as a result of _______________. 2614 Centrifugal pumps are designed with sealing lines _________.
B. Feet of water for positive head and inches of mercury for negative B. it is not necessary to closely maintain design clearances with this
head pump A. air entering the pump through a pin hole leak in the discharge A. to prevent the fluid being pumped from pouring out of the stuffing
C. Inches of mercury for both positive and negative heads C. they are essentially self-priming and produce a high suction lift manifold box when a high suction head is available
B. a leak in a gasket on the suction side of the pump B. in place of mechanical seals
D. Feet of water for both positive and negative heads D. these pumps are designed with extreme tooth angles C. the suction valve in the wide open position C. in place of slinger rings
Ans: D Ans: C D. the pump being installed too close to the suction tank D. to prevent air from entering the pump casing along the shaft
2601 The static suction head of a pump is the _____________. 2602 How does the viscosity of a fluid being pumped affect the operation Ans: B Ans: D
of a spur gear pump? 2615 Which of the following actions should be taken if during a routine 2616 To prevent overheating and scoring of the shaft after repacking the
A. distance of the suction liquid level above the center line of the pump A. The viscosity of the fluid is relatively unimportant in the pump maintenance inspection of a centrifugal pump, localized scoring on stuffing box, which of the following procedures should be carried
operation. a pump shaft sleeve is detected? out?
B. distance the suction liquid level is below the center line of the pump B. The pump can only be used for fluids of high viscosity. A. Correct the cause of the scoring and repair the sleeve or replace A. Tighten the packing in small increments while the pump is operating.
with a new one.
C. force necessary to overcome frictional losses in the pump and piping C. The pump can only be used for light oils. B. Reassemble the unit and provide more water leak off for proper B. Lubricate the packing with cylinder oil before installing new turns of
lubrication. packing.
D. amount in inches of mercury the total suction head is below D. The pump cannot handle fluids more viscous than lubricating oil. C. Check for parallel alignment of the sleeve radial faces to the sleeve C. Tightening the gland in all the way and then backing it off slightly.
atmospheric pressure bores.
Ans: A Ans: A D. Reassemble the unit and adjust the governor to obtain a slower D. Operating the pump slowly and applying oil freely to the shaft until
2603 To maintain the design discharge pressure of a centrifugal pump, 2604 A spur gear pump should be operated with the discharge valves speed. the packing is properly seated.
the clearance between the ____________. _____________. Ans: A Ans: A
A. impeller and lantern ring is critical A. slightly opened 2617 Why is the discharge pressure of a herringbone gear pump steadier 2618 Which of the following statements is true regarding mechanical
B. impeller and casing wearing rings is critical B. throttled than the discharge pressure of a simple spur gear pump? seals?
C. packing box and packing gland is critical C. fully opened
D. gland seal and packing gland is critical D. halfway opened A. Clearance between the gear teeth and casing is smaller. A. They may be used in lieu of conventional packing glands for any
Ans: B Ans: C service other than saltwater.
2605 As sometimes utilized with centrifugal pumps operating with a high 2606 Positive displacement, helical gear pumps are well suited for B. The gear teeth are smaller than those of the simple spur gear pump. B. They are not suitable for use on fuel oil transfer pumps.
suction lift, foot valves are primarily designed to _______________. pumping oil because _____________.
C. One discharge phase begins before the previous discharge phase C. They are normally lubricated and cooled by the fluid being pumped.
A. give the pump motor, or driver, positive protection when operating in A. stuffing boxes eliminate the leakage problems usually associated has been completed.
a shutoff condition with other gear pumps D. The herringbone gear pump has four spur gears instead of two. D. Once placed into service, leakage between the dynamic seal
B. provide a means of supplying sealing fluid for the impeller shaft B. helical gear pumps are essentially self-priming and produce high surfaces may be reduced by monthly adjustment of the spring
stuffing box suction lift compression.
C. enable the pump and its suction line to remain primed prior to C. closely maintained design clearances in this pump is not necessary Ans: C Ans: C
starting the pump 2619 Lead wrapped flexible packing, rated for temperatures of up to 2620 Which of the listed parts is used in a lobe-type rotary pump to
D. afford the pumping system protection against water hammer and D. helical gear pumps are designed with extreme tooth angles 232°C and shaft speeds up to 1000 RPM, will not be suitable for reduce the wear of the lobe edges?
surging use with _________________.
Ans: C Ans: B A. monel metal shafts A. Gibs
2607 Which of the following problems will occur when the suction valve is 2608 A centrifugal pump with a double volute casing operated at greater B. steel shafts B. Spur gears
throttled on a centrifugal pump not designed to operate in this than design capacity, will ________. C. bronze shafts C. Casing gears
manner? D. cast iron shafts D. Liner plates
A. The pump will immediately overheat and seize. A. be less susceptible to shaft deflection than a similar pump with a Ans: C Ans: A
single volute casing operated under the same conditions COMPRESSED AIR SYSTEM
2621 The process of removing moisture from air is known as 2622 Increasing the moisture content of conditioned air is known as
B. Pump efficiency is reduced and cavitation will be induced. B. be more susceptible to shaft deflection than a similar pump with a _____________. _____________.
single volute casing operated under the same conditions A. humidification A. moisturizing
B. dehumidification B. dehumidification
C. The pump packing will fail causing irrepairable damage to the pump C. develop excessive radial thrust and resultant shaft deflection C. vaporization C. dampening
shaft. D. evaporation D. humidification
D. Pump capacity is reduced and overall efficiency will be increased. D. develop excessive radial thrust and resultant impeller deflection Ans: B Ans: D
2623 A first stage unloader installed in a low pressure air compressor is 2624 A viscous film of oil collected between the valve face and seat of a
Ans: B Ans: A unable to completely retract. This will result in _________________. low pressure reciprocating air compressor will ______________.
2609 Which of the following statements represents the main difference 2610 In most horizontally split centrifugal pump casings, wearing rings are
between a stuffing box gland and a mechanical seal for sealing the prevented from rotating by _____________. A. overheating of the discharge valve A. prevent the valve from wire drawing
shaft of a centrifugal pump? B. loss of moisture in the air charge in the receiver B. retard the opening and closing of the valve
A. Packed stuffing box glands are subject to wear, but mechanical A. swelling the wearing rings into the casing C. frequent lifting of the intercooler relief valve C. have no effect on compressor operation
seals are not. D. an abnormally low intercooler pressure D. provide quieter valve operation
 Page 141 Page 142

Ans: D Ans: B Ans: D Ans: C

2625 The purpose of an air compressor unloading device is to 2626 Over pressurization of an air compressor intercooler is prevented by 2645 An air compressor is equipped with an intercooler and an aftercooler 2646 A squealing sound occurring from within an operating reciprocating
_____________. the _____________. to _____________. air compressor is an indication of __________.
A. drain water from the air receiver A. aftercooler relief valve A. inject water vapor into the compressed air A. compressor overload
B. drain water from the cylinders B. intercooler relief valve B. prevent overheating of first stage valves B. motor overload
C. delay the compression process until the motor is up to speed C. last-stage unloader C. increase compressor efficiency and economy C. tight compressor bearings
D. check pump alignment D. first-stage unloader D. reduce the compressed air charge density D. badly leaking unloaders
Ans: C Ans: B Ans: C Ans: C
2627 Air blowing from the intake air filter of an operating air compressor 2628 One method of unloading a low pressure air compressor at start-up 2647 If the capacity of a reciprocating air compressor gradually drops off, 2648 If there is a sudden drop in the capacity of a reciprocating air
indicates ___________. is accomplished by ____________. the cause could be ____________. compressor, you should check for ____________.
A. broken inlet valves A. holding the L.P. discharge valve open A. leaking compressor valves A. broken compressor valves
B. broken discharge valves B. the use of a precharged accumulator B. a clogged air filter B. worn piston rings or cylinder liners
C. pulsations in the air distribution system C. using a temporarily opened cylinder clearance pocket C. worn cylinder liners C. excessive compressor speed
D. overloading of the air distribution system D. temporarily discharging to the air receiver D. all of the above D. a defective pressure switch or pilot valve
Ans: A Ans: C Ans: D Ans: A
2629 In a low pressure air compressor, the loss of volumetric efficiency 2630 To obtain maximum efficiency, two stage air compressors are 2649 Reciprocating air compressor bearing failure may result from 2650 Operating a reciprocating air compressor without an air filter will
normally results from _______________. usually ____________. _________________. cause ____________.
A. adiabatic compression in the intercooler A. horizontally mounted A. a misaligned crankshaft A. carbon deposits on valves and pistons
B. heating of the air leaving the cylinders B. never fitted with intake filters B. overtightened drive belts B. serious wear on valves and pistons
C. inaccurate valve timing C. fitted with intercoolers C. contaminated sump oil C. a clogged air intake
D. constant enlargement of the clearance expansion volume D. operated in an unloaded condition at all times D. all of the above D. excessive compressor discharge pressure
Ans: B Ans: C Ans: D Ans: B
2631 In order to distribute the side pressures over a wide area of the 2632 Which of the listed operating conditions would have the greatest 2651 Which of the following frequent maintenance procedures is required 2652 The heat of compression is partially removed from compressed air
cylinder walls and liners, which of the listed types of pistons are effect on the volumetric efficiency of an operating reciprocating air of compressed air receivers? by ____________.
used in modern low pressure air compressors? compressor? A. A close watch on the temperature. A. intercoolers
A. Differential A. The density of the air entering the compressor. B. Constant cleaning to remove oil and dirt. B. aftercoolers
B. Trunk B. The temperature of the air entering the compressor C. Constant testing of the relief valves. C. compressor water jackets
C. Barrel C. The designed rotating speed of the compressor. D. Frequent draining of water. D. all of the above
D. Valve-in-head D. A leaking head gasket. Ans: D Ans: D
Ans: B Ans: D 2653 An air compressor is equipped with an intercooler to 2654 If a reciprocating air compressor has a knock occurring in frequency
2633 Which of the following problems would be the probable cause for the 2634 Which of the following problems can result in below normal pressure _____________. I. increase the efficiency of the compressor with its operating RPM, the cause is probably ____________.
faulty operation of a reciprocating air compressor suction valve? in the intercooler of an operating low pressure air compressor? II. reduce the cylinder operating temperature
A. I only A. misalignment or worn main bearings
A. Carbon build up in the piston ring belt. A. Defective pressure pilot valve B. II only B. insufficient cylinder lubrication
B. Faulty operation of a cylinder unloader. B. Defective receiver relief valve C. Both I and II C. defective or poorly fitted valves
C. Compressor operation in an area of high relative humidity. C. Leaking intake valves on the high pressure cylinder D. Neither I nor II D. all of the above
D. Lifting of intercooler relief valve. D. Leaking discharge valves on the low pressure cylinder Ans: A Ans: A
Ans: B Ans: D 2655 According to Regulations , all pressure vessels other than unfired 2656 A compressor operating with an accumulation of dust andgrease on
2635 If an electric motor driven air compressor fails to start, it may be due 2636 Excessive lube oil consumption in a reciprocating air compressor is steam boilers shall be protected by pressure-relieving devices that the surfaces of an intercooler would result in_________. I. a
to a _______________. an indication of _____________. prevent the pressure from rising more than __________ above the decrease in volumetric efficiency of the compressor II. higher
A. leaking discharge valve A. leakage in the aftercooler maximum allowable working pressure. volume of air to be discharged to the receiver
B. jammed suction valve B. leakage in the intercooler
C. tripped overload relay C. worn or broken piston rings A. 5 percent A. I only
D. broken discharge unloader D. defects in the high pressure unloader B. 10 percent B. II only
Ans: C Ans: C C. 15 percent C. Both I and II
2637 If the drive belts on an air compressor were squealing, you should fix 2638 On small, low pressure, air compressors, the cylinders are usually D. 20 percent D. Neither I nor II
them by ____________. lubricated by the _____________. Ans: B Ans: D
A. spraying oil on the belts A. splash method 2657 One of the main differences between a propeller pump and a 2658 If the intercooler of a low pressure air compressor becomes fouled
B. tightening the belts B. mechanical force feed lubricators centrifugal pump is the absence of a ______________. either internally or externally, the _______________.
C. loosening the belts C. detached sump method A. volute in the centrifugal type pump A. total capacity will be reduced
D. installing wider belts D. internal cooling passages in the crankshafts and connecting rods B. volute in the propeller type pump B. volumetric efficiency will be decreased
C. velocity nozzle in the centrifugal type pump C. discharge pressure will decrease
Ans: B Ans: A D. reciprocating piston in the centrifugal type pump D. normal running time will be decreased
2639 The piston displacement rate of a reciprocating air compressor can 2640 Air compressor receivers should be "blown down" at least Ans: B Ans: B
be modified by changing the _____________. _____________. 2659 Why should a person performing maintenance on an air compressor 2660 If the foundation bolts of a reciprocating air compressor are loose,
wire and tag the system valves closed? which of the conditions below will occur?
A. piston speed A. yearly A. To prevent the unexpected. A. The drive belts will squeal
B. compressor capacity B. quarterly B. To protect the equipment. B. The unloaders will jam shut
C. volumetric efficiency C. monthly C. To protect the operator performing the maintenance. C. The compressor will vibrate
D. total pressure D. daily D. Each of the above is correct. D. The intercooler will leak
Ans: A Ans: D Ans: D Ans: C
2641 Intake valves installed on most reciprocating low pressure air 2642 When the compressed air reservoir is placed in line with an air 2661 Intercooling of a multistage air compressor provides the advantages 2662 When one belt of a multiple V-belt compressor drive requires
compressors are actuated by the pressure differential between the compressor and is used as an aftercooler, the reservoir must be of reducing the work of compression on the succeeding stages, and replacement, all of the belts must be replaced, because
air in the cylinder and the pressure __________. ___________. ____________. _____________.
A. condensing part of the original water vapor content A. the old belts would otherwise carry all the load
A. of the air on the external side of the valve A. fitted with a manhole B. reducing the maximum piston loads B. new belts are shorter than old belts
B. of the push rod and rocker arm assembly B. frequently drained of condensed water C. increasing the volumetric efficiency C. new belts have a tendency to slip
C. sensed by the receiver low pressure limit switch C. fitted with a moisture trap at the inlet D. all of the above D. all the above
D. sensed by the intercooler diaphragm valve D. fitted with a sight glass Ans: D Ans: B
Ans: A Ans: B 2663 The safety heads of most large reciprocating compressors are held 2664 A squealing sound generated by an operating reciprocating air
2643 A knocking sound emitted from an unloaded air compressor is 2644 The cylinders and intercoolers of most low pressure air in place by _____________. compressor would indicate _________________.
probably caused by _____________. compressors are cooled by _____________. A. discharge pressure in the safety return line A. loose drive belts
A. damaged intake valves A. water B. large teflon gaskets B. badly leaking valves
B. excessively tight mounting bolts B. oil C. heavy coil springs C. compressor interstage leakage
C. insufficient cylinder lubrication C. air D. tack welding on the sides D. tight drive belts
D. a loose piston D. CO2 Ans: C Ans: A
 Page 143 Page 144

2665 Which of the following is the probable cause for a motor driven, low 2666 When air compressors are arranged for automatic operation, the C. Prevents lubricating oil contamination of the compressed air supply. C. install only a filter consisting of a treated paper element
pressure, reciprocating air compressor to repeatedly trip the circuit cylinders can be unloaded during starting and stopping by
breaker upon starting? _____________. D. Protects against the damaging effects of airborne solid particles. D. select the proper size filter so that air flow is not restricted
A. Defective pressure switch A. bypassing the discharge to suction
B. Leaking suction unloader B. fitting depressors which hold the suction valve plates on their seats Ans: D Ans: D
2685 In addition to a pressure gage and a relief valve, an air receiver 2686 A reciprocating air compressor is running roughly and vibrating
C. Compressor starting against full load C. step unloading the cylinders in a multi-cylinder machine should be fitted with a _____________. excessively, indicating that the ____________.
D. Compressor starting without any load D. all of the above A. sight glass and manhole A. compressor is overloaded
Ans: C Ans: D B. thermometer and sight glass B. motor is overloaded
2667 If a ship service air compressor failed to unload, the 2668 Aftercoolers are used with air compressors to _____________. C. thermometer and manhole C. foundation bolts are loose
________________. D. drain connection D. belts are too tight
A. compressor would dangerously overspeed A. reduce the temperature of compressed air Ans: D Ans: C
B. air receiver pressure would be excessively low B. decrease the density of compressed air 2687 If you have a duplex double acting reciprocating pump making 160 2688 A compressor operating with an accumulation of dust andgrease on
C. circuit breaker may open on starting C. dampen pressure pulses in the discharge air strokes/minute, with a 6" diameter cylinder, a 9" stroke and the surfaces of an intercooler would result in_________. I. the motor
D. compressor would pump lube oil D. ensure complete expansion of the compressed air operating with 85% volumetric efficiency, what is the capacity of this to run warmer than usual II. lower density air discharged to the
Ans: C Ans: A pump? receiver
2669 Leaking valves in a low pressure, reciprocating, air compressor can 2670 If a ship service air compressor operating in intermittent service were A. 150 gpm A. I only
result from _______________. failing to unload, the ____________. B. 225 gpm B. II only
A. excessive compressor discharge pressure A. compressor would stop abruptly when power was secured C. 300 gpm C. Both I and II
B. operating the compressor at excessive speed B. compressor would run continuously D. 75 gpm D. Neither I nor II
C. uneven piston stroke in the compressor C. air receiver indicated pressure would be excessively low Ans: C Ans: A
D. abrasion by dust and dirt D. compressor would require more than the normal amount of 2689 A compressor operating with an accumulation of dust andgrease on 2690 The unloading of an air compressor may be provided by_________.
lubrication the surfaces of an intercooler would result in_________. I. a high I. holding the intake valve off of its seat II. temporarily relieving the
Ans: D Ans: A consumption of lube oil II. higher than normal air pressure in the the intercooler to the atmosphere
2671 Excessive lube oil consumption by a reciprocating air compressor 2672 Which of the following problems could cause air to blow out through receiver
can be caused by ____________. the inlet air filter of a running compressor? A. I only A. I only
A. using a slightly dirty air filter A. Excessive compression in the cylinder B. II only B. II only
B. using oil having an excessive viscosity B. A broken intake valve C. Both I and II C. Both I and II
C. intercooler or aftercooler leaks C. A dirty inlet filter element D. Neither I nor II D. Neither I nor II
D. carrying the oil level higher than normal D. An improperly adjusted discharge valve Ans: A Ans: C
Ans: D Ans: B 2691 A V-belt that is too tight will cause excessive wear of both the belt 2692 Operating a reciprocating air compressor without an air intake filter
2673 After disassembly, the safest way to remove carbon deposits from 2674 If an air compressor is used to supply air primarily to the combustion and the _____________. can result in a/an ___________.
air compressor inlet and discharge valves is to use _____________. control system and other pneumatic controllers, the entire system is A. shaft of the prime mover A. immediate piston damage
known as the __________. B. compressor slave pulley B. immediate clogging of the intake
A. ammonia A. control air system C. main bearing of the compressor C. possible explosion in the compressor
B. diesel oil B. forced draft air system D. prime mover drive pulley D. deposit of carbon on the valves
C. gasoline C. supply air system Ans: C Ans: C
D. naphtha D. ships service air system 2693 For any given volume of compressed air produced by a multistage 2694 If a ship service air compressor failed to unload the
Ans: B Ans: A air compressor, interstage cooling will ________. ___________________.
2675 A dirty intercooler on the ship service air compressor will result in 2676 Slipping drive belts on a ship service air compressor is a probable A. increase the power required for compression A. compressor would run continuously
________________. symptom of ___________________. B. decrease the power required for compression B. air receiver pressure would be excessively low
A. decreased compression ratio A. low lube oil viscosity C. allow isothermal compression of the air charge C. belts could slip when starting
B. higher than normal power consumption B. fouled intercoolers D. allow the compressed air volume to remain constant D. compressor would pump lube oil
C. unloader malfunction C. a failed unloader Ans: B Ans: C
D. water in the lubricating oil D. high air receiver pressure 2695 If the intercooler relief valve lifts while an air compressor is 2696 A leaking suction valve in the second stage of a two stage, high
Ans: B Ans: C operating under load, you should check for ___________________. pressure, air compressor can cause excessively high
2677 A dirty intercooler on an air compressor will cause _______. 2678 Air line lubricators are used in compressed air systems to lubricate ________________.
______________. A. a defective pressure switch or pilot valve A. second stage discharge pressure
A. damage to the unloader operating diaphragm A. the suction and discharge valves B. a leak in the intercooler piping B. first stage discharge pressure
B. an increase in current flow to the motor B. tools and equipment served by compressed air C. leakage through the low pressure unloader control diaphragm C. pressure in the aftercooler
C. high pressure in the receiver and refrig-a-filter C. air line reducing valves
D. an excessive consumption of crankcase oil D. all of the above D. leaking high pressure discharge valves D. compressor final discharge temperature
Ans: B Ans: B Ans: D Ans: B
2679 If an air compressor is used to supply compressed air to outlets 2680 Which of the following statements represents the path of air flow 2697 Leaking valves in an air compressor can be a result of 2698 Condensate must be drained periodically from the air compressor
throughout the engine room and on deck of a vessel, the system is passing through a typical two stage, low pressure, reciprocating, air _______________. receivers to prevent _____________.
known as the _______________. compressor? A. excessive discharge pressure A. second stage cylinder lockup
A. combustion control air system A. Intercooler, L.P. cylinder, H.P. cylinder, and air cleaner B. abrasion, dust, and dirt B. oil sump contamination
B. supply air system B. L.P. cylinder, air cleaner, intercooler, and H.P. cylinder C. excessive compressor speed C. faulty operation of pneumatic valves
C. ship's service air system C. Air cleaner, L.P. cylinder, H.P. cylinder, and intercooler D. irregular compression strokes D. corrosion of air receiver baffles
D. low pressure deck air system D. Air cleaner, L.P. cylinder, intercooler, and H.P. cylinder Ans: B Ans: C
Ans: C Ans: D 2699 The pressure developed in the high pressure cylinder of a 2700 The volumetric efficiency of a reciprocating air compressor, is the
2681 When one belt of a multiple V-belt drive requires replacing, it will be 2682 A knocking sound from one cylinder of an operating air compressor reciprocating air compressor, in order to assure an output near the ratio of the _________________.
necessary to _____________. indicates ____________. end of its compression stroke, is ____________.
A. ensure the proper belt dressing is applied A. a defective or broken high pressure unloader A. the same as the line discharge pressure A. adiabatic work of compression to the indicated horsepower
B. ensure the seasoned belts are reinstalled in their proper sequence B. a loose valve plate B. below the line discharge pressure B. work of isothermal compression to the brake horsepower of the
motor
C. season the new belt prior to installation C. excessive overload C. constant throughout the discharge period C. air indicated horsepower from indicator cards to the brake
D. replace the entire belt set D. no compression horsepower input
Ans: D Ans: B D. above the line discharge pressure D. actual amount of air discharged by the compressor, to the theoretical
2683 Which of the following statements describes the function of an air 2684 An important point of consideration when replacing a dry type intake volume swept by the movement of the compressor piston
compressor intake filter? filter on an air compressor is to ____________.
A. Protects against suction valve float. A. use the same wetting oil on the element as is used in the Ans: D Ans: D
compressor lubrication system 2701 The air charge leaving an intercooler, or aftercooler of an air 2702 The unloading system on an air compressor will ____________.
B. Provides a positive pressure on the air inlet valves. B. install a smaller size filter to allow for expansion of the element compressor can be expected to be ___________.
A. superheated A. increase compressor discharge pressure on demand
B. supercooled B. increase compressor operating speed as necessary
 Page 145 Page 146

C. at or below the dew point C. allow the motor to turn the compresser opposed only by friction C. control compressor discharge pressure C. using an enlarged, permanently opened clearance expansion space

D. all of the above D. reduce the compressor frictional load when starting D. remove all but the frictional load during starting D. a precharged accumulator
Ans: C Ans: C Ans: D Ans: B
2703 Air compressor cylinder unloaders enable the compressor to 2704 Regulations specifically prohibit seats or disks in pressure vessel 2721 Which of the following statements is true concerning the overall 2722 Differential pistons used in some reciprocating air compressors,
_____________. relief valves to be made of ________________. efficiency of air compressors? serve to provide _____________.
A. vary their speed according to temperature and load A. cast iron A. High pressure compressors are more efficient than low pressure A. a means of distributing side pressures over a wider area of each
B. start and come up to speed before air compression begins B. bronze compressors. cylinder
C. change speed according to overload demands C. brass B. Mechanical efficiency divided by compressor efficiency will equal the B. a means of unloading during start-up
D. reduce compressed air charge density D. stainless steel overall efficiency of the compressor unit.
Ans: B Ans: A C. Two stage compressors are generally more efficient than single C. more than one stage of compression by each piston
2705 If one drive belt on an air compressor is found to be worn you 2706 If the electric motor driving an air compressor fails to start, the cause stage compressors.
should _____________. may be a _____________. D. The volumetric efficiency is decreased in multistage compressors. D. a variable compression ratio enabling the output to be varied to suit
A. replace that belt only A. leaking unloader any load condition
B. replace all of the belts B. tripped circuit breaker Ans: C Ans: C
C. dress the worn belt C. control line leak 2723 Which of the following statements is true concerning V-belt drives 2724 The function of an unloader on a two-cylinder, two-stage medium
D. adjust belt tension D. defective pop valve for reciprocating air compressors? pressure, air compressor is to _____________.
Ans: B Ans: B A. Belts generally stretch slightly during the first few months of use. A. remove all but the friction load on the compressor motor when
2707 Carbon deposits forming on the discharge valves of an air 2708 Air compressors are equipped with unloading systems for the starting
compressor are caused by oil deterioration under high pressure. purpose of _____________. B. An excessively tight belt will overload the bearings. B. prevent water accumulation in air lines
The first step in reducing these deposits would be to C. A loose belt will slip on the motor pulley and wear rapidly. C. reduce motor starting voltage
_____________. D. All of the above. D. vary compressor speed
A. reduce the discharge temperatures A. removing all but the frictional load during starting Ans: D Ans: A
B. increase the compression ratio B. relieving intercoolers of high temperature buildups 2725 Condensate must be drained from the intercooler and aftercoolers 2726 The clearance volume for a single stage compressor is defined as
C. use a high viscosity oil C. providing high starting torque in the drive motor of an air compressor because _____________. the space created between the _____________.
D. increase the oil volatility D. seating valve plates during compressor shutdown A. the cooling effect of the condensate reduces the compressor's A. top of the piston and bottom side of head, with the piston at BDC
Ans: A Ans: A efficiency
2709 Unloading of a low pressure, reciprocating, air compressor at start- 2710 Excessively low air pressure occurring in the intercooler of a B. a danger of explosion exists whenever water is present in a B. piston and head, including the space around the piston to the top of
up can be accomplished by ______________. reciprocating air compressor is caused by _______________. compressor the upper ring and under the valves, with the piston at TDC

A. holding the L.P. discharge valve open A. leaky discharge valves on the LP cylinder C. water causes erratic operation of pneumatic components C. bottom of the piston and bottom side of the head at TDC, regardless
B. the use of a precharged accumulator B. leaky discharge valves on the HP cylinder of upper ring location and valve placement
C. using a permanently enlarged clearance expansion volume C. insufficient intercooler cooling D. the volumetric capacity of the first stage is reduced if water remains D. top of the piston and bottom side of the head at TDC as compared
D. temporarily discharging back to the compressor intake D. low ambient air pressure to that which exists between the top of the piston and bottom side of
Ans: D Ans: A head at BDC
2711 On a medium pressure, differential piston, reciprocating air 2712 Broken valve strips in an operating low pressure, air compressor will Ans: C Ans: B
compressor, lubrication of the pistons/cylinders is usually cause ____________. 2727 According to Regulations, if a pressure vessel, such as a ships 2728 One cause of leaky valves in a low pressure air compressor may be
accomplished _____________. service air tank, has defects which may impair its safety, the tank attributed to _________________.
A. by the splash method A. an immediate crankcase explosion shall be ____________.
B. with metering type cylinder lubricators B. oil contamination in the compressed air A. hydrostatically tested at a pressure equal to the design pressure of A. running with an air filter element different from that required by the
C. gravity fed lubricators C. a decrease in compressor capacity the tank original manufacturer's specifications
D. lube oil flow from the bearing lube oil system D. no immediate loss of the compressed air capacity B. hydrostatically tested at a pressure equal to 1 1/2 times the B. excessive operating hours without carrying out preventive
Ans: B Ans: C maximum allowable working pressure of the tank maintenance
2713 Which of the listed valve types is typically used as inlet and 2714 The function of the springs used with channel or plate-type valves C. pneumatically tested at a pressure equal to the working pressure of C. the compressor running too fast
discharge valves on modern low pressure air compressors? for reciprocating air compressors is to ____________. the tank
D. pneumatically tested at a pressure equal to 1 1/2 times the design D. excessive discharge pressure
A. Poppet A. open the valves during downward strokes pressure of the tank
B. Rotary B. provide positive closing of the valves Ans: B Ans: B
C. Reed C. reduce compressor discharge pulsations 2729 Regulations require safety and relief valves for air service to be 2730 Compared to poppet and other mechanically operated valves, which
D. Sliding D. reduce air intake and exhaust pulsations provided with a substantial lifting device, capable of lifting the disk of the following advantages is gained by using a thin plate (feather)
Ans: C Ans: B from its seat when the pressure in the vessel is ________________. low lift type valve in an low pressure air compressor?
2715 According to Regulations , a welded repair to be made to a ships 2716 The major difference between the discharge and suction valves
service air receiver, other than an emergency repair at sea, must be installed in most low pressure, reciprocating air compressors is that A. 50% of that at which the valve is set to blow A. They improve compression efficiency.
____________. ___________. B. 75% of that at which the valve is set to blow B. They operate with a minimum of noise.
A. inspected and tested by the chief engineer before it may be returned A. one valve seats upwards, while the other seats downwards C. 110% of that at which the valve is set to blow C. They are simple and easy to replace.
to service D. 125% of that at which the valve is set to blow D. All of the above.
B. completed and then tested at least twice prior to notifying the B. the reed valves used on the discharge are made substantially thicker Ans: B Ans: D
Administration to ask for a surveyor and heavier than the suction valves 2731 Which of the following statements is correct when comparing the 2732 If all of the air charge has been lost from a ship service air receiver,
C. made with a backing strip to ensure full penetration C. the suction valve springs exert a greater tension than the discharge cylinder diameters of a two-stage reciprocating air compressor? the compressor mechanical unloading system will ____________.
valve springs
D. made only with the prior approval of the Administration D. the discharge valve springs exert a greater tension than the suction A. The low pressure cylinder will be smaller than the high pressure A. fail to work, and the drive motor will trip the circuit breaker as the
valve springs cylinder. compressor will be overloaded
Ans: D Ans: A B. The high pressure cylinder will be smaller than the low pressure B. fail to work, but the compressor having no load will start with little or
2717 One function of the air receiver in a compressed air system is to 2718 Cylinder inlet valve failure in a low pressure air compressor can be cylinder. no difficulty
_____________. caused by _______________. C. The high and low pressure cylinders will be of equal size. C. still functional normally at start-up
A. dry the air discharged from the intercooler A. carbon buildup on the pistons from excessive lubrication D. The low pressure cylinder will be smaller than the high pressure D. Still function normally, but the safety interlock will stop the drive
B. minimize the system's line pulsations B. compressor overspeeding due to mechanical failure in the unloader cylinder but the piston stroke will be greater. motor
Ans: B Ans: B
C. receive exhaust air from pneumatic accessories C. valve pounding due to valve covers being excessively tight PROPELLER, SHAFTING AND STERN TUBE BEARING
D. remove all traces of oil from the air D. sticking valves due to carbon buildup on the seats 2733 Which combination of the main shaft segments listed below, that are 2734 Which of the following statements describes the purpose of the split
Ans: B Ans: D located furthest from the main engine, are connected by the inflatable seal installed aft of the primary seal assembly for the
2719 An unloader is installed on an air compressor to __________. 2720 An air compressor can be unloaded at start-up by __________. inboard stern tube shaft coupling? propeller shaft?
A. Line shaft and thrust shaft A. To serve as a seal when adding packing to the stuffing box.
A. bypass the high pressure stage to the low pressure stage on 100% A. holding the discharge valve open B. Line shaft and stern-tube shaft B. To allow repair or replacement of the primary seal elements when
of the air compressors in service the ship is waterborne.
B. prevent excessive interstage pressure buildup B. relieving the intercooler pressure to the atmosphere
 Page 147 Page 148

C. Thrust shaft and stern-tube shaft C. To eliminate leakage via the propeller shaft when the shaft is not C. Protects the nut C. critical speed
rotating. D. All of the above D. breakaway speed
D. Stern-tube shaft and tail shaft D. To provide a ready means for the entry of cooling water. Ans: C Ans: C
Ans: B Ans: B 2751 Keyless propeller hubs secured to tailshafts by "pilgrim nuts", are 2752 When the propeller blades are integral with the hub, the propeller is
2735 The exposed portion of the outboard propeller shaft is protected 2736 Water leaking through the stern tube stuffing box is used to removed by _____________. called a _____________.
against seawater corrosion by ________________. accomplish which of the following actions? A. spring-loaded jacks A. built up propeller
B. hydraulic pressure B. solid propeller
A. a heavy lubricant A. Cooling C. heating with a torch C. controllable pitch propeller
B. a covering of plastic, rubber, or shrunk-on composition sleeve B. Lubrication D. hydraulic lever arms D. suction back propeller
Ans: B Ans: B
C. a corrosion-resistant paint C. Flushing 2753 In order to prevent overheating of the packing in the stern tube 2754 Any unusual, or new vibration in the hull or propeller shafting can be
D. a layer of oxidation formed when the metal of the shaft is exposed to D. All of the above stuffing box, _____________. an indication of _____________.
seawater A. the gland is properly adjusted to permit a slight leakage of sea water A. clutch slippage
Ans: B Ans: D
2737 One of the determining factors regulating the time interval for 2738 Some vessels are equipped with a water lubricated stern tube. B. stave-type rubber seals are used B. overheated bearings
drawing a vessel's tailshaft depends upon the design to reduce When at sea, operating under normal conditions, the water service C. cooling water is supplied from the fresh water cooling system C. high engine speeds
stress concentrations in accordance with Class standards. Which valve from the ship's saltwater system to the bearing should be
construction method meets this design criteria? ______________. D. the gland nuts must be tightly taken up to prevent any water leakage D. propeller unbalance

A. Spooned keyway and slotted key A. closed, and no leakage permitted across the shaft packing Ans: A Ans: D
B. Stress relief grooves at the aft end of the propeller and forward end B. closed, and only slight leakage permitted across the shaft packing 2755 Following the withdrawal of the tail shaft, whichnon-destructive test 2756 By which of the following means is force efficiently provided to vary
of the liner could be used to locate cracks? I. liquid penetrant dye II. magnetic the pitch of the blades on a modern controllable pitch propeller?
C. Keyway cut as to give a sharp rise from the bottom of the keyway to C. open, and only slight leakage permitted across the shaft packing flux
the shaft surface A. I only A. Hydraulic
D. All of the above D. open, and no leakage permitted across the shaft packing B. II only B. Mechanical
Ans: A Ans: B C. Both I and II C. Pneumatic
2739 An excessive amount of water is prevented from entering a vessel 2740 The device used to retain the packing, that keeps water from D. Neither I nor II D. Electrical
using a water lubricated stern tube bearing by the use of the entering the ship through the opening where the propeller shaft Ans: C Ans: A
___________. passes through the hull, is called a ____________. 2757 A piece is missing from one blade of a four-bladed propeller and 2758 Inspection of a vessel's propeller during drydocking should include
A. propeller hub A. packing nut could result in ____________. ____________.
B. lignum vitae B. hawsepipe A. accelerated stern bearing wear A. noting the condition of the fairwater
C. shaft packing C. stuffing box B. excessive shaft vibrations B. inspecting the locking device
D. labyrinth seal D. seal cage C. unusual noises C. logging inspection results in the official deck log
Ans: C Ans: C D. all of the above D. all of the above
2741 If water were a semisolid, the linear distance a propeller would 2742 Excessive propeller vibration may occur as a result of Ans: D Ans: B
advance in one revolution is the _____________. _________________. 2759 When the tailshaft is drawn from a vessel in drydock, which of the 2760 In a water cooled stern tube, a slight leakage of water across the
A. blade thickness fraction A. operating at low speed following inspections is required to be carried out? packing gland is provided to ____________.
B. mean width ratio B. high water pressure under the hull A. The propeller hub taper and shaft keyway should be inspected for A. flush all dirt and grit from the gland
C. pitch C. cavitation cracks or corrosion.
D. skew back factor D. operating in deep river channels B. The stern bearing alignment with the stern frame should be B. flush all dirt and grit from the bearing staves
Ans: C Ans: C checked.
2743 The lignum vitae in a stern tube bearing is normally lubricated with 2744 Unusual hull, or propeller shaft vibrations can be caused by C. The interior of the stern tube should be inspected for leaks. C. keep the gland packing cool
_____________. _____________. D. The shaft liner should be removed and inspected for cracks. D. keep the stern tube fair water cool
A. grease A. excessive engine speed in shallow water Ans: A Ans: C
B. oil B. slop in a hydraulic clutch 2761 When a vessel is underway, a small amount of water is allowed to 2762 The conical steel or composition cone installed on a propeller,
C. water C. slight overheating of the line shaft spring bearings leak through the water lubricated stern tube stuffing box in order to known as a fairwater cone, provides which of the following benefits?
D. tallow D. high engine speed in deep water ___________________.
Ans: C Ans: A A. flush out silt and mud which can accumulate from shallow water A. Reduce turbulence
2745 Which of the statements listed accurately applies to controllable 2746 Which of the following statements is correct concerning
pitch propeller systems? requirements for propellers? B. prevent overheating of the packing B. Help with lubrication
A. A pitch indicator is to be fitted on the navigation bridge for vessels A. A propeller may not be changed with one of a different pitch unless C. ensure positive coolant flow through the strut bearings C. Protect against electrolytic corrosion
400 gross tons and above. stress evaluations are supplied and permission is granted by a D. prevent seizing of the rubber strips in the bearing bushing D. All of the above
Marine Surveyor. Ans: B Ans: A
B. Independent remote control of pitch is to be provided at or near the B. When steel propellers are used, zinc anodes are to be fitted on the 2763 Propeller pitch speed minus ship speed divided by the propeller 2764 Which of the devices listed prevents water from entering a ship's hull
oil distribution box. Tests of its operation are to be performed in the aftermost strut bearing housing and on the forward most section of pitch speed is termed ______________________. via the propulsion shaft?
presence of the Surveyor. the rudder assembly. A. apparent slip A. Stern tube packing or mechanical shaft seal
C. After installation in the vessel, the complete piping system is to be C. The exposed steel of the shaft is to be protected from the action of B. true slip B. Deflector ring and drain
subjected to a hydrostatic test equal to 1.25 times the design the water by filling all spaces between the cap, hub and shaft with a C. pitch C. Spring bearings
pressure. suitable material. D. propulsive efficiency D. Oiler rings
D. The arrangement of piping is to be such that a single failure in one D. Ultrasonic examinations of the propeller may be performed in lieu of Ans: A Ans: A
part of the piping or pump unit will not impair the integrity of the required drydocking periods, provided certified copies are 2765 Vessel propellers are classified as being right hand or left hand. A 2766 Which of the following nondestructive testing methods can be used
remaining parts of the system. distributed to the proper regulatory bodies. right hand propeller turns clockwise when viewed from to detect a suspected subsurface defect in a tailshaft liner?
Ans: D Ans: C _______________.
2747 Compared to a constant pitch propeller, a controllable pitch propeller 2748 Which of the components listed is used to connect several sections A. the bow A. Dye penetrant
_____________. of line shafting? B. the stern B. Magnetic particle
A. more efficiently uses available engine power A. Inboard stern tube couplings C. the port side C. Ultrasonic
B. operates at a lower efficiency at a fixed speed B. Bolts fitted through flange type couplings forged integral with the D. the starboard side D. All of the above
shaft sections. Ans: B Ans: C
C. produces the same torque at lower engine power C. Muff type outboard couplings 2767 Which of the following statements best describes an oil lubricated 2768 It is necessary to test the hydraulic system of a controllable pitch
D. develops its rated power at a lower speed D. All of the above types stern tube bearing installation? propeller. According to regulation what should be done?
Ans: A Ans: B
2749 The conical steel or composition cone installed on a propeller, 2750 When the rotating shaft frequency and the natural vibrating A. It receives its oil supply from a branch line of the main lube oil A. The vessel must be drydocked and the propeller removed when
known as a fairwater cone, provides which of the following benefits? frequency become synchronized at a particular speed, that speed is system. performing this test.
known as the _____________. B. No shaft liner is needed in the area of the babbitted bearing B. The system pressure should be prevented from exceeding the
A. Reduces turbidness A. synchronous speed surface. maximum allowable operating pressure set forth by the
B. Helps with lubrication B. sympathetic speed manufacturer.
 Page 149 Page 150

C. The system pressure must be lowered when maneuvering in port to C. The system should be tested at a pressure of 1 1/2 times the 2783 The purpose of annealing any metal is to make the metal 2784 The ability of a metal to be hammered, or rolled out is called its
prevent blowing the outer oil seal. maximum allowable pressure. _______________. ___________.
D. For precise regulation of the bearing temperature, the system is D. All necessary repairs must approved by the Chief Engineer of the A. softer A. ductibility
required to have its own oil cooler. vessel. B. smoother B. elasticity
Ans: B Ans: C C. harder C. malleability
2769 Which of the following actions, pertaining to saltwater lubricated 2770 After packing is added to the stern tube stuffing box,which of the D. tougher D. fusibility
stern tube stuffing boxes, is usually observed when the ship is following procedures should be observed toinsure even tightening of Ans: A Ans: C
expected to be in port for an extended period? the gland? 2785 To anneal a copper gasket, you should heat the gasket 2786 Copper is sometimes used for fluid power lines because it
______________. ______________.
A. The stuffing box is continually flushed. A. Listen for a smooth, regular sound. A. and quench it in oil A. has good resistance to high temperatures
B. The drain connection is left opened. B. Measure the distance between the gland and the stuffing box with a B. cherry red and quench in water B. has high resistance to corrosion
rule. C. and let it cool slowly in the air C. withstands heavy vibration under heavy system loads
C. The stuffing box gland is tightened. C. Judge by feeling the gland for an increase in heat as it is being D. and carbonize it D. resists hardening under stress
tightened up. Ans: C Ans: B
D. The packing is adjusted for greater cooling or replaced. D. Open the drain connection to allow seawater to flow in and make the 2787 Which of the following propeller materials will not require stress relief 2788 In certain circumstances, weldments are preheated before each
distance even. treatment after minor repairs, straightening of the tips or the thinning pass to _____________.
Ans: C Ans: B of the blade edges?
2771 A bronzed sleeve is secured to the propeller tailshaft by 2772 Which of the following statements represents an operating A. Manganese bronze A. reduce internal stresses
_______________. characteristic of neoprene or rubber stern tube bearings? B. Nickel manganese bronze B. increase the temperature gradient in the weld area
A. keying A. No stern tube packing is required. C. Manganese nickel aluminum bronze C. allow the use of smaller welding rods
B. shrinking B. The bearing is lubricated by seawater. D. Nickel aluminum bronze D. eliminate the need for post heating
C. threading C. Propeller shaft vibration will not damage these bearings. Ans: D Ans: A
D. pressing D. Neoprene bearings are less abrasion resistant than bronze bearings. 2789 The probability of sulfide stress cracking in the presence of 2790 Which of the listed effects represents the purpose of heat treating
hydrogen sulfide is greatest for ____________. steel?
Ans: B Ans: B A. low strength steel A. Develop ductility
2773 When the rotating shaft frequency and the natural vibrating 2774 Which of the following statements describes the advantage of the B. high strength steel B. Improve machining qualities
frequency become synchronized at a particular speed, that speed is mechanical shaft sealing system over the stuffing box and packing C. rubber sealing elements C. Relieve stresses
known as the _____________. method of shaft sealing for propulsion shafting? D. aluminum D. All of the above
A. brekaway speed A. It eliminates the repairing or renewing of the shaft sleeve. Ans: B Ans: D
B. critical speed B. It is fully automatic in operation. 2791 When using the circular magnetic particle method to 2792 Which of the listed methods used for testing a metal, measures the
C. synchronous speed C. It allows for the removal and reinstallation of all parts without nondestructively test a weldment, the best results are obtained ability of a metal to absorb the energy of a load rapidly applied to the
dismantling the shafts. when the ____________. member?
D. sympathetic speed D. Each of the above is correct. A. current is flowing at right angles to the discontinuity A. Brinell only
Ans: B Ans: D B. magnetic field is parallel to the discontinuity B. Charpy only
2775 Stern tube and strut bearings lined with hardwood or rubber 2776 The stern tube flushing connection can be used to _________, C. magnetic field is at right angles to the discontinuity C. Charpy and Brinell
composition materials are lubricated with _____________. D. defect is located outside the parallel flux path of the prods D. Rockwell and Brinell
A. saltwater A. assist in flushing out all packing strips when renewing packing Ans: C Ans: B
underway 2793 In radiographic inspections, the standard test piece included in 2794 Which of the nondestructive testing methods can be easily used yet
B. graphite B. provide a positive flow of water through the stern tube for lubricating, every radiograph provides an effective check on the overall quality with good accuracy to detect, locate, identify, and measure defects
cooling, and flushing when required and bears a numerical relation to the thickness of the part being in welds and base metals; regardless of material type and structure?
C. light lubricating oil C. flush out brackish water resulting from extended in port operation tested. This piece is called a/an ____________.

D. heavy lubricating oil D. serve as the only source of supply of water for the stern tube bearing A. penetrometer A. Radiography
B. intensimeter B. Ultrasonics
Ans: A Ans: B C. lead filter gauge C. Visible dye penetrant
2777 A vessel has been equipped with an oil lubricated stern bearing and 2778 One of the determining factors regulating the time interval for D. exposure screen D. Magnetic particle
is undergoing a routine drydocking. Which of the following drawing a vessel's tailshaft depends upon the design to reduce Ans: A Ans: B
inspections should be made when the tailshaft has been drawn? stress concentrations. Which of the following factors, in part, would 2795 The internal force of a material, which tends to resist deformation 2796 Which nondestructive testing method is suitable for use in detecting
be considered to meet this design criteria? when subjected to external forces, is known as and identifying a diameter subsurface void in a six inch diameter
___________________. stainless steel shaft?
A. The overall condition of the bearing surface should be examined. A. Sprocketed keyway and slotted key. A. stress A. Magnetic particle
B. strain B. Radiography
B. The shaft liner should be inspected for cracks and tested to insure a B. Stress relief grooves at the forward end of the propeller and aft end C. shear strength C. Ultrasonic
tight fit. of the liner. D. ultimate tensile strength D. Dye penetrant
C. The stern tube should be tested for cracks with dye penetrant. C. Keyway is to be cut so as to give a sharp rise from the bottom of the Ans: A Ans: B
keyway to the shaft surface. 2797 Copper sheet metal that is to be used as a gasket, is usually 2798 Reheating a hardened component to a temperature lower than the
D. All of the above. D. All of the above. annealed by heating it to a cherry red color, and then hardening temperature and then cooling it is known as
Ans: A Ans: B _____________. _____________.
2779 The purpose of the propeller fairwater cone is to ________. 2780 The tailshaft is usually supported by the ____________. A. dousing it in cold water A. low temperature hardening
A. lock the propeller nut in position A. spring bearings B. cooling it slowly in air B. case hardening
B. minimize water turbulence B. tail bearings C. quenching it slowly in oil C. annealing
C. eliminate axial thrust C. stern tube bearings D. drawing its temper quickly D. tempering
D. eliminate cavitation D. propeller bearings Ans: B Ans: D
Ans: B Ans: C 2799 When metal is tempered, it becomes _____________. 2800 Ferrous metals are metals containing ___________.
2781 Regulations require a single tailshaft with water lubricated tailshaft 2782 On a vessel using a water lubricated tailshaft bearing, a single A. harder A. no iron
bearings, stress-relieved keyway, and fabricated from materials tailshaft without a special keyway, and not constructed of materials B. softer B. a large percentage of copper
resistant to corrosion by sea water, to be drawn and examined once resistant to corrosion by seawater, the tailshaft must be drawn and C. less brittle C. a large percentage of iron
in every ___________. examined twice within any ____________. D. more brittle D. a large percentage of aluminum
Ans: C Ans: C
A. 2 years A. 4 year period STEAM, HEAT AND THERMODYNAMICS
B. 3 years B. 5 year period 2801 The energy associated with molecules is known as __________. 2802 A bourdon tube-type steam pressure gage is fitted with a siphon loop
C. 5 years C. 6 year period to prevent damage from ____________.
D. 8 years D. 8 year period A. kinetic energy A. extreme thermal stress
Ans: C Ans: B B. potential energy B. the admission of condensate
METALLURGY AND NON-DESTRUCTIVE TESTING C. mechanical energy C. pressure shock
D. thermal energy D. differential expansion rates
 Page 151 Page 152

Ans: D Ans: A Ans: D Ans: B

2803 Which of the following guidelines is considered to reflect good 2804 If the fixed orifice in the evaporator steam supply line were to be 2821 The sum of the sensible heat and the latent heat of any substance 2822 A portion of the cargo of an LNG carrier boils off during each
design practices of shipboard steam heating systems? removed, the steam pressure reducing valvelocated upstream would is known as ____________. voyage. How is the cargo boil off normally handled?
_____________. A. total heat A. Compressed, condensed, and return to the cargo tanks.
A. Provide constant steam service for equipment operating throughout A. be unable to maintain steam flow unless the proper range spring B. residual heat B. Vented to the atmosphere.
the year. were to be installed C. specific heat C. Burned in the boilers.
B. Provide either a common or individual reducing station for each B. be suitable for maintaining the required steam flow under all load D. superheat D. Mixed with nitrogen and recirculated through the primary barrier.
group of units requiring the same operating pressure. conditions
C. Run all piping so it may be drained by gravity. C. handle the operation satisfactorily as the control orifice develops an Ans: A Ans: C
impedance to the steam flow 2823 A suitable location for the installation of an impulse type steam trap 2824 The operation of a thermostatic steam trap depends upon the
D. All of the above. D. all of the above would be in the ____________. ______________.
Ans: D Ans: A A. horizontal run of drain line from the lowest point at the outlet of the A. action of a float within a chamber
2805 Regarding the low pressure evaporator steam control orifice in the 2806 A vapor under pressure stays in contact with, and at the same heat exchanger
live steam supply line, the steam at the outlet of the orifice if not temperature as the liquid from which it was generated. The vapor B. steam supply line to a feedwater heater B. difference in movement of two dissimilar bimetallic strips not
properly conditioned will be developed as _______________. and liquid in this situation are, therefore, said to be in a/an fastened together
____________. C. drain line from a high point in the main steam line expansion loop C. fact that hot water under pressure tends to flash into steam when its
A. desuperheated steam A. equilibrium contact vapor pressure is rapidly reduced
B. superheated steam B. latent contact D. vacuum drag line from the atmospheric drain tank to the main D. change in the amount of vapor produced within an enclosed
C. saturated steam C. critical state condenser chamber
D. poor quality steam D. superheated state Ans: A Ans: D
Ans: B Ans: A 2825 Heat which brings about a change in the physical state of a 2826 The heat required to change a substance from a liquid to a gas
2807 Which of the following statements concerning the operation of steam 2808 The basic function of a steam trap is to ____________. substance without a change in temperature, is called without experiencing a temperature change, is defined as the latent
pressure reducing valves is correct? _____________. heat of _____________.
A. Reducing station relief valves must be lifted by hand at least once a A. regulate the flow of steam leaving a heater A. specific heat A. fusion
watch. B. sensible heat B. vaporization
B. The cut out valve at the outlet of the reducing valve should be B. limit the flow of steam leaving a heater until it has given up its latent C. latent heat C. sublimation
throttled when in operation. heat of condensation D. ambient heat D. condensation
C. Reducing valves should be warmed-up and drained before they are C. limit the flow of steam leaving a heater until it has given up its latent Ans: C Ans: B
adjusted. heat of fusion 2827 How many BTUs must be added to one pound of water at 32°Fto 2828 Thermostatic steam pressure reducing valves are used in the fuel oil
D. Reducing valves are absolutely reliable and require no routine D. eliminate steam-pipe water hammer raise the temperature to 212°F? service system to control the ______________.
maintenance. A. 16 BTU's A. double bottom fuel oil tank temperature
Ans: C Ans: B B. 144 BTU's B. heater supply steam flow
2809 Mechanical energy in transition is referred to as _________. 2810 Which of the following forms of energy is usually associated with C. 180 BTU's C. pressure of the fuel supplied to the burners
relatively large bodies or objects? D. 970 BTU's D. attemperator steam flow in the heater discharge circuit
A. horsepower A. Chemical energy Ans: C Ans: B
B. work B. Mechanical energy 2829 Heat may be transferred by _____________. 2830 Power is defined as the ____________.
C. heat C. Thermal energy A. conduction A. rate of doing work
D. velocity D. Electrical energy B. convection B. amount of force needed to overcome friction
Ans: B Ans: B C. radiation C. amount of work accomplished
2811 The rate of heat transfer from a hot region to a cold region is 2812 The steam supplied to operate a steam driven reciprocating pump is D. all of the above D. distance through which an object is moved
affected most by the ____________. usually obtained from the _____________. Ans: D Ans: A
A. size of the heat sink A. desuperheated steam line via a reducing station 2831 Insulation on deck steam piping must be installed securely as 2832 Which of the following statements represents the definition of
B. temperature difference between the regions B. auxiliary exhaust line _____________. energy?
C. size of the heat source C. main steam line via a reducing station A. loose insulation contributes to steam leaks A. Energy is work that has been accomplished.
D. total heat of the system D. contaminated steam generator B. deck steam lines are subject to vibration B. Energy is the capacity for producing an effect.
Ans: B Ans: A C. steam driven machinery cannot run with loose insulation C. Energy is work being done.
2813 The difference between the pressure at a point being measured and 2814 Medium temperature hot water systems have been used in place of D. loose insulation prevents normal pipe expansion D. Energy is power.
that of a perfect vacuum is known as _________. small auxiliary boilers producing 7bar steam with ____________. Ans: B Ans: B
2833 Which of the following forms of energy concerns the forces which 2834 Which of the following terms could be applied to the simple
A. internal pressure A. 138oC water systems bind atoms together in a molecule? definition "the energy of motion"?
B. gauge pressure B. 149oC water systems A. Thermal energy A. Electrical energy
C. absolute pressure C. 160oC water systems B. Mechanical energy B. Thermal energy
D. external pressure D. 171oC water systems C. Chemical energy C. Potential energy
Ans: C Ans: C D. Electrical energy D. Kinetic energy
2815 Steam supply piping to deck machinery is insulated in order to 2816 By which of the listed methods may heat be transferred from one Ans: C Ans: D
_____________. body to another? 2835 Which unit of measurement is used to measure mechanical 2836 Thermal energy in transition is also referred to as
A. maintain good turbulent free steam flow through the pipe A. Radiation potential energy? _______________.
B. prevent superheating of the steam B. Convection A. British thermal units A. heat
C. reduce heat loss from the system C. Conduction B. Horsepower B. power
D. contain small steam leaks D. All of the above C. Kg-mtr C. horsepower
Ans: C Ans: D D. Calories D. foot-pound
2817 The definition of superheat refers to the amount of heatnecessary to 2818 Some auxiliaries are not designed to handle auxiliary steam at boiler Ans: C Ans: A
raise the temperature of a fluid and appliesto _________. I. vapors pressure. Which of the devices listed is usually fitted in the branch 2837 Steam traps should be installed at the lowest outlet point of the heat 2838 Which of the following modes of heat transfer does NOT require any
II. liquids line to deliver steam at the correct pressure? exchanger in a horizontal run of pipe. Which of the following physical contact between a warmer and a cooler substance?
A. I only A. An orifice installation considerations should also be maintained?
B. II only B. A steam pressure reducing valve
C. Both I and II C. A nozzle valve A. They should be installed with their main axis horizontal. A. Radiation
D. Neither I nor II D. A constant quantity regulating valve B. They should be installed unpainted and wrapped in an insulation B. Conduction
Ans: A Ans: B blanket.
2819 The action of water being circulated within a natural circulation 2820 The movement of steam piping, as a result of changes in C. A bypass around the trap is unnecessary if the steam input pressure C. Natural convection
boiler, is an example of what form of heat transfer? temperature, is best compensated for by the use of _____________. never exceeds 0.7kg/cm2
D. They should remain uninsulated and unpainted. D. All of the above
A. Radiation A. union joints Ans: D Ans: A
B. Conduction B. expansion joints 2839 A Bourdon tube pressure gage is protected from the effects of the 2840 Which of the following statements concerning energy is correct?
C. Forced convection C. flexitallic gaskets steam entering the pressure element by a/an _______.
D. Natural convection D. rigid brackets A. exposed, uninsulated coil in the line leading to the gage A. Energy can be created or destroyed.
 Page 153 Page 154

B. impulse-type steam trap in the gage line B. Energy may not be transformed. C. Bimetallic C. The rate of heat transfer is not affected by temperature difference.
C. leather or neoprene diaphragm in the gage line C. The total quantity of energy in the universe is always the same.
D. Impulse D. The high temperature region is known as a heat sink.
D. spring loaded bellows in the gage line D. None of the above. Ans: D Ans: B
Ans: A Ans: C 2859 Which of the following conditions must be carried outbefore the 2860 What is the cooling water source for most recovery unit condensing
2841 The boiling point of water in an open container at sea level is 100°C. 2842 The difference between the pressure at a point being measured and superheating of saturated vapor can occur? coils aboard ship?
If the pressure on the open container is decreased, the boiling point that of a perfect vacuum is known as _________. A. The evaporation rate must be increased. A. condenser water vapor at the outlet
will _____________. B. The flow of liquid to the unfired pressure vessel must be increased. B. potable water supply
A. increase A. internal pressure
B. decrease B. gauge pressure C. The vapor must be removed from contact with the liquid from which C. chiller water taken at inlet
C. increase and then decrease C. absolute pressure it was generated.
D. decrease and then increase D. external pressure D. The operating pressure must be raised. D. distilled water
Ans: B Ans: C Ans: C Ans: D
2843 Which of the following best describes the thermodynamic effect on 2844 Pigtails, or siphons, are used to protect Bourdon tube-type gages 2861 The latent heat of water vapor in air is dependent upon the 2862 According to regulations, a boiler combustion control system may be
the pressure and volume relationship with regards to saturated from the direct exposure to steam by ________________. _____________. tested at __________.
gases? A. dry bulb temperature A. a pressure not less than 1.25 times the maximum allowable working
A. As pressure decreases, volume increases A. changing the direction of the steam flow pressure
B. As volume increases, pressure increases B. rapidly reducing the steam velocity B. wet bulb temperature B. a pressure not less than 1.5 times the maximum allowable working
C. As volume decreases, pressure decreases C. creating a condensate seal pressure
D. As pressure increases, volume increases D. bleeding off a portion of the steam C. dew point C. the maximum allowable working pressure of the system
Ans: A Ans: C D. dry point D. the normal operating pressure of the system provided full loading is
2845 How can you determine the date that the pressure vessels on your 2846 A turbine exhaust pressure of 1.013 bar abs. is equal to accomplished
ship will require a hydrostatic test or internal inspection? _____________. Ans: C Ans: C
2863 Which of the listed statements describes specific heat? 2864 If the steam flow entering the evaporator steam supply orifice has a
A. Check the boiler equipment list. A. 00.000 bar g. quality of 95%, which of the following statements would be true?
B. Check the pressure vessel block on the Certificate of Inspection. B. 00.5 bar g
A. The amount of heat required to change the temperature of one A. The steam at the outlet would obtain a higher degree of
C. Check the class certificates. C. 01.470 bar g pound of a material, one degree C. desuperheat.
D. Check the pressure vessel addenda to the vessel's SOLAS D. 2 bar g B. The amount of heat required to change the temperature of one B. The steam at the outlet would be at a higher superheat than when it
certificate. pound of ice, one degree C. is supplied at 100% quality.
Ans: B Ans: A C. The amount of heat required to change the temperature of one C. The steam would obtain a lower absolute pressure than when it is
2847 A leaking steam trap located in the return lines from a heating 2848 Admitting steam to an improperly drained heating system could pound of butter, one degree C. supplied at a quality of 100%.
system is indicated by excessive _____________. result in _____________. D. All of the above. D. The entrained moisture will become a totally saturated vapor prior to
A. drain tank steaming A. cutting valve seating surfaces any superheat being acquired by the steam.
B. scale returning from the convectors B. high velocity slugs of water in motion in the system Ans: D Ans: D
C. steam pressure in the convectors C. damage due to water hammer 2865 Which of the following guidelines is considered to reflect good 2866 If "wet" steam is supplied to the air ejectors of a low pressure
D. water in the heating system D. all of the above design practices for shipboard steam heating systems? evaporator, the passage of the mixture through the nozzles will
Ans: A Ans: D ______________.
2849 A pounding noise occurring in one cylinder of a steam reciprocating 2850 A Bourdon tube-type steam pressure gage is fitted with a siphon A. Provide orifice-type bypasses for all traps and automatic valves. A. improve overall vacuum
general service pump could be caused by ________________. loop to prevent damage from the direct effects of ____________.
B. Provide a dirt pocket and strainer ahead of the steam trap on a unit B. cause the potential level of kinetic energy to be partially converted to
A. lower than normal supply steam temperature A. pressure shock heater return. thermal energy
B. lower than normal supply steam pressure B. uneven expansion C. Provide all units with a dirt trap and gate valve in the supply and a C. cause the existing level of thermal energy to be totally converted to
C. improper adjustment of steam cushion valves C. entering condensate check valve on the return. kinetic energy
D. loss of air charge in the pump discharge plenum chamber D. entering steam D. Wherever possible install vertical runs for condensate piping. D. cause the level of thermal energy to be converted to potential
Ans: C Ans: D energy
2851 Latent heat can be defined as the heat which must be added to a 2852 Which of the listed reciprocating pump parts control the position of Ans: B Ans: B
substance in order to change it from a _____________. the pilot slide valve? 2867 Which of the listed forms of heat transfer, if any, is illustrated by the 2868 When replacing a steam pressure reducing valve, what information
A. solid to liquid A. Moving tappets flow of combustion gases through a boiler? is required for the selection?
B. liquid to vapor B. Adjusting of the tappet collars A. Natural convection only A. Maximum and minimum inlet pressures
C. solid to vapor C. Stay rods B. Forced convection only B. Reduced pressure or pressure range
D. all of the above D. Movement of the main piston through the steam cylinder C. Both natural convection and forced convection C. Maximum and minimum continuous flow rates (kgs./hr.)
Ans: D Ans: D D. None D. All of the above
2853 A major controlling factor in the location of the condensate return 2854 The heat identified by only a change in temperature is known as Ans: C Ans: D
piping from a heating system is/are ____________. ____________. 2869 Which of the following forms of energy is demonstrated through the 2870 What is the potential energy of an object weighing 10 kgs at a height
A. the requirement for a gravity return A. sensible heat process of combustion? of 10 mtrs?
B. the requirement for short laterals run B. latent heat A. Chemical energy A. 10 kg-mtr
C. the requirement to minimize conflict with headroom and other C. total heat B. Mechanical energy B. 20 kg-mtr
services C. Thermal energy C. 100 kg-mtr
D. all of the above D. residual heat D. Electrical energy D. 1000 kg-mtr
Ans: A Ans: A Ans: A Ans: C
2855 Water hammer in a steam heating system can be caused by 2856 The operation of a thermostatic steam trap depends upon the 2871 The basic function of a steam trap includes which of the following 2872 Before starting a reciprocating, steam-driven pump that has been
____________. ____________. processes? idle for a period of time, you should _____________.
A. filling the auxiliary boiler with cold water A. thermal expansion of a fluid A. Regulate the flow of condensate from a heater. A. open the steam line root valve
B. steam admitted to a cold pipe B. position of a float B. Regulate the flow of steam from a heater. B. drain the steam cylinder
C. filling the auxiliary boiler with hot water C. tendency of hot water to flash into steam C. Regulate the flow of steam to a heater. C. close the steam cylinder drains
D. draining a soot blower line before cracking the steam supply valve D. flow characteristics of a liquid as it passes through an orifice D. Regulate the flow of condensate to a heater. D. open the liquid cylinder drains
Ans: A Ans: B
Ans: B Ans: A 2873 Which of the listed methods of heat transfer takes place when two 2874 Which of the listed temperatures represents the saturation
2857 Which of the listed types steam traps operates on the principle that 2858 Which of the statements listed concerning heat transfer is correct? substances of different temperatures are in physical contact with temperature for water at a saturation pressure of 1bar abs. (101.34
hot water flashes to steam when its vapor pressure is rapidly each other? kPa)
reduced? A. Radiation A. 92°C
A. Ball float A. Heat is always transferred at a constant rate. B. Conduction B. 100°C
B. Thermostatic B. Heat transfer rate increases as temperature difference increases. C. Convection C. 168°C
D. Each of the above D. 220°C
Ans: B Ans: B
 Page 155 Page 156

2875 Which of the following terms is used to indicate that the flow of heat 2876 The equation "energy in = energy out" is a simple way of stating the A. All bilge manifold suctions shall be capable of being locally A. Nothing, as salt water is an ingredient of oil based mud.
will result in a temperature change? principle of the ___________. controlled from above the floor plates.
A. Latent heat A. conservation of energy B. The system must be capable of operation under all practicable B. Small amounts can cause thickening of the oil based fluid as well as
B. Sensible heat B. conservation of matter conditions after a casualty, whether the vessel is upright or listed. a reduction in density.
C. Convection C. conversion of matter to energy
D. Radiation D. conversion of energy to matter C. Peak tanks, chain lockers, and decks over peak tanks may be C. Small amounts react with gel particles in the mud causing them to
Ans: B Ans: A drained by eductors, ejectors, or hand pumps. flocculate.
2877 Which of the following terms would best describe the temperature at 2878 If the air temperature in a manifold were found to be 122°F, what will D. All of the above. D. The water will collect at the bottom of the tank and can not be
which a liquid boils at a given pressure? be the equivalent reading on the centigrade scale? stripped overboard.
A. Degree of saturation A. 35°C Ans: D Ans: B
B. Saturation temperature B. 40°C 2893 Regulations for bilge and ballast piping require that ________. 2894 Regulations require the emergency bilge system to ________.
C. Superheated temperature C. 45°C
D. Degree of superheat D. 50°C A. all oil and water tanks be connected to the bilge system A. be independent of the main bilge system
Ans: B Ans: D B. the bilge pumping system be operable under all practicable B. be a part of the independent bilge system
2879 A stopper is inserted into the spout of a closed container in which 2880 If you determine that a steam reciprocating pump is operating with conditions
water has been heated to a temperature of 100°C. If additional too long of stroke, causing the piston nut to strike the cylinder head, C. peak tanks and chain lockers have separate electric pumps C. have an independent priming pump
thermal energy is imparted, what changes will occur to the pressure you should _____________. D. all of the above D. have a cross connection to the ballast system
and temperature inside the container? Ans: B Ans: A
A. both pressure and temperature will rise A. completely open the steam cushioning valves 2895 Referring to Regulations , the emergency bilge system ________. 2896 A compound gage is typically installed on the _____________.
B. pressure alone will rise B. install a smaller nut on the piston rod
C. temperature alone will rise C. adjust the valve gear to manufacturer's specified measurements A. has no independent primary pump A. suction side of a bilge pump
B. is independent of the main bilge system B. exhaust manifold of an auxiliary diesel
D. only a change of state will occur D. install a shorter piston rod C. has a cross connection to the ballast system C. discharge line from an air compressor
Ans: A Ans: C D. is part of the independent bilge system D. chemical feed tank of an evaporator
2881 Steam tables can be used to obtain the _______________. 2882 The sensible heat of air is dependent upon the ____________. Ans: B Ans: A
2897 If one of the bilge manifold valves is prevented from seating, the 2898 If one of the bilge system manifold valves does not properly seat, the
A. values for properties of water and vapor at various conditions A. dry bulb temperature ________. ________.
A. bilge-well connected to that valve, plus the second bilge-well being A. bilge well connected to that valve, plus the second bilge well being
B. specific fuel consumption under steady steaming conditions B. wet bulb temperature pumped will be completely emptied pumped will be completely emptied
C. steam generating capacity of a vessel's boilers C. saturation temperature B. bilge system will lose vacuum, preventing other bilges from being B. bilge system will lose vacuum and prevent the other bilges from
D. mechanical efficiency of the main unit D. water vapor superheat pumped out being pumped out
Ans: A Ans: A C. aftermost bilge-wells connected to that valve will siphon their C. bilge well aft connected to that valve will siphon its contents to the
2883 Energy existing in a system as a result of the relative velocities of 2884 The heat required to raise the temperature of 1 pound of a contents to the forward bilge-wells forward bilge wells
two or more objects is termed_______________. substance 1°F is called ________. D. all of the above D. all of the above
Ans: B Ans: B
A. potential energy A. its specific heat 2899 The bilge system is unable to pump out the aft starboard engine 2900 When a horizontal type centrifugal pump is used for dewatering the
B. pressure energy B. its latent heat room bilge-well due to the bilge-well suction being fouled. With two engine room bilges, you would ________. I. use a rotary, liquid
C. kinetic energy C. a British thermal unit feet of water over the top of the bilge-well, which of the following piston type pump to obtain a prime II. partially open the sea suction
D. relative energy D. its adiabatic heat actions should be carried out? valve, then gradually switch over to the require
Ans: C Ans: A
BILGE SYSTEM A. Send the wiper into the bilge-well with a scoop and pail. A. I only
2885 The aft, starboard bilge-well can not be pumped out, and back 2886 During routine maintenance the bilge manifold valves are removed. B. Remove the effected bilge manifold valve and attempt to back flush B. II only
flushing has not been successful. The next practical solution will be Prior to resecuring the valve bonnets, the valve ________. the line.
to carry out which of the following actions? C. Simultaneously operate all available bilge pumps. C. Either I or II
A. List the ship to port in order to pump out the bilges for the remainder A. disks and seats should be checked and lapped if necessary D. Transfer half the contents of a drum of degreaser into the bilge well D. Neither I nor II
of the voyage. and pump out the bilge well with the system.
B. Place 75 Ltrs of fuel oil tank-wash into the affected bilge well for B. bonnet, flange gaskets should be renewed if they were cut or torn Ans: B Ans: C
one hour to dissolve the stoppage. 2901 Bilge lines led through tanks, without using a pipe tunnel must be 2902 Which of the equipment listed is most effective in processing bilge
C. Take all necessary steps to properly and safely pump out the C. stem packing should be renewed if the packing has hardened, the ___________. slops for overboard discharge?
affected bilge well, then manually "muck" it out. glands have bottomed out, or the glands cannot be tightened A. of schedule 40 pipe A. A 100 PPM oily water separator.
B. fitted with return valves at the bilge manifolds B. Assembling the lube oil purifier as a separator and aligning it to the
D. Change over and use one of the two remaining bilge pumps to D. all of the above bilge overboard.
dewater the starboard bilge well. C. coated with coal tar epoxy, or similar corrosion resistant substance C. A 15 PPM oily water separator.
Ans: C Ans: D
2887 Which of the following actions should be taken FIRST if one bilge 2888 Accidental flooding of the engine room bilges by the bilge main is D. fitted with nonreturn valves at the bilge suctions D. A magnetic duplex strainer.
well of a multiple suction bilge system is unable to be pumped out? prevented by ____________. Ans: D Ans: C
2903 The bilge system has been performing well; however, the aft 2904 You are unable to pump out the aft starboard engine room bilge well
A. Open the bilge pump for inspection. A. stop-check valves installed in the bilge suction manifolds starboard engine room bilge-well suddenly fails to be pumped out. that is fouled, with one foot of water over the top of the bilge well,
B. Remove each of the suction manifold valves. B. using a positive displacement reciprocating bilge pump Which of the following should be done first to determine the cause? what action should be carried out?
C. Remove only the suction manifold valve to the affected bilge well. C. installing eductors in all bilge rose boxes
A. Open the bilge pump for inspection. A. Send the wiper into the well with only a scoop and pail.
D. Attempt to pump out another bilge well to determine if the entire D. installing a swing check before each bilge valve B. Remove each of the manifold valves. B. Remove the bilge manifold valve and attempt to back flush the line.
system is affected.
Ans: D Ans: A C. Remove only the manifold valve to the affected bilge-well. C. Simultaneously operate all available bilge pumps.
2889 An independent bilge suction is required for ________. 2890 The emergency bilge suction valve is typically used D. Attempt to pump out another bilge well to determine if the entire D. It is only necessary to transfer half the contents of a drum of
_____________. system is affected. degreaser into the bilge well.
A. ballast tanks A. to inject cleaning additives when the bilges are extremely dirty Ans: D Ans: B
2905 The aft starboard bilge well is clogged, and back flushing has not
B. sludge tanks B. when the main condenser becomes fouled, in order to provide been successful. The next practical solution would be to
additional cooling water circulation __________________.
C. machinery space bilges C. to connect the rose box to the independent bilge suction A. change the trim of the ship to port in order to pump out the bilges for
D. cargo hold bilges D. if the bilges become flooded and they can not be emptied by any the remainder of the voyage
other means B. place 75.7 Ltrs (20 gallons) of fuel oil tank wash into the affected
Ans: C Ans: D bilge well to clear the blockage
2891 Which of the following statements indicates compliance with 2892 What can happen to oil based mud when contaminated with salt C. properly and safely empty the well with a portable pump then
Regulations concerning a vessel's bilge system? water? manually muck it out
 Page 157 Page 158

D. all of the above 2923 In a heat exchanger, excessive fluid velocity should be avoided to 2924 Sacrificial zinc anodes are used on the saltwater side of heat
Ans: C prevent ____________. exchangers to _________________.
A. erosive tube failure A. keep heat transfer surfaces shiny and clean
SANITARY AND SEWAGE SYSTEM
B. waterside deposit buildup B. prevent rapid accumulation of marine growth
2906 The process of grinding, shredding, or reducing the size of sewage 2907 In sewage treatment, the term "maceration" refers to the process of
particles is known as ________. ________. C. tube sheet bowing C. provide a protective coating on heat exchanger surfaces
D. water hammer damage D. reduce electrolytic action on heat exchanger metals
A. detension A. breaking up solid matter into fine particles
Ans: A Ans: D
B. maceration B. precipitating nondecomposed waste in a collection tank
2925 The floating end of a shell-and-tube type cooler utilizes a packing 2926 When conducting a hydrostatic test on the distillate cooler shell of a
C. bulking C. chemically adjusting the sewage pH to 7.0
ring to ____________. flash type evaporator, liquid appears well inside one of the tubes. In
D. chlorinating D. eliminating bacterium coli from the sewage
order to correct this, you should _____________.
Ans: B Ans: A
2908 A P-type trap and drain is used _________. 2909 The drains of lavatory sinks are fitted with P-type or S-type traps to
_______. A. prevent leakage past the floating end tube sheet A.
reroll the tube
B. dissipate heat B.
seal weld the tube
A. for all lavatory sink installations, as no other drain type is useable A. reduce water velocity and minimize erosion
C. baffle cooling water so it can be directed on a multiple pass C.
plug the tube
D. modify to a mixer type cooler D.
all of the above would be considered satisfactory as a temporary
B. whenever the "gray" water drain system connection is located in the B. create a strong siphon effect
repair until permanent repairs may be conducted
deck
Ans: A Ans: C
C. whenever the "gray" water drain system connection is located in a C. provide a cushion of water to reduce the effects of water hammer
bulkhead 2927 Hot water heating system converters are selected for the heating 2928 Which of the copper alloys listed is commonly used in heat
load required plus about 50% excess capacity to allow for exchangers and possesses a high resistance to corrosion?
D. as a condensate drain for superheaters D. provide a seal against sewer gas rising into the compartment
____________.
Ans: C Ans: D
A. start-up and scaling A. Red brass
2910 A vessel is in compliance with federal regulations regarding the 2911 A pneumatic pressure tank is installed in a sanitary system to
discharge of sewage by ________. ________. B. unusual high demand on the system B. Manganese bronze
C. increase capacity during times of peak demand C. Copper beryllium
A. holding all sewage onboard A. reduce excessive cycling of the sanitary pump
D. increase steam and water contact for better efficiency D. Cupro-nickel
B. treating sewage in an approved system B. prevent the sanitary pump from losing suction
Ans: A Ans: D
C. pumping the sewage ashore to an approved container C. provide a higher pressure in the system then the pump can deliver
2929 Erosive tube failure in a heat exchanger can result from 2930 The zinc plates are located in the _____________.
_____________.
D. all of the above D. increase water flow through the system
A. high temperature A. saltwater side of the condenser
Ans: D Ans: A
B. waterside fouling B. refrigerant side of the condenser
2912 The flame screens installed on sewage system tank vents prevent 2913 The process of grinding or shredding sewage into smaller particles is
explosions by ________. known as _________. C. excessive cooling water velocity C. evaporator coils
D. poor heat transfer D. suction strainer
A. allowing the escape of flammable vapors A. detention
B. dissipating the heat of a fire B. comminution Ans: C Ans: A
C. absorbing any flammable vapors in the vicinity C. bulking 2931 Zinc rods are installed in the refrigeration system _____________. 2932 In a shell-and-tube type hydraulic fluid cooler, the amount of heat
transferred from the hydraulic fluid to the cooling water depends
D. preventing flammable vapors from entering the tank D. skimming
upon ________________.
Ans: B Ans: B
A. liquid strainer A. the temperature of the hydraulic fluid
2914 An S-type trap and drain is used _____________. 2915 Traps in plumbing drains are designed to help prevent _____.
B. liquid receiver B. the flow rate of both the cooling water and the hydraulic fluid
A. for all lavatory sink installations, as no other drain type is useable A. drain noises in the living quarters
C. saltwater condenser C. the temperature of the cooling water
B. whenever the "gray" water drain system connection is located in the B. drains clogging at the toilets D. evaporator D. all of the above
deck Ans: C Ans: D
C. whenever the "gray" water drain system connection is located in a C. air pockets in the sewer lines 2933 When performing a hydrostatic test on a low pressure evaporator to 2934 The rate of heat transfer between the hot and cold fluids passing
bulkhead determine the source of suspected air leaks you should use through a shell-and-tube type heat exchanger will ____________.
___________.
D. as a condensate drain for superheaters D. escape of odors into the living quarters
Ans: B Ans: D A. fresh water at or above the ambient temperature A. remain constant along the tube's length
2916 Traps at plumbing drain connections prevent ________. B. circulated cold fresh water, while maintaining all normal unit B. be greatest in a single pass counter flow heat exchanger
operating pressures
A. system clogging
C. air and a soap solution to test all joints C. remain constant throughout the heat exchanger
B. escape of odors
D. phosphorescent hydrazine bisodium solution visible under a black D. vary from section to section through out the heat exchanger
C. air pockets light source
D. drain noises Ans: A Ans: D
Ans: B 2935 Which of the following statements is correct concerning heat 2936 An 8-inch, globe-type, stop-check valve has been installed in the
HEAT EXCHANGERS transfer? lube-oil cooler water outlet, with the flow coming in from the top of
2917 Machinery operating features are designed to help conserveenergy. 2918 The temperature differential occurring between the inlet temperature the disk. This means that _____________.
Which of the following results will not contributeto energy of the fluid to be cooled and the outlet temperature of the cooling A. Heat is given off from a high temperature region known as a heat A. the valve will remain completely open
conservation? medium in a shell-and-tube heat exchanger is greatest in which of sink.
the flow designs listed? B. Heat transfer rate is affected most by the size of the heat sink B. the valve will prevent back flow
A. Reduction of friction. A. Cross involved.
B. Insulation of hot surfaces. B. Parallel C. Heat transfer rate is affected most by the temperature difference C. the valve will never permit water flow from the lube oil cooler
C. Lubrication of moving parts. C. Counter between the heat source and the heat sink.
D. Elevation of cooler outlet temperatures. D. Circular D. Heat transfer by radiation will occur only by mass motion of a fluid D. the valve will allow the lube oil temperature to be 10‚F (5.5°C) cooler
Ans: D Ans: C substance. than if the valve were properly installed
2919 The general purpose of a heat exchanger is to _____________. 2920 The presence of scale and dirt on the saltwater side of a lube oil Ans: C Ans: C
cooler is usually indicated by ___________. 2937 Which of the following conditions must exist for heat to flow from 2938 Expansion of the tube bundle in a shell-and-tube type cooler may be
A. eliminate hot air from the condenser A. clogged lube oil strainers one object to another? provided for by the _______________.
B. maintain steady pressure in a system B. seawater leaking into the lube oil system A. The two objects must be in physical contact. A. packing and lantern rings
C. heat, or cool one fluid by means of another fluid C. decreasing lube oil pressure B. The two objects must be the same size. B. floating end tube sheet
D. reduce the engine room temperature in tropical climates D. gradually increasing lube oil temperature C. There must be an existing temperature differential. C. shell foundation bolts
Ans: C Ans: D D. There must be an existing weight differential. D. directional transverse baffles
2921 When a heat exchanger is used as a cooler, excessive cooling 2922 Zinc anodes are installed in a marine raw-water cooling system to Ans: C Ans: B
water flow should be avoided to prevent _____________. _____________. 2939 In a shell-and-tube type heat exchanger, the most common cause of 2940 Evaporators and condensers are two forms of _____________.
decreased performance is _____________.
A. erosive tube failure A. inhibit oxidation A. loose tube bundle baffle plates A. heat exchangers
B. waterside deposit buildup B. control electrolysis B. failure of the baffle plate B. liquid receivers
C. tube sheet bowing C. prevent scaling C. rupture of the tube bundle C. storage receptacles
D. water hammer damage D. eliminate corrosion D. fouling on the seawater side D. flow inhibitors
Ans: A Ans: B Ans: D Ans: A
 Page 159 Page 160

2941 When checking zinc plates, or pencils in the refrigerating system 2942 In heat exchangers, seawater pressure should be maintained lower D. flash point D. boiling point
condenser, you should _____________. than freshwater pressure to _____________. Ans: D Ans: C
A. paint and insulate the plates to prevent corrosion A. eliminate scaling problems on the saltwater side 2959 The lowest temperature at which fuel oil gives off sufficient vapor to 2960 The size of the discharge ring used for the efficient operation of a
B. renew the plates at each inspection B. reduce erosion of heat exchanger surfaces burn continuously when ignited is defined as the _____________. disk type purifier is dependent upon the _____________.
C. replace the zincs if deteriorated by 50% C. ease the load on the saltwater service pump
D. file the plates to change the negative value D. prevent contamination should leaks develop A. burning temperature A. rated capacity of that purifier
Ans: C Ans: D B. autoignition temperature B. viscosity of the oil being purified
2943 Which of the following statements is true concerning a radiator type 2944 Heat exchanger tubes can be protected against erosion and C. flash point C. maximum design speed of that purifier
heat exchanger? abrasion by the use of _________. D. fire point D. specific gravity of the oil being purified
A. Raw water is the cooling medium. A. metallic packing on the inlet end Ans: D Ans: D
B. Water cooled exhaust elbows remove the heat. B. fiber bushings in the ferrules 2961 The percentage of impurities in a specific fuel oil sample is 2962 The flash point of a liquid refers to the temperature ____________.
C. The surge tank must be located a minimum of 4 feet above the C. zinc pencils on the waterside determined by _____________.
highest finned tube. A. settling in a fuel tank A. at which a liquid will give off inflammable vapors
D. Air flow provided by a fan is used as the cooling medium. D. plastic tube end protectors B. testing in a laboratory centrifuge B. at which a liquid will burn steadily
Ans: D Ans: D C. burning in a calorimeter C. at which a liquid will explode
FUEL OIL PROPERTIES AND PURIFIERS D. testing in a closed cup D. that a liquid must reach before it will flow readily
2945 The tendency of a flammable liquid to vaporize is indicated by its 2946 Which of the following statements describes the relationship Ans: B Ans: A
____________. between flash point and ignition temperature? 2963 In order to maximize the performance of a centrifuge, youcan adjust 2964 The temperature, in degrees Celsius, at which a liquid gives off a
A. ignition temperature A. Both are higher than normal burning temperatures. the _______. I. number of disks in the stack II. frequency shooting flammable vapor when heated in an open cup tester is called the
B. flash point B. The flash point is always higher. the bowl _____________.
C. flammable range C. The ignition temperature is always higher. A. I only A. fire point
D. convection index D. They are not necessarily related. B. II only B. flash point
Ans: B Ans: C C. Both I and II C. vaporization temperature
2947 The lowest temperature required to cause self-sustained 2948 In order to maximize the performance of an operatingcentrifuge, you D. Neither I nor II D. ignition temperature
combustion of a substance independent of any outside source of can adjust the fuel oil _______. I. viscosity II. through put Ans: D Ans: B
ignition is called ____________. 2965 The substance primarily responsible for heat loss in the combustion 2966 The flash point of a petroleum product is an indication of its
A. explosive range A. I only process is _____________. _____________.
B. flash point B. II only A. sulphur A. viscosity
C. ignition temperature C. Both I and II B. carbon B. pour point
D. combustion temperature D. Neither I nor II C. hydrogen C. volatility
Ans: C Ans: C D. nitrogen D. lower explosive limit
2949 The flash point of bunker fuel is defined as the __________. 2950 The flash point of a liquid is the _____________. Ans: D Ans: C
A. lowest temperature at which the fuel oil will give off enough vapor to A. temperature at which it burns freely 2967 What is the harmful effect of sulfur in a fuel? 2968 The volatility of any oil may be indicated by _____________.
momentarily flash into flame when ignited A. It causes excessive smoking and soot at low firing rates. A. the flash point
B. lowest temperature at which the fuel oil will give off enough vapor to B. temperature at which paraffin wax begins to crystallize out of the B. It doesn't readily burn when combined with oxygen. B. the fire point
continue to burn once ignited solution C. It clogs fuel oil strainers more often. C. the autogenous ignition point
C. temperature the fuel oil must be heated to for proper atomization C. lowest temperature at which it vaporizes enough to form an D. It forms a corrosive acid when mixed with water or water vapor. D. All of the above.
explosive air/vapor mixture
D. temperature at which the fuel oil will burn in a boiler furnace D. ability of a fuel to ignite upon injection into a diesel engine cylinder Ans: D Ans: D
2969 It is the duty of the Chief Engineer to acquire and seal a sample of
Ans: A Ans: C fuel oil received whenever fuel oil bunkers are taken. This sample
2951 The lowest temperature at which fuel combustion becomes self- 2952 The lowest temperature at which the vapors of a flammable liquid must be preserved until ______________.
sustaining in the presence of a source of ignition, is defined as the will ignite and cause self-sustained combustion in the presence of a A. the voyage is completed
____________. spark or flame is the _____________. B. that particular supply of oil is exhausted
A. autoignition point A. autoignition temperature C. it can be sent ashore to the proper oil company personnel for testing
B. flash point B. vaporization temperature and the results entered in the Oil Record Book, CG-480
C. burning temperature C. flash point
D. fire point D. fire point D. return to the first port where upon it must be sent ashore for
Ans: D Ans: D chemical analysis and the findings submitted to the nearest Officer
2953 Which of the following statements describes the relationship 2954 The ash content of a fuel oil is significant to the operating engineer in Charge, Marine Inspection
between viscosity and specific gravity? because it _____________. Ans: B
A. Liquids with different viscosities will always have the same specific A. is an indication of the amount of noncombustible material present in
MARINE CONTROL SYSTEMS AND INSTRUMENTATION
gravity. the oil
2970 The controller set point of an automatic control system is 65°C. The 2971 In a pneumatic automation system, a unit producing a signal to
B. Liquids with different viscosities will never have the same specific B. indicates the quantity of energy released by burning a unit amount of
valve closes when the output temperature reaches 70°C, and govern the position of the controller of the measured variable,
gravity. the fuel
reopens when the temperature falls below 60°C. The type of relative to the value of the measured variable, is said to have
C. Viscosity and specific gravity are directly proportional. C. is useful for determining proper atomization temperatures positioning action in this controller is known as ________. _______________.
D. Viscosity and specific gravity are not related in that one does not D. reflects the overall thermal efficiency of the fuel oil service system
define or limit the other.
A. one-position single-point A. reset action
Ans: D Ans: A
B. two-position single-point B. proportional action
2955 The ash content of a fuel oil is significant to the operating engineer 2956 Which of the following statements is correct concerning the "flash
C. one-position differential-gap C. two position action
because it _____________. point" of a liquid?
D. two-position differential-gap D. rate action
A. indicates the quanity of energy released by burning a unit amount of A. It is lower than the ignition temperature.
Ans: D Ans: B
fuel
2972 If the loading air pressure for a diaphragm controlled valve drops 2973 Every automated machinery plant must have an "engineer's
B. is useful for determining proper atomization temperatures B. It is the temperature at which a substance will spontaneously
below the designed operating pressure, the valve will assistance" alarm. Power for this alarm should be taken from the
ignite.
________________. _________________.
C. reflects the overall thermal efficiency of the fuel oil service systems C. It is the temperature at which a substance, when ignited, will
A. fail to stroke open A. main bus
continue to burn.
B. stroke slowly through its operating range B. emergency bus
D. is an indication of the amount of noncombustble material present in D. It is the temperature at which the released vapors will fall within the
C. stroke rapidly closed C. standby generator
the oil explosive range.
D. fail to stroke through its complete range D. general alarm power supply
Ans: D Ans: A
Ans: D Ans: D
2957 The lowest temperature at which fuel oil gives off sufficient vapor to 2958 The tendency of a liquid to vaporize is indicated by its
2974 The effect of "reset", when added to a proportional controller is to 2975 Which of the following statements expresses the function of
momentarily flash into flame when ignited is defined as the ____________.
_______________. proportional-plus-reset action?
____________.
A. make the controller correction proportional to the rate at which the A. The action measures the rate of time of the final control element.
A. burning temperature A. fire point
input change takes place
B. ignition temperature B. pour point
B. accelerate the corrective action so as to minimize the possibility of B. The action gives control without offset under all load conditions.
C. fire point C. flash point
hunting
 Page 161 Page 162

C. make the corrective action of the controller proportional to the C. The action combines proportional-position action and rate action. C. mass of substance measured with the density of the same C. The controlled variable must always deviate from its set point before
deviation of the controlled variable from the set point substance any corrective action is initiated by the controller.
D. repeat the proportional action until the controlled variable returns to D. The action is very unstable for anything but constant load conditions. D. buoyancy of an object in water with the buoyancy of the same object D. In order for a system to fall under the category of closed loop
the set point in the liquid being measured control, there should be no adjustments required to be made
Ans: D Ans: B manually by the operator.
2976 One disadvantage of proportional-position action is that 2977 Filters are installed ahead of air line lubricators for the primary Ans: D Ans: C
__________. purpose of removing ___________. 2994 Information from a data-logger can be helpful in determining the long 2995 In pressure measurement, absolute pressure is defined as the
A. corrective action is only proportional to offset A. the heat of compression term probability of machinery failure if you _____________. difference in pressure between _________________.
B. exact correction can be made only when there is no change in load B. air supply pressure pulses
A. evaluate only the latest logged data as this is the best indication of A. any two pressures measured with respect to a common reference
C. the controlled variable is stabilized C. moisture in the air supply plant status
D. the corrective action is only proportional to the deviation D. turbulence in the air supply B. evaluate a series of readings to obtain operating trends B. atmospheric pressure and barometric pressure at a given point
Ans: D Ans: C
2978 The cylinder unloading mechanism used on low pressure air 2979 Which of the listed devices would be installed at a control system air C. monitor off limit conditions only when announced by an audible and C. gage pressure and ambient atmospheric pressure
compressors is an example of which mode of control? pressure reducing station? visual signal
A. Two position A. Moisture separator D. secure the machine under relatively steady state conditions D. a perfect vacuum and the total pressure at a given point
B. Derivative B. Vacuum breaker Ans: B Ans: D
C. Integral C. Lubricator 2996 If the flow rate to a linear actuator is reduced by half of the original 2997 The characteristic of "offset" is inherent with which modeof control?
D. Single speed floating D. Nonreturn valve amount, the _____________. I. proportional control II. reset control
Ans: A Ans: A A. pump discharge pressure will be reduced by a proportional amount A. I only
2980 Reset control is also referred to as ____________. 2981 Reset control is also referred to as ____________.
A. proportional speed floating control A. derivative control B. speed of the actuator will be reduced B. II only
B. derivative control B. integral control C. speed of the actuator will be increased C. Both I and II
C. rate control C. rate control D. the actuator will move erratically D. Neither I nor II
D. proportional control D. proportional control Ans: B Ans: A
Ans: A Ans: B 2998 The mandatory operating characteristic of a pure amplifieris the 2999 To avoid corrosion and/or oxidation of the element, a thermometer
2982 The quantity or condition which is measured and controlled is known 2983 A computing relay is used in a pneumatic control system to _______. I. form of the input and output energy must be the sameII. bulb is often protected by a "well" or casing. In addition to protecting
as the ____________. _______________. ratio of the output change to input change must be a value greater the element, the "well" will also ________________.
A. controlled variable A. extract square roots than 1 (one)
B. manipulated variable B. square A. I only A. cause consistently higher than actual readings
C. set point C. divide B. II only B. cause consistently lower than actual readings
D. control point D. all of the above C. Both I and II C. require a longer time for the element to reach thermal equilibrium
Ans: A Ans: D with the system being measured
2984 The reset process control mode is also considered to be the same 2985 A mode of control, whereby the speed of motion of the final control D. Neither I nor II D. increase the sensitivity of the element
as _________. I. proportional speed floating control II. derivative element is linearly proportional to the deviation of the controlled Ans: A Ans: C
control variable from set point, is called _________. 3000 Reset control is considered to be the same as _________. I. 3001 A mechanical and/or hydraulic action preventing the over- correction
A. I only A. rate control proportional speed floating control II. integral control of the fuel supply, while producing transient speed droop is called
B. II only B. derivative control _______________.
C. Both I and II C. two position control A. I only A. stability
D. Neither I nor II D. integral control B. II only B. hunting
Ans: A Ans: D C. Both I and II C. compensation
2986 Which of the following definitions can be used to define the term 2987 Which of the following definitions best describes sensitivity as a D. Neither I nor II D. sensitivity
"offset" as a characteristic of controller action? characteristic of controller action? Ans: C Ans: C
A. The period of time in which the set point and the control point A. The ratio of the output in response to a specified change to the input 3002 What is the value of the controlled variable that the automatic 3003 At which of the following locations would a duplex pressure gage
coincide. which caused it. controller operates to maintain. most likely be located?
B. The periodic change between the set point and the control point. B. The steady state difference between the control point and the value A. Set point A. Fuel oil service pump discharge flange
of the controlled variable corresponding to the set point. B. Control point B. Fuel oil strainer
C. Deviation C. Fuel oil heater
C. The variable difference between the set point and the control point. C. The variation of the manipulated variable produced by the mode of D. Offset D. Fuel oil flow meter
control. Ans: B Ans: B
D. The constant difference between the set point and the control point. D. The time difference between the input change and the output 3004 Differential pressures can be measured with the use of a 3005 In order to accurately measure very low pressures, which of the
change of the controller. _____________. instruments listed should be used?
Ans: D Ans: A A. diaphragm type gage A. Compound gage
2988 Why is it necessary to spin the piston of a dead weight gage tester 2989 A mandatory characteristic of a pure amplifier is that B. pressure transducer B. Bourdon tube
while carrying out the calibrations of pressure gages? _______________. C. manometer C. Manometer
A. Prevent formation of a vacuum. A. the form of the input and output energies must be the same D. all of the above D. Deadweight gage
B. Eliminate the formation of air bubbles. B. the ratio of the output to the input must always be greater than the Ans: D Ans: C
numerical value of "one" 3006 A pneumercator is useful in measuring ____________________. 3007 The instrument used to indicate the level of a fluid in a tank is called
C. Prevent the piston rod from sticking. C. the form of the input and output energies must be different a _______________.
D. To assist in calibrating the dead weight tester. D. the action must be either integral or derivative A. relative humidity A. fluid meter
Ans: C Ans: A B. air pressure B. calorimeter
2990 The control mode in which the final control element is moved from 2991 A control action which produces a corrective signal relative to the C. liquid levels in tanks C. viscosimeter
one of two fixed positions to the other is known as speed at which the controlled variable is changing is known as D. fluid pneumercations D. pneumercator
_______________. _____________. Ans: C Ans: D
A. dead band action A. reset action 3008 Main engine room control console alarms are to be of the self 3009 Which of the following alarms and instrumentation is not required for
B. neutral zone action B. integral action monitoring type, meaning that an open circuit to a particular alarm a vessel incorporating a controllable pitch propeller in its main
C. range C. derivative action circuit will _____________. propulsion system?
D. on-off action D. proportional action A. cause an alarm condition A. Pitch indicator
Ans: D Ans: C B. secure power to the indicator B. Low oil temperature
2992 A hydrometer measures specific gravity by comparing the 2993 In an automated control system, which of the following statements C. secure power to the monitored device C. High oil pressure
______________. would apply to any type of closed loop system? D. automatically reclose within 10 seconds D. Low oil pressure
A. density of a substance in water with the density of the same subject A. The manipulated variables are adjusted only from the input demand Ans: A Ans: B
in air signals without monitoring the outlet conditions or variables. 3010 A compound Bourdon tube type pressure gage is capable of 3011 The instrument always used in conjunction with a salinometer is a
measuring ______________. _____________.
B. differences in weight between water and the liquid measured B. Another term commonly used in conjunction with this type of system A. temperature and pressure A. pyrometer
is "feed forward." B. wet bulb and dry bulb temperatures B. thermometer
 Page 163 Page 164

C. humidity and temperature C. hygrometer C. output C. tank fluid level

D. pressure and vacuum D. hydrometer D. feedback D. micro ohms in condensate
Ans: D Ans: B Ans: D Ans: C
3012 The control mode that is generally not used by itself is 3013 A closed loop pneumatic control system always operates with 3030 The value of the controlled variable, which under any fixed set of 3031 The steady state difference between the control point and the value
_________________. _____________. conditions the automatic controller operates to maintain, is known of the controlled variable, corresponding with the set point, is known
A. reset control A. a fixed final control element position as ____________. as _____________.
B. integral control B. simple on/off control A. set point A. dead band
C. derivative control C. no controller feedback B. control point B. control point
D. two position differential gap control D. feedback to the controller C. deviation C. deviation
Ans: C Ans: D D. offset D. offset
3014 While attempting to read a tank level indicator, the mercury column 3015 A pressure gage pointer responding sluggishly to changes in Ans: B Ans: D
drops rapidly. This may indicate ____________. pressure, should be repaired by ______________. 3032 A control action which produces a corrective signal relative to the 3033 While calibrating a bourdon tube pressure gage, all readings are
A. a leak in the gage line A. tapping the gage housing lightly length of time the controlled variable has been away from the set found to be 0.7 kgs higher throughout its entire range. An
B. free surface effect in the tank B. bending the needle to free the linkage point, is known as ____________. adjustment should be made by ____________.
C. an improperly calibrated gage C. cleaning the residue from gear teeth A. integral action A. increasing the sector to pivot point length
D. excess air in the balance chamber D. greasing the hair spring B. proportional action B. resetting the pointer on its shaft
Ans: A Ans: C C. rate action C. decreasing the sector to pivot point length
3016 A fuel oil tank pneumercator will give an inaccurate reading if the 3017 In an automation system, increasing or decreasing the loading D. derivative action D. increase the set screw length
____________. pressure by a set amount is known as _____________. Ans: A Ans: B
3034 "Offset" is an inherent characteristic of which of the following types 3035 The meat box temperature control circuit, as used in the ship service
A. pneumercator is recharged with the air supply open A. positioning of control modes? refrigeration system, is an example of ____________.
B. pneumercator balance chamber bleed orifice is blocked by the oil B. proportioning
being measured A. Two position A. two position control
C. pressure in the system is allowed to equalize C. biasing B. Proportional B. single speed floating control
D. operating cock is placed in the "vent" position when the system is D. controlling C. Reset C. proportional control
not in use D. Rate D. reset control
Ans: B Ans: C Ans: B Ans: A
3018 Moisture and impurities can be removed from pneumatic systems 3019 A compound gage is used for measuring pressures both above and 3036 A mode of control, whereby the position of the final control element 3037 When a controller is provided with reset rate adjustment, a change in
by using ______________. below _______________. is linearly proportional to the rate of change of the controlled this adjustment results in a change of the _______________.
A. air intake heaters A. absolute pressure variable, is called _______________________.
B. desiccated suction strainers B. latent pressure A. reset control A. desired value of the proportionally controlled variable
C. multi-orificed suction valves C. flow pressure B. integral control B. floating rate of the proportional-speed floating component
D. blowdown valves and filters D. atmospheric pressure C. two position control C. value representing the readjusted controlled variable
Ans: D Ans: D D. derivative control D. desired prepositioned value of the controlled medium
3020 The type of gage most commonly used to measure pressure is the 3021 Temperature measurement is an indication of the ___________. Ans: D Ans: B
_____________. 3038 The two most common gases used in pneumatic systems are 3039 When "reset" action is added to proportional action, the proportional
A. bimetallic type A. level of heat intensity _____________. action ______________.
B. diaphragm type B. total heat of a substance A. compressed air and nitrogen A. aids the reset action during decreasing error transients
C. bourdon tube type C. rate of heat transfer from one substance to another B. helium and nitrogen B. aids the reset action during increasing error transients
D. resistance-temperature type D. total heat contained in any closed energy system C. oxygen and hydrogen C. opposes the reset action during increasing error transients
Ans: C Ans: A D. oxygen and acetylene D. and reset action are completely independent of one another in the
3022 In the operation of a proportional-plus-reset controller,the 3023 Prior to testing the pyrometer circuit wiring for continuitywith a controller operation
proportional action _________. I. opposes the reset action during multimeter, you should disconnect the pyrometerbecause Ans: A Ans: B
decreasing error transients II. aids the reset action during ____________. 3040 Automatic control valves for steam service require periodic 3041 When "reset" action is added to proportional action
increasing error transients maintenance inspections because they ___________. _________________.
A. I only A. the driving voltage of the meter batteries can damage the circuit A. are subjected to high compressive stress A. the proportional action opposes the reset action during decreasing
meter error transients
B. II only B. the pyrometer total resistance can damage the ohmmeter B. are subjected to a wide range of temperatures and pressures B. the proportional action opposes the reset action during increasing
C. Both I and II C. the reactance of the pyrometer will give a false meter reading error transients
C. continuously throttle steam resulting in wire drawing and erosion of C. the proportional action assists the reset action during decreasing
D. Neither I nor II D. meter current running through the pyrometer will permanently the valve error transients
magnetize the pyrometer's pointer D. receive high pressure air from the pilot valve D. the proportional action and the reset action are completely
Ans: C Ans: A independent of one another in the controller operation
3024 A proportional band or range adjustment to a bourdon tubepressure 3025 A set point adjustment to a bourdon tube pressure gage Ans: C Ans: A
gage is accomplished by ___________. I. adjusting the effective isaccomplished by ___________. I. adjusting the effective moment 3042 When a controller with proportional position action is used to control 3043 Which of the following control actions, when combined with
moment arm length between the end of the bourdon tube and the arm length between the end of the bourdon tube and the quadrant a process, a load change will cause the controlled variable to proportional-position action, will eliminate manual repositioning of
quadrant gear fulcrum II. adjusting the pointer position gear fulcrum II. adjusting the pointer position relative to the stabilize at some value other than the set point value. The new point the set point for each load change to produce an automatic reset
at which the controlled variable stabilizes is ca action?
A. I only A. I only
B. II only B. II only A. offset A. Neutral band
C. Both I and II C. Both I and II B. deviation B. Floating action
D. Neither I nor II D. Neither I nor II C. control point C. Reciprocal action
Ans: A Ans: B D. load point D. Rate action
3026 In checking the level of a tank, three pneumercator readings have 3027 Devices, such as a pressure gage, that are subject to continuous Ans: C Ans: B
been taken. If each reading is higher than the last, this indicates that expansion and contraction are affected by hysteresis. This is a 3044 A rotameter, when used to indicate the rate of fluid flow in distilling 3045 Double seated, pneumatically controlled, regulating valves exhibit
_____________. natural process that ___________. plants, is essentially an area meter consisting of a _____________. good balancing characteristics essential for low-sensitivity
A. excessive charging air was supplied A. allows a material to return to its exact original shape applications because __________.
B. insufficient charging air has been supplied B. permits a resilient material to return to its almost original shape A. movable float riding on a rod centered in a tapered tube A. high pressure enters between the seats and creates equal, but
opposing forces
C. the relief valve is sticking C. allows a resiliant material to resist permanent deformation B. piston uncovering a port whose opening is directly proportional to B. they employ a specially fabricated diaphragm
D. the tubing between the tank and the gauge has a leak D. is directly related to a material's elastic limit fluid flow
Ans: B Ans: B C. movable orifice plate venturi tube and high pressure tap C. the feedback control signals balance the opposing forces acting on
3028 In an automation system, the effect of a control action sensed by a 3029 A pneumercator is an instrument used to indicate __________. the diaphragm
controller is known as _____________. D. rotating vane transmitting nutating motion to a counter mechanism D. the special diaphragm motor spring resists pressure changes
A. command input A. air pressure in the diesel engine starting circuit
B. set point signal B. phosphates in boiler water Ans: A Ans: A
 Page 165 Page 166

3046 The probable cause of erratic operation of a pneumatically controlled 3047 A compound Bourdon tube gage is capable of measuring pressure D. dead band D. dead band
steam pressure reducing valve is ____________. and _______________. Ans: D Ans: C
A. the range spring has become weakened A. humidity 3066 A proportional band, or range adjustment of a bourdon tube 3067 The set point adjustment of a bourdon tube pressure gage is
B. an incorrect loading pressure supplied to the power unit B. vacuum pressure gage is accomplished by ______________. accomplished by ___________.
C. a partially restricted loading air pressure line C. temperature A. adjusting the effective moment arm length between the bourdon A. adjusting the effective moment arm length between the bourdon
D. a pinhole in the power diaphragm D. density tube and the quadrant gear fulcrum tube and the quadrant gear fulcrum
Ans: C Ans: B B. adjusting the pointer position relative to the shaft on which it is B. adjusting the pointer position relative to the shaft on which it is
3048 If you turn the handwheel clockwise of a spring-loaded, internal 3049 How may the response time for a thermometer using a protective mounted mounted
pilot, reducing valve, you will ____________. well be reduced? C. changing out the pointer pinion C. adjusting the pointer position by bending the free end of the pointer
A. compress the adjusting spring against the diaphragm A. Fill the well with nitrogen.
B. release spring tension from the diaphragm B. Fill the well with water. D. flattening the cross-section of the bourdon tube D. flattening the cross section of the bourdon tube
C. increase steam pressure to the reducing valve C. Drill small holes in the well. Ans: A Ans: B
D. decrease spring tension in the main valve D. Pack the space around the bulb with graphite. 3068 Which of the following control modes is generally not used by itself? 3069 A pure transducer utilizes _____________.
Ans: A Ans: D
3050 Why is it necessary to have the weight bearing piston of a 3051 The portion of a mechanism that utilizes manual positioning, or A. Two position action A. integral action
deadweight gage tester spinning when testing a gage for proper automatic indexing, is known as a detent. An example of a detent B. Proportional action B. rate action
calibration? used aboard ship can be found in a/an ____________. C. Integral action C. proportional action
A. Minimizes piston drag and reduces tester error. A. rheostat D. Derivative action D. derivative action
B. Prevents vibration errors in the gage tester. B. engine order telegraph Ans: D Ans: C
C. Minimizes piston speed and reduces tester error. C. valve handwheel 3070 Which of the following elements is common to all indicating 3071 The mode of control employed by an alarm circuit is a
D. Allows trapped air below the piston to escape. D. fuel/air ratio control knob instruments? _____________.
Ans: A Ans: B A. An electrical input A. two position control
3052 Biasing, in a pneumatic automated combustion control system, 3053 If you suspect that a gage is sticking and giving an inaccurate B. A bourdon tube B. single speed floating control
refers to a set amount of increase or decrease in the_________. reading, you should ___________. C. A reset button C. proportional speed floating control
D. A calibrated scale D. reset control
A. control pressure A. blow out the gage line with compressed air Ans: D Ans: A
B. loading pressure B. tap the gage body with a wrench 3072 Which of the following proportional band values most closely 3073 The response line installed in a pneumatic proportional action
C. supply pressure C. remove the gage bezel and slightly move the needle approaches "ON-OFF" control? controller functions to __________.
D. rate relay pressure D. replace the gage or have it calibrated A. -0.1 A. monitor the accuracy of the measuring element
Ans: B Ans: D B. 0.02 B. provide a feedback signal for accurate final element positioning
3054 The moisture sensitive element of a humidistat can be made of 3055 A pneumercator tank gage utilizes ______________.
_____________. C. 1 C. regulate the air supply in the line to the nozzle
A. hair A. a Bourdon tube indicator D. 5 D. readjust the total spring force in the air control relay
B. copper B. a balance chamber Ans: B Ans: B
C. plastic C. an electronic sensing line 3074 Increasing the "reset rate" of a proportional-plus-reset controller 3075 A two-position single-point action controller has been adjusted to
D. steel D. all of the above ____________. minimize cycling and would only be suitable for ____________.
Ans: A Ans: B
3056 A pyrometer is capable of producing a voltage by __________. 3057 A solenoid valve is operated by magnetic action through A. narrows the proportional band A. constant load conditions
_____________. B. widens the proportional band B. intermittent load conditions
A. chemical reaction A. suction pressure at the compressor C. repeats the proportional action more frequently C. wide temperature fluctuations
B. light striking a photo sensitive substance B. an electrically energized coil D. increase the stability of the controller D. rate action only
C. heating a junction of two dissimilar metals C. superheat at the evaporator outlet coil Ans: C Ans: A
D. squeezing crystals of certain substances D. a vacuum operated bellows 3076 The amount of change of a controlled variable that is necessary to 3077 A controller with floating action has a controlled variable where the
Ans: C Ans: B cause a specific change in the position of the final control element range of values produces no motion of the final control element. This
3058 In the operation of a proportional-plus-reset controller,the 3059 In the operation of a proportional-plus-reset controller,the depends upon the ____________. range of values is called the _______________.
proportional action _________. I. and the reset action are proportional action _________. I. aids the reset action during
completely independent of one another II. opposes reset action increasing error transients II. and the reset action are completely A. differential gap adjustment A. neutral zone
during decreasing error transients independent of one another B. range of valve opening B. set point
A. I only A. I only C. proportional band adjustment of the controller C. control point
B. II only B. II only D. form of the controlled medium D. offset
C. Both I and II C. Both I and II Ans: C Ans: A
D. Neither I nor II D. Neither I nor II 3078 A pneumercator is used to indicate fuel oil _____________. 3079 A pyrometer is generally used to measure _________.
Ans: B Ans: A A. pressure A. grains of moisture per cubic foot of air
3060 To ensure an accurate pneumercator reading, you should 3061 A pneumercator measures the liquid level in a tank bysensing B. level B. salinity concentration of condensate
_____________. ___________. I. head pressure II. liquid density C. temperature C. stack temperature
A. purge the balance chamber to remove any liquid A. I only D. flow D. level of a fluid in a tank
B. read the bottom of the mercury meniscus B. II only Ans: B Ans: C
C. take the reading with the operating cock in the vent position C. both I and II 3080 When the vessel's steering wheel on the navigation bridge is turned, 3081 The gage most commonly used aboard ship to measure high
D. make certain the tank has been bled of air D. neither I nor II the difference existing between the position of the wheel and that of pressures is the ___________.
Ans: A Ans: A the rudder is known as ____________.
3062 When checking the level of a fuel oil tank using a pneumercator, 3063 The control mode where the position of the final control element has A. proportional band A. volatile liquid-type
the initial reading obtained can be quickly verified by a linear relationship with the position or value of the controlled B. the error signal B. diaphragm actuated-type
_____________. variable, is known as _____________. C. the reset signal C. Bourdon tube-type
A. repeating the process and getting the same reading again A. two position control D. feedback D. resistance-temperature-type
B. sounding the tank with a tape coated with a fuel indicating paste B. proportion control Ans: B Ans: C
3082 A compound gage is used to measure _____________. 3083 Any restriction in the instrument air piping of a pneumatic control
C. a gauge reading of zero when the control handle is in the purge C. reset control system will _______________.
position A. temperature and pressure A. delay transmission of the air signal
D. a gauge reading equal to supply air pressure when the control D. rate control B. humidity and temperature B. increase the transmitted air signal intensity
handle is in the purge position C. pressure and vacuum C. reduce the transmitted air signal value
Ans: A Ans: B D. pressure and humidity D. accelerate transmission of the air signal
3064 The range of values through which the input can be varied without 3065 The ratio of output response to a specified change in the input is Ans: C Ans: A
initiating an output response is known as _________. known as ____________. 3084 A primary element used with flow measurement devices highly 3085 Restrictions occuring in the small orifices of pneumatic control
A. deviation A. primary feedback suitable for liquids containing solids in suspension, is a system components can be caused by _____________.
B. offset B. deviation ____________.
C. sensitivity C. sensitivity A. concentric orifice A. moisture in the compressed air supply
 Page 167 Page 168

B. convergent nozzle B. excessive dryness in the compressed air supply SHIP CONSTRUCTION, REPAIRS AND REGULATIONS
C. venturi tube C. pressure surging in the compressed air receiver 3097 The gasket and the broken studs have been replaced on a tank 3098 Vertical transverse structures in the double bottom are known as
D. pilot tube D. insufficient lubrication of the system components manhole cover. Which of the following methods is satisfactory for _________.
Ans: C Ans: A testing the repair?
3086 Which of the listed characteristics is typical of a strip chart graphic 3087 When the pressure on a compound gage is released, the gage A. Pressurize the tank with 0.7kg/cm2 air, soap the repaired area, A. pillars
recorder? pointer is returned to zero psig by action of the _________. watch for visible signs of leakage or bubbles.
B. Fill the tank with water via the ballast pump until the innage reading B. floors
A. The time graduations fan out from the center. A. Bourdon tube corresponds to the maximum depth of the tank.
B. The data charts are more easily stored than the circular charts. B. spring return arm C. Hose test the repaired area with a minimum of 7 kg/cm2 water C. ceilings
pressure.
C. The variable being measured is drawn on rectangular coordinates. C. compound diaphragm D. Fill the tank via the ballast pump until water flows from the vent line D. stanchions
opening on deck.
D. Strip charts are more difficult to read than circular charts. D. compensating spring Ans: C Ans: B
Ans: C Ans: A 3099 The garboard strake is located ____________. 3100 The end joint formed by adjoining plates in a hull plating strake is
3088 On tank vessels using an automatic tape wells, free movement of 3089 With regards to fluid flow control, an advantage of pneumatic properly identified as a ____________.
the tape is normally checked by _______________________. control systems over electrical control systems is A. at the very bottom center A. bracket
________________. B. just under the sheer line B. scarph
A. removing the side plate A. practically no limit to the power available for a given system C. at each side of the keel C. butt
B. operating the hand clutch B. no transmission losses D. at the turn of the bilge D. seam
C. comparing with a hand tape C. low energy input Ans: C Ans: C
D. using litmus paste D. continued control through temporary electrical power losses 3101 Structural members used to support and transmit the downward 3102 The welded joint located between two plates in the same strake of
Ans: B Ans: D force of the load and distribute that force over a large area, are hull plating is called a _____________.
3090 On tank vessels using an automatic tape well for gaging tanks, the 3091 Which of the following statements is true concerning the called ______________.
hand clutch is used to _____________. instrumentation or alarms provided at the main control station for an A. pillars A. bracket
automated main propulsion plant? B. stanchions B. scarf
A. adjust the tape weight A. Nonvital alarms are separated from vital alarms. C. columns C. lap
B. lower the thieving rod B. Provisions are made through simulation or actual condition for D. all of the above D. butt
testing all audible and visual alarms and indicating lights. Ans: D Ans: D
C. roll up the tape C. All alarm circuits should be in operation when the system is on the 3103 Vertical support members used to strengthen bulkheads are called 3104 The double bottom in a vessel is a space comprised of
line. _____________. ______________.
D. calibrate the tank D. All of the above. A. stiffeners A. plating forming the engine room tank top
Ans: C Ans: D B. panels B. doubler plating installed over the flat keel plate
3092 Most solenoid valves are actuated by _________. 3093 The type of gage most commonly used to measure pressure is the C. stanchions C. a watertight boundary formed by the inner bottom
_____________. D. brackets D. compartments between the inner and outer bottoms
A. a spring A. bimetallic type Ans: A Ans: D
B. an electromagnet B. diaphragm type 3105 The inner bottom of a ship is the _____________. 3106 A shot of anchor chain has a length of ____________.
C. the force of gravity C. bourdon tube type A. plating forming the engine room tank top A. 6 fathoms
D. refrigerant pressure D. resistance-temperature type B. doubler plating installed over the flat keel plate B. 12 fathoms
Ans: B Ans: C C. watertight boundary formed by the skin of the ship C. 15 fathoms
3094 The vessel's steering gear is a classic example of a positioner type 3095 When the pressure applied to a Bourdon tube-type pressure gage is D. compartment between the tank top and skin of the ship D. 45 fathoms
automation system. The variable input is provided through the reduced to atmospheric pressure, the tube will begin to "bend" Ans: A Ans: C
steering wheel, and the rudder position is fed back to the operating towards the center of arc. Small variations develop preventing the 3107 The part of the anchor windlass that engages the anchor chain for 3108 Which of the following precautions should always be carriedout in
mechanism. The difference between the input signal an tube from returning to its exact original shape due to th lifting is called the _____________. drydock?
A. warping head A. Liquids should never be transferred between tanks without
A. system differential A. hysteresis consulting the dock master.
B. proportional band B. compression B. fairlead B. If sea valves have been disassembled, all bonnets must be checked
C. error C. homiostatious deformation for leakage when the ship is refloated.
D. command input D. gas eddys C. wildcat C. Before refloating, all sea chest strainers should be verified as
Ans: C Ans: A having been replaced.
3096 When a bourdon tube pressure gage is tested and found to be D. capstan D. All of the above.
inaccurate, adjustment must be made to obtain the correct readings. Ans: C Ans: D
The distance between the pointer spindle and the link connection to 3109 The collision bulkhead is located _________. 3110 Regulations require tank sounding tubes terminating above the
the sector gear will be changed when the ____________. weather deck of a cargo vessel to be fitted with a _________.

A. pointer does not travel the correct distance as test weight is added A. on the bridge deck A. globe valve
B. between the passenger and cargo areas B. stop-check valve
B. proportional amount of pointer travel for each weight added is C. at the stern of the ship C. gate valve
correct, but the total reading is wrong D. as the first watertight bulkhead aft of the bow in the ship D. screw cap or plug
C. reading is correct only at the working pressure Ans: D Ans: D
D. readings are correct only at the minimum and maximum ends of the 3111 According to Regulations , how many means of escape must be 3112 The purpose in constructing a pipe tunnel aboard a vessel is to
scale provided in spaces where the crew may be quartered or employed? ___________.
Ans: A
A. Two, both of which must be through watertight doors. A. insulate piping from ambient temperatures
B. Two, both of which are located as close together as possible to B. provide convenient grouping of all piping leading fore and aft from
centralize escape routes. the machinery space for easy access and control
C. Two, at least one of which shall be independent of watertight C. enclose all pipes leading to a single forward compartment in their
doors. own enclosure
D. Two, both of which must be vertical ladders terminating in locked D. segregate a pipe from the compartment through which it passes
watertight scuttles.
Ans: C Ans: D
3113 Who is responsible for ensuring that someone is assigned to close 3114 When a new section of shell plating is being installed, the proper
the watertight doors in an emergency? weld sequence must be followed to _____________.
A. Crew member A. minimize shrinkage stresses and harmful distortion
B. Master of the vessel B. ensure that all weldments are downhand
C. Chief Engineer C. provide the greatest restraint in the weld
D. Chief Mate D. ensure all horizontal weldments are completed first
 Page 169 Page 170

Ans: B Ans: A D. transverse frames D. reduce liquid movement within a tank

3115 When renewing only a portion of an entire hull plate with an insert 3116 A vessel's immediate protection in the event of a broken stern tube Ans: D Ans: D
plate, which of the listed guidelines should be followed? is a/an ____________. 3131 If high relative humidity is maintained in a cargo hold,there is a 3132 The depth of fuel oil in a double bottom tank is measuredthrough the
significant possibility that ________. I. there will be an accumulation _____________.
A. The insert plate should cover at least one full frame space. A. aft collision bulkhead of static electricity II. mold will grow and contaminate the cargo
B. The lines of new welding should, where possible, lie in existing lines B. stern frame bulkhead
of welding. A. I only A. vent line
C. The corners of the insert plate should be square. C. after peak bulkhead B. II only B. depth gage
D. The insert plate should be at least 9/16 thick. D. aft machinery space watertight bulkhead C. Both I and II C. manhole cover
Ans: A Ans: C D. Neither I nor II D. sounding tube
3117 When the ship's bulkheads are reinforced against bending and 3118 In modern ship construction, high tensile steel (HTS) may be Ans: B Ans: D
bulging, the bulkheads are provided with ____________. permitted in _______________. 3133 Regulations require that any tankship making a voyage "of over a 48 3134 Pillar cross-sections of "I", "H", or circular are used in ship
A. stanchions A. the sheer strake hour duration" must have certain tests conducted not more than 12 construction in locations where there are large expanses, void of
B. girders B. the keel strake hours prior to leaving port. Meeting this requirement includes intermediate decks and bulkheads, such as in cargo holds and
C. stiffeners C. the margin strake thetesting of the ____________. engine rooms. A supporting pillar which becomes bent out of ver
D. rabbits D. all of the above
Ans: C Ans: D A. means of communication between the bridge and engineroom A. not be critical until the vertical angle approaches 15‚
3119 Which of the listed statements correctly reflects the requirements 3120 In ship construction, beams are transverse girders which provide B. fire pump relief valve B. loose practically all of its strength as a support
for steel used in low temperature applications aboard ships? support to ___________. C. watertight door to the shaft alley C. most likely experience shear stress failure if not reinforced
immediately
A. A steel acceptable for service at 19.5°C is not acceptable for service A. bulkheads D. emergency lighting system D. not pose any problem, provided there are no cracked welds
at 10°C. connecting it to any adjoining strength members
B. The words "low temperature" are to be marked legibly at each end of B. deckhouse structures Ans: A Ans: B
the finished plate. 3135 In order to recognize the amount of anchor chain paid out, specific 3136 In order to recognize the amount of anchor chain paid out, specific
C. No special welding procedures are required. C. decks portions of the chain are color coded and wrapped with wire. The portions of the chain are color coded and wrapped with wire. The
D. Any steel acceptable for a particular minimum service temperature D. vertical frames second shot of the chain is painted __________. first shot of chain is painted __________.
is also acceptable for higher service temperatures.
A. white on the detachable link A. white on the detachable link and red on each link to either side of the
Ans: D Ans: C detachable link
3121 Which of the following statements is correct concerning the 3122 According to regulation , a "C" class division, bulkhead or deck shall B. red for two links on either side of the detachable link B. white on the detachable link and white on each link to either side of
regulations regarding internal combustion engine exhausts, boiler be constructed ___________. the detachable link
and galley uptakes, and similar sources of ignition? C. white for two links on either side of the detachable line C. red on the detachable link and red on each link to either side of the
A. They shall be kept clear of and suitably insulated from any A. with approved incombustible materials and made intact from deck to detachable link
woodwork or other combustible matter. deck and to shell or other boundaries D. red on the detachable link D. red on the detachable link and white on each link to either side of the
B. All exhausts and uptakes shall run as close as possible to the B. of approved incombustible materials, but need meet no detachable link
vertical and shall exit the machinery space at a point above the requirements relative to the passage of flame Ans: C Ans: D
highest load line. 3137 The bitter end is the __________. 3138 A shot of anchor chain is equal to __________.
C. The general construction of the vessel shall be such as to minimize C. that if subjected to the standard fire test, they would be capable of A. looped end of a mooring cable A. one chain link
smoke hazards insofar as is reasonable and practicable. preventing the passage of flame for one half hour B. end of the chain shackled to the anchor B. one - 90 foot segment
C. fixed end of the mooring cable fastened to the mooring winch drum C. 90 fathoms
D. This protection shall be such as to be capable of preventing an D. that if subjected to the standards fire test, they would be capable of
excessive temperature rise in the space containing the emergency preventing the passage of flame or smoke for one hour D. end of the anchor chain fastened to the vessel D. one - 15 foot segment
source of electric power. Ans: D Ans: B
Ans: A Ans: B 3139 All of the links in the next to the last inboard shot of chain are 3140 Stanchions prevent the entire deck load from being carried by the
3123 Which of the following clearance readings should be taken and 3124 Support of side plating is provided primarily by transverse painted __________. ______________.
recorded in drydock? ______________. A. yellow A. bulkheads
A. The clearances between the propeller blade tips and the hull. A. beams B. white B. stringers
C. red C. frames and beam brackets
B. The clearances between the propeller hub and the fair water cone. B. girders D. orange D. deck longitudinals
Ans: A Ans: C
C. The rudder bearing clearances. C. frames 3141 According to regulations , a "B" class bulkhead shall be constructed 3142 The material, design, construction and workmanship of main and
D. The clearances between the stern tube packing gland and the D. bulkheads _______. auxiliary machinery shall _________. (46 CFR)
retaining ring. A. of steel or equivalent metal construction, suitably stiffened and A. determine the necessity of duplication and application of redundant
Ans: C Ans: C made intact from deck to deck and to shell or other boundaries systems
3125 In ship construction, the shell plating is arranged in strakes and 3126 In ship construction, the strakes are given letter designations
assigned letter designations. If the strakes were lettered "A" through beginning with the letter "A." The "A" strake is adjacent to the B. of approved incombustible materials, but need meet no B. be examined and approved by the Port State Control Officer of the
"K", the "K" strake will be ______________. ___________. requirements relative to the passage of flame port in which the vessel is being constructed
A. at the turn of the bilge A. deck edge strake C. that if subjected to a standard fire test, they would be capable of C. be at least equivalent to the standards established by the American
B. the keel strake B. keel preventing the passage of flame for one half hour Bureau of Shipping or other recognized classification society
C. the drop strake C. turn of the bilge strake
D. the sheer strake D. sheer strake D. that if subjected to the standard fire test, they would be capable of D. prevent the possibility of operator injury due to inefficient
Ans: D Ans: B preventing the passage of flame and smoke for one hour construction practices and inappropriate material testing procedures
3127 In ship construction, the shell plating is arranged in strakes, with 3128 In ship construction, which of the listed strengthening members act
four of the strakes being specifically identified by name. The strake to support the decks? Ans: C Ans: C
next to the keel is identified as the ____________. 3143 According to regulation , an "A" class division, bulkhead or deck 3144 The bleeder plug, or docking plug located on a motor vessel double
shall be constructed _________. bottom tank is used to ______________.
A. keel strake A. Pillars A. with approved incombustible materials and made intact from deck to A. indicate when the tank is pressed up
B. garboard strake B. Girders deck and to shell or other boundaries
C. bilge strake C. Bulkheads B. of approved incombustible materials, but need meet no B. provide a secondary means of tank sounding
D. sheer strake D. All of the above requirements relative to the passage of flame
Ans: B Ans: D C. that if subjected to the standard fire test, they would be capable of C. vent air from the tank when bunkering
3129 In ship construction, the hull frame members extending athwartship 3130 The purpose of swash bulkheads is to ____________. preventing the passage of flame for one half hour
are called ____________. D. that if subjected to the standard fire test, they would be capable of D. empty the tank when in drydock
A. deck frames A. minimize the effect of a listing condition preventing the passage of flame and smoke for one hour
B. stringer frames B. restrict flooding within a tank
C. longitudinal frames C. separate cargoes in a common tank Ans: D Ans: D
 Page 171 Page 172

3145 In ship construction, beam brackets are triangular plates joining the 3146 Reinforcing frames attached to a bulkhead are called D. Shaft alley door and fixed CO2 release D. 160°C to 182°C
deck beam to a _________________. ____________. Ans: A Ans: B
A. bulkhead A. side longitudinals 3163 Which of the following statements describes the function of an alarm 3164 According to regulations , a standard fire test is one ________.
B. frame B. intercostals annunciator on an engine room alarm panel?
C. stanchion C. stiffeners A. An alarm condition causes a light and siren to come on which remain A. of many initial operating tests performed on newly commissioned
D. deck longitudinal D. brackets on until the machinery is secured. boilers
Ans: B Ans: C B. A flashing light comes on, followed by an audible alarm. When an B. which is used to determine the flash point of various marine fuels
3147 The duties of a chief engineer upon taking charge of the department 3148 If a lifeboat winch allows a lifeboat to descend to the water at an alarm acknowledge button is depressed, the audible alarm is
include _____________. excessive speed, you should _____________. silenced and light stays on.
A. preparing a list of engine department personnel for the Master's A. remove unnecessary weight from the boat C. An alarm condition gives an audible and visual alarm signal, both of C. which develops a series of temperature relationships in a test
signature which are secured when the alarm acknowledge button is furnace
B. taking a complete personal inventory of all engine room spare parts B. adjust the centrifugal brake mechanism depressed.
D. An alarm condition causes a flashing light to come on, followed by D. in which all emergency firefighting and related safety equipment are
C. determining if any vital engine room equipment is inoperative C. adjust the davit mounted limit switches an audible alarm. When the alarm acknowledge button is tested
D. obtaining a valid Certification of Inspection from the Coast Guard D. engage the motor friction clutch bands depressed, the warning light is extinguished.
Ans: B Ans: C
Ans: C Ans: B 3165 With reference to a vessel's structural integrity, the most significant 3166 With regard to the opening and closing of watertight appliances not
3149 When a vessel is drydocked for inspection, which of the following 3150 Sounding tubes and access openings for fuel oil tanks on cargo characteristic of a cryogenic liquid is its ______________. fitted with a remote operating control or alarm system, which of the
valves are required to be opened during this period? vessels are permitted by Regulations to be located in which of the following is the master or person in charge of a MODU required to
listed spaces? enter in the logbook?
A. Ballast pump manifold valves A. Washrooms A. capability of causing brittle fractures A. The time required to close the appliances.
B. High and low suction valves on fuel oil settling tanks B. Laundries B. highly corrosive action on mild steel B. The reason for opening or closing each appliance.
C. Bottom blow skin valves to the main and auxiliary boilers C. Slop sinks C. vapor cloud which reacts violently with saltwater C. The name of the person performing the opening and closing of such
D. Cooling water control valves on refrigeration condensers D. Corridors appliances.
Ans: C Ans: D D. toxicity at atmospheric pressure D. The fact that the hull indicators functioned or not.
3151 On small passenger vessels, separation of machinery and fuel tank 3152 Regulations require remote controls for stopping machinery driving Ans: A Ans: B
spaces shall be __________. fuel oil service pumps. These controls shall be ___________. 3167 The purpose of bilge keels is to _____________. 3168 Which of the following describes the purpose of a striker or doubler
plate?
A. provided between each of these spaces by watertight and/or A. located at the control platform A. lower the center of gravity of the ship A. Provides a surface for the application of force, or the installation of
vaportight bulkheads machinery.
B. separated from accommodation spaces by watertight and/or B. provided with a locked cover B. reduce the amplitude of roll B. Provides landing surface for the sounding bob of a tank sounding
vaportight bulkheads tape.
C. not considered as essential C. accessible to authorized personnel only C. reduce pitching C. Absorbs machinery vibration.
D. separated from accommodations spaces by non-continuous D. protected against accidental operation D. reduce yawing D. Prevents valve stem over travel.
bulkheads Ans: B Ans: B
Ans: B Ans: D 3169 In order to recognize the amount of anchor chain paid out, specific 3170 Aboard tankers, the term Category "A" Machinery Space, as defined
3153 The location of a vessel's frame stations may be obtained from 3154 Where should you expect to find striking plates? portions of the chain are color coded and wrapped with wire. The by Regulations means any spaceincluding trunks and ducts to that
which of the listed drawings? third shot of chain should have __________. space containing ____________.
A. Profile A. In the bow of the ship at the waterline. A. three turns of wire wrapped around the detachable link A. internal combustion machinery used for main propulsion
B. Base line B. On the bottom of a fuel or ballast tank under the sounding tube. B. three turns of wire wrapped around the stud of the third link on each B. one or more oil fired boilers or oil fuel units
side of the detachable link
C. Cross section C. Under the counter above the propeller blade tips. C. three turns of wire wrapped around the stud of the link on each side C. internal combustion machinery used for purposes other than main
D. Buttock D. On the cofferdam manhole. of the detachabale link propulsion where the total collective power is at least 500 brake
Ans: A Ans: B horsepower
3155 What color is used to indicate the last shot of anchor chain? 3156 The principal purpose of an anchor windlass chain stopper is to D. one turn of wire wrapped around the stud of the third link on each D. all of the above
_____________. side of the detachable link
A. Red A. tie off the warping head lines Ans: B Ans: D
B. White B. absorb the brake thrust of the anchor windlass 3171 If high relative humidity is maintained in a cargo hold,there is a 3172 If auxiliary machinery vital to the main propulsion system is not
C. Blue C. hold the anchor chain while riding at anchor significant possibility that ________. I. there will be an accumulation provided with independent duplicate systems, which of the systems
D. Yellow D. lock the intermediate clutch shaft to the wildcat of static electricity II. mold will grow and contaminate the cargo listed would satisfy regulations if serviced by two pumps?
Ans: A Ans: C
3157 According to Regulations , where cargo pump shafts on tankers 3158 In merchant ship construction, the term "scantlings" refers to the A. I only A. Main condensate
pierce bulkheads ________________. ____________. B. II only B. Lube oil service
A. readily accessible gastight glands shall be provided A. factor of safety involved with the hog and sag characteristics of the C. Both I and II C. Fuel oil service
hull D. Neither I nor II D. All of the above
B. compressed air shall be used as the primary means to discharge B. hull girder strength in terms of the standard model Ans: B Ans: D
cargo 3173 Which of the following machinery remote control shutdowns is 3174 All of the links in the last shot of anchor chain are painted
C. a pressure gauge or manometer shall be installed on the bulkhead C. designed size of the beams, stiffeners, and shell plating required to be tested during each regular inspection for certification? __________.
to ensure the gastight seal is maintained
D. the glands are to be kept under continuous suction with power D. ICE strength classification of the hull A. Forced draft fan A. yellow
ventilation B. Induced draft fan B. white
Ans: A Ans: C C. Fuel oil transfer pump C. red
3159 The structural members of the hull extending in a fore and aft 3160 The minimum number of crew members permitted by law to operate D. All of the above D. orange
direction are called _________. your vessel can be determined by checking the _______________. Ans: D Ans: C
3175 If a vessel is not provided with duplicate service systems, which of 3176 The hulls of most modern towing vessels constructed today are
A. frames A. Manning Certificate the systems listed will satisfy the regulations if serviced by two fabricated from _______________.
B. joiners B. Class Certificate pumps?
C. longitudinals C. Master's crew list A. Main condensate A. wrought iron
D. knees D. Master's logbook B. Fuel oil service B. high alloy steel
Ans: C Ans: A C. Lube oil service C. mild steel
3161 Which of the following is operated from the main engine room 3162 Expansion tanks used in a hot water heating system may be of the D. All of the above D. corrosion resisting steel
console on an automated vessel? open or closed type. In a closed type system, what would be the Ans: D Ans: C
normal temperature range of the water? 3177 When any vessel is drydocked, examination shall be made of the 3178 The penetration of watertight bulkheads and watertight decks by
A. Fire pump and lube oil pump A. 80°C to 100°C propeller, ___________. rigid nonmetallic piping is prohibited except when ___________.
B. Lube oil pump and distilling plant B. 104°C to 116°C
C. Distilling plant and shaft alley door C. 127°C to 138°C
 Page 173 Page 174

A. fairwater cone and hull anodes by the Chief Engineer assigned to A. using an acceptable metallic fitting, welded or otherwise is attached DISTILLING SYSTEM AND POTABLE WATER SYSTEM
the vessel to the bulkhead or deck by an acceptable method 3192 A high reading at a salinity cell located in the loop seal between two 3193 Fluctuations in the pressure and temperature of the steam supplied
B. propeller coupling and flange fasteners by the authorized inspector B. the rigid nonmetallic plastic pipe is at least of schedule 160 and a stages of a flash type evaporator would indicate __________. to the first-effect of a low pressure submerged tube distilling plant
of the repair facility metallic shut off valve is provided adjacent to the through deck or will cause ___________.
bulkhead fitting A. chill shocking is necessary to remove scale A. increased heat levels throughout the entire unit
C. keel and stabilizing fins by a registered marine engineer C. metallic shut off valves are welded to nonmetallic hull materials B. leakage at the second-stage condenser B. decreased priming and lower salinity distillate
C. faulty operation of the brine overboard pump C. first effect scale formation to be loosened
D. stern bushing, sea connection and fastenings if deemed necessary D. two non-remotely operated metallic valves are installed on either D. carryover in the first-stage D. pressure and temperature fluctuations in the entire unit
by the class surveyor side of the deck or bulkhead regardless of accessability Ans: D Ans: D
3194 Which of the following descriptions best identifies the operating 3195 Which of the listed problems could produce a high absolute pressure
Ans: D Ans: A principal of a flash-type evaporator? within a flash type evaporator?
3179 In ship construction, a large number of watertight bulkheads results 3180 Regulations require fresh water tank vents terminating within the A. Sea water is heated to boiling temperature while under a vacuum. A. production of high salinity distillate
in ____________. machinery space to terminate well above the deep load line, unless
the ________. B. Sea water is passed over heated plates in a thin film. B. seawater feed temperature below 75°C
A. increased capacity to set flooding boundaries A. vents are fitted with suitable mechanical closures C. Heated sea water is injected into a vacuum chamber. C. a leak in the first stage demister
B. decreased capacity to set flooding boundaries B. tanks have no boundaries in common with the hull D. Sea water is forced through a heated eductor. D. a cracked distillate pump vent line
C. reduced compartmentation C. vents are fitted with ball float check valves or an equivalent Ans: C Ans: D
automatic closure device 3196 One advantage of a triple-effect low pressure submerged tube 3197 A salinity indicating system functions on the basic principle of
D. greater deck load capacity D. tanks are fitted with suitable pressure-vacuum relief valves distilling plant over a double-effect unit is _____________. measuring the _____________.
Ans: A Ans: B
3181 Regulations prohibit air compressors from being located in 3182 Who is responsible for completing the station bill or muster list and A. better water purity A. electrical inductance of water
____________. posting it in a visible area aboard the vessel? B. less scale formation B. electrical conductivity of water
A. a space within three meters of a cargo valve A. Chief Engineer C. less internal corrosion C. specific gravity of water
B. a space in which cargo hose is stowed B. Master D. greater evaporator efficiency D. hydrogen ion concentration of water
C. an enclosed space containing cargo piping C. PSC inspector Ans: D Ans: B
D. all of the above D. None of the above 3198 One distinct advantage of flash type evaporators, as compared to 3199 Early models of the flash-type evaporators used a separate shell-and-
Ans: D Ans: B most other evaporators, is that in a flash evaporator ________. tube heat exchanger as the air ejector condenser. More recent
3183 When a vessel is in drydock, the vessel's engineers should 3184 According to Regulations , when reach rods to tank valves pass models use a combined air ejector condenser with the
____________. through the deck, the stuffing box at this joint must be ____________.
________________. A. high temperature distillate can be recirculated to induce additional A. distilling condenser
A. examine the condition of the propeller A. grounded with bonding straps flashing
B. chip and paint all hull protection zincs B. water tight B. scale formation is not a severe problem B. salt water feed heater
C. install new docking plugs in all cofferdams C. gas tight C. cold shocking is more effective in removing scale C. distillate cooler
D. inspect the hull for hogging or sagging D. made of nylon or other nonmetallic material D. water purity is greatly increased at high capacity D. flash chamber
Ans: A Ans: C Ans: B Ans: B
3185 When installing a new independent fuel tank for the emergency 3186 How often should cargo oil pump relief valves on tank vessels to be 3200 If the supplied steam pressure to the first effect of a submerged 3201 Fluctuating pressures and temperatures in an evaporator will
lighting unit, which of the following statements must be strictly tested? tube distilling plant is allowed to fluctuate, the distiller _____________.
adhered to in accordance with Regulations? _________________.
A. The tank must be located on an open deck or in an adequately A. Prior to each cargo discharge operation. A. solenoid dump valve will trip A. eliminate most of the scale formation in the first effect
ventilated metal compartment in which the ambient temperature B. air ejector will operate erratically B. increase the heat level in all effects
never exceeds 150°F. C. water levels will automatically lower C. increase the probability of priming
B. Iron or steel tanks shall be galvanized on the interior to prevent the B. At least once each voyage. D. brine density will increase D. automatically cold shock the evaporator
formation of rust if any condensation should occur. Ans: A Ans: C
3202 The temperature of the steam flow to the saltwater feed heater, in a 3203 In a two stage flash evaporator, heated feedwater is vaporized in
C. The fuel tank should be adequately supported and braced to prevent C. At least once a year. flash type evaporator can be manipulated by a/an ____________. the _____________.
movement and insulated from the vessel's common ground to
insure against static electricity. A. pressure regulator within the supply orifice A. feed inlet box
D. All of the above. D. At each biennial inspection. B. thermally actuated bypass valve B. distiller feedwater heater
Ans: A Ans: C C. attemporator in the steam supply piping C. first and second stage flash chambers
3187 Machinery driving fuel oil transfer and fuel oil service pumps must be 3188 A cofferdam is a/an _______________. D. sensor wired in with the three-way salinity dump valve D. first and second stage vapor separators
fitted with a remote means of stopping the machinery from Ans: C Ans: C
____________. 3204 Excessive scale formation in a distilling plant may result from 3205 A vacuum is initially created in a flash type distilling plant by
A. within the space concerned A. empty space between tank tops and bilges ____________. _________.
B. outside the space concerned B. cement baffle in a fresh water tank A. poor distillate quality A. the flashing of the feed water
C. the throttle station C. tank for storing chemicals B. reduced evaporator capacity B. the condensation of the saltwater feed
D. within the fireroom D. empty space separating compartments to prevent the contents of C. low brine concentration C. air ejectors, eductors, or a separate vacuum pump
one compartment from entering another in case of leakage D. improper vacuum regulation D. condensation of the distillate
Ans: D Ans: C
Ans: B Ans: D 3206 While at sea, the flash type evaporator is discharging the output to 3207 If a flash-type evaporator was designed to operate in seawater at
3189 The outer strake of the inner bottom on each side of the ship is 3190 In a longitudinally framed ship, the longitudinal frames are held in the distill tanks. If it becomes necessary to reduce the feed water 24°C, and the current seawater temperature is 10°C, without
called the ____________. place and supported by athwartship members called temperature below 74°C, you should ____________. readjusting any valve associated with this evaporator,
________________. ___________.
A. rider plate A. stringers A. continue the current evaporator operation A. the capacity will be doubled
B. outer plate B. web frames B. dump the evaporator to the bilge B. the capacity will remain the same regardless of the seawater
C. margin plate C. pillars temperature
D. stealer plate D. brackets C. secure the evaporator until the feedwater temperature can be raised C. it will probably "trip off the line" as a result of an excessive and
Ans: C Ans: B to 74°C or more violent rate of flashing
3191 Which of the following systems, according to Regulations must D. raise the tripping point at the salinity indicating panel for the three- D. it will produce the purest and lowest salinity concentration of distillate
have an emergency stop, protected with a glass enclosure, and way valve that can be produced
located outside of the machinery space? Ans: A Ans: C
A. Main fire pump 3208 Where auxiliary steam supply is not used in the process of 3209 In the event of a power failure to the salinity panel on a flash-type
B. Fuel oil service pump maintaining vacuum in a distilling unit, the vacuum is usually evaporator, the three-way solenoid valve will _____________.
C. Main circulating/bilge injection valve attained by ________.
A. air operated air ejectors A. be frozen in its last position
D. All of the above
B. vacuum pumps B. direct distillate to the fresh water tank
Ans: B
 Page 175 Page 176

C. increasing the rate of condensation in the distiller condensers C. dump distillate to the bilge 3226 Which of the listed problems is occurring if a coil type high pressure 3227 In the last effect of a multi-effect submerged tubedistilling plant rapid
evaporator constantly requires an increase in the coil steam fluctuations of the absolutepressure tend to cause _____________.
D. a separate suction connection to the brine overboard pump D. dump distillate to the makeup feed tank pressure in order to maintain capacity?
Ans: B Ans: C A. The brine density is improper. A. scale formation with increased heat transfer
3210 The absolute pressure maintained in the shell of the salt water feed 3211 Condensate formed within the first-effect tube nest of a double- B. Heat transfer surfaces are being layered with scale. B. priming with increased salinity of distillate
heater on most flash evaporators used on steam propelled vessels effect, low pressure evaporator, is removed by a _______. C. Impure distillate is being produced. C. slight foaming at the distillate feed pump
is __________________. D. Shell vapor pressure is constantly decreasing. D. improved operating conditions at the brine pump
A. slightly less than the absolute pressure of the L.P. extraction A. series of baffles Ans: B Ans: B
B. slightly less than the supplied live steam pressure at the reducing B. crossover pipe 3228 In which of the following types of evaporators is the control of brine 3229 A multistage flash evaporator will be unable to produce consistently
valve outlet density least important? pure distillate if the __________________.
C. slightly higher than the second stage vacuum C. condensate separator A. Solo shell evaporators A. distillate cooler is dirty
D. slightly lower than the first stage vacuum D. drain pump B. Flash evaporators B. tubes of the saltwater feed heater are flooded internally
Ans: A Ans: D C. Submerged tube evaporators C. distillate meter stops
3212 Steam supply for the operation of the low pressure evaporators may 3213 The brine level in the second-stage of a flash-type evaporator is D. Basket evaporators D. vacuum is fluctuating
be obtained directly from the ________. due in part to the feed rate, the rate of evaporation in both stages, Ans: B Ans: D
and the _____________. 3230 When securing a centrifugal type distillate pump, which of the listed 3231 Rapid fluctuation of the last effect shell vacuum in a submerged
A. main steam line A. steam flow rate to the air ejectors steps should be carried out first? tube evaporator can cause _____________.
B. turbine extraction line B. float controlled level of the feed heater A. Close the pressure gage isolation valves. A. erratic air ejector operation
C. turbo-generator steam supply line C. capacity of the distillate pump B. Secure the casing vapor vent line. B. air leaks in the tube nest
D. air ejector exhaust line D. throughput of the brine overboard pump C. Secure the stuffing box sealing water line. C. rapid scaling in all effects
Ans: B Ans: D D. Trip the three way dump valve. D. priming in that effect
3214 Fluctuations in the pressure and temperature of the steam supplied 3215 A fixed orifice plate is generally installed in the live steam supply to Ans: D Ans: D
to the first-effect of a low pressure distilling plant will cause an evaporator. One of the functions of this orifice is to control the 3232 Improper waterside venting of the tube nests in a submerged tube 3233 If a higher than normal water level is observed through the
_____________. quantity of the supplied steam. A second function is to evaporator will cause a/an _____________. inspection port of a flash evaporator, you should suspect
____________. ______________.
A. increased heat levels throughout the entire unit A. reduce pressure fluctuations from occurring in the steam supply to A. fluctuating vacuum in the evaporator A. a leak in the feedwater heater
the salt water feed heater B. loss of evaporator capacity B. improper vacuum
B. decreased priming and lower distillate salinity B. produce more useful superheated supply steam C. increased vacuum in the first effect C. a malfunctioning brine pump
C. first effect scale formation to be lessened C. guarantee that the steam supply will remain desuperheated D. increased brine overboard flow rate D. a clogged desuperheater water strainer
D. pressure and temperature fluctuations in the entire unit D. produce a low salt water feed heater shell absolute pressure Ans: B Ans: C
Ans: D Ans: A 3234 Indicated high salinity of the distillate discharged from a flash-type 3235 In a flash evaporator, scale as a result of higher than normal
3216 When securing a centrifugal distillate pump, which of the listed steps 3217 A vacuum is initially established in the first and second stages of a distilling plant will be a result of ___________. temperatures is most likely to occur in the ________.
should be carried out FIRST? low pressure evaporator by the use of _________. A. maintaining the proper distilling plant heat balance A. second stage feed heater
B. carrying the brine level below normal B. saltwater feed heater
A. Stop the pump. A. vacuum drag from the auxiliary condensate system C. leaks in the demister baffles C. distillate cooler
B. Close the pressure gage valves. B. individual vacuum pumps D. venting of the saltwater heater drain pump D. second stage vapor separator
C. Trip the three-way solenoid valve. C. a single non-condensing air ejector Ans: C Ans: B
D. Close the sealing line valves to the pump. D. a two stage air ejector 3236 Irregular feeding or surging of the feedwater supply to a flash 3237 If the orifice in the loop seal of a flash evaporator were to become
Ans: C Ans: D evaporator may be attributed to ______________. significantly enlarged through erosion, the ________.
3218 The vapor separators installed in some distilling plants consist of 3219 Where a two-stage air ejector set is used in a two-stage flash
several rows of vertical hooked vanes which remove entrained evaporator, the first-stage air ejector takes suction from the second A. erratic water flow through the air eductor A. distillate produced in the second stage would flow towards the first
moisture from the vapor by _____________. stage of the evaporator, and the second stage air ejector stage
_____________. B. a clogged vent line from the air eductor condenser B. evaporator absolute pressure would eventually equalize in both
A. directing the vapor through a fine metallic mesh A. takes suction from the first stage of the evaporator stages to that of the first stage
B. condensing water droplets on the metal vanes B. takes suction from the second stage of the evaporator as well C. excessive pressure in the seawater feed heater C. evaporator absolute pressure could eventually equalize in both
stages to that of the second stage
C. trapping water droplets in the metallic mesh C. takes suction from the first stage ejector discharge D. a dirty strainer in the saltwater feed pump suction line D. salt water feed heater absolute pressure would increase to that of
D. abruptly changing the direction of vapor flow D. is normally idle and used mainly as a standby unit the evaporator second stage
Ans: D Ans: C Ans: D Ans: C
3220 When the steam leaving the control orifice of the live steam supply 3221 A flash type evaporator is designed to operate in 24°C sea water, if 3238 In a flash evaporator, heated water under pressure is converted into 3239 Which of the following statements represents the basic principle of
is not conditioned, the evaporator _____________. operated in 10°C sea water, ________. vapor by suddenly ____________. operation of an electrical salinity indicator?
A. capacity will be increased A. the absolute pressures will be slightly below the predicted design A. increasing its temperature A. Measures the hydrogen ion concentration.
absolute pressures B. increasing its velocity B. Measures the electrical resistance of the water.
B. capacity will be decreased B. absolute pressure in the evaporator stages will be higher C. decreasing its density C. Determines the conductivity of the dissolved oxygen.
C. salt water feed heater absolute pressure will decrease significantly C. the unit will operate at reduced capacity D. decreasing its pressure D. Measures the voltage of the chloride ions.
Ans: D Ans: B
D. salt water feed heater absolute pressure will increase significantly D. thermal efficiency will decrease, but brine density will increase 3240 In a double-effect submerged tube evaporator, the brine density 3241 Vapor is produced in a flash evaporator by introducing
should be prevented from falling below 1.5/32nds to minimize _______________.
Ans: B Ans: A ____________.
3222 In order to prevent salt water contamination of the distillate in a 3223 Which of the following statements describes the proper operation of A. scale formation on the tube nests A. steam through heating coils
flash-type evaporator, it is important to provide a positive seal a three-way solenoid trip valve on a flash-type evaporator? B. loss in capacity and maintain plant efficiency B. steam through cooling coils
around the _____________. C. corrosion in the evaporator C. heated water into a high pressure area
A. spray caps A. The valve must be manually reset. D. carryover in the evaporator D. heated water into a low pressure area
B. demisters B. The valve will trip if the sea water feed temperature drops below Ans: B Ans: D
79°C. 3242 A fluctuating and unsteady vacuum in an evaporator may be caused 3243 In the operation of a two-stage flash type distilling plant, the rate of
C. saltwater heater vents C. The valve is interlocked to trip only on de-energization of the by _____________. scale formation is greatly reduced by _________.
solenoid. A. wet steam entering the air ejector nozzle A. operating the unit at its rated capacity
D. steam supply orifice plate D. The valve will trip if the distillate is too warm. B. pinhole leaks in the evaporator tube nests B. maintaining a relatively high feedwater temperature
Ans: B Ans: A C. rapid scaling on the evaporator tube nests C. the fact that the first-stage regulator keeps the heater shell at a
3224 Where would a salinity cell be installed in a double-effect distilling 3225 The purpose of chill shocking an evaporator is to _________. constant pressure
plant? D. high water levels in the last effect D. the fact that no boiling occurs on heat transfer surfaces anywhere in
A. Distillate pump discharge A. prepare for a hydrostatic test the unit
B. Tube nest drain pump discharge B. stress relieve the tubes Ans: A Ans: D
C. Air ejector condensate drain C. break loose scale deposits formed on the tubes 3244 Which of the listed chemicals can be routinely used to maintain the 3245 When any low pressure distilling plant is operated at less than the
D. All of the above D. test for leaks in the tubes hygienic quality of potable water? designed vacuum, the _____________.
Ans: D Ans: C A. Hydrochloric acid A. heat level drops
 Page 177 Page 178

B. Chlorine B. capacity increases 3262 A vacuum differential is maintained in the distillate circuit between 3263 The average salinity of normal seawater, when expressed as brine
C. Sulfuric acid C. scale formation increases any two stages of a multiple stage distilling plant by the use of a/an density is equivalent to _____________.
D. Zinc chromate D. distillate purity increases ____________.
Ans: B Ans: C A. steam trap A. 1/32nd
3246 Potable water piping systems installed aboard ships must be 3247 Short cycling of the potable water pump is avoided by the proper use B. butterfly valve B. 1.5/32nds
_______. of a ________. C. loop seal C. 2/32nds
A. disinfected monthly with a chlorine compound A. hydro-pneumatic tank completely filled with compressed air at D. adjustable controller D. 3/32nds
system operating pressure Ans: C Ans: A
B. independent of all other piping systems B. hydro-pneumatic tank filled with water 3264 Salinity cells are strategically installed in distillingunits to indicate the 3265 Potable and nonpotable water systems aboard ship _________.
C. cadmium lined to prevent internal corrosion C. charge of air, at 1.4 kg/cm2 (137.9 kPa) above system pressure with ___________. I. purity of the distillate produced II. quality of the
the hydro-pneumatic tank one quarter full of water distillate produced
A. I only A. may be temporarily connected with a removable spool
D. flushed each time potable water is taken onboard D. charge of air, at system pressure, when the hydro-pneumatic tank is B. II only B. are permanently connected through a double stop valve
half full of water C. Both I and II C. may never be cross-connected by any means
Ans: B Ans: D D. Neither I nor II D. may be connected if they are used only for wash water
3248 A recirculating line is provided in the potable hot water system to 3249 Which of the following components would be necessary for the Ans: B Ans: C
__________. proper operation of a potable hot water system? 3266 Salinity cells are strategically installed in flash type distilling units to 3267 Partially clogged or scored nozzles in a two stage air ejector unit of
A. maintain uniform inlet conditions for the constant speed supply A. Circulating pump indicate the ___________. I. presence of leaks in the flash a flash distilling plant could result in a ____________.
pumps chambers II. quantity of the distillate produced
B. maintain flow rates which will eliminate fluid film formation in the B. Drift pockets A. I only A. fluctuating vacuum in the flash chamber
piping B. II only B. flooded seawater feed heater shell
C. return overflow from the pressure tanks back to the potable water C. Sterilizer C. Both I and II C. high water level in the air ejector after condenser
tanks D. Neither I nor II D. malfunctioning check valve in the air ejector discharge
D. maintain the desired temperature range throughout the system D. Hydro-pneumatic expansion tank Ans: D Ans: A
3268 In a flash-type evaporator, an electrical salinity cell would be 3269 Small droplets of water entrained in the flashed vapor produced in a
Ans: D Ans: A installed in the _____________. flash-type evaporator, are removed by the _________________.
3250 A solenoid operated distillate bypass valve is installed in the 3251 Distilled water from an evaporator may be discharged into a potable
discharge line between a distilling plant and the potable water tanks water tank _____________. A. distillate outlet from the distillate cooler A. spray pipes
to prevent ____________. B. distillate inlet to the distillate cooler B. demisters
A. excessively warm distillate from entering the potable tanks A. through a detachable hose connection C. condensate drains from the distiller feedwater heater C. condensers
B. salty distillate from reaching the potable tanks B. after passing through an activated charcoal filter D. all of the above D. splash baffles
C. overfilling and overflowing the potable tanks C. after chemical analysis shows it is fit for consumption Ans: D Ans: B
D. contaminated water from leaving the potable tanks D. through a solenoid operated three-way valve 3270 The demisters installed in a flash-type evaporator serve to 3271 In a double-effect distilling plant, the brine particles remaining
Ans: B Ans: D ____________. entrained with the vapor produced in the evaporator first effect, are
3252 Brine density in a distilling plant is measured with a/an 3253 Tube leaks in the distillate cooler of a two stage flash evaporator will separated by ____________.
_____________. result in _____________. A. deaerate the first effect distillate A. a flash chamber
A. psychrometer A. loss of second stage vacuum B. filter the condensed flash vapors B. baffles and vanes
B. salinometer B. contamination of the distillate C. deaerate the first and second effect distillate C. the vapor feed heater
C. anemometer C. lower feed inlet temperature D. remove small water droplets entrained in the flashed vapor D. a brine pump
D. sphygmomanometer D. contamination of the second stage condenser Ans: D Ans: B
Ans: B Ans: B 3272 The inability to maintain proper vacuum in a submerged tube 3273 One function of the vapor feed heater in a double-effect distilling unit
3254 In a flash type evaporator, all saltwater headers are vented through 3255 Why would a flash type distilling unit be more efficient when evaporator can be caused by _____________. is to _____________.
individual vent cocks to the _________. operated in cooler seawater temperatures? A. fluctuating steam pressure to the air ejector nozzle A. condense part of the vapor given off in the first-effect
A. saltwater heater shell A. Steam carryover between stages is reduced. B. improper venting of the evaporator tube nests B. preheat distillate circulating to the second-effect tube nest
B. second-stage condenser B. Evaporator vacuum is increased. C. air leaks in the evaporator tube nests C. cool the incoming first-effect evaporator feed
C. atmosphere C. The amount of available flash steam is decreased. D. high water level in the evaporator shell D. condense all the distillate in the second-effect tube nest
D. second-stage flash chamber D. Feedwater flow from the feedwater heater is increased. Ans: A Ans: A
Ans: C Ans: B 3274 The size of the loop seal orifice for a flash-type evaporator is 3275 The heated feedwater entering any flash chamber of a flash- type
3256 The condensers located in the various stages of a flash evaporator 3257 The steam coils in a high pressure evaporator used for saltwater important for maintaining the control of ________. evaporator will _____________.
are cooled by _____________. service should be descaled with _____________. A. the vacuum differential developed between both stages A. vaporize, with the unflashed water remaining at the temperature at
A. distillate A. a wire brush which it entered the flash chamber
B. seawater B. a needle gun B. the absolute pressure differential developed between both stages B. vaporize, with the unflashed water equalizing to the saturation
C. brine C. a chipping hammer conditions existing in the flash chamber
D. air D. soap and water C. the absolute pressure developed in the salt water feed heater shell C. vaporize, with the remaining water at a temperature greater than it
Ans: B Ans: A entered the flash chamber
3258 Scale accumulation on evaporator heating surfaces will cause 3259 If the rated distillate production of a submerged tube type evaporator D. maintaining distillate flow between the first and second stage in D. boil, allowing steam bubbles to rise through the brine at the bottom
___________. cannot be maintained with the supplied maximum steam flow rate, order to avoid dry seal operation of the loop of the flash chamber
the evaporator ______________. Ans: D Ans: B
A. immediate loss of vacuum A. chemical feed must be increased 3276 If the distillate temperature from a flash type evaporator falls below 3277 On a multistage flash-type evaporator, the flash chamber is
B. increased distillate quality B. has a serious brine leak 71°C _________. ______________.
C. immediate tube failure C. temperature switch is defective A. the distillate may be directed to the storage tanks A. combined as part of the salt water feed heater
D. reduced evaporator capacity D. heating surfaces are scaled B. the automatic three-way solenoid dump valve should direct distillate B. the open area above the brine levels in the first and second stages
Ans: D Ans: D to the bilge
3260 The first stage feedwater temperature and shell absolute pressure in 3261 In a two stage flash evaporator, operating conditions in the second C. the demisters will become scaled C. combined as part of the distillate cooler
a multistage flash evaporator is _____________. stage, as compared to the first stage, are _________. D. priming will occur in the first-effect D. another term used to describe the vapor feed heater
Ans: A Ans: B
A. equal to the second stage feedwater temperature and shell absolute A. higher temperature and higher absolute pressure 3278 Which of the listed conditions will cause the feedwater, that has not 3279 When a flash evaporator is being operated in extremely cold water,
pressure flashed to vapor in the first-stage of a flash evaporator, to flow into you may need to throttle the seawater supply to ________.
B. higher than the second stage feedwater temperature and shell B. higher temperature and lower absolute pressure the second-stage?
absolute pressure A. Gravity siphon effect A. prevent cold shocking the evaporator
C. lower than the feedwater temperature and shell absolute pressure C. lower temperature and higher absolute pressure B. Higher vacuum in the second-stage B. maintain the feedwater temperature above the required minimum
in the second stage input temperature
D. higher than the second stage feedwater temperature but at a lower D. lower temperature and lower absolute pressure C. Difference in brine density between first and second stages C. avoid flooding the evaporator shell
shell absolute pressure D. Lower pressure in first-stage D. increase the evaporator distilling rate
Ans: B Ans: D Ans: B Ans: B
 Page 179 Page 180

3280 The final heating of the feedwater in a flash type distilling plant is 3281 Scale accumulation on evaporator heat exchange surfaces 3298 When securing a flash-type evaporator for an extended period of 3299 The steam coils in a high pressure evaporator used for saltwater
carried out by _______________________. ______________. time, you should _____________. service should be descaled with _____________.
A. low pressure steam admitted to the feedwater heater A. increases brine density A. fill the unit with saltwater A. a needle gun
B. heat exchange in the first-stage feedbox B. increases distillate salinity B. fill the unit with descaling compound B. soap and water
C. vaporization in the first-stage flash chamber C. reduces metal corrosion C. completely drain the unit C. a wirebrush
D. heat exchange in each stage distiller condenser D. reduces heat transfer D. tightly seal the unit to exclude air D. a chipping hammer
Ans: A Ans: D Ans: C Ans: C
3282 The efficiency of a flash type evaporator can be increased by 3283 In a two-stage flash evaporator, the sea water feed temperature is 3300 The rate of scale formation in a flash type distilling plant is greatly 3301 Feedwater supplied to a flash type distilling plant will flash to vapor
_________. increased as it passes through the _________. reduced by _____________. in the first-stage due to the flash chamber _________________.

A. lowering brine discharge density A. first-stage distilling condenser A. operating the unit at its rated capacity A. pressure being lower than the saturation pressure corresponding to
B. decreasing the absolute pressure of each stage B. second-stage distilling condenser the feedwater temperature
C. increasing the saltwater feed heater temperature C. salt water feed heater B. maintaining a relatively high feedwater temperature B. temperature being higher than the evaporation temperature of the
D. increasing the pressure at the spray pipe D. all of the above supplied feedwater
Ans: B Ans: D C. water flashing into vapor rather than boiling on the heat transfer C. heat exchange surfaces being directly in the path of the entering
3284 In the operation of a flash type evaporator equipped with air ejectors, 3285 The quantity and density of brine discharged from the last effect of surfaces feedwater
the air and noncondensable gases are evacuated directly from the the distilling plant should be as constant as possible to D. operating the first-stage regulator to maintain a constant shell D. orifices finely atomizing the heated feedwater entering the flash
_____________. ________________. pressure chamber
A. first stage flash chamber A. prevent scale accumulation on heat exchange surfaces Ans: C Ans: A
B. second stage flash chamber B. maintain a constant distillate outlet temperature 3302 An excessively high brine level in a flash evaporator can be caused 3303 A constant pressure range is maintained in the potable water system
C. first stage after condenser C. ensure distillate quality and distilling plant efficiency by ___________. of many vessels by using ________.
D. second stage distilling condenser D. prevent any salinity in the distillate produced A. excessive brine pump motor speed A. constant speed supply pumps
Ans: D Ans: C B. an excessive brine blowdown rate B. variable speed supply pumps
3286 Less scale formation occurs in a flash evaporator than in a 3287 In a flash type evaporator, the brine overboard pump is vented C. failure of the brine pump C. an air cushion in the hydro-pneumatic tank
submerged tube evaporator because ____________. directly to the ______________. D. excessive distillate pump speed D. a pressure regulator in the pressure tank discharge piping
A. the distillate produced has greater purity A. saltwater heater shell Ans: C Ans: C
B. no boiling occurs on heat transfer surfaces B. first stage distilling condenser 3304 If the distilling plant first stage absolute pressure is higher than 3305 Salinity cells are strategically installed in distillingunits to indicate the
C. evaporation occurs at a higher rate C. second stage flash chamber normal, while the second stage absolutepressure remains ___________. I. location of a saltwater leak II. size of the leak
D. the incoming feed is at a higher temperature D. air ejector condenser satisfactory, the probable fault is due to________.
Ans: B Ans: C A. loss of the distillate loop seal between the stages A. I only
3288 The thickest deposit of scale in a flash evaporator is mostlikely to 3289 The advantages of flash type evaporators, as compared to B. priming in the second stage B. II only
occur in the tubes of the ____________. submerged tube type evaporators, include _____________. C. failure of the brine pump C. Both I and II
A. distillate cooler A. less internal corrosion because of lower brine density D. an air leak through a vacuum gage line in the first stage D. Neither I nor II
B. first stage condenser B. higher temperature evaporation for lower salinity of the distillate Ans: D Ans: A
produced 3306 An automatic solenoid dump valve should be set to trip if the 3307 In the operation of a two-stage flash-type distilling plant, which of the
C. saltwater feed heater C. less scale formation in a flash evaporator evaporator produces distillate with salt content exceeding pumps listed should be vented to the second stage shell in order to
D. flash chamber D. less feedwater required for a flash evaporator ___________. remove vapors from the pump suction?
Ans: C Ans: C A. 1ppm A. Condenser circulating water pump
3290 In a two stage flash distilling plant, which of the pumps listed is 3291 Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause water B. 5ppm B. Feedwater heater drain pump
vented to the shell of the second stage in order to remove vapor hammer in the potable water system? C. 50ppm C. Distillate pump
from the pump suction? D. 1000ppm D. Air ejector condenser drain pump
A. Condenser circulating water pump A. The hydro-pneumatic tank being properly charged. Ans: D Ans: C
B. Feedwater heater drain pump B. The starting of the potable water pump. 3308 If a hole were to form in the division plate between stages of a flash 3309 If a hole were to form in the division plate between stages of a flash
C. Distillate pump C. A low water level in the potable water storage tank. type evaporator _________. I. vaporization of the feed water would type evaporator _________. I. vaporization of the feed water would
D. Air ejector condenser drain pump D. Rapid closing of a spring closed basin faucet. continue at second stage designed saturation conditions II. all of continue II. efficiency of the unit would only be moderately affected
Ans: C Ans: D the distillate produced would be certain to b
3292 Why will a two stage flash type distilling plant tend to operate more 3293 Which of the following statements represents an advantage of a
efficiently when operating in cold seawater? triple-effect submerged tube evaporator compared to a single-effect A. I only A. I only
submerged tube evaporator? B. II only B. II only
A. The colder seawater passing through the condenser tube bundles A. Greater purity of distillate C. Both I and II C. Both I and II
of the various stages increases evaporator vacuum. D. Neither I nor II D. Neither I nor II
B. The amount of heated feedwater discharged from the feedwater B. Lower consumption of steam per pound of distillate produced Ans: A Ans: A
heater aftercondenser is increased. 3310 Priming in a submerged tube evaporator can be caused by high 3311 Carryover in a flash type distilling plant can be a result of
C. Fewer noncondensable gases are created by the flow of colder C. Less scale formation water level and _____________. ___________.
seawater. A. low brine density A. faulty operation of the brine overboard pump
D. More seawater is allowed to pass through the first stage overflow D. Less complex to maintain and operate B. low steam temperature B. a pressure drop through the loop seal
weir. C. high absolute pressure C. high distillate conductivity
Ans: A Ans: B D. excessive brine density D. low distillate conductivity
3294 One advantage of a flash distilling plant when compared to a 3295 Potable and non-potable water systems aboard vessel ______. Ans: D Ans: A
submerged tube distiller is _____________. 3312 Evaporator priming can be caused by high water level, fluctuating 3313 When a flash-type evaporator is to be secured for an extended
A. greater distillate purity through high temperature evaporation A. may be temporarily interconnected with a removable spool steam pressure, or ____________. period of time, the entire unit should be drained, cleaned, and
B. cold shocking for scale removal is not required B. are permanently interconnected through a double stop valve ____________.
C. less internal corrosion because of lower brine density C. may never be interconnected by any means A. fluctuating shell vacuum A. completely filled with saltwater
D. less feedwater is required for equal plant capacity D. may be connected if they are used only for wash water B. low brine density B. filled with descaling compound
Ans: B Ans: C C. low feed temperature C. tightly closed to exclude air
3296 Which of the following statements is correct relative to distillation 3297 Air leaking into a flash type distilling plant could occur through D. a brine overflow weir set too low D. vented to the atmosphere
plant operation? ___________. Ans: A Ans: D
A. Distillation is the process of boiling seawater to produce vapor which A. gasketed joints 3314 Which of the following statements is true concerning any 3315 A salinity indicator is used to determine the _____________.
is condensed into fresh water. evaporator?
B. Evaporation is the second part of the distillation process where brine B. valve stems A. High conductivity of the distillate indicates distillate salinity is A. cause of salt contamination
is removed. excessive.
C. Brine is the result of condensed sea water vapor. C. gage glass packing B. Increasing the absolute pressure of the shell will increase the B. location of salt water contamination
D. Distillate is the product resulting from the evaporation of fresh water D. all of the above distiller's capacity.
vapor. C. Mesh separators are used in evaporators to filter the distillate. C. chemical makeup of feedwater
Ans: A Ans: D
 Page 181 Page 182

D. Reducing the brine density will reduce the heat lost overboard. D. level of alkalinity in condensate 3332 Early models of the flash-type evaporators used a pump to drain 3333 Scale formation in a flash-type evaporator is usually found on the
condensate from the salt water feed heater. In more recent models ___________.
Ans: A Ans: B this is commonly carried out by ___________.
3316 In the production of freshwater from seawater through a process of 3317 A three-way solenoid operated dump valve installed on a flash-type A. the continued use of a drain pump A. flash chamber walls
heating and cooling, the cooling phase of production is usually evaporator unit, will divert impure distillate to the bilge _________. B. gravitating the condensate to the atmospheric drain tank B. tubes of the salt water feed heater
called _____________. C. vacuum drag to the auxiliary or main condenser C. tubes of the air ejector condenser
A. evaporation A. only if the cell selector switch is positioned to monitor the first stage D. the use of a loop seal to the combined low pressure feed heater D. tubes of the distiller condenser
distillate outlet
B. distillation B. only if the cell selector switch is positioned to monitor the final stage Ans: C Ans: A
distillate outlet 3334 The vacuum maintained in the salt water feed heater shell of a flash- 3335 Under normal operating conditions, the highest temperature and
C. dehydration C. regardless of the cell selector switch position type evaporator is generally accomplished by ____________. pressure conditions existing in a flash-type evaporator will occur in
D. condensation D. only if power to the salinity panel is interrupted the _______________.
Ans: D Ans: C A. a separate air ejector unit A. first stage
3318 The process of boiling seawater in order to separate it into 3319 The mesh type steam separators located in a two-stage flash B. a direct unimpeded connection between second stage and salt water B. second stage
freshwater vapor and brine is usually defined as __________. distilling plant, function to _____________. feed heater
C. either by vacuum drag or an external line from the first stage via a C. distillate cooler
A. dehydration A. vent noncondensable gases fixed orifice
B. condensation B. recycle evaporator flash steam D. the fixed orifice provided in the steam supply line D. salt water feed heater
C. evaporation C. reheat the flash steam Ans: C Ans: D
D. dissolution D. improve distillate purity 3336 In a flash distilling unit, evaporator feed (seawater) first absorbs heat 3337 In a two-stage flash-type evaporator, excess brine in the first stage
Ans: C Ans: D in the ___________. automatically passes _____________.
3320 In a two-stage flash-type distilling plant, the mesh-type vapor 3321 In a double-effect distilling plant, the evaporator feed remaining A. vapor feed heater A. directly to the second stage feed heater
separators function to __________________. entrained in the first-effect vapor, is removed by B. air ejector condenser B. directly overboard through the brine cooler
__________________. C. saltwater heater C. into the second stage flash chamber
A. improve distillate purity A. baffles and vanes D. distillate cooler D. into the second stage vapor condenser
B. vent noncondensable gases B. a flash chamber Ans: D Ans: C
C. recycle evaporator flash steam C. the second effect separator 3338 The second stage feedwater temperature and shell absolute 3339 Rapid fluctuations in the shell pressure in a submerged tube distilling
D. direct flash steam into the cooler D. the vapor feed heater pressure in a multistage, flash type, distilling plant is unit will cause ___________.
Ans: A Ans: A _____________.
3322 The quantity of heating steam supplied to the feedwater heater of a 3323 In a flash type distilling plant, a screen is fitted over the suction A. higher than the first stage feedwater temperature and absolute shell A. increased heat levels in the entire unit
two-stage flash type distilling plant is held relatively constant by a/an connection to the brine overboard pump in order to prevent pressure
__________. ______________. B. lower than the first stage feedwater temperature and absolute shell B. decreased priming and high salinity distillate
A. orifice plate A. the pump from cavitating pressure
B. attemporator B. excessively large salt crystals from damaging the pump C. the same as the first stage feedwater temperature and absolute C. first effect scale formation to be reduced
C. back pressure regulator C. scale from passing into the brine pump and clogging impeller shell pressure
passages D. not related to the feedwater temperature and absolute shell pressure D. priming in the last effect shell
D. first-stage bypass valve D. electrolysis from occurring in the pump
Ans: A Ans: C Ans: B Ans: D
3324 An unsteady vacuum in a submerged tube evaporator may be 3325 On which of the following heated surfaces of a flash type evaporator 3340 Short cycling of the potable water system's pump is prevented by 3341 When any low pressure distilling plant is operated with less than the
caused by _____________. would you be more likely to find soft scale formation? using ________. designed vacuum, the _____________.
A. constant speed supply pumps A. heat level rises
A. air leaks in the tube nests A. Feedwater heater internal tube surfaces. B. variable speed supply pumps B. heat level drops
B. improper venting of the tube nests B. Internal distillate cooler tubes. C. variable delivery supply pumps C. capacity increases
C. inadequate steam quality to the air ejector nozzles C. Flash chamber vertical surfaces. D. a hydropneumatic pressure tank D. scale formation decreases
D. high water level in the shell D. Distilling condenser tubes. Ans: D Ans: A
Ans: C Ans: A 3342 A flash type distilling plant is more efficient than a high pressure 3343 The primary reason low pressure evaporators produce distillate
3326 Why is a self-sealing pump generally not satisfactory for service as a 3327 Steam passing through the control orifice installed in the live steam evaporator as _________. I. vaporization of the feed water occurs more efficiently, and with less scale formation, than high pressure
brine overboard pump? supply to a low pressure evaporator will develop significant in a vacuum II. boiling of feed water occurs only once on the tube evaporators is ____________.
superheat as a result of _____________. surfaces
A. Hot brine tends to form scale on the impeller peripheral edge. A. attemporating conditioning A. I only A. evaporation is accomplished in a vacuum
B. Brine density at 1.5/32 cannot be maintained. B. ebullient conditioning B. II only B. due to the higher temperature of the incoming feed
C. Hot concentrated brine tends to flash, leaving scale deposits to clog C. adiabatic conditioning C. Both I and II C. due to the latent heat of evaporation principle
the sealing line and gland seal ring. D. Neither I nor II D. evaporation in a submerged medium produces more distillate
D. Hot brine tends to clog the brine pump suction line strainer. D. effervescent conditioning Ans: A Ans: A
Ans: C Ans: C 3344 If the brine level of a double effect soloshell evaporator is above the
3328 For optimum noncondensable gas removal from a low pressure 3329 The purpose of a three-way, solenoid, dump valve on an evaporator sight glass, which action should be taken?
evaporator, the air ejector suction is usually taken directly from is to ___________. A. Do nothing as this is the normal operating level.
_____________. B. The feed rate should be reduced and the brine discharge valve
A. the salt water feed heater shell A. prevent excessively saline distillate from entering the freshwater opened slightly.
system C. The brine overflow weir should be raised to allow greater outflow.
B. anywhere on the second stage shell of the evaporator B. drain the evaporator first-effect only
C. the shell of the first stage distilling condenser C. drain the evaporator second-effect only D. The brine section should be drained down a minimum of 150mm
D. the shell of the second stage distilling condenser D. allow the evaporator's first- and second-effects to be drained with below the seawater heater bundle.
one valve Ans: B
Ans: D Ans: A PIPES AND VALVES
3330 The purpose of the flash chamber in a soloshell double effect 3331 A solenoid-operated distillate three-way valve is installedin the 3345 The use of a needle valve in a piping system is recommended when 3346 The designation "schedule 80 extra strong " refers to
distilling unit is to _____________. discharge line between the distilling plant and the potable water requiring _____________. ____________.
tanks. This valve will trip and dump the distillate discharge if the A. high pressure drops A. weight of steel plate
_____________.
B. close regulation of flow B. tensile strength of bolts
A. raise the temperature of the evaporator feedwater A. distillate salinity is excessive C. no pressure drops C. piping wall thickness
B. prevent flashing at the suction of the brine pump B. distillate temperature is excessive D. no back flow D. tubing bursting strength
C. allow steam expansion within the first effect tube nest C. potable water tank has been filled with raw water Ans: B Ans: C
D. collect and combine distillate formed at different pressures D. potable water tank has become contaminated 3347 Piping cross-sections ranging from 3mm to 300mm in diameter, are 3348 On tankers using manually operated tank valves, the deck hand
Ans: D Ans: A sized by ____________. wheel indicator registers the ____________.
A. wall strength A. exact lift position of the tank valve disk, through 100% of its
operation
 Page 183 Page 184

B. nominal inside diameter B. oxygen content of the tank C. open position C. use where alignment is critical
C. outside diameter C. approximate number of turns the tank valve has been opened D. direction of the flow D. packing valves with badly grooved stems
D. threaded diameter D. level of oil in the tank Ans: D Ans: A
Ans: B Ans: C 3369 When assembling a run of liquid service piping, which of the 3370 Before disconnecting a joint in a pipeline, you should
3349 Which of the following descriptions could be applied to short lengths 3350 Fittings used to close the ends of pipe are called "pipe following factors should be considered? ________________.
of pipe called nipples? _____________". A. How the type of fittings used will affect the flow. A. determine the size of the gasket
A. Fully threaded, half threaded, long, and short A. caps B. What type of gasket material should be used. B. hang a bucket under the joint
B. Close, short, long, and tank B. ells C. What radius should be used for each bend in the run. C. have a first aid kit on hand
C. Standard, extra-strong, double extra-strong, and schedule 80 C. tees D. All of the above. D. be sure no pressure exists in the line
Ans: D Ans: D
D. Cast, wrought, stainless, and brass D. closures 3371 Small leaks in gaskets should be stopped immediately after 3372 The seat of a butterfly valve will most likely be constructed of
Ans: B Ans: A installation because _____________. _____________.
3351 Which of the valves listed will be cycled from fully open to fully 3352 The valve best suited for throttling gas or liquid flow in a pipeline is A. the leak will probably worsen in time A. Monel
closed when the handle is turned 90°? the _____________. B. the gasket may not seal itself for several hours B. stellite
A. A rising stem gate valve A. gate valve C. the leak will result in severe flange distortion C. a resilient material
B. A globe stop valve B. globe valve D. small leaks cause the pipeline to creep D. admiralty metal
C. A check valve C. check valve Ans: A Ans: C
D. A butterfly valve D. plug cock 3373 An inverted gate valve (stem pointing downward) may be subject to 3374 On vessels using reach rods to manually control the tank valves,
Ans: D Ans: B wear sooner than a similar valve installed in the upright position one turn of the handwheel on deck will produce how many turns of
3353 As routine maintenance, the bilge manifold valves are periodically 3354 On tank vessels equipped with power operated cargo tank valves, because ______________. the valve stem at the valve?
removed and examined. Prior to resecuring the valve bonnets, the the type of power operator most commonly used is A. the gate's full weight is upon the stem A. One-fourth of a turn
valve _____________. ______________________. B. the gland stud nuts are under more pressure B. One-half of a turn
A. disks and seats should be checked and lapped if necessary A. hydraulic C. sediment collects in the bonnet C. Three-fourths of a turn
B. bonnet flange gaskets should be renewed if they were cut or torn B. electric D. the packing will not properly adhere to the stem D. One turn
Ans: C Ans: D
C. stem packing should be renewed if the packing has hardened C. steam 3375 The best gasket material to use in cargo fuel oil lines is 3376 The threaded pipe fitting called "street elbows" have
_____________________. _______________.
D. all of the above D. diesel A. sheet asbestos A. male threads only
Ans: D Ans: A B. oil-resistant sheet packing B. female threads only
3355 A gate valve installed in a piping system should be used 3356 Compared to globe and angle valves, gate valves ___________. C. cork sheet packing C. male and female threads
_______________. D. unvulcanized packing D. interrupted threads on each end
A. in either fully closed or fully opened positions A. are more suitable for throttling Ans: B Ans: C
B. only with the stem facing down B. operate with little or no pressure drop when fully opened 3377 Gate valves should not be used for throttling as __________. 3378 A pipe coupling is a fitting having ______________.
C. only for lube oil service C. are more easily repaired A. the pressure drop will be excessive A. outside threads on one end and inside threads on one end
D. to throttle the flow of liquid D. cannot be used for service requiring infrequent operation B. air binding will develop B. outside threads on both ends
Ans: A Ans: B C. the installation of an equalizing line will be necessary C. a left-hand twist
3357 Which of the listed materials have been used to manufacture piping 3358 Which of the problems listed could happen if you attempted to force D. wire drawing of the disc will result D. inside threads on both ends
available in standard weight, extra strong, and double extra strong open a valve "frozen" in position by using a wrench on the Ans: D Ans: D
wall thickness? handwheel? 3379 Which of the fittings listed should be used for the installation of 3380 Which of the gasket materials and/or types listed is typically used on
A. Plastic A. Bending of the bonnet assembly piping to permit removal of the pump for servicing? high pressure steam flange joints?
B. Copper B. Bending of the valve stem A. Coupling A. Spiral wound composition asbestos
C. Iron C. Damage to the pressure seal B. Union B. Wire-impregnated sheet asbestos
D. All of the above D. Distortion of the valve body C. Quick disconnect C. Rubber
Ans: C Ans: B D. Nipple D. Wire-impregnated rubber
3359 If used for regulating fluid flow through a piping system, which of the 3360 Which of the valves listed below is best suited for throttling Ans: B Ans: A
valves listed could be damaged? service? 3381 Which of the following statements represents the proper relative 3382 Which of the following statements is correct regarding grades of
A. Plug valve A. Plug direction of flow through a globe valve? pipe?
B. Globe valve B. Globe A. Direction of flow through the valve is unimportant. A. Stainless steel pipe is manufactured in four general grades.
C. Gate valve C. Gate B. Direction of flow through the valve depends upon the type of seat B. The term "extra strong" is normally associated with schedule 160
D. Needle valve D. Butterfly design used in the valve. steel pipe.
Ans: C Ans: B C. Direction of flow should be from below the seat. C. Copper pipe is manufactured in two common grades.
3361 When pipe is properly screwed into a tapped hole, it will give the 3362 Piping cross-sections over 300mm in diameter are sized by the D. Direction of flow should be from above the seat. D. Brass pipe is manufactured in three common grades.
correct fit when ______________. __________. Ans: C Ans: C
A. the pipe cannot be turned A. inside diameter 3383 One revolution at the handwheel of a reach rod operated valve will 3384 Gate valves should not be used for throttling as __________.
B. all the threads are covered B. wall thickness cause the valve stem to rotate ____________.
C. half of the threads are covered C. outside diameter A. one-fourth of a turn A. the pressure drop will be excessive
D. all but two or three threads are covered D. threaded diameter B. one-half of a turn B. air binding will develop
Ans: D Ans: C C. three-fourths of a turn C. the installation of an equalizing line will be necessary
3363 Excessive leakage and premature failure of valve packing is a result 3364 Which of the pipe materials listed has the best resistance to internal D. one turn D. wire drawing of the disc will result
of ____________. and external corrosion? Ans: D Ans: D
A. opening a valve too quickly A. cast iron pipe 3385 Which of the valves listed below permits flow in only one direction? 3386 Allowances may be made for the expansion and contraction in piping
B. jamming a valve in the closed position B. cast steel pipe by the use of expansion joints or _____________.
C. low pressure fluid flow through the pipeline C. spiral welded pipe A. Gate valve A. unions
D. a scored valve stem D. centrifugally cast pipe B. Globe valve B. retractable flanges
Ans: D Ans: A C. Check valve C. union bulkhead fittings
3365 To connect two lengths of pipe previously set in place, you should 3366 When in the completely opened position, which of the listed types of D. Plug cock D. bends or loops in the line
use a pipe _____________. valve will offer the least resistance to flow? Ans: C Ans: D
A. nipple A. gate valve 3387 On tankers with manually operated tank valves, the type of valve 3388 Valves used in the machinery space piping systems, and
B. union B. globe valve most commonly used is the _____________. constructed with threaded valve stems, must be ___________.
C. coupling C. double-seat poppet valve
D. tee D. reed valve A. butterfly valve A. right-hand opening (clockwise)
Ans: B Ans: A B. globe valve B. left-hand closing (counterclockwise)
3367 An arrow stamped on the valve body of a water regulating valve 3368 Fabric type packing, such as flax or hemp, is best suited for C. gate valve C. right-hand closing (clockwise)
indicates the ______________. _____________. D. check valve D. direction of opening and closing is unimportant
A. direction of the plunger slide A. low temperature use Ans: C Ans: C
B. closed position B. high temperature use
 Page 185 Page 186

3389 The movement of steam piping, as a result of changes in 3390 Which of the problems listed could happen if you attempted to force 3407 Which of the flange types listed identifies the construction of a pipe 3408 Regulations require all power-operated valves, other than those
temperature, is compensated for by the use of _____________. open a valve "frozen" in position by using a wrench on the joint where a flange is slipped over a length of pipe, the pipe end is opened against spring force, to have an energy storage system.
handwheel? heated, then setup (flanged) in a special machine, and then the end That energy storage system shall be capable of ____________.
A. expansion joints A. Over compression of the packing of the pipe is machined to form the actual f
B. flexitallic gaskets B. Bending of the valve stem
C. rigid brackets C. Rapid corrosion of the valve disc A. Raised face flange A. cross connection to an alternate power supply
D. union rings D. Cracking of gaskets upstream of the valve B. Socket joint B. cycling all connected valves once
Ans: A Ans: B C. Walseal joint C. operating any valve independently
3391 Which of the valves listed should be used either in the fully opened 3392 Before making up a flanged joint, you should _____________. D. Lap joint (van stone) flange D. closing the boiler quick-closing fuel valves
or the fully closed position? Ans: D Ans: B
A. a gate valve A. be certain that the flanges line up squarely 3409 On tank vessels, which of the listed valve types is most commonly 3410 Which of the problems listed represents the major difficulty
B. a globe valve B. cut grooves in the flange face with a chisel used in conjunction with hydraulically actuated controls? encountered with thermal expansion valve operation?
C. any check valve C. heat the pipeline to expand the bolt holes
D. any needle valve D. have a second spare gasket on hand A. gate valve A. Lube oil passing through the system.
Ans: A Ans: A B. globe valve B. Moisture or foreign matter collecting at the valve seat and orifice.
3393 Joints in pipelines must be properly aligned before they are 3394 The valve which is most suited for regulating the flow through a
connected because ______________. pipeline is a _____________. C. butterfly valve C. Variable spring tension caused by the changing temperature.
A. excessive strain on the joints will result if they are misaligned A. gate valve D. nonreturn valve D. Frost on the liquid line.
Ans: C Ans: B
B. misalignment permits excessive expansion B. globe valve 3411 When replacing a gasket in a six-bolt flanged joint, in what order 3412 A non-rising stem gate valve should _____________.
C. the pipe will be completely blocked by even the slightest amount of C. swing-check valve should the bolts be tightened?
misalignment A. Each bolt should be installed and tightened in consecutive order in A. be completely opened with the handwheel locked hard at the end of
D. condensate accumulates rapidly when flanges are not properly D. plug-cock valve the clockwise direction. the last opening turn
aligned B. Each bolt should be installed and tightened in consecutive order in B. be opened to the end of the last opening turn, then rotate the
Ans: A Ans: B the counterclockwise direction. handwheel in the closing direction by approximately 1/4 of a turn
3395 Which of the following conditions can develop if a valve with a badly 3396 If you were uncertain as to what type of gasket material to install in a
scored valve stem is repacked? pipeline, you should ____________. C. Install and tighten bolts 1, 3, 4, 2, 5, and 6, in that order. C. be opened by 1/2 of the total number of turns available from full
A. The valve disk will crack. A. turn the old gasket over and install it again closed to full open
B. Leaking and premature failure of the packing. B. check the ship's plans or manufacturer's instructions D. Install and tighten bolts in pairs which are opposite each other in the D. be opened as much as needed, regardless of how little the gate has
C. The valve disk will become eroded. C. leave the old gasket in and cover it with Permatex® flange (1-4, 2-5, and 3-6). been moved from its seat
D. The valve seat will sustain damage due to fretting. D. make up the joint without a gasket until you can check with the chief Ans: D Ans: B
STEERING
Ans: B Ans: B 3413 The action necessary to transfer the steering control from the 3414 As the designated rudder angle is being achieved, as a result of the
3397 Tubing is sized by _______________________. 3398 A swing check valve is used in a pipeline to _____________. wheelhouse to local control in order to use the steering gear room original command input, the steering gear follow-up mechanism is
A. allowed working pressure A. maintain a preset pressure on the line trick wheel, is to _____________. ____________.
B. cross-section area B. closely regulate the amount of flow A. align the trick wheel to the rudder angle position A. in motion, providing a null input
C. nominal inside diameter C. relieve excessive pressure on the line B. set the six-way control valve in the trick wheel position B. not in motion, thus providing a null input
D. nominal outside diameter D. allow flow in one direction only C. open the power transfer switch before engaging the trick wheel C. in motion, providing an input to place the main pump on maximum
Ans: D Ans: D stroke
3399 Gate valves should not be used for throttling as __________. 3400 Piping is sized by its nominal _________________. D. always place the rudder in the midship position to engage the trick D. in motion, providing an input to place the main pump at null stroke
A. the pressure drop will be excessive A. inside diameter regardless of other parameters wheel
B. air binding will develop B. outside diameter regardless of other parameters Ans: A Ans: D
C. the installation of an equalizing line will be necessary C. inside diameter from 3mm to 300mm, and over 300mm by its outside 3415 If one hydraulic pump of an electro-hydraulic steering unit fails, the 3416 When there is no movement of the rams on an electro-hydraulic
diameter vessel's steering can be initially and best maintained by using the steering gear, the tilting box of the running pump is _____________.
D. cutting of the disc will result D. inside diameter from 3mm to 600mm, and over 600mm by its outside _____________.
diameter A. trick wheel A. set for maximum torque
Ans: D Ans: C B. accumulator B. on the purge and vent stroke
3401 A gate valve installed in a pipeline should be ____________. 3402 A "close nipple" is a piece of pipe that is _____________. C. standby pump C. in the neutral position
A. used in either the fully closed or fully opened position A. less than 12mm long D. telemotor D. rotating backwards
B. installed with the stem down B. threaded along the entire length Ans: C Ans: C
C. used for steam service only C. shorter than the nipple outside diameter 3417 When the helm demands a 20‚ right rudder movement from an 3418 In an electro-hydraulic steering system, rudder movement is
D. used to throttle or regulate the flow of liquid D. thread only on one end electro-hydraulic steering gear, which of the listed actions will be the maintained in close synchronization with the steering wheel position
Ans: A Ans: B FIRST action to happen when this rudder position is attained? by means of the _____________.
3403 On tankers using hydraulic tank valve actuation, which of the listed 3404 An electric motor driven (torque producing) remotely controlled,
valve types has the highest tendency to develop leaks relative to the valve actuator is installed on the high sea suction with the "red" A. The six-way valve opens. A. trickwheel
valve, and results in more frequent maintenance? indicator light illuminated. When the "open" push button is B. The steering service pump motor is stopped. B. follow-up control
depressed, the "green" indicator light comes on momentarily an C. The follow-up gear takes the pump off stroke. C. six-way valve
D. The cylinder relief valves bypass oil to the suction side of the pump. D. Rapson slide
A. Gate valves A. Alternately depress the "close" and "open" buttons to get the valve
open. Ans: C Ans: B
B. Butterfly valves B. Manually engage the actuator handwheel and "break" the valve disk 3419 Which of the devices listed, when used on an electro-hydraulic 3420 Your vessel is departing at 1800 hours on a voyage of more than 48
from its seat, then push the "open" button. steering gear, keeps the movement of the rudder closely in step with hours duration. Regulations require that the steering gear be
C. Globe valves C. Secure power, tag out system and make repairs because the valve the steering wheel? examined and tested no earlier than ____________.
stem has sheared. A. The follow-up gear A. 0600 hours
D. Check valves D. Secure the breaker to this device, then switch the motor leads and B. The rudder angle indicator B. 0900 hours
push the "open" button. C. The synchronous electric transmitter C. 1200 hours
Ans: B Ans: B D. A rudder angle limit switch D. 1500 hours
3405 The handle of a butterfly valve must be ___________________. 3406 Which of the following statements concerning butterfly valves is Ans: A Ans: A
correct? 3421 The follow-up gear on an electro-hydraulic steering gear 3422 Which of the following statements concerning the operation of a
A. parallel to the axis of flow when the valve is closed A. Special tools are required for lapping or grinding. ____________. single-acting hydraulic ram is correct?
B. forty-five degrees to the axis of flow when the valve is fully open B. The butterfly valve should never be used in a freshwater system. A. relieves excessive fluid pressure. A. Hydraulic force is applied simultaneously in two directions against
the ram by directional ports.
C. either at 0° or 90° but never at any other angle regardless of flow C. To close the valve, it is only necessary to turn the handle a quarter B. takes the pump off stroke when the desired rudder angle is attained. B. The single-acting ram is both extended and retracted by means of
rate of a turn. hydraulic force.
D. parallel to the flow when in the fully open position D. It is impossible to throttle flow with a butterfly valve. C. allows for rudder movement faster than the movement of the ship's C. The single-acting ram is not retracted by means of hydraulic force.
Ans: D Ans: C wheel.
 Page 187 Page 188

D. returns the rudder to amidships when the wheel is released. D. Hydraulic force applied to a single-acting ram results in a pulling D. Jamming of the follow-up device D. jam against the rudder emergency stops
motion. Ans: A Ans: B
Ans: B Ans: C 3441 Regulations require that an indicatinglight, located at the propulsion 3442 A vertical shaft having a rudder attached to its lower end and having
3423 Which of the following types of hydraulic pumps would be used in a 3424 When air becomes trapped in the hydraulic fluid of a steering control station, beilluminated if there is an overload that would a yoke, quadrant, or tiller fitted to its upper portion by which it may
steering system? system, the _____________. causeoverheating of the _________. be turned, is the _________________.
A. Lobe A. rudder will respond sluggishly A. forced draft blower motor A. rudder frame
B. Screw B. hydraulic rams will overspeed B. fuel pump motor B. rudder post
C. Radial piston C. sight glass will show bubbles C. steering gear motor C. rudder stock
D. Volute D. ram relief valves will lift D. condensate pump motor D. stern post
Ans: C Ans: A Ans: C Ans: C
3425 Air trapped in the hydraulic fluid of a steering system should be 3426 While inspecting the steering system at sea, you should check for 3443 Dual electro-hydraulic steering units usually operate 3444 Under normal operating conditions, the rudder is hydraulically
indicated by ____________. _____________. _____________. locked unless _____________.
A. the pump overspeeding A. air bubbles in the sight glass A. with both pumps on line at the same time A. the manual trick wheel is engaged for steering
B. an improper rudder response B. any leaks in the system B. with one pump on standby B. the variable stroke pump is off stroke
C. bubbles in the sight glass C. overtravel in the rudder angle indicator C. with the follow-up gear disconnected C. a rudder order is given by the control system
D. ram relief valves lifting D. lost motion in the rams D. only when the rudder is moved amidships D. an electric power system failure occurs at the steering gear
Ans: B Ans: B Ans: B Ans: C
3427 When the steering wheel is turned, oil is directed to the steering 3428 The function of the hydraulic telemotor transmitter used in an electro- 3445 When the helm angle position is changed, the series 3446 Regulations require that prior to departure on a three-day voyage,
gear rams by _____________. hydraulic steering gear system is to ___________. ofcorresponding events of the steering gear will include__________. the steering gear, whistle, and communications system between the
A. modulating the oil flow with the six-way valve A. transmit the rudder angle to the bridge indicator I. rate of steering gear ram movement will be proportional to bridge and engine room must be tested prior to departure no earlier
B. moving the automatic pressure differential valve B. prevent the control linkage from striking the stops when hard over amount of helm angle input II. degree of tilting plate (box) angle wi than _____.

C. moving the receiving telemotor which regulates the two-way valve C. automatically purge all entrained air from the system A. I only A. 1 hour
B. II only B. 4 hours
D. varying the eccentricity of a floating ring or angle of a tilting box D. send hydraulic signals to the receiving unit C. Both I and II C. 8 hours
D. Neither I nor II D. 12 hours
Ans: D Ans: D Ans: B Ans: D
3429 A solenoid, direct-acting, three-position, spring-centered, directional 3430 When the helm angle position is changed, the series 3447 In an emergency, the electro-hydraulic steering units can be directly 3448 Hydraulic pumps most commonly used in steering systems are of the
control valve is used in a hydraulic system to control a linear ofcorresponding events of the steering gear will include__________. controlled by the _____________. ____________.
actuator. With the actuator under load there is no movement. I. length of time the steering gear pump remains on stroke is A. trick wheel A. lobe type
However, when the load is removed the actuator can be cycl proportional to helm angle input II. system pressure being higher for B. rapson slide B. screw type
C. follow-up gear C. axial piston type
A. One or both of the centering springs has broken and the spool has A. I only D. receiver unit D. volute type
jammed in the valve body. Ans: A Ans: C
B. One or both of the solenoid coils has sustained an open. B. II only 3449 In an electro-hydraulic steering system, damage due to rudder 3450 While inspecting the steering gear at sea, you should check for
C. The pump coupling is damaged and the pump is unable to attain its C. Both I and II shock is prevented by _____________. _____________.
rated speed of rotation. A. buffer springs A. any leaks in the system
D. The pump coupling has sheared and the motor is overspeeding. D. Neither I nor II B. relief valves B. accuracy of the rudder angle indicator
C. oil flowing through the pumps C. movement of the trick wheel
Ans: C Ans: A D. dashpots D. position of the six-way valve
3431 On an electro-hydraulic steering gear, which of the listed devices will 3432 When the helm is turned on the navigation bridge, which of the listed Ans: B Ans: A
keep the rudder from overtraveling the bridge signal? actions will be the FIRST response in the steering room on a ship 3451 The purging of air from an electro-hydraulic steering gear unit is 3452 Air trapped in the hydraulic fluid of a steering system would be
equipped with an electro-hydraulic steering gear? necessary when _____________. indicated by _____________.
A. changing over to hand pump operation A. an improper rudder response
A. Rudder angle indicator A. The pumps go to full stroke. B. engaging the trick wheel B. hammering noises in the equipment or transmission lines
B. Follow-up gear B. The six-way valve aligns itself with the running pump. C. the system has been filled with new oil C. popping or sputtering noises
C. Electric transmitter C. Both port and starboard cables are energized. D. the rudder angle indicator does not match the helm position D. all the above
D. Rudder angle limit switch D. The synchronous receiver turns, duplicating the helm motion. Ans: C Ans: D
Ans: B Ans: D 3453 Regulations require hydraulic steering gear systems to be equipped 3454 According to Regulations ,which of the following statements is
3433 Air trapped in the hydraulic fluid of a steering system may be 3434 Most hydraulic steering gears are fitted with relief valves which with a means of steadying the rudder in an emergency. This may be correct regarding the steering apparatus requirements for a vessel
indicated by ____________. _____________. accomplished with ____________. over 75 metres in length?
A. the steering pumps overspeeding A. function when the rudder is amidships A. a suitable arrangement of stop valves in the main piping A. Hydraulic structural rudder stops are mandatory.
B. a jammed open relief valve B. relieve excess whip pressure from the hydraulic oil system B. a positive arrangement for stopping the rudder before the rudder B. On hydraulic type steering gears, a suitable arrangement of check
C. a constantly occurring improper rudder response C. protect the piping assembly from external rudder shock stops are reached valves in the main piping system may be considered as a means of
D. excessive ram pressure D. relieve excessive telemotor pressure steadying the rudder.
Ans: C Ans: C C. a suitable arrangement of block and tackle powered by winches C. A separate auxiliary means of steering is not required where the
3435 In an electro-hydraulic steering system, rudder shock is limited by 3436 Rudder motion is prevented from exceeding the movement of the main gear is of the dual power hydraulic type, having two
_____________. steering wheel by the _____________. independent pumps and connections.
A. a differential gear A. return springs D. buffer arrangements to relieve the gear from shocks to the rudder D. All of the above.
B. return springs B. six-way valve
C. a hydraulic accumulator C. follow-up gear Ans: A Ans: C
D. relief valves D. differential gear 3455 Regulations make certain requirementsregarding overcurrent 3456 Electric and electro-hydraulic steering gear motors are required by
Ans: D Ans: C protection. Steering gear feeder circuits shall be protected only by Regulations to be _____________.
3437 When the steering gear is in operation, you should ________. 3438 When the desired rudder angle is attained by a typical double ram _____________.
electro-hydraulic steering gear, the ___________. A. a circuit breaker with instantaneous trip A. protected by a circuit breaker and a thermal overload device
A. check hydraulic oil levels every hour A. ram relief valves bypass oil to stop rudder movement B. motor running overcurrent protection B. provided with a running motor overcurrent protection device
B. check the rams for overheating B. six-way valve shifts to the neutral flow position C. a nonrenewable link cartridge fuse C. served by a single two conductor cable
C. check for excessive oil leakage from rams C. steering pump electric motor is de-energized by the transfer switch D. a renewable link cartridge fuse D. served by two feeder circuits
Ans: A Ans: D
D. drain water from telemotor cylinders each watch D. follow-up gear takes the hydraulic pump off stroke 3457 Of the equipment listed below, which equipment must be tested 3458 Hydraulically, servo-operated, automatic, change over valves,
Ans: C Ans: D NOT more than 12 hours prior to getting underway from a port utilized in a two ram hydraulic steering gear, serve to
3439 If a severe leak develops in the electro-hydraulic steering gear, 3440 A power failure in the hydraulic system of a compact type steering when the voyage is to be of 48 hours or greater duration? ____________.
which of the listed conditions could result? gear would cause the rudder to _____________.
A. Loss of vessel steering A. swing 35° right or left A. Steering gear A. allow an alternate main pump to start in the fully loaded condition
B. Overheating of the gyrocompass B. remain locked in its last position thus developing immediate full torque
C. Jamming of the six-way valve C. move to the midship position automatically
 Page 189 Page 190

B. Emergency generator B. prevent either main pump from being hydraulically motored when idle B. different than NPT as the crest of a matching thread is in contact B. the numerical designation found on the "skin" of the hose
by cross pressure flow with the trough of the opposing thread
C. All internal vessel power control communications and alarms C. prevent both units from operating simultaneously which could result C. different than NPT as the flanks of the matching threads are in C. a color code on the armor
in doubling the flow of oil and pressure leading to over pressurization contact with the opposing threads
of the system D. the same as National Fine threads D. the thickness of the tube wall
D. All of the above D. all of the above Ans: B Ans: B
Ans: A Ans: B 3474 To charge a bladder type hydraulic accumulator ____________. 3475 Before doing any work on a hydraulic system equipped with
3459 Which of the listed systems related to an engineer's signal alarm 3460 Rotation of the steering wheel on the navigation bridge initiates oil accumulators, you should _____________.
panel is required to be indicated by a continuously illuminated light pressure being applied to the steering gear rams by A. remove all hydraulic system pressure and bring the pneumatic A. drain the accumulators and purge with oxygen
while in operation? _____________. pressure to the accumulator preload pressure
A. Deaerating tank low level A. regulating the oil flow with the six-way valve B. remove all hydraulic system pressure and bring the pneumatic B. bleed off all stored energy from the accumulators
B. Shaft alley bilge high level B. moving the automatic differential valve pressure to the system's design pressure
C. Port or starboard steering gear motor running C. moving the receiving telemotor which regulates the two-way valve C. increase the pneumatic pressure until the hydraulic system reaches C. completely charge the accumulators to prevent system energy loss
its design pressure
D. No. 1 diesel generator low lube oil pressure D. varying the angle of a tilting box or eccentricity of a floating ring D. allow the accumulator to completely fill with gas charge at D. pump the hydraulic fluid into the accumulators to prevent fluid loss
atmospheric pressure, shut off the air chamber, and add hydraulic
Ans: C Ans: D fluid until proper pressure is reached
3461 An AC synchronous transmission type remote steering control 3462 The purpose of the six-way valve used in an electro-hydraulic Ans: A Ans: B
system consists of a ______________. steering system is to _____________. 3476 In application, which of the listed sealing devices is most similar to 3477 As a rule of thumb, when pressure is applied to hydraulic oil, the oil
A. transmitter at the steering station and a receiver at the steering A. parallel rudder motion to the steering wheel an O-ring? will _____________.
engine A. V-ring A. not be compressed, as liquids are not compressible
B. reversible motor at the steering station geared to the steering B. take the pump off stroke when desired rudder angle is attained B. Cup seal B. reduce in volume by 1% for every 7bar increment
pumps C. U-ring C. increase in volume by 1% for every 70bar increment
C. small induction motor on the bridge which controls the rudder C. redirect hydraulic fluid flow when changing over pumps D. Quad ring D. reduce in volume by 1/2% for every 70bar increment
through pulleys Ans: D Ans: D
D. variable displacement hydraulic pump driven by a reversible DC D. ensure positive contact between the Rapson slide and the rudder 3478 The purpose of an accumulator in a hydraulic system is to 3479 Obstructed suction passages in the casing or pintle of a radial piston
motor post ______________. hydraulic pump will cause the _____________.
Ans: A Ans: C A. collect any dirt in the system A. pump back pressure to decrease
3463 According to Regulations , a power driven auxiliary steering gear for 3464 A power-driven auxiliary steering gear is required by Regulations to B. collect fluid from any small leak B. pump return and discharge pressures to equalize
a vessel capable of a 12 knot service speed, must be able to meet be capable of putting the rudder over from 15‚ on one side to 15‚ on C. preheat the fluid during cold weather C. pumped fluid volume to decrease
the rudder movement requirements at which of the minimum vessel the other side with the vessel running ahead. For a 20 knot vessel, D. store potential energy in the form of hydraulic fluid under pressure in D. pump discharge flow to drop to zero
speeds listed below? this test must be carried out at a speed of ____ the system
Ans: D Ans: C
A. 6 knots A. 7 knots 3480 In which of the listed hydraulic system components could an O-ring 3481 Before performing any maintenance on a hydraulic system storing
B. 7 knots B. 10 knots seal be satisfactorily used in providing a seal? energy in an accumulator, you should _____________.
C. 9 knots C. 15 knots
D. 12 knots D. 20 knots A. High pressure pump shaft casing A. pressurize the system to test for leaks
Ans: B Ans: B B. Low pressure pump shaft casing B. bleed off all pressure within the system
3465 Regulations require that electric andelectro-hydraulic steering gear 3466 Rudder position is shown on the bridge by the _____________. C. Linear actuator without nylon insert C. operate the machine until it reaches normal temperature
motors shall be _____________. D. Relief valve spool D. disconnect the pump pressure control switch
A. served by two electric power feeder circuits A. rudder angle indicator Ans: D Ans: B
B. provided with a motor running overcurrent protection device B. follow-up gear 3482 When installing a hydraulic hose, which of the following precautions 3483 To convert a vane type hydraulic pump to a hydraulic motor, which
C. protected by a circuit breaker and a thermal overload device C. telemotor position should be taken? of the following would have to be done?
D. served by a single two conductor cable D. Rapson slide indicator A. The hose should not be twisted. A. Double the casing thickness.
Ans: A Ans: A B. The hose should be protected with a sleeve if it is subjected to B. Install an enlarged control ring around the rotor.
3467 The follow-up gear on an electro-hydraulic steering gear 3468 In an electro-hydraulic steering gear, any change in relative position rubbing.
_____________. between the synchronous receiver and the follow-up gear will result C. There should be some slack in the hose. C. Provide small springs between the vanes and the base of the vane
in _____________. slots.
A. relieves excessive fluid pressure A. the pump going to full stroke D. All of the above. D. Provide one additional slot and vane.
B. takes the pump off stroke when the desired rudder angle is attained B. closing of the six-way valve Ans: D Ans: C
3484 A reservoir, as used in hydraulic systems aboard ship, is used to 3485 The amount of the cushioning effect developed within a hydraulic
C. synchronizes wheel position with the rudder position C. driving the rams up against the stops store hydraulic oil. Another function is to _____________. cylinder is determined by the ____________.
D. returns the rudder to midposition when the wheel is released D. a corresponding slowing or increasing of the pumped flow rate
A. act as a shock absorber A. position of the directional port in the cushion cavity
Ans: B Ans: D B. maintain the stored oil under pressure B. adjustment of the cushion cavity check valve
3469 In an electro-hydraulic steering gear system, when will the variable C. act as a base or foundation for the power unit C. design shape of the cylinder ends
displacement pump be placed on stroke? D. eliminate pressure surges in the system D. setting of the cushioning adjustment needle valve
A. When the helm is at any angle other than amidships. Ans: C Ans: D
B. When the six-way valve is opened. 3486 Strainers are commonly used in hydraulic systems to 3487 A hydraulic system directional control valve fitted with "detent" will
C. When the ram relief valves lift. ___________. _____________.
A. protect the pump from fine soluble contaminants A. have an infinite number of valve positions
D. When the rudder angle is different from the position of the helm.
B. prevent solid particles from entering the pump B. usually be shifted into three specific positions
C. prevent solid particles from entering the filter C. be able to be varied through out the travel of the valve spool
Ans: D
D. protect the directional control valves D. have an offset, directional control only
HYDRAULICS AND DECK MACHINERY
Ans: B Ans: B
3470 In a radial piston pump, reversal and control of fluid flow are 3471 The usual number of single-acting pistons used in a variable stroke
3488 An O-ring seal in a hydraulic system will begin to leak when it has 3489 Purging air from a hydraulic system is necessary when
accomplished by moving the _____________. axial-piston pump is _____________.
lost its interference fit due to ____________. _______________.
A. central valve A. 3 or 5
A. compression set or wear A. adding small amounts of oil to the system
B. radial plunger B. 5 or 7
B. low fluid pressure B. the system has been overheated
C. floating ring C. 7 or 9
C. high fluid flow C. the system has been drained and then filled with new oil
D. cylinder body D. 9 or 11
D. low fluid temperature D. the system has been idle for a long period of time
Ans: C Ans: C
Ans: A Ans: C
3472 Dryseal threads, typically used for tubing to pipe connectors, and 3473 The size of flexible hose used in a hydraulic system is indicated by
3490 One function provided by a hydraulic accumulator is to_________. 3491 Energy losses occurring in a hydraulic system are ultimately
threaded piping in hydraulic systems are ___________. _____________.
absorbed by the _____________.
A. provide an area where air can separate from the oil A. reservoir expansion chamber
A. the same as National Pipe threads A. the inside diameter of the tube
B. provide an area to separate solid contaminants from the oil B. hydraulic piping flexibility
 Page 191 Page 192

C. act as an oil and water separator C. atmosphere as heat 3510 Which of the devices listed would be considered a hydraulic system 3511 Why is a hydraulic linear actuator fitted with a cushioning device?
D. absorb shocks occurring in the system D. fluid as friction directional control valve?
Ans: D Ans: C A. Counterbalance valve A. To regulate actuator speed through the entire stroke length.
3492 The movement of heat within a fluid, caused by the application of 3493 How can the chance of contaminating hydraulic fluid be decreased B. Offset, two position valve B. To slow the action of the piston preventing shock and damage due
thermal energy, is called ___________. when working on hydraulic systems? to hammering effects.
A. radiation A. Clean the fittings before they are disconnected. C. Sequencing valve C. To allow the pump to temporarily operate at a pressure 10% above
B. conduction B. Place drip pans under leaky fittings. the relief valve setting without lifting the relief valve.
C. convection C. Seal any cracks in lines with Permatex. D. Unloading valve D. All of the above.
D. condo-radiation D. Coat all threads with graphite oil. Ans: B Ans: B
Ans: C Ans: A 3512 A hydraulic fluid flow control circuit, controlling linear actuator speed, 3513 A hydraulic fluid flow control circuit, controlling linear actuator
3494 The delivery rate of an axial-piston hydraulic pump is controlled by 3495 If a hydraulic pump is producing a noisy whine when in operation, with the pump operating below maximum operating pressure is speed during extension, with the pump operating at system
varying the position of the ____________. the cause may be ____________. known as the ____________. pressure, is known as a ____________.
A. sliding block A. an air leak in the pump suction line above the oil level in the A. metered-in circuit A. metered-in circuit
reservoir B. metered-out circuit B. metered-out circuit
B. pintle B. low viscosity in the hydraulic fluid C. bleed-in circuit C. bleed-off circuit
C. reaction ring C. an oil leak across the pump shaft packing D. bleed-off circuit D. bleed-in circuit
D. tilting box or swash plate D. due to the wrong direction of rotation of the hydraulic motor Ans: D Ans: A
Ans: D Ans: A 3514 The determining factor for the strength of a flexible rubber hydraulic 3515 The by-products of oxidation, as a result of water contamination of
3496 If the pump in a hydraulic system produces a low rumbling noise 3497 Which of the listed conditions will occur if the discharge pressure of hose is the _____________. hydraulic oil, are generally ____________.
while in operation, this is a probable indication of _______________. a rotary pump is increased from the designed 3.50 kg/cm2 to 21.0 A. external cover A. removed by cellulose type filters
kg/cm2, while maintaining the same RPM? B. synthetic rubber inner tube B. gums, varnishes, and acids
C. braided layer C. always neutralized by oil additives
A. internal system fluid leakage A. The pump capacity will be decreased. D. teflon sleeve D. harmless and have no effect on system components
B. air passing through the pump B. The pump capacity will be increased. Ans: C Ans: B
C. strained hydraulic fluid C. Pump efficiency will be increased. 3516 When normal operating pressure is applied to the hydraulic oil in a 3517 If a radial piston hydraulic pump fails to deliver rated fluid volume,
D. excess internal slippage D. Internal liquid slippage will be reduced. high-pressure system, the oil ____________. the cause can be _______________.
Ans: B Ans: A A. viscosity will increase A. contaminated fluid
3498 If the relief valve on the discharge side of a hydraulic pump lifts, the 3499 Cavitation in a hydraulic pump is indicated by noisy pump operation B. viscosity will decrease B. pitted thrust rings
cause could be _____________. and can be caused by a/an _____________. C. volume will increase C. worn pintle bearings
A. a low load on the unit A. high fluid level in the reservoir D. floc point will increase D. obstructed suctions passage
B. a clogged pump suction strainer B. hydraulic fluid low floc point Ans: A Ans: D
C. a blockage in the line between the pump and hydraulic motor C. excessive discharge pressure from the pump 3518 Which of the listed pressure-control valves would be used in a 3519 An axial piston pump differs from a radial piston pump as the pistons
D. the hydraulic motor turning too fast D. clogged suction strainer in the reservoir hydraulic system to temporarily divert some, or all of the pump of an axial piston pump are positioned _____________.
Ans: C Ans: D discharge until the additional flow was required?
3500 Return lines in a non-pressurized hydraulic system reservoir should 3501 An internal bypass is provided on some hydraulic system suction A. counterbalance valve A. radially from the shaft
enter the tank well below the fluid surface level to _____________. strainers to help reduce the possibility of _______________. B. unloading valve B. parallel to each other and to the shaft
C. compound, pressure-relief valve C. parallel to each other but at a right angle to the shaft
A. prevent foaming A. aeration of the oil D. sequence valve D. at an angle to each other and to the shaft
B. prevent moisture accumulation B. contamination of the oil Ans: B Ans: B
C. prevent vacuum formation C. pump cavitation 3520 Which of the devices listed would be considered a hydraulic system 3521 The speed of a radial piston hydraulic MOTOR is controlled by
D. accommodate thermal expansion D. spongy actuator movements directional control valve? varying the _________.
Ans: A Ans: C A. three-position valve A. amount of cylinder block offset with respect to the rotor
3502 Overheating of a hydraulic system may be a result of ______. 3503 A reservoir is used in a hydraulic system to _____________. B. sequencing valve B. fluid flow rate discharged to the motor
C. unloading valve C. length of the motor piston stroke on the power cycle
A. changing pump discharge pressure in response to normal load A. store fluid until required by the system D. counterbalance valve D. pintle discharge rate to the suction side of the pump
variations Ans: A Ans: B
B. a high oil level B. provide a place for air to separate out of the fluid 3522 Winch gears must be maintained in proper alignment to prevent 3523 A check run on a hydraulic anchor windlass during long periods of
C. incorrect fluid viscosity C. provide a place for contaminants to settle out _____________. inactivity should be carried out to ____________.
D. continued slow recirculation of the oil D. all of the above A. overheating of the lube oil A. prevent chemical breakdown of hydraulic fluid
Ans: C Ans: D B. overspeeding of the motor B. remove condensation from the fluid reservoir
3504 An orifice-check valve placed in a hydraulic system is used to 3505 Hydraulic system reservoirs should be maintained at recommended C. wear on the braking system C. prevent the anchor from seizing in the hawsepipe
______________. normal levels to reduce ___________. D. damage to the teeth D. renew the internal coating of lubrication
A. regulate the fluid flow in either direction A. condensation on inside walls Ans: D Ans: D
B. restrict movement of hydraulic fluid in one direction, but allow free B. heat retention of working fluid 3524 A mooring winch should be equipped with mechanical brakes 3525 The torque rating of a fluid power motor is expressed in
movement in the other direction capable of holding ________________. _______________.
C. allow free movement of hydraulic fluid in both directions C. frequency of fluid changeover A. half the breaking strength of the mooring line A. RPMs under a given load condition
D. allow a restricted fluid flow in one direction only D. all of the above B. the full breaking strength of the mooring line B. Newton-metre at a given pressure
Ans: D Ans: D C. the maximum expected tension of the mooring line C. Newton-metre per piston stroke
3506 In a typical hydraulic system, a baffle is installed in thereservoir to 3507 In a typical hydraulic system, a baffle is installed in thereservoir to D. 50% over the working tension of the mooring line D. Newton-metre per rate of input flow
_______. I. insure proper lubrication of the hydraulic pump II. assist _______. I. provide a critical reduction in free surface effect Ans: B Ans: B
in the removal of Solid contaminants entrained in the returning oil hydraulic pump II. assist in retaining the hydraulic oil to provide 3526 The delivery rate of a variable stroke axial piston hydraulic pump is 3527 When changing to a fire resistant hydraulic fluid in a system, it is
heat removal controlled by varying the position of the ______________. important to check the compatibility of the new fluid with the system's
A. I only A. I only _____________.
B. II only B. II only A. slide block A. seals
C. Both I and II C. Both I and II B. tilting box B. metals and plating
D. Neither I and II D. Neither I and II C. pintle C. paint
Ans: C Ans: B D. reaction ring D. all of the above
3508 As a general rule of thumb, the reservoir used in a hydraulic 3509 Which of the following problems occurring in a hydraulic system can Ans: B Ans: D
system should have a capacity, when at the normal level, be caused by the use of an oil having a viscosity lower than 3528 Directional control valves used in hydraulic systems may be 3529 The baffle plate used in the reservoir of a hydraulic system serves to
approximately equal to ____________. specified? positioned ____________. _____________.
A. two to three times the normal flow rate through the system A. Seal deterioration A. manually A. reduce fluid turbulence at the pump suction
B. the flow rate through the system B. Fast response and hunting B. mechanically B. minimize the amount of contamination deposited from return lines
C. ten times the flow rate through the system C. Increased power consumption entering the system
D. the pump gpm D. Oil film breakdown C. electrically C. minimize the entrance of entrained air through the pump inlet line
Ans: A Ans: C
D. all of the above D. all of the above
 Page 193 Page 194

Ans: D Ans: D D. reaction ring D. a clogged air vent filter on the oil reservoir
3530 Which of the valves listed is not considered to be a hydraulic 3531 Energy imparted to the hydraulic fluid in an operating hydraulic Ans: A Ans: D
system directional control valve? system is stored in the ____________. 3550 If you are given the job of adding hydraulic fluid to a mooring winch, 3551 Hydraulic system reservoirs are often fitted with a combined
A. Two-position valve A. accumulator and are not certain as to the type of fluid to use, you should filler/breather cap. If the breather element becomes fouled, the
B. Three-position valve B. actuator _____________. _______________.
C. Detented-position valve C. ram A. add fluid that is the same color as the fluid in the reservoir A. reservoir will become pressurized
D. Counterbalance valve D. reservoir B. add turbine oil because it is always a good substitute B. reservoir will be subjected to a partial vacuum
Ans: D Ans: A C. add any oil that has the same viscosity as the hydraulic fluid C. flow through the return lines will be stopped
3532 In a typical hydraulic system, return lines to thereservoir are 3533 Proper internal lubrication of a hydraulic anchor windlass left idle for D. check the winch manufacturer's instruction book D. actuator response time will be halved
___________. I. terminated at or just above the normal level II. extended periods can be accomplished by _______________. Ans: D Ans: B
placed as far from the pump suction as possible 3552 The oil in a cargo winch gear box should be sampled periodically to 3553 A filter used in a multi-operation hydraulic system would most likely
A. I only A. performing a check run on the unit at regular intervals _____________. be located ______________.
B. II only B. testing the hydraulic fluid for proper pH A. prevent the gear box from leaking A. at the pump suction
C. Both I and II C. checking the reservoir for proper level B. prevent the oil from becoming inflammable B. between the pump and the directional control valves
D. Neither I and II D. cleaning strainers at regular intervals C. make sure it has not become contaminated C. between the control valves and the actuators
Ans: B Ans: A D. make sure the motor bearings are lubricated D. in the actuator return lines
3534 Which of the following devices is not considered to be a pressure 3535 Which of the devices listed is considered to be a hydraulic system Ans: C Ans: B
vessel? directional control valve? 3554 Which of the valves listed is NOT considered to be a hydraulic 3555 Flexible hose under pressure in a hydraulic system will
A. Low pressure evaporator A. Unloading valve system directional control valve? _________________.
B. Deaerating feed heater B. Counterbalance valve A. Sequencing valve A. tend to twist about its long axis
C. Hydraulic fluid power cylinder C. Detented position valve B. Two-position valve B. expand in length and in diameter
D. Fuel oil heater D. Sequencing valve C. Three-position valve C. contract in length and expand in diameter
Ans: C Ans: C D. Spring-centered valve D. flex at right angles to the applied pressure
3536 If an anchor windlass has been idle for some time, you should 3537 Which of the following is the most common type of valving element Ans: A Ans: C
_____________. used in hydraulic system directional control valves? 3556 The pressure of an operating hydraulic system, as indicated by a 3557 Which of the listed pressure control valves would be used to
A. repack all valve stems A. Nutating disk pressure gauge, is a result of the fluid flow overcoming establish the maximum operating pressure of a hydraulic system?
B. lubricate it prior to use B. Sliding spool _________________.
C. replace the foundation bolts C. Elongated ball or cone A. internal resistance to flow A. Pressure-reducing valve
D. balance the warping heads D. Restricted orifice poppet B. resistance of the internal components B. Unloading valve
Ans: B Ans: B C. the load applied to the system C. Counterbalance valve
3538 A device incorporating a variable orifice placed in series with a 3539 Water allowed to accumulate in the hydraulic system oil will cause D. all of the above D. Pressure-relief valve
check valve in a hydraulic system, is used to ________________. an oxidation process producing by-products which are normally Ans: D Ans: D
_______________. 3558 Which of the listed pressure control valves would be used to permit 3559 Which of the listed pressure-control valves is used in a hydraulic
A. allow free movement of hydraulic fluid in both directions A. gums, acids, and varnishes the completion of one action of a hydraulic system before a second system to prevent the stray movements of a vertical load until
B. allow fluid flow in one direction only B. removed by cellulose type filters action would be permitted? required?
C. allow throttled fluid flow in one direction only C. neutralized by oil additives A. Counterbalance valve A. Pressure reducing valve
D. restrict hydraulic fluid flow in both directions D. not removed by absorbent filters B. Unloading valve B. Counterbalance valve
Ans: C Ans: A C. Sequence valve C. Unloading valve
3540 Hydraulic machinery failures are commonly caused by 3541 The purpose of a restrictor valve, as it is used in a hydraulic hatch D. Pressure-reducing valve D. Sequence valve
contamination of the hydraulic fluid and _________. cover system, is to _____________. Ans: C Ans: B
A. fluid friction A. prevent oil backflow to the actuators 3560 Which of the following statements describes the functions of a 3561 Hydraulic system tubing should be anchored every three or four feet
B. fluid turbulence B. prevent the hydraulic pump from overheating reservoir used in a hydraulic system? to prevent ____________.
C. component misalignment C. control the speed of the hatch cover movement while closing A. Dissipate heat A. excessive pump cavitation
D. pressure surges D. restrict the oil supply to the hatch covers not in use B. Trap foreign matter B. expansion and contraction of the tubing
Ans: C Ans: C C. Separate air from the oil C. tube fitting leaks from vibration and pressure surges
3542 Prolonged operation of a hydraulic pump in a cavitating condition 3543 The output volume of a positive fixed displacement pump can be D. All of the above D. tube flexing at right angles to the applied fluid pressure
can cause _____________. changed only by _______________. Ans: D Ans: C
A. the hydraulic fluid to become overheated A. changing the angle of the tilting plate 3562 When a linear actuator (cylinder) is being retracted without an 3563 If you install a new hydraulic hose in a hydraulic system, the hose
B. the fluid motor to become overloaded B. changing the speed of the pump applied load, the pressure on the oil leaving the "cap end" will be must be long enough to allow for contraction to prevent
C. the relief valve to hum C. moving the slide block and rotor __________. _______________.
D. a wide variation in fluid pressure surges D. moving the shaft trunnion block A. zero A. failure of the hydraulic hose
Ans: A Ans: B B. inversely proportional to the speed of retraction B. excessive flow through the line
3544 When renewing sections of pipe in a hydraulic system, the nominal 3545 Which of the following problems will occur if the internal drain at C. inversely proportional to the flow rate at the rod end C. friction in other areas of the hydraulic system
pipe size of the piping always indicates the ______________. either end of a hydraulic, two-way, spool-type directional control D. increased as the speed of retraction increases D. overheating of the hydraulic fluid
valve cylinder were to become plugged? Ans: D Ans: A
A. actual inside diameter A. The reservoir would become vapor bound. 3564 Which characteristic or condition will have the greatest effect on 3565 Sluggish response or action of the hydraulic actuators may be a
B. actual outside diameter B. The valve would be placed in hydraulic lock. increasing a hydraulic oil's viscosity? result of _____________.
C. wall thickness C. The spring loaded relief ports would open. A. Pour point A. insufficient load
D. size for threaded connections D. The buffering chambers would be unable to function. B. Cloud point B. excessively high oil viscosity
Ans: D Ans: B C. Vacuum C. relief-valve pressure setting too high
3546 Return lines to hydraulic systems reservoirs should________. 3547 If dirt is allowed to contaminate the sump of a hydraulic deck crane, D. Pressure D. reservoir level being maintained two inches above normal
which of the following problems will occur? Ans: D Ans: B
A. end the return line as far as practicable from the pump suction A. All the seals in the hydraulic lines will immediately blow out. 3566 The rubber bladder or separator bag installed in a hydraulic 3567 Flanged joints in hydraulic system piping are commonly made leak
accumulator should only be filled with __________. proof by _______________.
B. end the return line as close to the pump suction as possible B. The sheathing on the hydraulic lines will fracture. A. pure water A. seal welding the mating flange surfaces
C. provide a "P" or "S" trap in the return line as close to the reservoir as C. The lifting capacity of the crane will be immediately reduced by B. pure oxygen B. installing suitable gaskets or O-rings
possible to trap sediment from entering the tank 70%. C. dry nitrogen C. leather wipers installed with the flange seals
D. connect the return lines directly to the cleanout and inspection plates D. The internal parts of the pump and hydraulic motor will wear D. dry hydrogen D. enclosing the flanged connection in a container
to limit the number of openings on the reservoir excessively. Ans: C Ans: B
3568 The component which is used to thoroughly separate small, fine, 3569 The clutch band of a constant tensioning mooring winch must be set
Ans: A Ans: D dust-like particulate contamination from hydraulic fluid is a/an up tight enough to drive the winch drum and should slip only when
3548 The delivery rate of an axial piston hydraulic pump is controlled by 3549 A gradual decrease in the discharge pressure of an operating _____________. _____________.
varying the position of the _____________. hydraulic pump can be caused by _____________. A. accumulator A. excessive loads are placed on the winch
A. tilting box A. the four-way control valve failing to shift B. filter B. minimum pull is being exerted by the winch
B. slide block B. the bleeder valve sticking in the open position C. separator C. automatic operation of the winch is desired
C. pintle C. cold hydraulic fluid D. strainer D. wire is being retrieved at the maximum rate
 Page 195 Page 196

Ans: B Ans: A A. the reservoir A. accelerated action of the system components

3570 New piping and tubing to be installed in a hydraulic system can be 3571 The portion of a hydraulic hose that determines its overall strength, B. a servo control circuit B. overheating of the system
safely degreased by using _________. is the _____________. C. position a manually controlled valve C. overspeeding of the hydraulic pump
A. alcohol A. inner tube D. the main system accumulators under all operating conditions D. extended system life
B. a water-based detergent B. braided inner layer(s) Ans: B Ans: B
C. carbon tetrachloride C. outer cover 3590 Leakage of hydraulic fluid from around the shaft of a hydraulic 3591 Which problems can occur if the brake band lining of a wildcat
D. a special petroleum solvent D. outer armor motor may be caused by _____________. brake becomes excessively worn?
Ans: D Ans: B A. permanent loss of pump suction A. The driving engine will overspeed.
3572 For the various sizes of tubing and wall thickness used in a hydraulic 3573 An axial piston, variable stroke pump is used in a vessel's hydraulic B. worn shaft seals B. The anchor will immediately drop.
system, the inside diameter can be determined if it is remembered steering gear. Under pressure, oil continually leaks out from between C. high level in the oil sump C. The clutch will overheat.
that the inside diameter equals the outside diameter less the valve plate/ cylinder barrel and will ___________. D. low motor RPM D. The brake's effectiveness will be reduced.
_____________. Ans: B Ans: D
A. the wall thickness A. cause loss of hydraulic oil from the system 3592 If the pump for a hydraulic anchor windlass is overheating, the cause 3593 An improperly maintained filter used in a hydraulic system can
B. 1.5 times the wall thickness B. result in extreme damage to the pump may be _____________. _____________.
C. 2 times the wall thickness C. cause damage to the pump if not continually drained from the pump A. excessive drive motor speed A. reduce or stop the output action of the actuator
casing B. excessive pump discharge pressure B. allow all metal particles to enter the power unit
D. 2.5 times the wall thickness D. result in the system high side pressure to substantially drop off C. too low of a tilting box angle C. rupture the pump discharge piping
D. insufficient drive motor speed D. all of the above
Ans: C Ans: C Ans: B Ans: A
3574 When the tilting box of a variable stroke axial-piston pump is 3575 Which of the following problems may be encountered by using an oil 3594 Which of the valves listed is NOT considered to be a hydraulic 3595 Overheating of the hydraulic fluid in an electro-hydraulic anchor
perpendicular to the pump shaft, which of the following conditions having a viscosity higher than that specified for an operating system directional control valve? windlass can result from a/an ____________.
will exist? hydraulic system? A. Spring-centered valve A. overload on the pump motor
A. The pistons reciprocate. A. External seal leakage. B. Unloading valve B. low fluid level in the reservoir
B. The "B" end cylinder barrel rotates. B. Hunting due to fast response. C. Three-position valve C. low fluid viscosity around the shaft seal
C. There is no fluid flow. C. Hydraulic oil film breakdown. D. Two-position valve D. high oil level in the sump
D. Power is transmitted hydraulically. D. Increased power consumption. Ans: B Ans: B
Ans: C Ans: D 3596 As a general rule of thumb, the reservoir used in a hydraulic 3597 Hydraulic systems typically operated for intermittent service do not
3576 The component used in a hydraulic system to store potential energy 3577 The hydraulic oil most likely to thin out when hot and thick when cold system should have a capacity, when at the normal level, require the use of oil coolers and would include all of the following
in the form of hydraulic fluid under pressure, is the would have a viscosity index of _________________. approximately equal to ____________. except _________?
_______________. A. two to three times the normal flow rate through the system A. Constant tension mooring winch system
A. ram A. 20 B. the flow rate through the system B. Hatch cover systems
B. accumulator B. 40 C. ten times the flow rate through the system C. Watertight door system
C. piping C. 60 D. the number of gallons a pump can circulate in one minute. D. Internal combustion engine hydraulic starter system
D. pump D. 80 Ans: A Ans: A
Ans: B Ans: A 3598 Pressure in an operating hydraulic system is developed 3599 In which of the listed hydraulic systems will the installation of an oil
3578 A bent axis, variable stroke, axial piston pump produces a greater 3579 Both the direction of flow and fluid flow rate of a variable ________________. cooler be necessary?
capacity than a comparable tilting box-type axial piston pump, displacement radial piston pump are determined by the relative A. only by the pump as its primary function A. Constant tension mooring winch system
because the ___________. positions of the ____________. B. by resistance to the fluid flow through the system B. Hatch cover system
A. piston diameters are smaller A. pump shaft and central valve C. by the thermal input to the system's fluid C. Watertight door system
B. length of stroke is greater B. pump shaft and horizontal ports D. solely by the charge applied by the accumulators D. Internal combustion engine hydraulic starter system
C. RPM is doubled C. floating ring and pump shaft Ans: B Ans: A
D. discharge/return line diameter are arranged differently D. floating ring and cylinder body 3600 If you install a hydraulic hose on a unit and fail to leave sufficient 3601 When new piping sections have been fabricated for installation in a
Ans: B Ans: D room for expansion, which of the following problems will develop? hydraulic system, prior to installation the piping should be
3580 A hydraulic accumulator, used in a hydraulic system , is designed to 3581 What is the minimum permissible flashpoint of hydraulic fluid used in _____________.
_________________. a system which operates at 17.6 kg/cm2(250 psi)? A. The hose may pull loose from its fittings. A. cleaned using a water-based detergent
A. store fluid under pressure A. 93oC B. The components connected by the hose will be damaged. B. descaled by using a pickling solution
B. act as the main fluid reservoir B. 102oC C. The hydraulic unit will fail to acquire any power. C. hydrostatically tested to 100% of maximum working pressure
C. provide the only means of overpressure relief C. 149oC D. The hydraulic fluid will overheat and breakdown. D. all of the above
D. act as the singular source of fluid replenishment to a system D. 157oC Ans: A
Ans: A Ans: D 3602 While riding at anchor, the anchor chain should be secured by the 3603 If the pump for a hydraulic anchor windlass is over heating, the
3582 A valve installed in a hydraulic system to manipulate the reversal of 3583 A valve installed in a hydraulic system to control the reversal of fluid ____________. cause may be ______________.
fluid flow, is called a _____________. flow is called a _____________. A. windlass brake only A. increased pump speed
A. relief valve A. relief valve B. chain stopper or riding pawl B. excessive pump discharge pressure
B. reservoir valve B. reservoir valve C. riding spindle C. too low of a tilting box angle
C. directional control valve C. directional control valve D. anchor shackle D. low pump speed
D. regenative valve D. power valve Ans: B Ans: B
Ans: C Ans: C 3604 If a hydraulic pump is overheating, the cause may be 3605 When normal operating pressure is applied to the hydraulic oil used
3584 Compensated flow control, or constant flow valves are used in 3585 Plug valves installed in hydraulic systems are most suitable for use ____________. in a high-pressure system, the oil _______________.
hydraulic systems to _____________. as _____________. A. excessive internal slippage in the pump A. viscosity will decrease
A. compensate for major leaks in the system A. main supply line throttle valves B. low discharge pressure and fluid flow B. volume will increase
B. maintain the original fluid viscosity B. variable flow control valves C. excessive fluid level in the hydraulic reservoir C. volume will decrease
C. allow for changes in pressure and temperature within the system C. two position flow control valves D. operation of the pump at 100% efficiency D. pour point will be reduced
Ans: A Ans: C
D. assure constant fluid temperature D. check and choke valves 3606 Increased internal leakage, in addition to poor hydraulic system 3607 At high pressures, an O-ring has a tendency to extrude into the
Ans: C Ans: C response, and inadequate lubrication, is the result of ____________. clearance space between the mating parts of a hydraulic actuator.
3586 Hydraulic machinery failures are commonly caused by 3587 In the design of hydraulic piping and equipment consideration is Which of the listed components is used to prevent extrusion?
misalignment of the system components and by _____________. given to minimize turbulence in the hydraulic fluid, as this will cause
______________. A. pump bearings in poor condition A. Double seal ring
A. hydraulic fluid contamination A. molecular fluid vibration B. excessively worn actuator-piston packing B. Lathe cut ring
B. excessive fluid friction B. energy losses C. broken directional control valve centering springs C. Backup ring
C. turbulent fluid flow C. wide pressure variations D. low hydraulic oil viscosity D. Static washer
D. fluid pressure surges D. mechanical damage to control valves Ans: D Ans: C
Ans: A Ans: B
3588 One function of a replenishing pump installed in many pressure- 3589 Setting the relief valve opening pressure in a hydraulic system lower
closed hydraulic systems, is to supply fluid flow to ____________. than the required operating pressure will result in
________________.
 Page 197
3608 A solenoid direct-acting three-position spring-centered directional
control valve is used in a hydraulic system to control a linear
actuator. When the remote push button is depressed to extend the
actuator it fails to move, even though the pump is in op
A. A spring at one spool end has broken and jammed, preventing the
spool from shifting.
B. The "extend" solenoid coil has developed an open.
C. The pump coupling is damaged and pump is unable to turn at its
required speed.
D. Any one of the above will cause the actuator to not move.
Ans: D
3610 Air entrained in the hydraulic fluid, or trapped in an actuator will
cause the actuators to move with a jerky motion. This action is a
result of ________________.
A. the trapped air being compressed to a pressure above the maximum
pump discharge pressure, then re-expanding and lowering in
pressure after the actuator moves
B. the cyclic expansion and contraction of air due to the motion of the
actuator
C. air being capable of moving loads more effectively than a liquid
D. air providing better lubrication of internal components, found in
Hydraulic Systems, than hydraulic fluids
Ans: B
3612 Which of the following precautions should be observed concerning
the introduction of a fire resistant fluid into a hydraulic system?
A. Deterioration of paints, seals, metals, and electrical insulation may
occur.
B. Fluid viscosity always increases as a normal result of its use.
C. Decreased wear rates of components is an advantage of its use.
D. Only chemically active filters may be used.
Ans: A
3614 Which of the listed components of a hydraulic system would enable
the pump to be temporarily shutdown, and yet still provide an
instantaneous source of hydraulic force?
A. Modulator
B. Pressure compensator valve
C. Accumulator
D. Sump actuator
Ans: C Ans:
3616 When the hydraulic control lever for a deck winch is placed in the
neutral or off position, the spring set brake on the fluid motor drive
shaft is _____________.
A. engaged by spring action and only released by hydraulic pressure
B. released by spring action and hydraulically locks the winch when the
drum ceases rotating
C. engaged by spring action and is insured to be locked in place by
hydraulic pressure
D. opened hydraulically and held open by spring action whenever the
electrical supply is secured
Ans: A
3618 Some fluid filters used in hydraulic systems are designed to cope
with increasing pressure differentials by ___________.
A. diverting the flow automatically to the standby filter of the duplex unit
B. automatically bypassing the fluid via an internal valve arrangement
C. automatically securing the system
D. diverting the pump discharge directly back to the suction
Ans: B
3620 Lint from cleaning rags can be harmful to hydraulic systems because
the lint ___________.
A. can cause rusting of internal parts
B. breaks down hydraulic fluid
C. can clog filters and promote component leakage
D. solidifies and causes cracked lines
Ans: C
Page 198
3609 A solenoid, direct-acting, three-position, spring-centered, directional 3622 If you attempt to tighten a leaking hydraulic fitting with pressure on 3623 A fluid power system is considered to be fail-safe if a component
control valve is used in a hydraulic system to control a linear the system, you will ______________. failure will result in ____________.
actuator. Midway through extension, the push button is released, but A. be successful every time A. continuous operation of the system
the actuator continues to extend slowly. Which of B. find that the pressure will prevent the components from being B. a safety interlock producing a regulated shutdown of the system
tightened
A. A centering spring has broken and jammed the spool movement C. cause the system to vibrate C. the guaranteed safe and efficient operation of the system at all times
preventing the spool from recentering.
B. One of the two solenoids has sustained an open in its respective D. dislodge any scale in the tubing, and it will damage the system D. a slow and controlled release of the loading so as not to endanger
coil. personnel
C. The pump coupling has been damaged preventing the pump from Ans: B Ans: D
developing its required operating speed. 3624 A hydraulic cylinder is fitted with a cushioning device. The piston 3625 When it is necessary to start an axial piston hydraulic motor under
D. The detent mechanism has failed, preventing the valve from abruptly slows towards the end of its stroke, then continues to creep conditions where the hydraulic fluid is colder than the lowest
operating. to the completion of its stroke. Which of the following represents the temperature recommended for proper operation, you should
Ans: A probable cause? operate the system at _____________.
3611 In order for the hydraulic pump installed in a constant flow system to A. The cushion adjustment needle valve is open too far. A. minimum speed until the normal operating pressure is reached
maintain adequate flow, the pump suction should ___________. B. The cushion adjustment needle valve is not open sufficiantly. B. neutral stroke until all of the air has been vented
C. The exhaust oil is flowing freely through the cushion nose. C. no load until the normal operating temperature is reached
A. be provided with three to five 1/2 inch holes in the vertical, suction D. The rod wiper is jammed in the cushion spear. D. maximum torque to attain rapid warm-up
line to prevent pump starvation should the strainer become fouled Ans: B Ans: C
3626 A casing drain is provided for axial piston and bent axis variable 3627 A fluid power system shall be so designed _________.
B. be arranged to develop a maximum vacuum of approximately 10" of stroke pumps to ___________.
mercury A. vent off any accumulated air from the system A. that proper functioning of any unit shall not be affected by the back
C. be arranged to develop the theoretically maximum attainable pressure in the system
vacuum B. drain off any accumulated water from the pump casing prior to its B. to maintain a back pressure throughout the power cylinders
D. be taken directly off the reservoir bottom without regard to filters or being started operating range
strainers C. assist the complete removal of hydraulic oil from the system prior to C. such that the operation of any unit in the system will provide for
Ans: B opening for major or minor repairs sufficient back pressure
3613 Which of the following statements is/are true regarding hydraulic D. prevent damage due to agitation and overheating of oil accumulated D. none of the above are correct
pumps in general? in the casing as a result of minor internal leakage
A. Variable volumes can be obtained with gear pumps only by variation Ans: D Ans: A
of the pump drive speed. 3628 During the repair and overhaul of the pump relief valve, used in a 3629 Which of the following statements represents a
B. A radial piston pump houses sliding pistons in a stationary cylinder hydraulic system, the set point was reduced by 7bar. Which of the disadvantageassociated with a spool-type, solenoid direct operating,
block through which passes a rotating pintle or ported shaft. following statements describes the result of the set point being directional control valves?
lowered?
C. The amount of fluid displaced per revolution of an axial piston rotary A. The pump discharge pressure will remain at the same pressure prior A. Back pressure on the outlet line must be steady to drain the lower
pump is dependent on the angle formed between the cylinder block to the relief valve being repaired. spool chamber.
and valve plate. B. The solenoid controlled, three-position, spring centered control valve B. The valve sealing surface is often damaged through excessive
D. All of the above. response will be quicker. throttling action.
Ans: A C. The fluid viscosity will increase during operation. C. The spool does not have hydrocushion capabilities to handle shock.
3615 Overheating of the hydraulic fluid in an electro-hydraulic anchor
windlass, may indicate pump cavitation caused by _____________. D. The movement of any system actuator will now be slower. D. Close fitting spools occasionally stick due to the accumulation of
hydraulic oil residues.
A. overload of the pump motor Ans: D Ans: D
B. low oil level in the reservoir 3630 Which of the following statements describes the actions of an axial 3631 Air entrained in the hydraulic fluid, or trapped in an actuator will
C. low fluid viscosity existing only around the shaft seal piston motor with a full deflection variable position tilting box? cause the actuators to move with a jerky motion. This action is a
D. high oil level in the sump result of ________________.
B A. Control over speed, direction, and stopping would be better than A. the trapped air being compressed to a pressure above the maximum
3617 Hydraulic hose assemblies are permitted by regulation to be having the pump equipped with the tilting box. pump discharge pressure, then re-expanding and lowering in
installed between two points of relative motion ______________. pressure after the actuator moves
B. Maximum speed when rotated in the "hauling in" direction would be B. the trapped air being compressed to operating system pressure,
A. provided proper releasing mechanisms are available to enable quick obtained with the tilting box just prior to neutral stroke, while "pay then dropping in pressure as the actuator moves, allowing the air to
disconnect capabilities out" would be the opposite. re-expand, then repeating the process
B. but shall not be subjected to torsional deflection under any C. Maximum torque, when rotated in the "pay out" direction would be C. air being capable of moving loads more effectively than a liquid
conditions of operation obtained with the tilting box just prior to neutral stroke, while "hauling
C. provided the entire length of the device is visible to the operator at in" would be the opposite.
all times D. Maximum speed in either direction of rotation would be achieved D. air providing better lubrication of internal components, found in
D. to prevent the formation of loading stresses just beyond of neutral stroke, making reversal of direction difficult. Hydraulic Systems, than hydraulic fluids
Ans: B Ans: D Ans: B
3619 Hydraulic cranes must be properly warmed-up before being operated 3632 A flare-type tubing connector is used in the hydraulic hatch-cover 3633 If a hydraulic system is in continuous operation, and is equipped with
because _____________. system and has developed a slight leak. To stop the leak you should an air cooled heat exchanger, the fan should _____________.
A. warm-up allows the hydraulic system to become charged with oil ____________.
A. keep the system in operation and tighten the flare nut A. be in continuous operation as long as the main pump prime mover is
B. warm-up allows the relief valves to be properly tested in operation
B. replace both the tubing sections and the fitting B. come on only after the main pump prime mover is secured
C. hydraulic strainers operate only during the warm-up period C. stop the system and use only one wrench to tighten the flare nut C. be controlled by a thermostat to maintain the oil temperature at less
D. hydraulic fluid must be at the proper viscosity than 87.8°C (190°F)
Ans: D D. shut down the power unit and use two wrenches to avoid damaging D. never be needed, except when the ambient temperature exceeds
3621 With an increase in temperature, the volume of hydraulic fluid the tubing when tightening 32.2°C(90°F)
___________. Ans: D Ans: A
A. contracts 3634 A precharged bladder-type accumulator used in a hydraulic system, 3635 According to Regulations , nonmetallic flexible hoses used as supply
B. remains the same can be potentially dangerous if ___________________. and return lines to hydraulic system components, must have
C. remains constant if pressure decreases _________________.
D. increases A. the charging valve stem breaks while at normal working pressure A. the working pressure of the system stamped on one of the end
Ans: D fittings
 Page 199 Page 200

B. the inert gas is exposed to hydraulic oil B. the working pressure of the system stamped on both of the end Ans: A Ans: A
fittings LUBRICATION AND ANTI-FRICTION BEARINGS
C. the bladder contacts the top of the poppet C. an inner tube constructed of seamless reinforced polyester braid 3650 The term "pour point" is defined as the lowest temperature at which 3651 Which of the following statements is used to describe the term
lubricating oils will flow ____________. "base" in reference to greases?
D. it is precharged with dry nitrogen D. a designed bursting pressure of at least four times the maximum A. rapidly A. Texture of the grease under load.
working pressure of the system B. by gravity B. Temperature at which the grease softens or melts.
Ans: A Ans: D C. through a standard orifice at a specified temperature C. Type of soap used in its production.
3636 The hydraulic system of a deck winch has been drained, flushed, 3637 When comparing a bent-axis, axial piston, variable stroke hydraulic D. at a rate of 60cc per second D. Temperature below which the grease will be ineffective as a
and refilled with hydraulic fluid. An erratic knocking noise from the pump, to a variable angle tilting box, axial piston pump where the lubricant.
hydraulic motor when the winch is started would indicate number, diameters, and rotating speed of the pistons are the same, Ans: B Ans: C
_____________. the significant difference is the ___________. 3652 A grease lubricated ball bearing or roller bearing will run cooler if the 3653 In a compression type grease cup, the lubricant is forced into the
grease _____________. bearing by ____________.
A. the fluid level in the reservoir is too high A. maximum capacity A. fills only 10% of all void spaces within the bearing A. gravity flow
B. air trapped in the system B. maximum pressure B. has a high grease penetration number (is hard) B. spring force
C. clogged suction line fluid filters C. minimum pressure C. is thinned with a suitable lubricating oil C. a pressure gun
D. abrasive matter circulating in the oil D. minimum capacity D. is heated prior to packing the bearing D. a zerk fitting
Ans: B Ans: A Ans: B Ans: B
3638 When fire safe or fire resistant fluid is to be used in a hydraulic 3639 Overheating of the oil in a hydraulic system can be caused by 3654 Which of the processes listed consumes the greatest amount of 3655 The packing installed in the pump stuffing box is lubricated by
system, it is important that _____________. _____________. power while producing the greatest amount of heat? ____________.
A. the resultant pressure, due to the increase in fluid viscosity, is not A. continuous, unnecessary, and excessive pump discharge pressure A. Overcoming sliding friction A. gravity and feed oil cups
excessive B. Overcoming rolling friction B. grease cups
B. the fluid does not dissipate too much heat B. an increase in the number of the hydraulic fluid film layers C. Overcoming fluid friction C. hand during installation
C. the fluid be compatible with all seal materials used C. insufficient external pump slippage D. Overcoming oil wedge friction D. leakage through the stuffing box
D. separate lube oil supply be furnished for the hydraulic pump D. fluctuating pump discharge pressure in response to normal load Ans: A Ans: D
variations 3656 An organic solid lubricant, such as graphite, is suitable as an oil 3657 The best method of fixing a winch motor bearing of the sealed type
Ans: C Ans: A additive when used in _____________. that is running hot is to ____________.
3640 In a fixed displacement axial piston hydraulic motor, the speed is 3641 After installing a new hydraulic pump in a system, what special A. machinery bearings subjected to high temperatures A. add grease through the zerk fitting
varied by _____________. attention should be given to the hydraulic system? B. antifriction bearings on general service pumps B. allow the winch to run at slower speeds only
A. regulating the ratio between torque and speed via the torque limiter A. The relief valves in the system should be readjusted. C. bearings subject to fluctuating loads C. replace the bearing with a new one
at the motor D. line shaft bearings D. apply a light oil to the bearing housing
B. directing the motor output flow through a bypass line B. The filters and strainers should be checked frequently. Ans: A Ans: C
C. maintaining a constant flow and pressure input C. All system pressure should be readjusted. 3658 Adsorption filters are not commonly used in steam turbine or diesel 3659 Although lube oils used in the main lubricating service systems
D. controlling the input flow rate D. The system should be drained and renewed with a fluid of different engine lubricating systems because they ____________. should have a relatively high flash point to avoid ignition, they can
operating characteristics. create smoke and fire hazards when they __________.
Ans: D Ans: B
3642 A hydraulic fluid flow control circuit, used to control linear actuator 3643 In a typical hydraulic system, return lines to thereservoir are A. utilize exotic and expensive filtering media making them too costly A. are exposed to a vacuum
speed during retraction, with the pump operating at above terminated below the normal oil level toprevent _______. I. foaming for use.
maximum pressure, is known as a ________. of the oil II. condensation of warm oil vapors upon return B. are only effective at temperatures below 37.8°C B. come in contact with extremely hot surfaces
C. can adsorb no more than five times their weight in water C. are reduced in temperature to just above the pour point
A. metered-in circuit A. I only D. remove additives from the lube oil D. become extremely agitated or aerated
B. metered-out circuit B. II only Ans: D Ans: B
C. bleed-in circuit C. Both I and II 3660 The construction of the main propulsion engine lube oil sump should 3661 Design characteristics of lubricating oil sump tanks will include
D. bleed-off circuit D. Neither I and II ________________. _____________.
Ans: B Ans: A A. have no plating joints of 90° A. installation of baffles to prevent excessive sloshing of oil
3644 According to Regulations an accumulator is a/an ____________. 3645 Archimedes' principle states that the resultant pressure acting on a B. retain the lube oil as long as possible before it recirculates through B. sufficient capacity to contain all the lube oil in the system except for
body immersed in a fluid _________. the system the contents of the gravity tank
A. device in which bilge water may be stored prior to being pumped A. acts vertically upward through the center of gravity of the displaced C. provide drain/return lines that are no greater than 600mm from the C. cooling coils made of welded seamless steel pipe
ashore fluid and is equal to the weight of the fluid displaced pump suction
D. be provided with only a perfectly horizontal bottom D. the bottom of the sump should be integral with the shell plating
B. unfired pressure vessel in which energy is stored under high B. will cause the body to have a reduction in mass equal in magnitude
pressure in the form of a gas or a gas and a hydraulic fluid. to the effective mass of the structure located above the line of Ans: B Ans: A
floatation 3662 The ability of lubricating oils to resist viscosity changes during 3663 Which of the additives listed is used to reduce the foaming tendency
C. industry accepted term for the equipment which is used to collect C. is proportional in magnitude and direction, regardless of the direction temperature changes is indicated by the ____________. of lube oil?
oily bilge liquids originally developed when the object was submerged
A. American Petroleum Institute number A. Emulsifiers
D. test procedure in which the relieving capacity of the safety valves D. is applied equal and in all directions throughout the vessel in which it B. viscosity index number B. Suppressants
are verified is contained C. Seconds Saybolt Furol number C. Depressants
Ans: B Ans: A D. Seconds Saybolt Universal number D. Extreme pressure
3646 Air trapped in one end of a hydraulic actutator may be indicated by 3647 The major source of chemical contaminants in hydraulic fluid is Ans: B Ans: B
____________. _________________. 3664 The flash point of most lube oils used in a main lubricating system 3665 Which of the lubricants listed is the best to use on a reciprocating
A. erratic or jerky motion of the actuator A. microscopic steel shavings should be approximately ____________. pump rod?
B. a pump discharge pressure that is consistent, but higher than normal B. abrasive waste A. 27°C to 38°C A. Engine oil.
B. 60°C to 71°C B. Oil mixed with kerosene.
C. consistently faster response or movement of the actuator C. anti-oxidant compounds C. 121°C to 149°C C. Graphite and oil.
D. over speeding of the pump D. oxidation by-products D. 177°C to 232°C D. Vegetable oil.
Ans: A Ans: D Ans: D Ans: C
3648 While starting a hydraulic anchor windlass, you observe that 3649 In order to recognize the amount of anchor chain paid out, specific 3666 Which of the filter/strainer units listed permits you to clean the 3667 Which of the additives listed will maintain the suspension of fine
hydraulic pressure does not develop in spite of the proper operation portions of the chain are color coded and wrapped with wire. A red element while leaving the system on the line? residue particles in lube oil?
of the electric drive motor. Which of the following actions should painted detachable line would be found between the __________. A. Simplex A. Floc point
you take FIRST to restore pressure?
B. Duplex B. Suppressant
A. Make certain that the hydraulic reservoir is filled to the proper level. A. number 1 and 2 shots of chain C. Canister C. Dispersant
D. Bypass D. All of the above.
B. Inspect the disc brake on the electric motor for proper operation. B. number 2 and 3 shots of chain Ans: B Ans: C
3668 The function of lubricating oil is to ____________. 3669 The function of lubricating oil is to ______________.
C. Check the electric motor for an open overload relay contact. C. number 3 and 4 shots of chain A. reduce friction between moving surfaces A. maintain even distribution of bearing wear
D. Check for full voltage supply to the electric motor. D. all of the above B. provide even distribution of bearing wear B. maintain a constant oil temperature
 Page 201 Page 202

C. reduce the accumulation of harmful detergents C. maintain a pressurized fluid film between moving surfaces Ans: C Ans: C
D. maintain a constant oil temperature output at each bearing D. remove entrained water 3690 The graphite in a bearing lubricant compound of graphite grease, 3691 When removing roller bearings from a shaft, the force of the puller
Ans: A Ans: C acts as a ___________. should be applied to the bearing _____________.
3670 The neutralization number of lube oil used in the machinery has 3671 With regards to the viscosity of lube oil in an operating system under A. low temperature sealer A. outer race
exceeded its permissible range, therefore, it will be necessary to normal load, the highest viscosity should occur _____________. B. moisture barrier B. raceway
________________. C. filler to smooth surface irregularities C. inner race
A. centrifuge the oil A. just prior to entering the lube oil cooler D. coolant to carry away heat D. retainer plate
B. add makeup oil B. at the lube oil cooler outlet Ans: C Ans: C
C. renew the entire oil supply C. at the main lube oil pump discharge 3692 Demulsibility of a lube oil is defined as _________________. 3693 Demulsibility of lube oil is defined as _____________.
D. operate the machinery at reduced power D. at the narrowest point of the hydrodynamic wedge A. the ability of oil to separate from water A. the temperature at which oil flows rapidly
Ans: C Ans: D B. the temperature at which oil flows rapidly B. a measure of the water in a lube oil system
3672 A grease gun is generally used to lubricate a ____________. 3673 An example of an antifriction bearing is a _____________. C. a measure of the water in a lube oil system C. an emulsion of grades of oil
A. condensate pump ball bearing A. rubber cutlass strut bearing D. an emulsion of different grades of oil D. the ability of oil to separate from an oil and water emulsion
B. main shaft bearing B. line shaft or spring bearing Ans: A Ans: D
C. main turbine bearing C. Kingsbury thrust bearing 3694 A lubricating oil with a high viscosity index number is most effectively 3695 Which of the additives listed is used to lower the pour point of a
D. diesel engine wrist pin bearing D. ball bearing used ____________. lubricating oil?
Ans: A Ans: D A. in only very high temperature installations A. Emulsifiers
3674 A graphite additive type grease is best suited for ________. I. low 3675 The lubrication of a precision high speed bearing depends upon a B. as an additive to depress pour point B. Suppressants
temperature applications II. high temperature applications system that produces ________. C. as an additive to slow oxidation C. Depressants
D. where a wide range of temperature variations exist D. Extreme pressure
A. I only A. adequate quantity at sufficient pressure Ans: D Ans: C
B. II only B. high detergent oil with pressure additives 3696 Which of the following statements is correct concerning the viscosity 3697 Additives commonly found in turbine lubricating oil include
C. Both I and II C. constant viscosity lubrication of lubricating oil? _____________.
D. Neither I nor II D. a minimum of 15 psi to all parts of the system A. Viscosity will increase as temperature increases. A. antifoaming agents
Ans: B Ans: A B. Viscosity is a measure of a fluid's internal resistance to flow. B. oxidation inhibitors
3676 Dirt should not be allowed to contaminate a greaselubricant because 3677 The lubrication of a precision high speed bearing depends upon a C. Viscosity will decrease as temperature decreases. C. extreme pressure additives
the ______________. system that produces ________. D. Viscosity is not dependent on temperature. D. all of the above
A. bearings will leak oil excessively A. high detergent oil with pressure additives Ans: B Ans: D
B. dirt will cause corrosion of bearing B. constant viscosity lubrication 3698 The amount of fluid friction or internal friction inherent in a mineral 3699 A lube oil filter can be used to remove most contaminants from lube
C. grease will become inflammable C. a minimum of 15 psi to all parts of the system lubricating oil is reflected as a measure of its ______________. oil. A contaminant which will remain in the lube oil after filtering is
D. dirt is very abrasive when mixed with grease D. adequate quanity at sufficient pressure ____________.
Ans: D Ans: D A. specific gravity A. acid
3678 The tendency for lubricating oil to thin out at high temperatures and 3679 Which of the following conditions should be used to support the B. viscosity B. fuel oil
thicken at low temperatures will be characterized by a need to change the lube oil when there has been an increase in the C. S.E. number C. sediment
________________. neutralization number? D. hydrolytic stability D. water
A. low viscosity index A. A decrease in the viscosity of the oil Ans: B Ans: B
B. high viscosity index B. An increase in the viscosity of the oil 3700 Which indicator is used to determine the hardness of a grease? 3701 A dented race in an antifriction bearing could be caused by
C. high neutralization number C. A change in the cloud point _____________.
D. low demulsibility quality D. A change in the floc point A. Pour point A. water in the bearing
Ans: A Ans: B B. Drop point B. abrasives in the lubricant
3680 Oil emulsification in engine lubricating oils will tend to 3681 Which bearing will carry the load on two small points diametrically C. Penetration number C. dirt in the bearing
________________. opposite to each other? D. Stability-consistency number D. vibration while the bearing is not in operation
A. decrease sludge formation in lubricating oil A. Needle Ans: C Ans: D
B. cause water to separate from the oil B. Tapered roller 3702 If a ball bearing installed on a pump is completely packed full of 3703 Ball bearings may become overheated if they are ___________.
C. improve the lubricating oil viscosity C. Roller grease, this can result in ____________.
D. displace lubricating oil required in areas of friction D. Ball A. bearing failure A. packed with too much grease
Ans: D Ans: D B. smoother pump operation B. mounted on a misaligned shaft
3682 One characteristic of a lubricating oil adversely affecting the results 3683 In most pumps and pump motors, overpacking the ball bearings full C. reduced corrosion in the bearing C. not lubricated
of centrifuging is ____________. of grease will result in ____________. D. increased pump capacity D. all of the above
A. high TBN value A. moisture emulsification of the bearing grease Ans: A Ans: D
B. low oil floc point B. insufficient circulation and overheating of the bearing 3704 Overgreasing of ball bearings installed on pumps will result in 3705 Dirt should not be allowed to contaminate a greaselubricant because
C. low oil demulsibility C. proper grease circulation to cool the bearing ___________. the ______________.
D. low oil neutralization number D. sliding friction between balls and races A. smoother pump operation A. dirt will cause corrosion of bearing
Ans: C Ans: B B. overheating of the bearing B. bearings will leak oil excessively
3684 Main propulsion engine lube oil sumps should be constructed 3685 The greatest difference between absorbent and adsorbent filters is C. reduced corrosion in the bearing C. dirt is very abrasive when mixed with grease
____________. that absorbent filters ____________. D. increased pump capacity D. grease will become inflammable
A. so as to never be integral with the main engine foundation A. will remove additives from the lube oil Ans: B Ans: C
B. with a sloped bottom B. soak up liquid contaminants directly into the filter media 3706 The viscosity of an oil is a measure of its _______________. 3707 An oil fog lubrication system is recommended for __________.
C. only of nonferrous, noncorrosive metals C. do not create pressure drops in the lube oil system
D. with drain/return lines terminating just above or at the designed D. attract or have liquid contaminants stick to the surface of the filter A. weight A. gear shaft bearings
normal level media B. internal friction B. high speed continuous operation of roller bearings
Ans: B Ans: B C. demulsibility C. low and moderate speed ball bearings
3686 Antifriction bearings should not be excessively lubricated because 3687 If a ball bearing for a centrifugal pump is completely packed with D. S.A.E. number D. heavily loaded and high-speed ball bearings
____________. grease, _____________. Ans: B Ans: B
A. the bearings will require immediate flushing A. the bearing may heat up 3708 The pour point of lubricating oils is affected the most by which of the 3709 Which of the listed characteristics of lube oil are the most important
B. dirt will accumulate inside the bearings B. grease may flow out of the seals following? to the engineer from an operational standpoint?
C. excess lubrication will result in slippage C. early failure may result A. Extensive centrifuging A. Ash content, carbon residue, and gravity
D. the bearing will overheat D. all of the above B. Wax content B. Viscosity, acidity, and demulsibility
Ans: D Ans: D C. Water content C. Pour point, flash point, and precipitation number
3688 Antifriction bearings can be removed undamaged from a shaft by 3689 An additive used to improve the ability of a lube oil to reduce friction D. Acid content D. Autoignition point, viscosity index, and film strength
using an arbor press, or wheel puller with a________. is known as a/an ____________. Ans: B Ans: B
3710 Design characteristics of lubricating oil sump tanks include 3711 Which of the following base oils cannot be refined without
A. ring gage A. suppressant additive _____________. developing a change in chemical composition?
B. split die B. dispersant additive A. installation of baffles to prevent excessive sloshing of oil A. animal
C. split washer or backup ring C. extreme pressure additive B. sufficient capacity to contain all the lube oil in the system except for B. vegetable
D. jack screw D. viscosity improver additive the contents of the gravity tank
 Page 203 Page 204

C. cooling coils made of welded seamless steel pipe C. mineral A. The wedge-shaped oil film's load carrying capacity is determined by A. leakage through the pump stuffing box gland
D. insuring the bottom of the sump is integral with the shell plating D. both A and B its length and thickness.
B. The load carrying capacity is inversely proportional to the velocity of B. high net positive suction head
Ans: A Ans: D the fluid.
3712 The main lube oil sump of a main propulsion engine should be 3713 The ability of an oil to separate cleanly from an oil and water mixture C. Pressures throughout the oil wedge are uniform. C. long periods of cavitation
constructed of ___________. is referred to as its ____________. D. The load carrying capacity is directly proportional to the thickness of D. misalignment
A. coated steel plating to reduce corrosion A. precipitation number the oil film.
B. nonferrous metal plating to prevent corrosion B. neutralization number Ans: A Ans: D
C. clean steel plating C. pour point 3732 Greases are generally produced by ____________. 3733 A ball bearing will overheat if ____________.
D. pinchback plating D. demulsibility A. reducing the temperature of an oil below its cloud point to create the A. completely packed full of grease
Ans: C Ans: D gelatinous texture
3714 When replacing ball bearings on an electric motor shaft, you should 3715 Oils are usually graded by their service classification and B. saponifying a metal base, to which oil is then added and mixed B. filled with grease to 95% of the total open spaces within the bearing
_______________. _____________. under controlled temperature
A. tap the outer race with a mallet A. fire point C. reducing tallow 50°F below its pour point then mixing a base metal, C. in use for a long time
B. apply even pressure to the outer race B. flash point such as barium, into solution
C. apply even force to the inner race C. neutralization number D. saponifying an aluminum base, to which tallow and oil are mixed into D. operated at designed high speed
D. apply pressure evenly to both the inner and outer races D. viscosity solution under a controlled temperature
Ans: C Ans: D Ans: B Ans: A
3716 Which of the following statements concerning antifriction bearings 3717 A roller bearing should normally be filled to what fraction of its space 3734 With oil bath lubrication of ball bearings in a cargo pump, the oil 3735 Packing extremely soft grease into a roller bearing will cause
installed on pumps is true? cavity? level should ______________. _____________.
A. The inner race should be free to turn on the shaft. A. Less than 1/4 A. never be higher than the center of the lowest ball in the bearing A. excessive channeling of the grease
B. The outer race should be free to turn its housing. B. 1/3 to 1/2 housing
C. Alignment is not a critical factor in their installation. C. 1/2 to 3/4 B. cover the bottom of the pump shaft B. high temperatures to develop as result of churning
D. They are usually pressed on to their shafts. D. More than 3/4 C. cover the top ball in the bearing housing C. emulsification of the thickener additive
Ans: D Ans: B D. be kept at the top of the oil reservoir D. gelling of the base oil
3718 The degree to which the viscosity of an oil will change with a change 3719 A good quality oil used in main propulsion engine lubrication Ans: A Ans: B
in temperature is indicated by the _______________. systems should be _____________. 3736 The main bearings of a reciprocating air compressor are tapered 3737 Which of the following surfaces will not develop a hydrodynamic
A. weight designation A. free from all chemical additives roller bearings. When mounted, these bearings are given a "cold" film where motion is accompanied by any appreciable loading?
B. viscosity index B. quickly chemically oxidized end clearance to _____________.
C. pour point C. resistant to permanent emulsification A. allow for crank web deflection A. Curved surfaces
D. thermal change value D. readily saponified with water B. allow for longitudinal expansion of the crankshaft as the unit warms B. Flat nonparallel surfaces
Ans: B Ans: C up
3720 The pressure produced within the oil wedge of a rotating journal is 3721 Which of the filters listed will deplete the additives in lubricating oil? C. prevent longitudinal thrust in the crankshaft C. Flat inflexible parallel surfaces
____________. D. reduce torsional vibration in the crankshaft D. All of the above surfaces will sustain a hydrodynamic film while in
A. the same as the pressure in the lubricating system A. Extended area membrane filter motion under a load
B. less than the pressure in the lubricating system B. Cloth bag extractor Ans: B Ans: C
C. greater than the pressure in the lubricating system C. Absorbent filter 3738 A good quality lubricating oil used in any machinery, should be 3739 Which of the listed types of bearings is an example of a half
D. highest at the oil groove location D. Adsorbent filter ___________. bearing?
Ans: C Ans: D A. acid free A. Piston pin bushing
3722 Which of the listed types of soap grease offers the maximum 3723 During operating temperature changes, the ability of a lubricating oil B. capable of emulsifying B. Thrust bearing
chemical stability and resistance to separation at temperatures to resist viscosity changes is indicated by a/an ____________. C. a rapid oxidizer C. Spring bearing
between 120°C and 150°C? D. additive free D. All of the above.
A. Lime soap grease A. API number Ans: A Ans: C
B. Calcium soap grease B. viscosity index number 3740 If a continuous and steady flow of lube oil is provided, which of the 3741 If the chemical analysis of a lube oil sample taken from the main
C. Sodium soap grease C. seconds Saybolt Furol number listed pressures represents the lowest supply pressure at which a propulsion machinery indicates an increased neutralization number
D. Lithium soap grease D. seconds Saybolt Universal number small high-speed bearing can be safely lubricated? the _______.
Ans: D Ans: B
3724 Pipe friction during oil transfer will be the greatest during the 3725 A graphite additive type grease would be effectively usedfor A. 0.1kg/cm2 A. acidity has increased
transfer of a lubricating oil at 55°C with a viscosity index of lubricating ________. I. a topping lift winch bearing II. a fuel oil B. 0.3kg/cm2 B. viscosity has decreased
________. service pump bearing C. 0.6kg/cm2 C. demulsibility has improved
A. 65 A. I only D. 1.kg/cm2 D. foaming is guaranteed to occur
B. 80 B. II only Ans: A Ans: A
C. 90 C. Both I and II 3742 Why do roller bearings have higher loading capacities than ball 3743 Which of the listed tools should be used to remove a tapered roller
D. 100 D. Neither I nor II bearings? bearing from a shaft?
Ans: D Ans: D A. They are installed with tighter clearances. A. An arbor press
3726 In a disk-type lubricating oil purifier, __________________. 3727 The neutralization number obtained from a test sample of lubricating B. They are subject to less pitting and metal fatigue. B. A steel drift pin and hammer
oil will tell you precisely _____________. C. They have a greater tolerance for high speed applications. C. An acetylene torch and hammer
A. the purifier driving gears are lubricated by the reclaimed oil as it A. the amount of mineral and metallic solids that will not burn D. They have a greater contact area. D. A tapered "come-a-long"
leaves the bowl Ans: D Ans: A
B. all dirt and sludge are automatically discharged with the cooling B. the number of milligrams of potassium hydroxide used to neutralize 3744 The size of ball and roller bearings can be identified by the 3745 A filler commonly mixed with grease, such as graphite, acts
water a measured sample ___________. ______________.
C. sealing water must never be supplied until after oil is fed to the unit C. what type of acid contaminants are present in a measured sample A. rolling member size A. as a mild abrasive
B. inner race cone width B. to smooth surface irregularities
D. deterioration of the bowl ring gasket will cause the purifier to lose its D. how much sulfuric acid the oil has absorbed during operations C. manufacturer's numerical code C. to lower the friction coefficient
water seal D. outer ring width D. all of the above
Ans: D Ans: B Ans: C Ans: D
3728 The dimension of the thinnest hydrodynamic film developed within a 3729 To ensure adequate lubrication and to prevent a high operating 3746 Which of the following statements best describes the filtering ability 3747 A grease drop point is ______________.
full journal bearing, when all other factors remain constant, depends temperature, the recommended amount of grease in a ball or roller of a fine mesh metal lube oil strainer?
upon the ___________. bearing is approximately _________________. A. A 200 mesh screen will prevent passage of smaller particles than a A. how far a standard metal cone will penetrate into the sample in five
A. pour point of the lubricant A. 10-15% of the void space in the bearing 100 mesh wire cloth. seconds when dropped
B. fluidity of the lubricant B. 35-40% of the void space in the bearing B. A 200 mesh screen has finer wires than a 100 mesh wire cloth. B. how uniform and thick the spread of an ounce of grease is when
C. dielectric strength of the lubricant C. 65-70% of the void space in the bearing dropped from a height of five feet
D. interfacial tension of the lubricant D. 90-95% of the void space in the bearing C. A 100 mesh wire cloth will prevent passage of smaller particles than C. the temperature that a sample of grease begins to liquefy
Ans: B Ans: B 200 mesh screen.
3730 Which of the following statements is true concerning the 3731 Frequent bearing replacement in a centrifugal pump, due to rapid
hydrodynamic wedge developed by lubricating oil? bearing wear, can be a result of ____________.
 Page 205 Page 206

D. A 200 mesh screen and a 100 mesh wire cloth prevent passage of D. the length of time a 50 gram sphere will be held in place from the 3760 In a refrigeration system, the amount of refrigerant admitted to the 3761 In a flash distilling unit, evaporator feed (seawater) first absorbs heat
the same size particles, but each allows a different number of underside of a surface coated with 25 millimeters of the grease evaporator is directly related to _________. in the ___________.
particles to pass through. sample A. the compressor discharge pressure A. vapor feed heater
Ans: A Ans: C B. condenser cooling water temperature B. air ejector condenser
3748 After adding grease to a ball bearing with a handheld grease gun, 3749 When refering to greases, penetration number is____________. C. the solenoid valve differential pressure C. saltwater heater
you should _____________. D. the superheat of the refrigerant in the tail coil D. distillate cooler
A. run the machine with the bearing housing drain plug open for a short A. how many seconds was required for a cone to penetrate the sample Ans: D Ans: D
while 3762 The value of the controlled variable, which under any fixed set of
B. close the bearing housing drain and add a little extra grease to B. the temperature at which a cone would begin to penetrate the conditions the automatic controller operates to maintain, is known
compensate for air pockets in the bearing sample as ____________.
C. remove the grease fitting and leave open to allow excess grease to C. the temperature at which the grease would become sufficiently fluid A. set point
escape to fill the voids of a standard ball bearing B. control point
D. save the used grease for chemical analysis D. the depth to which a cone would penetrate a sample of grease in 5 C. deviation
seconds D. offset Ans: B
Ans: A Ans: D
SAFETY, ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION, SHIP CONSTRUCTION AND NAVAL ARCHITECTURE
3750 A journal rotating in its bearing relies on hydrodynamic principles for 3751 Machinery with ball bearings designed to be filled with grease
3763 A fuel tank on a barge has been certified by a marine chemist as 3764 In the event of an exhaust duct fire, most dry chemical and carbon
lubrication. Under steady load conditions, the journal rotating in the should have the relief plug temporarily removed while grease is
being "Safe for Men" and "Safe for fire." This condition may change dioxide, galley range, fixed extinguishing systems areautomatically
bearing will assume a position _____________. being added. This plug should remain out until the machinery has
if___________. activated through the action of a stainless steel cable, spring and a
been operated and sufficiently warmed up to ensure that ______
____________.
A. the ambient temperature changes A. fusible link
A. at bearing bottom center A. a path of expansion is provided for the grease
B. a product leaks into the certified tank B. stack switch
B. concentric in the bearing B. all air pockets are vented from the grease
C. muck, sludge, or scale in the tank give off additional vapors C. thermostat
C. at bearing top center C. dirt and grit are flushed from the bearing housing
D. all of the above D. pyrostat
D. eccentric in the bearing D. the grease is properly distributed within the bearing
Ans: D Ans: A
Ans: D Ans: A
3765 Which of the listed fire extinguishing agents would be suitable for 3766 The horizontal fore and aft movement of a vessel is called
3752 Solid contaminants are prevented from entering the main lube oil 3753 As the speed of an oil lubricated ball bearing increases, fluid friction,
use on an oil fire, but dangerous on an electrical fire? _______________.
system by way of the main engine sump, through the use of due to churning, generates heat and should be avoided by
______________. ________________.
A. CO2 A. yaw
A. fine mesh screening placed around the pump suction line in the A. adding more lubricant until the ball bearings are completely covered
B. Water fog B. sway
sump with a layer of oil
C. Halon C. heave
B. baffles installed without limber or lightening holes to trap the B. reducing the quantity of lubricant until only a mist of oil is present on
D. Dry chemical D. surge
particles the ball bearings
Ans: B Ans: D
C. a suction inlet located approximately 10 inches (254 mm) above the C. maintaining a continuous fluid film of oil on the bearings
3767 Which of the following conditions will allow for a work vest to be 3768 What safety information can be found in the fire control plan that is
sump bottom
substituted for a lifejacket in the total count of the required lifesaving posted or available in booklet form on your ship?
D. a 10 inch (254 mm) dome installed just below the suction inlet and D. installing oil rings on the ball bearings gear?
provided with a pipe-opening within one inch of the dome
A. When it is approved by the Master A. Location of fire doors
B. When working near or over the water B. Location of the remote means of stopping fans
Ans: C Ans: B
C. When stowed away from the ring buoys C. Particulars of the fire detecting system
3754 Which of the following statements is correct concerning antifriction 3755 A drop test is carried out on a sample of grease by _______.
D. A work vest may never be counted as a lifejacket D. All of the above.
bearings installed on pumps?
Ans: D Ans: D
A. The inner race should be free to turn on the shaft. A. allowing a suspended cone to drop into a sample of grease for five
3769 When involved in fighting a fire aboard a ship with an aluminum 3770 The fire protection provided for the propulsion motor and generator
seconds and determining the depth of penetration
superstructure, it is important to remember that aluminum structures of a diesel electric drive vessel is usually a _____________.
B. The outer race should be free to turn in its housing. B. dropping a one ounce grease sample from one meter, and
exposed to the high heat _____________.
observing the resulting spread pattern, uniformity of thickness, and
consistency of texture
A. generate poisonous fumes A. fixed foam extinguisher
C. Alignment is not a critical factor in their installation. C. allowing a sample of grease to drop into a cup at ambient
B. are more susceptible to collapse than steel structures B. fixed CO2 system
temperature and determining the time necessary for this to occur
C. are susceptible to spontaneous ignition C. steam smothering system
D. all of the above D. carbon tetrachloride extinguishing system
D. They are usually pressed onto their shafts. D. determining the temperature at which a grease sample liquefies
B
Ans: B
Ans:
when heated and drops from a cup through a bottom orifice
3771 When administering artificial respiration to an adult, the breathing 3772 The most common cooling agent used for fighting fires on tank
cycle should be repeated about ____________. vessels is _____________.
Ans: D Ans: D
A. 12 to 15 times per minute A. carbon dioxide
3756 Which of the following statements describes the characteristics of 3757 Which of the following statements is correct regarding an oil with a
B. 18 to 20 times per minute B. flue gas
precision manufactured roller bearings? high viscosity index?
C. 20 to 25 times per minute C. water
A. They are not capable of maintaining alignment over long periods of A. A large change of viscosity occurs with a minor change in
D. as fast as possible D. steam smothering
time. temperature.
Ans: A Ans: C
B. They have a relatively high power loss due to friction. B. No change in viscosity occurs with any change in temperature.
3773 A disadvantage of using CO2 for firefighting is that 3774 Approved buoyant work vests may be carried aboard tank vessels
______________. and shall be worn by crew members ____________.
C. They are well adapted to variable speed operation. C. Very little change in viscosity occurs with a significant change in
A. the CO2 does not cool the fire A. when working near or over the water under unfavorable working
temperature.
conditions
D. Their lubrication is complicated and requires constant attention. D. The viscosity of the oil increases with an increase in temperature.
B. the cylinders are regulated pressure vessels B. under the supervision and control of designated ship's officers
Ans: C Ans: C
C. they are not effective on class "B" fires C. as substitutes for the approved life preservers during routine drills,
3758 Which of the following lube oil filters would be considered 3759 Which of the following problems will occur if a disk-type centrifugal
weather permitting, when a vessel is moored pierside
acceptable for use with today's high detergent additive type oils? lube oil purifier is not properly primed prior to admitting oil flow to the
bowl?
D. they are not effective on class "C" fires D. all of the above
A. Cotton waste packed in perforated metal containers or cylindrical A. Contamination of the lube oil by emulsification will result.
cartridges. Ans: A Ans: B
3775 According to Regulations , all merchant vessels are required to have 3776 When required to work where there may be explosive gases, you
B. Cylindrical elements containing fullers earth combined with cellulose. B. The lube oil will not be subjected to the proper centrifugal force.
muster lists and are to be posted __________. should use tools which are _____________.
A. on the navigating bridge A. approved by the Coast Guard
C. Foamed polyurethane of the impingement type supported on C. The lube oil will overheat and flash.
B. in the engine room B. high carbon steel
perforated metal rings.
C. in the crew accomodation spaces C. fixed with a ferrous cover
D. Chemically treated paper and waste in cartridges. D. Oil will discharge from the heavy phase discharge port and be
D. all of the above D. nonsparking
wasted.
Ans: D Ans: D
Ans: A Ans: D
3777 The vertical motion of a floating vessel is known as ____________. 3778 An acceptable method of dealing with accumulated oil found in the
pump room bilges is to ______________.
 Page 207 Page 208

A. surge A. transfer the oil to the sea chest A. the lack of cooling effect on heated materials A. Load Line mark
B. sway B. pump the oil into the slop tanks B. it cannot be used in a dead ship situation without electrical power B. Certificate of Inspection
C. heave C. discharge the oil over the side on an outgoing tide available to the CO2 pump
D. pitch D. pump the oil into a clean ballast tank C. it breaks down under extreme heat to form poisonous gases C. Muster List
Ans: C Ans: B D. there is no effect on a class "A" fire even in an enclosed space D. Tonnage mark
3779 When applying chest compressions on an adult victim during CPR, 3780 Personnel who are moving or handling material aboard ship should
the sternum should be depressed about _____________. NOT follow which of the listed practices? Ans: A Ans: A
3797 After abandoning a vessel, water consumed within the first 24 hours 3798 A fire extinguishing product produced by first mixing a foam
A. 1/2 inch or less A. Signaling that all personnel are clear before lifting or lowering _______________. concentrate with water to produce a foam solution, then mixing the
material. foam solution with air is termed ____________.
B. 1/2 to 1 inch B. Examining material for sharp edges or protruding points before A. will pass through the body with very little being absorbed by the A. light water
handling. system
C. 1 to 1 1/2 inches C. Closing, tagging, or securing valves that permit entrance of steam, B. will help to prevent fatigue B. Halon 1301
water, or air into a fitting or other equipment. C. will quench thirst for only two hours C. chemical foam
D. 1 1/2 to 2 inches D. Throwing materials from high places to the deck. D. helps to prevent seasickness D. mechanical foam
Ans: D Ans: D Ans: A Ans: D
3781 Halon extinguishers used on a class "C" fire should be directed at 3782 When taking tank soundings , coating the tape with chalk helps to 3799 Angular motion about the vertical axis of a vessel is known as 3800 If a leak in an oil hose coupling cannot be stopped by tightening the
the ______________. ______________. ______________. coupling bolts, you should _____________.
A. base of the equipment A. better identify the correct reading A. yaw A. notify the Coast Guard of a potential oil spill
B. top of the equipment B. show the depth of any water in an oil tank B. surge B. reduce pumping pressure to reduce the leakage rate
C. power source C. make the tape roll easier C. sway C. spread absorbent material on deck beneath the leak
D. source of the fire D. reduce possibility of sparks D. roll D. notify the terminal operator, then shutdown and repair the leak
Ans: D Ans: A
3783 When completing the ballasting operation of a contaminated tank, 3784 To release the davit cable of a davit launched liferaft, you must Ans: A Ans: D
which of the following problems must be guarded against? _____________. 3801 Load line regulations are designed to insure that a vessel has 3802 The necessity for administering artificial respiration may be
adequate structural strength and sufficient ______________. recognized by the victim's ______________.
A. Back flow of contaminated water A. pull the release lanyard A. lifesaving equipment A. vomiting
B. Loss of pump suction B. pull the hydraulic release B. stability B. blue color and lack of breathing
C. Excessive tank pressure due to closed vents C. push the release button C. mooring tension C. irregular breathing
D. Motor overload due to high discharge head D. pull on the ratchet handle D. riser tension D. unconscious condition
Ans: A Ans: A Ans: B Ans: B
3785 Pitching is angular motion of the vessel about which axis? 3786 A segregated ballast system is a system where _____________. 3803 The piece of equipment shown in the illustration is used in 3804 A safety outlet is provided on the CO2 discharge piping to prevent
conjunction with a fire hose to produce which of the listed fire _______________.
A. Longitudinal A. all ballast is processed through the oily water separator extinguishing agents?
B. Transverse B. ballast is taken on and discharged through a separate main deck A. Chemical foam A. overpressurization of the space being flooded
riser B. Low velocity fog B. rupture of cylinder due to temperature increase
C. Vertical C. ballast and cargo tanks are separated by cofferdams C. Mechanical foam C. overpressurization of the CO2 discharge piping
D. Centerline D. all ballast lines, tanks, and pumps are independent of those used for D. High velocity fog D. flooding of a space where personnel are present
oil Ans: C Ans: C
Ans: B Ans: D 3805 An oceangoing ship of 350 gross tons, contracted for in January 3806 Drinking salt water will _____________.
3787 What information must be entered on the muster list? 3788 The most essential element in the administration of CPR is 1976, and not equipped with an oily water separator, all bilge slops
________________. may be retained ________.
A. Names of all crew members. A. to have the proper equipment for the process A. onboard in the ship's bilges A. be safe if mixed with fresh water
B. Use and application of special equipment. B. the speed of treatment B. in the forward peak tank B. prevent seasickness
C. Listing of approved emergency equipment. C. the administration of oxygen C. in the oil purifier reservoir C. promote urine excretion
D. Duties and station of each person during emergencies. D. the treatment for traumatic shock D. in a cofferdam D. protect against heat cramps
Ans: D Ans: B Ans: A Ans: C
3789 You should deploy the sea anchor from a liferaft to ____________. 3790 In addition to weighing the cartridge, what other routine maintenance 3807 "GM" cannot be used as an indicator of stability at all angles of 3808 The most frequent incidents of tanker pollution occurring during
is required for a cartridge-operated dry chemical extinguisher? inclination because ______________. tanker operations is ______________.
A. "M" is not fixed at large angles A. due to collisions
A. keep the liferaft from capsizing A. Weigh the powder in the canister. B. there is no "M" at large angles B. routine discharge of oil during ballasting and tank crude oil washing
B. navigate against the current B. Discharge small amount to see that it works.
C. keep personnel from getting seasick C. Check the hose and nozzle for clogs. C. "G" is not fixed at large angles C. loading and discharging
D. stay in the general location D. Check the external pressure gage. D. there is no "G" at large angles D. due solely to groundings
Ans: D C
Ans: Ans: A Ans: C
3791 Angular motion about the longitudinal axis of a vessel is known as 3792 Safety is dependent on orderliness and cleanliness. Order may be 3809 Each fire pump on a cargo ship must have a pressure gage located 3810 If vomiting occurs during a resuscitation effort, the best immediate
_____________. maintained by ___________. ______________. procedure to follow is ____________.
A. pitch A. storing all items in an assigned place A. at the pump discharge A. ignore it and continue mouth-to-mouth ventilation
B. surge B. storing all items in a common storage container except those ready- B. at the manifold connection B. pause for a moment until the patient appears quiet again, then
for-sea resume mouth-to-mouth ventilation
C. sway C. tagging all items according to their age and then storing them C. at each fire station discharge C. switch to mouth-to-mouth ventilation
together D. at the pump station D. turn the patient's body to the side, sweep out the mouth and resume
D. roll D. disposing of worn-out items CPR
Ans: D Ans: A Ans: A Ans: D
3793 When administering artificial respiration, it is of the utmost 3794 When entering a compartment which is on fire, _____________. 3811 When you are firing a pyrotechnic distress signal, it should be aimed 3812 Oil Pollution Regulations (MARPOL), require any transfer, or
importance to ____________. _____________. discharge of oil, or oily mixtures be recorded in the _____________.
A. use the mouth-to-mouth method A. you must wear rubber gloves
B. clear airways B. the flames should be beaten back from the door with water fog A. straight overhead A. Pollution Control Record
B. at the vessel whose attention you want to attract B. Bridge log
C. use rhythmic pressure method C. a straight stream of water should be used to cool the door C. into the wind C. Oil Record book
D. know all approved methods D. a straight stream of water should be used to cool the fire fighters D. at about 60 degrees above the horizon D. Masters log
Ans: D Ans: C
Ans: B Ans: B 3813 Which of the listed firefighting agents and associated applications 3814 A vessel should normally behave as if all of its weight is acting
3795 There are two disadvantages to CO2 when used as a total flooding 3796 The maximum draft to which a vessel can legally be submerged is provide the largest shielding effect for the fire fighter? downward through the center of gravity and all of its support is acting
firefighting agent. One of these is the limited quantity available and indicated by the _______________. upward through the _____________.
the other is ____________. A. Straight stream of water A. keel
 Page 209 Page 210

B. Light water and foam mixture B. center of buoyancy D. all of the above D. applying a tourniquet
C. Low velocity water fog C. tipping center Ans: D Ans: A
D. Carbon dioxide interface D. amidships section 3835 Damage stability of a ship is the stability _____________. 3836 Good housekeeping on a vessel prevents fires by ____________.
Ans: C Ans:B
3815 One of the uses for low velocity fog is to _____________. 3816 The value of the maximum righting arm is dependent upon the A. which exists when the wind speed is less than 50 knots A. allowing better access in an emergency
position of the center of buoyancy and the ______________. B. before collision B. eliminating potential fuel sources
A. help produce mechanical foam A. longitudinal center of gravity C. after flooding C. eliminating trip hazards
B. break apart class "A" combustibles B. transverse center of gravity D. at survival draft D. improving personnel qualifications
C. sweep burning liquids overboard C. downflooding angle Ans: C Ans: B
D. act as a heat shield to protect the fire fighter D. vertical location of the center of gravity 3837 A definite advantage in the use of water as a fire extinguishing 3838 Which of the listed initials is used to represent the indicator of initial
Ans: D Ans: D agent is its ability to ___________. stability?
3817 Which of the following must be eliminated to prevent accidents? 3818 Repair of vital machinery and services related to an emergency on a A. alternate expansion and contraction as water in liquid state becomes A. GM
cargo ship should be accomplished (in sequence) ______________. vapor
B. absorb smoke and gases as water is converted from liquid to vapor B. KG
A. Unsafe actions A. after control of fire, flooding, and structural repairs
B. Orderliness B. immediately before emergency is under control C. rapidly contract as water is converted from a liquid to a vapor C. KM
C. Frequent inspections C. after control of fire, but before control of flooding
D. Good work habit/practices D. after stability is restored D. vaporize and rapidly expand as water absorbs heat D. GZ
A
Ans: Ans:A Ans: D Ans: A
3819 Fire extinguishers designated by the Roman numerals I and II are 3820 Combustible gas indicators measure the presence of combustible 3839 Immediately after extinguishing a fire with CO2, it is advisable to 3840 Which of the following must be carried out in order to manually
______________. gases as a percentage of the ______________. _______________. launch an inflatable liferaft not designed for float-free operation?
A. portable units A. flash point
B. semi-portable units B. upper explosive limit A. use all CO2 available to cool the surrounding area A. It will be easily launched by simply breaking the weak link.
C. fixed systems C. lower explosive limit B. standby with water or other agents B. Depress the hydrostatic release button.
D. compact systems D. fire point C. thoroughly ventilate the space of CO2 C. It is easily launched by cutting the container securing straps.
Ans: A Ans: C D. jettison all burning materials D. It is only necessary to attach the weak link to the vessel.
3821 A tourniquet should be used to control bleeding only 3822 Low velocity water fog is used in firefighting as a _______. Ans: B Ans: B
_____________. 3841 Each fire hydrant is required to have at least one spanner wrench 3842 Forces within a mobile offshore drilling unit have caused a difference
A. with puncture wounds A. cooling agent and at least one _____________. between the starboard and port drafts. This difference is
B. when all other means have failed B. smothering agent __________.
C. when the victim is unconscious C. barrier against radiant heat A. hose rack or reel A. list
D. to prevent bleeding from minor wounds D. all of the above B. all-purpose nozzle B. heel
Ans: B Ans:D C. foam applicator C. trim
3823 Which of the firefighting foams listed would require the mechanical 3824 If a ship is supported on the crest of a wave amidships, the vessel is D. pick axe D. flotation
mixing of air and foam concentrate? subjected to _______________. Ans: A Ans: A
A. Protein foam A. pitch poling 3843 The size of the fire hydrant hose connections must be either 1 1/2 3844 First aid treatment for small cuts and open wounds should be to
B. Synthetic and alcohol foams B. hogging stresses inches or _________. ___________.
C. Aqueous film forming foam (AFFF) C. sagging stresses A. 1 inch A. have the patient lie down and cover the wound when the bleeding
D. All of the above D. yawing stresses stops
Ans: D Ans: B B. 2 1/2 inches B. stop the bleeding, clean, medicate, and cover the wound
3825 To avoid excessive electrostatic effect in the crude oil washing 3826 A fuel/air mixture below the lower explosive limit is too C. 3 inches C. apply an ice pack to the wound and cover it when the bleeding
process, due to the presence of water in the crude oil washing fluid, ______________. stops
the contents of any tank to be used as a source of crude oil for D. 3 1/2 inches D. apply a hot towel to purge the wound, then medicate and cover it
washing must first reduce a portion of the tank conten
Ans: B Ans: B
A. one-half meter A. rich to burn 3845 Which of the following symptoms may be observed in a victim of 3846 Heavy smoke is observed to be issuing from the partially open door
B. one meter B. lean to burn cardiac arrest as a result of electric shock? of the paint locker, the FIRST firefighting attack should be to
C. one and one-half meters C. cool to burn ____________.
D. two meters D. dense to burn A. weak pulse at wrist or neck A. leave the door and vents open, but release the CO2 flooding system
B
Ans: Ans:B
3827 Which of the listed conditions can be considered as the single 3828 A continual change in the list, or trim of any floating vessel indicates B. flushed face B. open the door to evaluate the extent of the fire
greatest cause of accidents? ______________. C. respiration is weak or has stopped C. enter and use a portable extinguisher
A. Speed A. negative "GM" D. All of the above symptoms D. secure the door and vents, then manually release the CO2
B. Excessive knowledge or skill B. progressive flooding Ans: C Ans: D
C. Human error C. structural failure 3847 #REF! 3848 If the cause of a sudden severe list or trim is negative initial stability,
D. Excitement D. an immediate need to counterflood counterflooding into empty tanks may _______________.
Ans: C Ans: B
3829 The fire hydrant outlet may be positioned from the horizontal to any 3830 To prevent oily rags from spontaneously igniting they should be A. #REF! A. increase the righting moment
position pointing ______________. ______________. B. #REF! B. cause an increase in the righting arm
A. 45° upward A. kept in nonmetal containers C. #REF! C. bring the unit to an upright equilibrium position
B. vertically upward B. discarded as soon as possible D. #REF! D. cause the unit to flop to a greater angle
C. 90° upward C. cleaned thoroughly for reuse Ans: #REF! D
Ans:
D. vertically downward D. kept in the paint locker 3849 The important initial stability parameter "GM" is the 3850 On a cargo ship, a fire drill shall be conducted once every
Ans: D Ans: B ______________. ____________.
3831 Water fog is an effective fire extinguishing agent because it 3832 With regards to the metacentric height, which of the following A. metacentric height A. week
_____________. statements is true? B. height of the metacenter above the keel B. month
A. has a great cooling ability A. It is used to indicate the quality of initial stability. C. height of the center of buoyancy above the keel C. crew change
B. will completely remove toxic fumes from the air B. It is located below the center of buoyancy. D. height of the center of gravity above the keel D. other week
C. will completely remove combustible vapors from the air C. It is measured vertically above the center of buoyancy. Ans: A Ans: A
D. does not leave a harmful residue on electrical machinery D. Its determination is the objective of the inclining experiment. 3851 During a fire drill on a ship, which of the following actions is required 3852 As a last resort, a tourniquet can be used to _____________.
Ans: A Ans: A to be carried out?
3833 Regulations require inflatable liferafts to be equipped with 3834 In all but the most severe cases, bleeding from a wound should be A. Each fire pump is to be started. A. hold a victim in a stretcher
_____________. controlled by ___________. B. The lifeboat is to be launched and operated. B. stop uncontrolled bleeding
A. a first aid kit A. applying direct pressure C. An inventory of rescue and fire equipment is to be taken. C. hold a large bandage in place
B. an instruction manual B. submerging the wound in lukewarm water D. An inspection and inventory of fire hoses is to be made. D. restrain a delirious victim
C. a sea anchor C. cooling the wound with ice Ans: A Ans: B
 Page 211 Page 212

3853 After using a CO2 fire extinguisher ,it should be ____________. 3854 You are preparing to administer closed chest cardiac massage on a 3871 When entering the pumproom of a tank vessel to rescue an 3872 Which of the following treatments is used for traumatic shock?
victim of electric shock. Which of the following actions is NOT a unconscious person, which items of the equipment listed are you
recommended procedure? required to be using?
A. put back in service if some CO2 remains A. Placing the victim on his or her back and exposing the chest. A. Protective clothing and explosion-proof flashlight A. Administer CPR
B. hydrostatically tested B. Giving cardiac massage without artificial respiration. B. Flame safety lamp and resuscitation equipment B. Administer fluids
C. retagged C. Rocking so that a controlled amount of body weight goes through C. Combustible gas indicator and canister gas mask C. Open clothing to allow cooling of the body
your arms and hand to their breastbone. D. Self-contained breathing apparatus and lifelines D. Keep the victim in a sitting position
D. recharged D. Placing one hand across victim's breastbone so that the heel of the Ans: D Ans: B
hand covers the lower part. 3873 Flooding of any ship's compartment, resulting in a serious loss of 3874 A crew member has been overcome by toxic fumes in the
Ans: D Ans: B reserve buoyancy, will always _____________. pumproom. Which of the following actions should be taken before
3855 A slow and easy motion of a ship in a seaway is an indication of 3856 If a cargo ship takes a sudden severe list or trim from an unknown entering the pumproom to rescue the victim?
__________. cause, you should first ____________. A. increase the trim A. Put on an approved self-contained breathing apparatus.
A. small "GM" A. determine the cause before taking countermeasures B. change the free surface effect B. Have someone stand by the entrance.
B. low center of gravity B. assume the shift is due to off center loading C. decrease ship stability C. Wear a lifeline.
C. a stiff vessel C. counterflood on the side opposite the list or trim D. cause a serious list D. All of the above.
D. large "GZ" D. assume the cause is environmental forces Ans: C Ans: D
Ans: A Ans: A 3875 What is the usual effect of moving weight from low in the vessel to 3876 Which of the following is considered as the correct action for the
3857 The abbreviation "GM" is used to represent the ___________. 3858 Automatic mechanical ventilation shutdown is required for CO2 above the main deck? rescue of an unconscious person from a compartment containing an
systems protecting the _____________. unsafe atmosphere?
A. height of the metacenter A. machinery spaces A. The stability is increased. A. Wear an approved self-contained breathing apparatus.
B. righting arm B. cargo compartments B. The draft is increased. B. Attach a lifeline to the rescuer.
C. righting moment C. living quarters C. The stability is decreased. C. Have someone stand by outside the compartment.
D. metacentric height D. galley D. The reserve buoyancy is decreased. D. All of the above.
D
Ans: Ans: A Ans: C Ans: D
3859 If a person suffers a simple fracture of a limb, you should 3860 You can find the location of your abandon ship post by checking the 3877 If the result of loading a ship is an increase in the height of the 3878 If a vessel looses its reserve buoyancy, it will _____________.
____________. _________________. center of gravity, there will always be an increase in the
A. attempt to set the fracture A. Certificate of Inspection __________.
B. prevent further movement of the bone B. muster list A. metacentric height A. float upright with the main deck awash
C. apply a tourniquet without delay C. vessel's logbook B. righting arm B. capsize and float on its side
D. alternately apply hot and cold compresses D. vessel's documentation C. righting moment C. remain unaffected if the hull remains intact
Ans: B Ans: B D. vertical moments D. most likely sink
3861 Stability is determined principally by the relationship of the center of 3862 In the event of a fire, automatic activation of a fixed CO2 Ans: D Ans: D
gravity and the ______________. extinguishing system can result in which of the following areas? 3879 Since accumulations of hydrogen sulfide gas can be dangerous to 3880 The purpose of the inclining experiment on a ship is to determine
personnel, it is important to know that this gas is ____________. ____________.
A. aft perpendicular A. Machinery space
B. center of buoyancy B. Paint locker A. lighter than air A. lightweight and lightweight center of gravity location
C. keel C. Cargo hold B. heavier than air B. the position of the center of buoyancy
D. center of flotation D. All of the above C. a yellow gas that is easily recognized C. the position of the metacenter
Ans: B Ans: B D. mildly toxic D. the maximum load line
3863 Stability is determined principally by the location of two points in a 3864 Where foam extinguishing systems are provided on a ship, each B
Ans: A
Ans:
vessel: The center of buoyancy and the ____________. machinery flat in the protected space must have a/an 3881 The fundamental treatment for preventing traumatic shock following 3882 Which of the following statements concerning Aqueous Film Forming
________________. an accident is to ___________. Foam (AFFF) is correct?
A. metacenter A. coaming A. have the victim exercise to increase circulation A. AFFF can be used effectively on live electrical equipment.
B. geometric center of the water plane area B. alarm B. stay away from electrical equipment B. AFFF can be used to extinguish combustible metal fires.
C. center of gravity C. drain C. keep the victim warm and dry while lying down C. AFFF may be used in a joint attack with dry chemical.
D. center of flotation D. fire sensor D. apply ice packs and avoid excitement D. AFFF is an effective chain breaking agent similar to Halon.
Ans: C Ans: A Ans: C Ans: C
3865 The muster list shows each crew lifeboat station, their duties during 3866 You are treating a shipmate with a compound fracture of the lower 3883 The reserve buoyancy of a ship consists of ____________. 3884 The worst atmospheric condition for dispersion of hydrogen sulfide is
abandonment, basic instructions, and _______________. arm. Which of the listed actions should you take? ________________.
A. the void portion of the ship below the waterline which is enclosed A. heavy rain
A. all emergency signals A. Apply a tourniquet to control bleeding then align the bones and and watertight
splint. B. all cofferdams, double bottoms, and wing tanks that are slack B. gusty winds with rain
B. instructions for lowering the survival capsule B. Apply traction to the hand to keep the bones in line, splint and apply
a pressure dressing. C. the part of the enclosed and watertight portion of a vessel above the C. nearly calm, clear nights or early morning
C. the time each weekly drill will be held C. Force the ends of the bones back into line, treat the bleeding, and waterline
splint. D. the percentage of the volume of a compartment which can be D. full sun with high winds
D. work schedule D. Apply a bulky, sterile, pressure dressing to control bleeding, then occupied by water if flooded
apply a temporary splint and place the victim in bed. Ans: C Ans: C
Ans: A Ans: D 3885 The airborne concentrations of substances (such as hydrogen 3886 The free surface effects of a partially filled liquid tank decrease with
3867 In any major personal injury, first aid is to include the treatment of 3868 The use of which fire extinguishing agent involves covering the sulfide) under which nearly all workers may be repeatedly exposed increased __________.
the injury and what additional treatment? burning surface by deflecting the agent from a bulkhead to avoid without adverse effects are called ______________.
undue agitation?
A. Application of CPR A. Foam A. exposure limits A. density of the liquid
B. Removal of any foreign objects B. Dry chemical B. concentration limits B. placement of the tank above the keel
C. Administration of oxygen C. Carbon dioxide C. threshold limit values C. displacement volume of the MODU
D. Treatment for traumatic shock D. Halon 1301 D. substance limit values D. size of the surface area in the tank
Ans: D Ans: A Ans: C Ans: C
3869 Which of the following is NOT a treatment for traumatic shock? 3870 A "class B" fire is extinguished using foam by ____________. 3887 If there is no head injury, extreme physical discomfort or difficulty 3888 Which of the listed firefighting agents produces a buoyant blanket to
breathing a patient in shock should be placed in which of the separate the burning vapors from air?
A. Keep the patient warm, but not hot. A. cooling the surface positions listed?
B. Have the injured person lie down. B. replacing the fuel A. Head up and feet down A. CO2
C. Massage the arms and legs to restore circulation. C. smothering the fire B. Head down and feet up B. Low-expansion foam
D. Relieve the pain of the injury. D. all of the above C. Flat on back with head and feet at the same level C. Water fog
Ans: C Ans: C D. Arms above the head D. Steam
Ans: B Ans: B
 Page 213 Page 214

3889 The recommended equipment for a pumproom rescue aboard a tank 3890 The major cause of shock in burn victims is _______________. A. unoccupied space below the waterline A. recorded only for accidental oil discharges
vessel is a lifeline, harness, and breathing apparatus. The lifeline B. volume of intact space above the waterline B. recorded only for operations involving discharge of oily waste
should be ______________.
A. new nylon line A. high level of pain C. excess of the buoyant force over gravitational force C. signed by the oiler who enters them in the Oil Record Book
B. a minimum of two inch line B. emotional stress D. difference between buoyancy in salt and fresh waters D. recorded chronologically in the blank space
C. longer than twice the depth of the pumproom C. increase in body temperature and pulse rate Ans: B Ans: D
D. led through a two sheave block D. massive loss of fluid through the burned area 3907 Surface burns should first be treated by ___________. 3908 The difference between the average of the forward and aft drafts is
Ans: C Ans: D _____________.
3891 If a fixed foam firefighting system on a MODU is not of the premix 3892 A crew member has suffered a burn on the arm. There is extensive A. washing the area with a warm soap and water solution A. list
type, a sample of the foam liquid must be tested by _____________. damage to the skin with charring present. This is an example of what B. flooding, bathing, or immersing the area in cold water B. heel
kind of burn? C. covering the area with talcum power and bandaging tightly C. trim
A. a Coast Guard inspection officer A. Dermal burn D. leaving them exposed to the atmosphere D. flotation
B. the safety man aboard the unit B. Third degree burn Ans: B Ans: C
C. the designated person-in-charge of the unit C. Second degree burn 3909 Most fire and explosions occur in a fuel tank ____________. 3910 Spontaneous combustion is a result of ______________.
D. the manufacturer, or his authorized representative D. Lethal burn A. during fueling when the fuel first strikes the tank bottom A. an outside heat source heating a substance unit it ignites
Ans: D Ans: B B. during fueling when fuel strikes fuel already in the tank B. conduction of heat through a wall of material to the substance
3893 When a fire occurs in a ruptured oil cargo tank, caused by an 3894 The distance between the bottom of the hull and the waterline is
explosion or collision, the best firefighting agent to use is called _______________. C. when underway as the fuel is moved by wave action C. chemical reactions within a substance
__________. D. shortly after fueling when fuel vapors are released and accumulated D. All of the above.
A. water A. tonnage
B. CO2 B. reserve buoyancy Ans: A Ans: C
C. foam C. draft 3911 Flame screens must be maintained in good condition and fitted in 3912 To prevent the spread of fire by conduction, you should
D. carbon tetrachloride D. freeboard the opening they protect in order to ____________. ____________.
Ans: C Ans: C A. prevent flammable vapors from entering the tank A. cool the bulkheads around the fire
3895 What is the percentage of oxygen in a typical sample of 3896 A man has suffered a burn on the arm. There is a reddening of the B. allow the escape of flammable vapors B. remove combustibles from direct exposure
uncontaminated air? skin but no other apparent damage. This is an example of what kind C. contain flammable vapors within the tank C. close all openings to the area
of burn? D. allow dissipation of heat from any flame D. shut off all electric power
A. 0.12 A. Minor burn Ans: D Ans: A
B. 0.15 B. Superficial burn 3913 According to the regulations, the capacity of a liferaft is required to 3914 The difference between the starboard and port drafts caused by a
C. 0.18 C. Extremity burn be marked _____________. transverse shift in weight is _______________.
D. 0.21 D. First degree burn A. on the muster list A. list
Ans: D Ans: D B. on a sign next to the liferaft B. heel
3897 Fuel oil tank vents must be fitted with corrosion resistant screens to 3898 Which of the following statements is true regarding the operational C. on the Certificate of Inspection C. trim
prevent _____________. testing and inspecting of a cargo vessel's lifesaving equipment by D. in the Operations Manual D. flotation
the ship's force? Ans: B Ans: A
A. escape of flammable vapors A. On all vessels, regardless of voyage duration, the entire steering 3915 The light on a personal flotation device on a ship must be replaced 3916 In the event of a fire, the doors to a stairtower must be closed to
gear, whistle, and bridge-engine room communication systems must ______________. prevent the spread of fire by ____________.
be tested within 12 hours of departure. A. when the power source is replaced A. ventilation
B. each year after installation B. radiation
B. entry of sea water B. All emergency lighting and power systems, regardless of source, C. every six months C. convection
must be operated and tested at least once each week under load for D. when it is no longer serviceable D. conduction
at least 2 hours. Ans: D Ans: C
C. flames entering the tank C. Where motor-propelled lifeboats are carried, regardless of length or 3917 Burning diesel oil should be treated as which class of fire? 3918 If your vessel has a starboard list after taking on fuel, you would
person capacity, each lifeboat motor must be operated ahead and transfer fuel _____________.
astern at least 3 minutes once a week. A. Class "A" A. to starboard
D. damage to the ball check D. All of the above. B. Class "B" B. to port
Ans: C Ans: C C. Class "C" C. forward
3899 The Upper Explosive Limit (UEL) of a mixture of flammable vapors 3900 Fuel oil tank vents are fitted with corrosion resistant screens to D. Class "D" D. aft
and air, is defined as ____________. prevent _____________. Ans: B Ans: B
A. the concentration above which just enough flammable vapor exists A. flames entering through the tank vent 3919 A fire in the paint locker would probably be __________. 3920 It shall be insured that the fuel tank of each motor-propelled lifeboat
to produce an explosion is emptied, and the fuel is changed at least once every
B. the concentration above which the mixture is too rich to burn B. escape of flammable vapors ____________.
C. the percentage of flammable vapor by volume in the air sufficient to C. corrosion in the tank vent A. Class A A. three months
create an explosion B. Class B B. six months
D. the percentage of oxygen present in the air sufficient to support D. damage to the ball check C. Class C C. twelve months
combustion D. Class D D. twenty-four months
Ans: B Ans: A Ans: B Ans: C
3901 A fire is considered "under control" when _____________. 3902 Which of the devices listed is designed to prevent flames from 3921 If a boiler has been laid up dry for an extended period, it will be 3922 When treating a chemical burn, you should flood the burned area for
entering through fuel tank vents? unsafe to enter the steam and water drum immediately after it has at least ____________.
A. all hands are at their fire stations A. Ball check been opened, as there may be _____________.
B. all firefighting equipment is at the scene B. Flame screen A. insufficient oxygen to support life A. five minutes
C. the fixed systems are activated C. Spark arrester B. a heavy concentration of sewer gas B. ten minutes
D. the fire is contained and no longer spreading D. Flame inhibitor C. excessive carbon dioxide in the drum C. fifteen minutes
Ans: D Ans: B D. toxic gases from organic decomposition D. twenty minutes
3903 Which of the following gases is the most dangerous to personnel 3904 The vertical distance between "G" and "M" of a ship is used as a Ans: A Ans: A
safety in confined atmospheres, as it is absorbedby the blood 300 measure of __________. 3923 In addition to the lifejackets stowed in places that are readily 3924 Before entering any space that has been sealed, its oxygen level
times more quickly than oxygen? accessible, lifejackets must be stowed at______________. should be tested. What level of oxygen in the space is equal to fresh
A. Hydrogen A. stability at all angles of inclination air?
B. Carbon dioxide B. initial stability A. the mess room A. 0.18
C. Carbon monoxide C. stability at angles less than the limit of positive stability B. each lifeboat B. 0.198
D. Ammonia D. stability at angle less than the downflooding angle C. each manned watch station C. 0.208
Ans: C Ans: B D. each fire station D. 0.218
3905 Reserve buoyancy is the _____________. 3906 When making entries in the Oil Record Book, the date, operational Ans: C Ans: C
code, and item number shall be inserted in the appropriate columns. 3925 The material or substance involved in a class "B" fire can be burning 3926 Which of the following precautions should be taken when treating
Futhermore, the required particulars shall be ________________. ____________. burns caused by contact with dry lime?
A. diesel oil A. Water should be applied in a fine spray.
 Page 215 Page 216

B. magnesium B. The burned area should be immersed in water. B. when there is a load on the cable B. foam nozzle attached
C. dunnage C. The entire burn area should be covered with ointment. C. only the doors are closed C. all-purpose nozzle attached
D. electrical insulation D. Before washing, the lime should be brushed away gently. D. when the engine is started D. hose sections rolled separately
Ans: A D
Ans: A
Ans: C
Ans:
3927 The document certifying the correctness of the load line marks on a 3928 A load line is assigned to a ship to insure adequate stability and 3947 If the engine of a survival craft does not start, check to see 3948 Small oil spills on deck may be prevented from entering the water by
ship is called the _____________. ______________. _____________. _____________.
A. Certificate of Inspection A. mooring tension A. if the fuel valve is open A. keeping the drip pans empty
B. Load Line Certificate B. riser tension B. if the air supply system is open B. plugging all scuppers and drains
C. Certificate of Documentation C. lifesaving equipment C. if the water sprinkler system is open C. placing floating booms alongside the ship
D. SOLAS Certificate D. structural strength D. if the limit switch is on D. closing ullage openings between soundings
Ans: B Ans: D Ans: A Ans: B
3929 Burning paint, turpentine, or grease would be an example of which 3930 The International Oil Pollution Prevention Certificate is valid for a 3949 Using a sea anchor with the survival craft will ___________. 3950 To effectively treat a person suffering from heat exhaustion, you
of the following classes of fire? period of _____________. should ____________.
A. Class A A. one year from the date of issue A. reduce your drift rate A. administer artificial respiration
B. Class B B. two years from the date of issue B. keep the survival craft from turning over B. put him in a tub of ice water
C. Class C C. three years from the date of issue C. aid in recovering the survival craft C. give him sips of cool saline solution
D. Class D D. four years from the date of issue D. increase your visibility D. take his blood pressure
Ans: B Ans: D Ans: A Ans: C
3931 Where would you find the FCC authorization for transmitting on your 3932 After having activated the emergency position indicating radio 3951 To properly maintain fire hoses, you should _____________. 3952 During the towing of a survival craft, a lookout should be on station
rig's EPIRB? beacon, you should ______________. to ______________.
A. On the Ship Station License. A. turn it off for five minutes every half-hour A. keep them rolled tightly in the rack with female coupling protected A. release the towline in an emergency
B. On the side of the EPIRB transmitter. B. turn it off and on at five minute intervals
C. In the radio log. C. turn it off during daylight hours B. keep exterior linings damp by periodic washdowns B. help the helmsman steer
D. On the Certificate of Inspection. D. leave it on continuously C. thoroughly drain them after each use C. look for food and water
Ans: A Ans: D D. keep them partially filled with fresh water D. check water level in the bilge
3933 A class "B" fire would most likely occur in the __________. 3934 With no alternative but to jump from a ship, the correct posture Ans: C A
Ans:
should include _______________. 3953 A class "C" fire would most likely occur in the ___________. 3954 When retrieving the survival craft, the winch operator should stop
A. main switchboard A. holding down the lifejacket against the chest with one arm crossing the winch and check ____________.
the other, covering the mouth and nose with a hand, and feet A. engine room bilges A. that all personnel are seated in the craft
together B. main switchboard B. that the cable has not jumped any grooves on the drum
B. engine room bilge B. knees bent and held close to the body with both arms around legs C. paint locker C. which way the wind is blowing
D. rag bin D. the hydraulic fluid level before lifting
C. breathing compartment C. body straight and arms tightly at the sides for feet first entry into the Ans: B Ans: B
water 3955 When fighting a fire with a portable dry chemical extinguisher you 3956 Releasing oil from the sea anchor of a survival craft may
D. electric fresh water transfer pump D. both hand holding the lifejacket below the chin with knees bent and should always _____________. __________.
legs crossed A. direct the stream of chemical toward the base of the fire A. keep the propeller from being fouled
Ans: B Ans: A B. attack the fire from the leeward side B. increase propeller speed
3935 Which of the following classes of fire would probably occur in the 3936 In a typical automatic fire alarm system, which of the listed actions C. bounce the chemical onto the fire from adjacent structural members C. help calm spray given off from the waves in the vicinity of the craft
fireroom bilges? will cause an indication of a fire to be given in the annunciator
cabinet? D. spray the chemical across the tops of the flames D. increase the holding power of the sea anchor
A. Class A A. A rise in temperature will activate the thermostat. Ans: A Ans: C
B. Class B B. The fire alarm test push-button is operated. 3957 If water is rising in the bilge of a survival craft, you should first 3958 The air cylinder bottles in the survival craft should be refilled with
C. Class C C. A manual fire alarm box is activated. ____________. ________________.
D. Class D D. All of the above. A. abandon the survival craft A. oxygen
Ans: B Ans: D B. check for cracks in the hull B. nitrogen
3937 On a tank vessel, which of the following substances would be 3938 Fire detecting systems on merchant vessels may be arranged to C. shift all personnel to the stern C. compressed air
burning in a class "B" fire? sense _____________. D. check the bilge drain plug D. nitrogen and oxygen
A. Oil A. smoke Ans: D Ans: C
B. Wood B. rate of temperature rise 3959 Survival craft is manufactured with fire retardant ______________. 3960 Fire hose should always be stowed at the fire station in the hose
C. Rags C. ionized particles rack _____________.
D. Electrical wiring D. all of the above A. foam A. after the hose has been completely drained
Ans: A Ans: D B. marine plywood B. with the nozzle in the solid stream position
3939 Dry chemical extinguishing agents are effective when used 3940 Steering a survival craft broadside to the sea could cause it to C. steel C. so the hose can be connected quickly if a fire occurs
_____________. _____________. D. fiberglass D. so the nozzle is protected by the hose
A. with any foam extinguishing agents A. capsize D
Ans: Ans: A
B. strictly in a cooling capacity B. run smoother 3961 Which of the listed sources of ignition may cause fuel vapors to 3962 Which of the listed materials would be considered as a burning
C. with any other dry chemical extinguishing agents C. run faster ignite? class "C" fire?
D. on materials that contain their own oxygen D. sink A. Static electricity A. Fuel oil
Ans: C Ans: A B. An open and running motor B. Wood
3941 Radiation can spread a fire by ____________. 3942 Which of the following conditions is a symptom of heat stroke C. Loose wiring C. Celluloid
____________. D. All of the above D. Electrical insulation
A. transmitting the heat of a fire through the ship's metal A. cold and moist skin, high body temperature Ans: D Ans: D
B. burning liquids flowing into another space B. cold and dry skin, low body temperature 3963 A crew member has suffered frostbite to the toes of his right foot. 3964 For the best extinguishing effect, the discharge from a dry chemical
C. heated gases flowing through ventilation systems C. hot and moist skin, high body temperature Which of the following is NOT an acceptable first aid measure? type fire extinguisher should be directed at the _____________.
D. the transfer of heat across an unobstructed space D. hot and dry skin, high body temperature
Ans: D Ans: D A. Rub the toes briskly. A. base of a fire
3943 Fire hoses should always be stowed at the fire main in a manner 3944 When the survival craft is supplied with bottles of compressed air, B. Elevate the foot slightly. B. top and sides of a fire
which will allow ____________. they are used for _____________. C. Warm the frost bitten toes rapidly. C. middle of a fire
A. all sections to be quickly connected A. personnel air supply D. Give aspirin or other medication for pain if necessary. D. highest flames in a fire
B. the nozzle end to be run out to the fire B. additional flotation Ans: A Ans: A
C. all sections to be quickly drained C. priming the sprinkler system 3965 A tank or compartment is "gas free" when there is an absence of 3966 Which of the listed procedures should be followed when individuals
D. the nozzle and fittings to be easily and quickly inspected D. filling the self-righting bags dangerous concentrations of _____________. are rescued in cold climates and suffer from hypothermia?
Ans: B Ans: A
3945 The "off-load" release system on a survival craft is designed to be 3946 A fire hose should be stowed in its rack with the _____________. A. all flammable liquids A. Give them brandy
activated _____________. B. any combustible liquid B. Get them to a hot room
A. when there is no load on the cable A. hose sections disconnected C. flammable or toxic gases C. Immerse them in a warm bath (104°F)
 Page 217 Page 218

D. residues from cargo oil D. Cover with an electric blanket set for maximum temperature 3985 Which statement concerning the collection of fresh water is FALSE? 3986 The explosive range of petroleum vapors when mixed with airis
Ans: C Ans: C ____________.
3967 The explosive range of benzene is 1.4% to 8% by volume in air. If 3968 A fire hose is subject to damage if the swivel on the female coupling A. Fresh water may be obtained from fish. A. 0% to 1% by volume
you sample an empty tank that had contained benzene and obtained is lubricated with ____________. B. Lifeboat covers or canopies should be washed with rain before B. 1% to 6% by volume
a reading of 50% L.E.L. on a combustible gas indicator, then the drinking water is collected.
_____________. C. Fresh water may be collected from condensation inside the liferaft. C. 6% to 12% by volume
A. vapor/air mixture is too lean to burn A. Graphite
B. vapor concentration at the sample point is 0.7% B. Grease D. Freshwater cannot be produced from standing seawater. D. 12% to 20% by volume
C. vapor/air mixture is not within the flammable range C. Soap Ans: A Ans: B
D. all of the above D. Talc 3987 Foam is effective in combating which of the listed classes of fire? 3988 The flammable limits of Benzene are 1.4% to 8% by volume in air. If
Ans: D B
Ans: a combustible gas indicator is used to sample a tank that contains a
3969 A fire may be spread by which of the following means? 3970 When compared to a high-expansion foam, a low-expansion foam Benzene vapor/air mixture of 0.7% Benzene vapor by volume in air,
will ____________. which of the listed indications will be observed
A. Conduction of heat to adjacent surfaces A. be dryer
B. Direct radiation B. be lighter A. Class A A. The meter will deflect to the 70% explosive position.
C. Convection C. be more heat resistant B. Class B B. The meter will deflect to the 50% explosive position.
D. All of the above D. cling to vertical surfaces C. Classes A and B C. The meter will deflect full scale and return to zero.
D
Ans: Ans: C D. Classes B and C D. The meter will be unable to detect a concentration of 0.7% Benzene
3971 The designation "Not safe for men - Not safe for fire" means 3972 A crew member suffering from generalized hypothermia should be vapor in air.
_____________. given ____________. Ans: C Ans: B
A. the gas or oxygen concentrations within a compartment is not within A. a small dose of alcohol 3989 When jumping into water upon which there is an oil fire, you should 3990 Which of the listed classes of fire would most likely occur in the
permissible limits ____________. engine room of a vessel?
B. dangerous gases are present B. treatment for shock A. break the water surface with your hands when diving head first A. Classes A and B
C. the compartment was not tested due to the presence of ballast C. a large meal
slops or bunkers B. use your hands to hold your knees to your chest B. Classes B and C
D. all of the above D. a brisk rub down C. cover your eyes with one hand while pinching your nose shut and C. Classes C and D
Ans: D Ans: B covering your mouth with the other
3973 The flammable limits of kerosene are 0.7% to 6.0% by volume in air. 3974 Which of the conditions listed make it difficult to indefinitely D. enter the water at the bow or stern, on the windward side of the D. Classes A and D
The combustible gas indicator reading is 50% of the lower explosive maintain fire hoses? vessel
level. The flammable vapor concentration at the sample point is Ans: D Ans: B
_____________. 3991 Which one of the following statements is true concerning the gas 3992 One of the methods NOT usually allowed in cleaning up oil spills in
A. too rich to burn A. Gasoline and oils act to dissolve the rubber or cement which holds free status of a compartment? the water is ____________.
the inner jacket and lining together. A. The gas free status applies to the conditions of the compartment at A. skimmers
B. 0.0035 B. Heat causes the rubber lining to harden and crack. the time of the inspection.
C. 0.0265 C. Moisture will cause mildew to form on the jacket which destroys the B. The gas free status applies for the duration of the work inside the B. straw
cotton fiber. compartment.
D. in the flammable range D. All of the above. C. The gas free status applies for the 24 hour period following the C. dispersants
Ans: B Ans: D inspection.
3975 When compared to low-expansion foam, a high-expansion foam will 3976 Which of the listed classes of fire would apply to a main switchboard D. The gas free status applies as long as the air temperature inside the D. sawdust
____________. fire? compartment remains at or below 25 degrees Celsius.
A. be drier A. Class "A"
B. be heavier B. Class "B" Ans: A Ans: C
C. be more heat resistant C. Class "C" 3993 For the safety of personnel working with fire hoses, fire pumps are 3994 Handholds or straps on the underside of an inflatable liferaft are
D. not cling to vertical surfaces D. Class "D" fitted with a/an _____________. provided ____________.
Ans: A Ans: C A. butterfly valve on the discharge side A. to right the raft if it capsizes
3977 Heat exhaustion is caused by excessive _______________. 3978 Lifejackets should be stowed in ____________. B. air priming valve on the impeller housing B. to carry the raft around on deck
A. loss of body temperature A. the forepeaks C. automatic suction valve shut off C. for crewmen to hang on to
B. loss of water and salt from the body B. the pumproom D. pressure gage and relief valve on the discharge side D. to hang the raft for drying
C. gain in body temperature C. readily accessible spaces Ans: D Ans: A
D. intake of water when working or exercising D. locked watertight containers 3995 Inflatable liferafts are provided with ____________. 3996 Fires involving combustible metals are classified as ______.
Ans: B Ans: C A. a Very pistol A. class "A" fires
3979 Hose spanner wrenches should be used to connect ___________. 3980 You have abandoned ship and are in charge of a liferaft or lifeboat. B. a towing connection B. class "B" fires
How much water per day should you permit each person after the C. a portable radio C. class "C" fires
first 24 hours? D. canned milk D. class "D" fires
A. fire hoses to fire hydrants A. 1 can Ans: B Ans: D
B. hose spreaders for attaching new fittings B. 1 pint 3997 One of the common hazards onboard a vessel is represented by the 3998 Which of the following should not be used as a treatment for a
C. two female hose couplings C. 1 quart accumulation of harmful gases in tanks, holds, etc. Which of the person who has received a head injury and is groggy or
D. two male hose couplings D. 1 gallon following gases is the most dangerous to personnel safety in unconscious?
Ans: A Ans: B confined atmospheres, as it is absorbed by the blood 300 times
3981 Which of the following statements defines the purpose of the lifeboat 3982 An inflatable life raft has inflated on top of you in an upside down
gravity davit limit switch? position. What should you do next? A. Hydrogen A. Give a stimulant
A. To cut off power when the davits hit the track safety stops. A. Wait for others to lift the raft off of you. B. Carbon dioxide B. Elevate his head
B. To stop the davits from going too fast. B. Dive down to prevent your lifejacket from fouling as you come out. C. Carbon monoxide C. Stop severe bleeding
D. Ammonia D. Treat for shock
C. To cut off power when the davits are about 30cms from the track C. Pull yourself out from under the raft in a face up position to keep C
Ans: Ans: A
safety stops. your lifejacket clear of the raft. 3999 Foam is a very effective smothering agent, in addition 4000 A fire involving aluminum powder would be a class _________.
D. None of the above. D. You should remove your lifejacket before attempting to right an ____________.
inflatable raft. A. it provides cooling as a secondary effect A. "A" fire
Ans: C Ans: C B. works well on extinguishing electrical fires B. "B" fire
3983 Which of the following should NOT be done for a person who has 3984 A galley grease fire would be classified as ___________. C. can be used to combat combustible metal fires C. "C" fire
fainted? D. all of the above D. "D" fire
A. Get the person in the open air. A. Class A Ans: A Ans: D
B. Loosen the clothing. B. Class B 4001 Which of the following conditions is an important consideration to 4002 If for any reason it is necessary to abandon ship while far at sea, it is
C. Lay the person with the head higher than the feet. C. Class C remember when using a combustible gas indicator? important for the crew members to ___________.
D. Splash cold water in the face. D. Class D
Ans: C Ans: B
 Page 219 Page 220

A. They detect vapor at the sample point only. A. separate from each other as this will increase the chances of being A. immediately give a stimulant, by force if necessary A. serves as a sea painter
rescued B. make the victim comfortable in a bunk B. detaches automatically
B. They do not work properly in oxygen deficient atmospheres. B. get away from the area because sharks will be attracted to the C. immediately start CPR C. is used to rig the boarding ladder
vessel D. administer oxygen D. is cut immediately as it is of no further use
C. Any movement of the needle indicates an unsafe condition C. immediately head for the nearest land C
Ans: Ans: A
specifically related to the toxicity of petroleum vapors present. 4019 Which of the following statements concerning immersion suits is 4020 Pressure within a firemain system will vary from point to point due to
correct? ________.
D. All of the above. D. remain together in the area because rescuers will start searching at A. All models will automatically turn an unconscious person face-up in A. leaky pilot valves
the vessel's last known position the water.
Ans: D Ans: D B. The immersion suit seals in all body heat and provides protection B. leaky pump suction valve
4003 What danger to personnel exists when a carbon dioxide fire 4004 Inflatable liferafts are provided with a ____________. against hypothermia for weeks.
extinguisher is discharged in a small enclosed space? C. The suit is flameproof and provides protection to the wearer while C. friction in the piping and valves
A. Second degree burns A. jackknife swimming through burning oil.
B. Electric shock B. towing connection D. The suits provide for limited body movement such as walking, D. wear in the hydrant
C. Suffocation C. lifeline climbing a ladder, and picking up small objects like a pencil.
D. Burst eardrums D. all of the above Ans: D Ans: C
Ans: C Ans: D 4021 The temperature at which a liquid, as listed on a Material Safety 4022 The lowest temperature at which a liquid, listed on a Material Safety
4005 To keep injured survivors warm in the water, after abandoning 4006 Shipboard oil pollution emergency plans must be reviewed Data Sheet (MSDS), will change to a gas is called its __________. Data Sheet (MSDS), gives off enough vapor to ingnite in the
ship, they should ____________. ___________. presence of an ignition source is called its _____________.
A. be placed in the middle of a small circle formed by the other A. annually by the owner and a letter sumitted six months prior to
survivors in the water expiration A. flash point A. boiling point
B. float on their backs with their arms extended for maximum exposure B. only once every five years and a letter submitted six months prior to B. boiling point B. flash point
to the air expiration C. condensation point C. viscosity point
C. remove their lifejackets and hold on to the uninjured survivors C. and the entire plan resubmitted for approval once every five years, D. reactive point D. toxic point
six months prior to expiration Ans: B Ans: B
D. sip water at fifteen minute intervals D. annually by the owner and submit a letter to the Administration within 4023 Why is it necessary to warn engine room personnel before activating 4024 Hydrogen sulfide gives crude oil the sour odor of rotten eggs. A
one month of the anniversary date of the plan approval the fixed CO2 system? hazard to personnel regarding hydrogen sulfide is _____________.

Ans: A Ans: D A. To make them aware there is a fire. A. dizziness

4007 A burning mattress is considered as which of the following classes of 4008 The external flotation bladder of an immersion suit should be inflated B. To let them know they should leave the engine room. B. asphyziation
fire? ____________. C. To prevent possible injury from frostbite. C. death
A. Class "A" A. only after two hours in the water D. To make them aware that ventilation will automatically stop. D. All of the above
B. Class "B" B. only after four hours in the water B
Ans: Ans: D
C. Class "C" C. before entry into the water 4025 Which of the following statements concerning immersion suits is 4026 To reduce mild fever the MOST useful drug is ____________.
D. Class "D" D. upon entry into the water correct?
Ans: A Ans: D A. All models will automatically turn an unconscious person face-up in A. bicarbonate of soda
4009 If a person gets something in his eye and you observe that it is not 4010 You have just extinguished an oil fire on the floor plates of the the water.
embedded, you can ____________. engine room with a CO2 extinguisher. Which of the dangers listed B. The immersion suit reduces the rate of body cooling and greatly B. paregoric
should be prepared for next? increases the survival time in cold water.
A. get him to rub his eye until the object is gone A. Complete lack of oxygen in the engine room. C. The suit is flameproof and provides protection to a wearer swimming C. aspirin
B. remove it with a match or toothpick B. Chemical reaction of the CO2 and oil forming carbonic acid. in burning oil.
C. remove it with a piece of dry sterilized cotton rag C. Sudden stoppage of the main engine. D. The suit provides a full range of body movement and is suitable for D. aromatic spirits of ammonia
D. remove it with a moist cotton-tipped applicator D. Rekindling of the fire. routine wear on deck.
Ans: D Ans: D Ans: B Ans: C
4011 Records of garbage disposal are required to be maintained 4012 When using the hand crank to retrieve and stow a lifeboat on gravity 4027 When taking samples of a tank atmosphere with an explosimeter, 4028 When whistle signals are used as commands for launching the
_________. davits, which of the listed precaution should always be observed? you should _____________. lifeboats, one short blast means ____________.
A. only sample around the deck longitudinals as gases are lighter than A. use the float-free method only
A. until each quad-ennial inspection A. Make certain the hand brake is disengaged. air
B. until the end of each voyage B. Put the emergency disconnect switch in the "off" position. B. sample only near the ullage openings as all vapors accumulate B. lower all boats
C. for a minimum of one year C. Make certain the crank is in the locked position. there
D. for a minimum of two years D. Disconnect the limit switch. C. avoid sampling in the vicinity of deep webs to prevent false readings C. raise all boats
Ans: D Ans: B
4013 According to the Pollution Prevention Regulations , which of the 4014 Fires occurring in combustible metals, such as sodium or D. sample as much of the tank as possible, especially at the bottom D. drill is over, secure all boats
following statements is correct regarding the fuel oil containment magnesium, are classified as a _________.
around loading manifolds? Ans: D Ans: B
A. They may be fixed or portable, depending upon the age of the A. class A 4029 In cleaning up an oil spill, the use of straw or reclaimed paper fibers 4030 The most important thing to remember when launching an inflatable
vessel. would be an example of which type of oil removal? liferaft by hand is to ____________.
B. The containment drains must have quick-closing valves to be closed B. class B A. Chemical agent removal A. open the CO2 inflation valve
in the event of leakage or failure of any part of the transfer B. Mechanical removal B. open the raft container
connection. C. Absorbent removal C. ensure that the operating cord is secured to the vessel
C. All containment drains must lead to a common fixed drain tank. C. class C D. None of the above D. inflate the raft on the vessel, then lower it over the side
Ans: C Ans: C
D. Containment drains are prohibited from leading to a common tank. D. class D 4031 What information can be obtained from a marine chemist's certificate 4032 Symptoms of sugar diabetes include ____________.
on a tank barge?
Ans: A Ans: D A. The number of fire extinguishers required onboard. A. increased appetite and thirst
4015 You are in the mess room when a shipmate suddenly begins to 4016 In which of the circumstances listed would a carbon dioxide fire B. The quality of the barge's cargo. B. decreased appetite and thirst
choke, is unable to speak and starts to turn blue. Which of the extinguishing agent be most effective? C. The tanks which are safe to enter when the certificate was issued. C. gain in weight
following actions should you take?
A. Administer abdominal thrust in an effort to clear the airway. A. Within a closed space D. The barge's stability information. D. elevated temperature
B. Make the victim lie down with the feet elevated to get blood to the B. On a magnesium fire Ans: C Ans: A
brain. 4033 Hydrocarbon vapors are usually detected by the use of the 4034 What statement about immersion suits is FALSE?
C. Immediately administer CPR. C. At a range of 5 metres _____________.
D. Do nothing until the victim becomes unconscious. D. As a cooling agent A. flame safety lamp A. The suit should be worn only when abandoning ship.
Ans: A Ans: A B. combustible gas indicator B. The suit is received from the manufacturer in an outer storage bag
4017 If someone suffers a heart attack and has ceased breathing, you 4018 After a liferaft is launched, the operating cord __________. that should be used aboard ship for storing the suit.
should ___________.
 Page 221 Page 222

C. gasometer C. The front zipper should be lubricated according to manufacturer's C. DGC C. adjust the meter pointer to zero
specifications. D. HSC D. all of the above
D. oxygen indicator D. Immersion suits provide protection against hypothermia even if there Ans: B Ans: D
is a small leak or tear. 4053 Which of the following symptoms would be indicated if a person's 4054 The physical data term on a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)
Ans: B Ans: A appendix ruptured? describing whether a liquid is lighter or heavier than water is
4035 An ullage reading is the distance from a given point at the 4036 An inflatable liferaft is hand-launched by ____________. ____________.
_________________. A. Dilated pupils and shallow breathing A. solubility
A. sounding tube to either side of the tank A. pulling a cord B. Diarrhea and frequent urination B. specific gravity
B. top of the tank down to the bottom of the tank B. cutting the wire restraining bands C. Muscle tenseness in almost the entire abdomen C. viscosity
C. top of the liquid down to the tank bottom C. removing the rubber packing strip D. Extreme sweating and reddening skin D. flotation point
D. top of the sounding tube down to the surface of the liquid D. throwing the entire container overboard C
Ans: B
Ans:
Ans: D Ans: D 4055 The all-purpose, or combination nozzle is capable by itself of 4056 Which of the following conditions is NOT a function of the covered
4037 If a person with diabetes has been injured, the symptoms of the 4038 The most effective method in the use of a CO2 fire extinguisher is producing a solid stream of water __________. lifeboat pressurized air supply?
onset of a diabetic coma would include ____________. for the discharge to be directed at the _____________. A. only A. Provides combustion air for the diesel engine.
B. and high velocity water fog B. Pressurizes the water spray system.
A. reduced appetite and thirst A. middle of a fire C. and low velocity water fog C. Provides air for passenger respiration.
B. sneezing and coughing B. top and sides of a fire D. and high and low velocity water fog D. Prevents smoke and other noxious fumes from entering craft.
C. excessive thirst and fever C. base or nearest edge of a fire Ans: B Ans: B
D. slurred speech and loss of coordination D. highest flames of a fire 4057 If you wish to remove an inflatable liferaft from its cradle, the best 4058 When you notice oil on the water near your vessel while taking on
Ans: C Ans: C way to free it is by ____________. fuel, you should FIRST ____________.
4039 A chemical material, as listed on a Material Safety Data Sheet 4040 When firing a pyrotechnic distress signal, it should be aimed A. cutting the restraining strap A. stop loading
(MSDS) that can undergo a sudden and violent release of pressure ____________. B. unscrewing the turnbuckle on the back of the cradle B. notify the senior deck officer
and heat is called _________________. C. lifting one end of the raft C. notify the terminal superintendent
A. combustible A. into the wind D. pushing the plunger on the center of the hydrostatic release D. determine whether your vessel is the source
B. explosive B. straight ahead Ans: D Ans: A
C. flammable C. at the vessel whose attention you want to attract 4059 When a patient is suspected of having appendicitis, the pain should 4060 Ethylene oxide has a lower explosive limit of 2.0% and an upper
D. toxic D. approximately 60° above the horizon be relieved by ____________. explosive limit of 100% by volume in air. This means
Ans: B Ans: D _____________.
4041 The oil transfer procedures aboard a tanker transferring oil are NOT 4042 Which of the following operations should be carried out when A. keeping a ice bag over the location of the appendix A. there is no possible ethylene oxide concentration in air which is too
required to contain _________________. launching an inflatable liferaft by hand? lean to burn
A. the name of the person designated as the person in charge of A. Open the liferaft casing B. giving the patient a laxative B. there is no possible ethylene oxide concentration in air which is too
transfer rich to burn
B. a line diagram of the vessel's oil transfer piping B. Turn the valve on the CO2 cylinder to start inflation C. giving the patient morphine sulfate C. an ethylene oxide spill always results in an explosion
C. special procedures for topping off tanks C. Make sure the operating cord is secured to the vessel before D. giving the patient aspirin with a glass of water D. a 2.0% concentration of ethylene oxide in air would give a reading of
throwing it over the side 2.0% on a combustible gas indicator
D. a description of the deck discharge containment system D. After inflation, detach operating cord from liferaft Ans: A Ans: B
Ans: A Ans: C 4061 According to Regulations , a person who discharges plastic or 4062 Seasickness is caused by rolling or rocking motions which affect
4043 Material listed on a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) that violently 4044 The most beneficial assistance for a person having an epileptic garbage mixed with plastic is liable for ______________. fluids in the ____________.
self-reacts under commonly occurring conditions is called convulsion is to __________________. A. a civil penality A. stomach
_______________. B. a fine B. lower intestines
A. pyrophric A. give the victim artificial respiration C. imprisonment for up to five years for each violation C. inner ear
B. toxic B. completely restrain the victim D. All of the above D. bladder
C. explosive C. give the victim one 30mg tablet of phenobarbitol Ans: D Ans: C
D. unstable D. keep him from injuring himself 4063 A chemical that causes a substantial proportion of exposed people 4064 Progressive flooding on a ship may be indicated by ________.
Ans: D D
Ans: or animals to develop an allergic reaction in normal tissue after
4045 What is the purpose of an explosimeter? 4046 The bayonet catch on an all purpose nozzle is used to latch in place repeated exposure is listed on a Material Safety Data Sheet
the ____________. (MSDS) as a ____________.
A. To identify combustible gases. A. mechanical foam nozzle A. skin contact hazard A. ballast control alarms
B. To detect combustible gases. B. mechanical foam pick up tube B. physical hazard B. excessive draft
C. To indicate the absence of oxygen. C. high velocity fog tip C. sensitizer C. excessive list or trim
D. All of the above. D. chemical foam applicator D. skin absorption hazard D. a continual worsening of list or trim
Ans: B Ans: C Ans: C Ans: D
4047 What term is listed on a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) to 4048 Your vessel is taking on bunkers from a shore side facility. If oil 4065 Using a sea anchor will ____________. 4066 While taking on fuel, you notice oil on the water around the vessel.
describe a chemical that can produce life-threatening or seriously begins flowing from one tank vent, which of the following actions Which of the following actions should be taken FIRST?
disabling health hazard ? should be taken FIRST?
A. Low toxicity A. Open the intake valve to an adjacent tank. A. reduce the drift rate of the liferaft A. Stop fueling
B. Recommended toxicity B. Set out drip pans and sawdust and begin to mop up the spill. B. keep the liferaft from turning over B. Notify the dispatcher
C. Moderate toxicity C. Signal the shore control point to shutdown. C. aid in recovering the liferaft C. Notify the terminal superintendent
D. High toxicity D. Close the valve on the tank vent line. D. increase your visibility D. Determine if your vessel is the source
Ans: D Ans: C Ans: A Ans: A
4049 What term is listed on a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) to 4050 Which health hazard term is listed on a Material Safety Data Sheet 4067 The primary concern in aiding a back injury patient is 4068 The most practical method of extinguishing a class "A" fire, involving
describe a chemical that produces only minor health effects that (MSDS) to indicate that contact with the substance will freeze body _______________. burning dunnage, is to use _____________.
usually heal with or without medical attention when exposure stops? tissue on contact? A. relieving the patient's pain by giving aspirin or stronger medication A. chemical foam

A. Moderate toxicity A. Freeze hazard B. avoiding possible injury to the spinal cord by incorrect handling B. a hand portable CO2 extinguishers
B. Low toxicity B. Cyanosis
C. Lower exposure limit C. Freon hazard C. preventing convulsions and muscle spasms caused by the injury C. Purple K powder and light water
D. Moderate exposure limit D. Cryogenic
Ans: B Ans: D D. providing enough fluids to prevent dehydration D. water
4051 A written document identifying chemical material, listing its physical 4052 The instrument shown in the illustration has not been used for Ans: B Ans: D
properties, describing health hazards, required controls, correct several weeks. Prior to its use for testing a compartment, you 4069 In order to produce a high velocity water fog using an all-purpose 4070 Which of the following should NOT be done for a person who has
procedures for firefighting, spill or leak cleanup, waste disposal, and should _______. nozzle, you must _____________. fainted?
the safe handling and storage of the materi A. pull the nozzle handle halfway back A. Provide fresh air
B. push the nozzle handle completely forward B. Loosen clothing
A. MSC A. check or renew the batteries C. insert an in-line fog applicator C. Elevate head
B. MSDS B. purge the meter
 Page 223 Page 224

D. change to a small nozzle tip after changing the position of the nozzle D. Stimulate face with cold water B. Eye injuries B. act as stabilizers by filling with sea water as soon as raft is inflated
handle and in an upright position
Ans: A Ans: C C. Burns C. hold the freshwater required by regulation to be provided in the raft
4071 If an incorrect entry were made in the Oil Record Book, youshould 4072 Generally, when lifting an inflatable liferaft back aboard ship, you when packed
_____________. would use the ____________. D. Major multiple fractures D. none of the above
A. erase the entry and rewrite it A. towing bridle Ans: A Ans: B
B. notify the ship's officer-in-charge B. main weather cover 4089 In managing a situation involving multiple injuries, the rescuer must 4090 When an oil fire has been extinguished, the surface of the oil should
C. completely black it out and make the correct entry alongside C. external lifelines be able to ____________. be kept covered with foam to prevent ___________.
D. draw a single line through the wrong entry and initial it D. righting strap A. provide the necessary medication A. air from contacting the oil vapors permitting reignition
Ans: D Ans: A B. rapidly evaluate the seriousness of obvious injuries B. boiling of the heated oil
4073 A crack, located in the shell plating or deck plating of a ship, may be 4074 Which of the following procedures can be used for checking for C. accurately diagnose the ailment or injury C. spontaneous combustion below the oil surface
temporarily prevented from increasing in length by ____________. spinal cord damage to an unconscious patient? D. prescribe treatment for the victim D. toxic fumes from escaping to the surface
Ans: B Ans: A
A. drilling a hole at each end of the crack A. Beginning at the back of the neck, and proceeding to the buttocks, 4091 After an injury, which of the following can be determined by 4092 When fighting an oil or gasoline fire, which of the listed fire
press the spine to find where it hurts. examining the condition of a victim's pupils? extinguishing agents should NEVER be sprayed directly into the fire?
B. installing welded brackets across both ends B. Prick the skin of the hands and the soles of the feet with a sharp
object to check for reaction. A. The degree of pain being suffered. A. High velocity fog
C. V-grooving and welding from both sides of the crack C. Selectively raise each arm and each leg and watch patient's face to B. The degree of vision impairment. B. Dry chemical
see if he registers pain. C. Whether or not the brain is functioning properly. C. Low velocity fog
D. cutting a square notch at each end of the crack D. Roll patient onto his stomach and prick along the length of his spine D. Whether or not the victim's blood pressure is normal. D. Steam smothering
to check reaction. Ans: C Ans: B
Ans: A Ans: B 4093 What is the primary purpose of a spint applied in first aid? 4094 Bleeding from a vein may be ordinarily controlled by __________.
4075 First aid treatment for battery acid or alkali burns, especially in the 4076 Where would you look to find out what your duties are during a fire?
eyes, includes _____________. A. Reduce pain A. pinching the wound closed
A. flushing with large amounts of fresh water and seeking medical A. SOLAS Regulations B. Control bleeding B. applying direct pressure to the wound
attention ashore or by radio C. Immobilize a fracture C. heavy application of a disinfectant
B. wiping the affected area with a clean dry cloth and resting quietly for B. Certificate of Inspection D. Reset the bone D. pouring ice water directly into the wound
several hours Ans: C Ans: B
C. drying the acid or alkali with a rag followed by applying a light cream C. Muster list 4095 On most makes of inflatable liferafts, the batteries to operate the 4096 Fires resulting from spontaneous combustion are usually caused by
light on the inside of the rafts can be made to last longer by the improper disposal of _____________.
D. all of the above may be acceptable treatments depending on the D. Ship's articles ____________.
severity of the burn A. unscrewing the bulb during the daylight A. cigarette butts
Ans: A Ans: C B. operating the switch for the light B. oily rags
4077 When off loading garbage to another ship, your records must identify 4078 The best means of combating an oil fire on the surface of the water C. taking no action as there is no way of preserving power C. burner torches
that ship by name and _________. surrounding a vessel tied to the pier, is to use _________. D. taking no action as they shut off automatically in daylight D. lighted matches
Ans: B Ans: B
A. home port A. water fog over the fire 4097 Immediately after a class "B" fire has been extinguished by the use 4098 In all but the most severe cases, bleeding from a wound should be
B. operator's name of record B. solid water streams directly into the fire of foam, crewmen should _____________. controlled by ___________.
C. official number C. dry chemical around the fire A. carefully apply a low velocity fog over the foam blanket A. applying a tourniquet
D. master's name D. foam directed against the vessel's side B. wade through the foam blanket to evenly distribute the foam B. cooling the wound with ice
C
Ans: D
Ans: C. be careful not to disturb the foam blanket C. submerging the wound in lukewarm water
4079 In order to find out which lifeboat you are assigned, you should look 4080 After launching, an inflatable raft should be kept dry inside by D. sweep the foam blanket overboard and secure firefighting equipment D. applying direct pressure to the wound
at the _____________. ____________.
A. fire control plan A. opening the automatic drain plugs Ans: C Ans: D
B. certificate of inspection B. draining the water pockets 4099 A person has suffered a larceration of the arm. Severe bleeding has 4100 According to Regulations , a pressurer-demand, open cicuit, self
C. muster list C. using the electric bilge pump been controlled by using a sterile dressing and direct pressure. contained breathing appratus shall have a minimum _______
D. ship's articles D. using the bailers and cellulose sponge What should you do next? minutes air supply.
Ans: C Ans: D A. Apply a torniqiuet to prevent the bleeding from restarting. A. 30
4081 What is the required gas supply capacity of an inert gas system? 4082 An inert gas system is designed to reduce the possibility of tank B. Apply a pressure bandage over the dressing. B. 45
explosions by _____________. C. Remove any small foreign matter and apply antiseptic C. 60
A. 125% of forced draft rate A. eliminating sparks and fire in the vicinity of cargo tanks D. Administer fluids to assist the body in replacing the lost blood. D. 90
B. 125% of shore side loading rate B. removing all hydrocarbon gases from the cargo tanks
C. 125% of cargo pump capacity C. blanketing cargo tanks with inert foam Ans: B Ans: A
D. 125% of fan capacity D. reducing the oxygen concentration below levels necessary for 4101 Spontaneous combustion can occur in _____________. 4102 The rescuer can best provide an airtight seal during mouth-to-mouth
combustion resuscitation by pinching the vitim's nostrils and ____________.
Ans: C Ans: D
4083 Firehose can be used for purposes other than firefighting service 4084 The three positions of an all-purpose fire nozzle are ____________. A. paint thinner in an open can A. cupping a hand around the patient's mouth
when ____________. B. fuel accumulated in the bilges B. keeping the head elevated
A. used for portable water service A. forward: off, center: fog, back: solid stream C. oily rags stored in an unvented compartment C. applying his mouth tightly over the victim's mouth
B. used for drills and testing B. forward: solid stream, center: fog, back: off D. gasoline stored in steel drums D. holding the jaw down firmly
C. determined by the Chief Engineer C. forward: fog, center: solid stream, back: off C
Ans: C
Ans:
D. approved by Master D. forward: off, center: solid stream, back: fog 4103 Which of the listed fire extinguishing agents would be incorrect for 4104 Which of the following is classified as a grade "E" combustible
Ans: B Ans: A the direct use on a gasoline or oil fire? liquid?
4085 A vessel sailing through the specific special areas may discharge or 4086 Where there are multiple accident victims, which injuries should be A. A solid stream of water A. Benzene
dispose of __________. the FIRST to receive emergency treatment? B. Low velocity water fog B. Bunker "C"
A. incinerated ash at anytime A. Major multiple fractures C. High velocity water fog C. Very light naphtha
B. fairly dense material that will sink, i.e. metal cans or glass bottles at B. Eye injuries D. Mechanical firefighting foam D. Most commercial gasoline
anytime Ans: A Ans: B
C. victual waste when at least 12 nautical miles from shore C. Back injuries with spinal cord damage 4105 Which statement is FALSE regarding Halon as a fire extinguising 4106 Which of the circumstances listed is an exception to the garbage
D. absolutely no garbage at anytime D. Airway and breathing difficulties agent? discharge requirements in Annex V to MARPOL 73/78?
Ans: C Ans: D
4087 Were there are multiple accident victims, which type of injury should 4088 The purpose of the four water pockets, located on the underside at A. It is more effective than CO2. A. The garbage to be discharged will sink.
be the first to receive emergency treatment? each corner of the raft, is to ____________. B. It leaves no residue. B. Garbage accumulation onboard has exceeded storage space.
A. Severe shock A. stow rainwater; these four spaces will not take up valuable space
C. It is noncorrosive. C. A person falls overboard, and a plastic ice chest is thrown for
flotation.
 Page 225 Page 226

D. It is always non-toxic. D. The destination port or terminal cannot receive garbage. 4125 Which dangerous condition should be kept in mind after using a 4126 Petroleum vapors are heavier than air and _____________.
Ans: D Ans: C portable CO2 fire extinguisher on a small oil fire on the engine room
4107 The most likely place for a fire to start through the process of 4108 When welding or burning aboard a vessel, you must be certain that floor plates?
spontaneous combustion is in _____________. the space _____________. A. Possible suffocation from the CO2 gas. A. will normally dissipate rapidly
A. an electrical switchboard A. is properly vented B. Forgetting to secure the engine room ventilation system. B. will always form explosive vapors below 0oC ambient
B. the pressure tanks B. contains no explosive fumes C. CO2 gas being drawn into nearby engine or air compressor intakes. C. may collect in ship's bilges
C. the fuel oil tanks C. has no oil in the bilges
D. the oily rag bin D. all of the above D. Rekindling of the fire. D. are of no concern if the wind is blowing
Ans: D Ans: D Ans: D Ans: C
4109 You are fighting a class "B" fire with a potable dry chemical 4110 If a small fire initially breaks out in the engine room bilges, in which 4127 Which portable fire extinguiser is normally recharged in a shore 4128 Which extinguishing agent is the best for use on electrical fires?
extinguisher. The discharge should be directed ___________. of the following sequences should the fire extinguishing agents or facilty?
systems be used? A. Dry chemical (cartidge-operated) A. Foam
A. at the seat of the fire, starting near the edge A. Fixed CO2, semi-portable CO2, then hand portable CO2. B. Water (cartidge-operated) B. CO2
B. over the top of the fire B. Semi-portable CO2, fixed CO2, then hand portable CO2. C. Water (pump tank) C. Dry Chemical
C. at the main body of the fire C. Hand portable, semi-portable CO2, then as a last resort the fixed D. Carbon dioxide D. Water fog
CO2 system. Ans: D Ans: B
D. to bank off a bulkhead onto the fire D. Hand portable, fixed CO2, then as a last resort the semi-portable 4129 You have abandoned ship in tropical waters. Which of the following 4130 It is necessary to cool the bulkheads and decks surrounding a
CO2. procedures should be used during a prolonged period in a liferaft? compartment where there is a fire in order to ___________.
Ans: A Ans: C
4111 Which extinguising agent is most likely to allow reflash as a result of 4112 You are about to enter a compartment to investigate a suspected A. Wet clothes during the day to decrease perspiration. A. cool the metal below its ignition temperature
not cooling the fuel below its ignition temperature? smoldering fire. If you're not wearing an self-contained breathing B. Get plenty of rest. B. form a dense coating of smothering steam
apparatus, you should test the compartment's atmosphere to C. Keep the entrance curtains open. C. prevent oxygen from reaching the flames
determine if there is/are _____________. D. All of the above. D. prevent the fire from spreading by the conduction of heat
D
Ans: D
Ans:
A. Foam A. sufficient oxygen to sustain human life 4131 Which of the listed extinguishing agents is NOT suitable for fighting 4132 As its temperature rises, the volume of fuel oil in the tanks will
B. CO2 B. an explosive mixture in the compartment a liquid paint fire? _____________.
C. Water stream C. a toxic atmosphere in the compartment A. Dry chemical A. remain the same
D. Water foam D. all of the above B. Foam B. increase
B
Ans: D
Ans: C. Water C. decrease
4113 Liferafts are less maneuverable than lifeboats due to their 4114 All of the following are part of the fire triangle EXCEPT D. Carbon dioxide D. none of the above
____________. ___________. Ans: C Ans: B
A. shape A. fuel 4133 If you reach shore in a liferaft, the first thing to do is ____________. 4134 Combustible material stored in a compartment adjacent to a
B. shallow draft B. oxygen compartment where there is a fire may be ignited. This ignition can
C. large sail area C. heat occur by ____________.
D. all of the above D. electricity A. drag the raft ashore and lash it down for a shelter A. heat convection through the adjacent bulkheads
Ans: D Ans: D B. find some wood for a fire B. combustion gases carried through the ventilation system
4115 A tourniquet should be used to control bleeding ONLY _________. 4116 The best way to combat an engine room bilge fire is through the use C. get the provisions out of the raft C. direct convection of the heat emitted by the adjacent fire
of a _____________. D. set the raft back out to sea so someone may spot it D. heat radiated from the deck or bulkhead by the adjacent fire
A. with puncture wiounds A. dry chemical extinguisher and solid stream water Ans: A Ans: D
B. when the victim is unconscious B. foam extinguisher and low velocity water fog 4135 The spreading of fire as a result of heat being carried through a 4136 If the water level is rising in the bilge of a survival craft, you should
C. when all other means have failed C. foam extinguisher and solid stream water vessel's ventilation system, is an example of heat transfer by first ____________.
D. to prevent bleeding from from minor wounds D. foam and soda acid extinguishers _____________.
C
Ans: Ans: B A. conduction A. abandon the survival craft
4117 The date of each fire and boat drill conducted on a ship must be 4118 To produce a low velocity water fog spray with an all-purpose fire B. convection B. check for cracks in the hull
recorded _____________. hose nozzle, you must _____________. C. radiation C. shift all personnel to the stern
A. in the official logbook A. push the nozzle handle completely forward D. windage D. check the bilge drain plug
B. in the Operations Manual B. change the fire pump discharge pressure Ans: B Ans: D
C. on the Certificate of Inspection C. pull the nozzle handle completely back 4137 Which of the listed type of fires would the fire extinguisher, shown 4138 The most important reason for taking anti-seasickness pills as soon
D. on the muster list D. insert a low velocity fog applicator in the illustration, be suitable for extinguishing? as possible after entering a liferaft is to ____________.
Ans: A Ans: D
4119 Which of the practices listed should be avoided since it represents a 4120 When administering mouth to mouth resucitation to an adult, you A. Mattress fire A. assist in sleeping
fire hazard? should breathe at the rate of how many breaths per minute? B. Fire in an electronics console B. reduce appetite by decreasing nausea
C. Small oil fire on the engine room floor plates C. prevent loss of body moisture by vomiting
A. Smoking near the burner front A. 4 D. Fire in an ullage opening D. prevent impaired judgement due to motion-induced deliriousness
B. Smoking in the machine shop B. 8
C. Stowing oily rags in a paint locker C. 12 Ans: C Ans: C
D. Stowing portable acetylene bottles in the vertical position D. 20 4139 If a fire ignites in the engine room as a result of a high pressure fuel 4140 When abandoning ship, after launching the motor lifeboat you should
Ans: C Ans: C oil leak, you should FIRST _____________. ____________.
4121 When taking on fuel it is important to remember that petroleum 4122 If you hear the sound of a gas escaping from the liferaft just after it A. secure the ventilation A. plot course for nearest land
vapors are _____________. has inflated, you should ____________. B. find a soda acid extinguisher B. go only with the direction of the sea
A. not volatile unless the ambient air temperature exceeds 32oC A. quickly hunt for the hole before the raft deflates C. shut off the fuel oil supply C. stay in the immediate area
B. lighter than air and dissipate rapidly B. check the sea anchor line for a tear if the seas are rough D. secure the generator D. go one direction until fuel runs out
C. unlikely to ignite except in the presence of an open flame C. check the painter line attachment for a tear caused by the initial Ans: C Ans: C
opening 4141 The four basic components of a fire are fuel, heat, oxygen and a 4142 Which of the following statements holds true for both CO2 and Halon
D. heavier than air and may enter the bilges and/or deckhouse D. not panic as the relief valves allow excess pressure to escape chain reaction. Which of the following statements best describes 1301 fixed extinguishing systems?
what must be eliminated to extinguish a fire?
Ans: D Ans: D A. Any one component can be eliminated to extinguish a fire. A. A cylinder is considered satisfactory if its weight is within 10% of the
4123 The only portable electrical equipment permitted in a compartment 4124 The fixed CO2 fire extinguishing system has been activated to stamped full weight of the charge.
which is not gas free is a lamp that is ______________. extinguish a large engine room bilge fire. When is the best time to B. Any two components must be eliminated to properly extinguish a B. If a protected space is ventilated mechanically, the ventilation
vent the combustible products from the engine room? fire. system must be automatically shutdown by the release of the agent.
A. battery fed A. Immediately after the fire is extinguished.
B. self-contained B. One half-hour after the fire is extinguished. C. Any three components must be eliminated to properly extinguish a C. To avoid confusion during an emergency situation, there should be
C. approved explosion proof C. After the metal surfaces have cooled down. fire. only one action necessary (such as a single pull box) to activate the
D. All of the above D. Before any personnel in fireman outfits reenter the engine room. system.
D. All four components must be eliminated to extinguish any fire. D. All of the above.
Ans: D Ans: C Ans: A Ans: B
 Page 227 Page 228

4143 A sprinkler head activated by the melting of a fusible link is installed 4144 If a fire occurs in the boiler room as a result of a leaking fuel line, you Ans: B Ans: C
on a ship. Which of the following statements is true regarding these should FIRST _____________. 4161 If the buoyant force on a ship's hull is equal to or greater than the 4162 Diesel fuel is relatively safe to handle due to its low volatility, but the
devices? displacement tonnage, the ship will _____________. fumes will self-ignite and continue to burn steadily if the fuel is
A. Sprinkler heads installed in the living spaces would have a higher A. notify the engineer on watch heated to the _____________.
melting point fusible link than those installed in the galley. A. require ballast added to only the port side tanks A. flash point
B. be down by the head B. autoignition point
B. Sprinkler heads installed in the galley would have a higher melting B. isolate and secure the piping C. sink C. volatility point
point fusible link than those installed in the living spaces. D. float D. upper explosive limit
Ans: D Ans: B
C. Sprinkler heads installed in the galley and living spaces would have C. throw sand on the fire 4163 When a vessel is inclined due to an external force, such as the 4164 Class C fires may be combatted using a _____________.
the same fusible link melting point. action of seas in which no cargo shifts, the tendency of the vessel to
D. None of the above; sprinkler heads with fusible links are prohibited D. extinguish the fire using a combination nozzle with applicator return to its original position is caused by the shift in ______.
aboard vessels
Ans: B Ans: B A. center of buoyancy A. dry chemical extinguisher
4145 A fire cannot exist if which of the listed elements is removed from 4146 Which of the following hazards is associated with the handling of B. center of gravity B. carbon dioxide extinguisher
the fire? petroleum products? C. center of flotation C. halon extinguisher
A. Oxygen A. Fire D. metacentric radius D. all of the above
B. Fuel B. Explosion Ans: A Ans: D
C. Heat C. Asphyxiation 4165 Which of the following represents the emergency signal for fire 4166 Which of the listed fire extinguishers should be used on an electrical
D. All of the above. D. All of the above aboard ship? fire aboard ship?
Ans: D Ans: D A. More than six short blasts and one long blast on the whistle. A. Foam
4147 Breathing petroleum vapors is hazardous and may cause 4148 When making entries in the Oil Record Book, all quantities should be B. Continuous blast of the ship's whistle for a period of not less than 10 B. Soda acid
_____________. __________. seconds supplemented by the same signal on the general alarm.
A. temporary blindness A. recorded as cubic meters with a conversion to barrels
B. permanent deafness B. verified by the Chief Engineer C. Three short blasts of the whistle supplemented by the same signal C. Carbon dioxide
C. severe internal bleeding C. recorded directly from the oil discharge monitor on the general alarm.
D. unconsciousness and death D. consistently recorded through the Oil Record Book in one specified D. More than six short blasts and one long blast on the whistle D. Carbon tetrachloride
unit (gallons, barrels, cubic meters) supplemented by the same signal on the general alarm.
Ans: D Ans: D Ans: B Ans: C
4149 When combating an oil fire in a deep tank aboard ship, water fog 4150 Which of the listed tanks presents the greatest potential for an 4167 Which of the fire extinguishing agents listed is the safest to use 4168 If you hear a continuous blast of the whistle for a period of not less
can be used to extinguish the fire and ____________. explosion? when combating a class C fire? than 10 seconds; supplemented by a continuous ringing of the
A. contain the burning liquid A. A full tank of diesel oil general alarm bells for the same time period, you should
B. prevent any deformation of the tank top B. A partially filled tank of diesel oil _____________.
C. cool the surrounding metal C. A full tank of lubricating oil A. CO2 A. go to your lifeboat station
D. eliminate flammable combustion gases D. A partially filled tank of hydraulic oil B. Foam B. go to your fire station
Ans: C Ans: B C. Water fog C. standby for collision
4151 On a vessel with lifeboats on both sides, the No. 2 lifeboat would be 4152 Which of the following conditions is true concerning a flammable D. Soda acid D. proceed to your man overboard muster station
located ____________. liquid with a concentration above the upper explosive limit? Ans: A Ans: B
4169 A continuous blast of the whistle for a period of not less than 10 4170 Before making any welded repairs to the internals of a vessel's fuel
A. forward of lifeboat No. 4 on the starboard side A. The mixture is too lean to burn. seconds, supplemented by the continuous ringing of the general tank in a port, the tank must be examined by _____________.
B. forward of lifeboat No. 4 on the port side B. The mixture is too rich to burn. alarm bells for not less than 10 seconds, would indicate a
C. aft of lifeboat No. 1 on the starboard side C. The vapor is about to explode. _____________.
D. all of the above D. Conditions are perfect for combustion. A. fire A. the chief engineer
Ans: B Ans: B B. collision B. the master of the vessel
4153 The No. 2 lifeboat on a tanker would be found __________. 4154 The FIRST course of action in fighting a fire in a cargo or fuel oil C. man overboard C. a certified marine chemist
tank is to _____________. D. flooded compartment D. the insurance underwriter
A. forward port side A. secure all openings to the tank Ans: A Ans: C
B. forward starboard side B. discharge an initial charge of CO2 with a hand portable extinguisher 4171 The principal effect of liquid free surface is dependent upon the 4172 A fuel tank is considered to be gas free when the tank is
volume of displacement of the vessel and the ____________. _____________.
C. aft of No. 1 lifeboat port side C. direct a fire hose into the tank and energize the fire main
D. aft of No. 1 lifeboat starboard side D. spray the tank boundaries with a fire hose to promote cooling A. height of liquid in the tank A. inerted with carbon dioxide for 24 hours
B. amount of liquid in the tank B. free of most flammable gas concentrations
Ans: A Ans: A C. dimensions of the liquid surface C. thoroughly ventilated for at least 24 hours
4155 While working in the engine room, you hear seven short blasts 4156 Which of the following steps should normally be taken first by those D. weight of liquid in the tank D. free of dangerous concentrations of flammable or toxic gases
followed by one long blast on the ship's whistle, supplemented by who have boarded a lifeboat in an emergency situation?
the same signal on the general alarm bells. You should Ans: C Ans: D
_____________. 4173 Vessel stability is greatly affected when water or fuel tanks are 4174 Which of the following precautions are necessary when using any
A. start the fire pump to charge the fire main A. Ration food and water supplies partially filled as a result of the _____________. electrical equipment in a hazardous location, such as a cargo
B. standby the main console and await orders from the engineer on B. Take anti-seasickness pills pumproom?
watch A. free surface effect A. The pumproom is to be gas free.
C. go to your fire station C. Determine position and closest point of land B. free communication effect B. The adjacent compartments are to be gas free.
D. go to your lifeboat station D. Check pyrotechnic supplies C. increase of buoyancy C. Each compartment where flammable gas is expected to
Ans: D Ans: B accumulate is to be closed and secured.
4157 Before attempting to put out a class "C" fire involving an electric- 4158 Gasoline is a flammable liquid whose vapors are ___________. D. decrease in draft D. All of the above.
driven centrifugal pump, you should FIRST ________. Ans: A Ans: D
A. insulate your shoes A. heavier than air 4175 To prevent an explosion when the pumproom has not been certified 4176 Which of the following procedures should be used to examine a
B. ground the fire hose B. toxic gas free and repairs are to be carried out, the only type of portable cartridge-operated dry chemical fire extinguisher?
C. secure its power supply C. highly explosive electric equipment allowed in the pumproom would be an approved
D. start the fire pump D. all of the above _____________.
Ans: C Ans: D A. explosion proof self-contained battery powered lamp A. Make certain that the pressure cartridge has not been punctured.
4159 To extinguish an electrical fire, your FIRST action should be to 4160 When fighting an electrical fire, you should first ________.
____________. B. 1/2 HP electric hand drill B. Check to see that hose and nozzle are clear.
A. apply a low velocity fog A. stop ventilation to the area C. marine drop lamp and extension cords C. Ensure that dry chemical is not become caked.
B. secure the power B. stop the vessel D. portable hand grinder D. All of the above.
C. Completely discharge a 15 pound (6.8 kg) CO2 extinguisher C. secure electricity to the circuit Ans: A Ans: D
D. apply mechanical or chemical foam D. apply CO2 to the fire
 Page 229 Page 230

4177 Proper maintenance of a dry chemical fire extinguisher will include 4178 A vessel whose fuel tanks are half full is subject to ____________. B. The average operating time is over an hour. B. invert the extinguisher
_____________. C. The speed with which it can be put into operation is around 45 C. depress the upper grip
A. adding water to the powder A. free surface effect seconds.
B. painting the CO2 cartridge red B. serious loss of reserve buoyancy D. The regulator is designed to provide the user with quick adjustments D. rotate the cutter disc valve wheel
C. puncturing the CO2 cartridge C. severe sagging to the air supply by a knob located near the high pressure hose
D. shaking the extinguisher to loosen the caked-up portions of the D. severe hogging connection.
powder Ans: C Ans: C
Ans: D Ans: A 4197 Annual servicing of a hand portable CO2 fire extinguisher includes 4198 While donning the demand-type self-contained breathing apparatus,
4179 When reentering an engine room that has been flooded with CO2, 4180 Liquid petroleum products will become electrically charged as a _____________. you discover that the air cylinder pressure gage and the regulator
the investigating team should initially _____________. result of the _____________. pressure gage differ from each other by 35bar. Which of the listed
A. leave the access door partially open A. splashing or spraying of oil into a tank action should you consider as appropriate?
B. enter from the lowest level B. movement of water droplets in an oil filled tank
C. enter from the highest level C. oil moving through the pipe lines A. inspecting the pressure gauge to ensure the needle is within A. Replace the defective gauges with a new pair from the spare parts
D. attempt to operate machinery D. All of the above are correct. operating range inventory.
Ans: C Ans: D B. weighing the cylinder and recharging if weight loss exceeds 10% of B. Replace the air cylinder with a full spare cylinder.
4181 Fuel tanks should never be filled by cascading liquid through an 4182 When petroleum products are handled, static electricity can be the weight of the charge
open hatch or manhole because _____________. generated by _____________. C. hydrostatic testing of the cylinder C. Assume that the lower reading is correct.
A. excessive fuel vapors will be released A. splashing or agitation of the fluids D. discharging, cleaning inside, and recharging D. Take the average of the two gauges as the correct pressure.
B. static electricity could be generated by fuel falling through vapor- B. excessive pressure on the fluids Ans: B Ans: C
laden air 4199 Which of the following statements describes the correct procedure 4200 Which of the fire extinguishers listed is to be weighed annually and
C. spillage of fuel could occur with an open hatch C. low temperature fluids only for closing a watertight door? sent ashore for recharging if the weight loss exceeds 10% of the
D. water contamination of the fuel could occur D. low viscosity fluids only weight of a full charge?
Ans: B Ans: A A. Loosely set up one dog on the opposite side from the hinges, snugly A. Foam
4183 The state of charge of a stored pressure type dry chemical fire 4184 When fueling, it is important to ground the ship with regard to static set up two dogs on the hinge side, then evenly set up all the
extinguisher can be readily determined by ____________. electricity. Therefore, you must connect the _____________. remaining dogs.
B. Loosely set up two dogs adjacent to the hinges, snugly set up one B. Soda acid
A. visual inspection of the pressure gage A. fuel hose before the bonding cable dog on the opposite side from the hinges, then evenly set up all the
B. weighing the cylinder B. bonding cable only if sparks are seen remaining dogs.
C. removing the lid and checking the level of dry chemical C. bonding cable before the fuel hose has been connected C. Snugly set up two dogs on the opposite side from the hinges, then C. Dry chemical
D. weighing the CO2 cartridge D. bonding cable through a ground fault circuit breaker evenly set up all the remaining dogs.
Ans: A Ans: C D. Loosely set up one dog on the hinge side, snugly set up two dogs on D. Carbon dioxide
4185 To minimize the possibility of an explosion caused by the discharge 4186 The correct method for connecting a grounding or bonding cable is the opposite side from the hinges, then evenly set up all the
of static electricity, the vessel should ____________. to _____________. remaining dogs.
Ans: A Ans: D
A. be electrically grounded to shore piping A. open switch, connect ground cable, close switch, and connect cargo 4201 Portable carbon dioxide fire extinguishers must be recharged 4202 With regards to the load line marks, the reason for the placement of
hose _____________. mark "WNA" is ______________.
B. have its electrical equipment insulated from its structure B. connect ground cable, open switch, and connect cargo hose A. when the remaining charge volume is less than 90% of the required A. more severe weather is expected in the North Atlantic in winter
C. have crew members use flashlights rather than AC lamps in vapor C. close switch, connect cargo hose, open switch, and connect ground volume
filled areas cable B. at each biennial inspection B. more freeboard is required in the North Atlantic in winter
D. have crew members use flame safety lamps during entry to areas D. connect ground cable, connect cargo hose, open switch, and then C. at each annual inspection C. less draft is allowed in the North Atlantic in winter
that may contain explosive fumes close switch D. when the remaining charge weight is 10% less than the required D. all of the above
Ans: A Ans: A weight
4187 Which of the following statements describes the advantage of using 4188 You may improve a vessel's stability by ___________. Ans: D Ans: D
a Halon fire extinguisher versus a CO2 fire extinguisher? 4203 Water pressure on the hull of a ship is greatest at the 4204 Which of the following statements is true concerning fire hose
_____________. stations used in the engine room of a tank or cargo vessel?
A. Halon cools rather than smothers a fire. A. keeping the fuel tanks topped off
B. Halon is more effective than CO2. B. increasing the free surface effect A. bow A. It must be marked in red letters two inches high
C. Halon can extinguish combustible metal fires. C. keeping the fuel tanks at least half full B. stern B. National Standard fire hose coupling threads shall be used having 9
D. Halon is not toxic and safe to breathe under all conditions. D. keeping at least one fuel tank empty for slops threads per inch for 2 1/2 inch hose and 7 1/2 threads per inch for 1
B
Ans: A
Ans: 1/2 inch hose.
4189 The inclining experiment conducted on a merchant ship is the 4190 Which statement is true concerning Halon 1301 fire extinguishing C. keel C. In heavy weather, the hose may be removed temporarily from the
method for determining the exact location of the __________. equipment? hydrant.
A. ship's displacement in seawater A. The agent is highly toxic under all conditions. D. boot topping D. All of the above.
B. position of the ship's center of gravity B. The agent is less effective than CO2. Ans: C Ans: A
C. position of the ship's center of buoyancy C. Halon extinguishes the fire by smothering. 4205 To prevent overpressurization when loading liquid petroleum 4206 Pressure-vacuum relief valves on tank vessel cargo tanks should be
D. position of the ship's metacenter D. The agent is a colorless odorless gas. products, cargo tanks should be fitted with a/an _________. kept in good working order to prevent ___________.
Ans: B Ans: D
4191 If a vessel rolls to the starboard side, and there are no movable or 4192 If weight is added at the keel, the ship's center of gravity will A. pressure-vacuum valve A. escape of explosive vapors
moving weights onboard, the center of gravity will ____________. ______________. B. ullage opening B. oil spillage on deck
C. overpressurization valve C. entry of burning substances
A. move to port A. move down D. equalizing line D. damage to tank boundaries
B. move to starboard B. move up A
Ans: D
Ans:
C. move directly down C. merge with the metacenter 4207 Which of the precautions listed should be observed when taking on 4208 After ballasting a fuel tank, which of the listed valves should you
D. stay in the same position D. pass through the center of flotation diesel fuel? close FIRST?
D
Ans: A
Ans: A. Secure all lighting to the main deck. A. Tank manifold filling valve
4193 The stability of a vessel is normally the greatest when all fuel and 4194 If you have to abandon ship, the EPIRB can be used to B. Provide a portable fan to blow away fumes. B. Pump discharge valve
water tanks are full because the _____________. _____________. C. Prohibit smoking in the area. C. Deck filling valve
A. center of gravity is lowered A. hold the lifeboat's head up into the seas D. Display a black triangle during daylight hours. D. Sea suction valve
B. center of buoyancy is lowered B. generate orange smoke Ans: C Ans: D
C. reserve buoyancy is unchanged C. seal leaks in rubber rafts 4209 During fueling operations oil is detected in the water adjacent to 4210 The "load on top" system used on many crude oil carriers, is to
D. hull freeboard is increased D. send radio homing signals to searching aircraft your vessel. If however, it is determined to be from some source provide a method for _____________.
Ans: A Ans: D other than your vessel, you should _______.
4195 What is a major advantage of the demand-type self-contained 4196 To operate a CO2 fire extinguisher equipped with a squeeze grip
breathing apparatus? handle, you are to remove the locking pin and ________. A. secure operations until the exact type of oil is determined A. calculating the ullage in the cargo tanks
A. The equipment is lightweight and the wearer can work without A. raise the lower grip B. make an entry in the oil record book to that effect B. loading ballast by gravity
difficulty in confined spaces.
 Page 231 Page 232

C. notify the Port control C. maintaining clean ballast cargo tanks, and the loading of new cargo 4227 Portable carbon dioxide fire extinguishers should be sent ashore to 4228 Inert gas systems fitted on tank vessels must be fitted with an alarm
into the slop tank be recharged _____________. to give an audible and visual warning when the oxygen content of
D. All of the above D. calculating the ratio of cargo expansion in a cargo tank the inert gas exceeds ____________.
Ans: C Ans: C A. when the remaining charge volume is less than 90 percent of the A. 4% by volume
4211 If you are loading a low temperature petroleum cargo you must 4212 One consideration for determining the safest maximum rate at which required VOLUME
insure that __________. bunker fuel may be received is by the _______________. B. at each inspection for certification B. 8% by volume
C. at each annual inspection C. 12% by volume
A. there is room for expansion A. type of fuel transfer pump D. when the weight loss exceeds 10% of weight of charge D. 16% by volume
B. the vents are sealed B. size of the fuel storage tanks ashore D
Ans: B
Ans:
C. vapor baffles are installed C. distance to the fuel storage tanks ashore 4229 What is the required combined capacity for all fans used in an inert 4230 Waste oil from the lube oil sumps of machinery may NOT be
D. all of the above D. number of tanks to be filled gas system as related to the cargo pumps? _____________.
Ans: A Ans: D A. 0.5 A. drained into the vessel's bilges
4213 Fire main outlet valves, or hydrants shall be installed 4214 Your ship has run aground and it is necessary to determine whether B. 0.75 B. reclaimed for other uses
_____________. or not a compartment has flooded. Therefore, you should C. 1 C. held in a slop tank
_____________. D. 1.25 D. purified and then reused
A. in screened enclosures in all passageways A. open the watertight door and take a quick look Ans: D Ans: A
B. where they are protected from the weather B. open the hatch dogs on the side away from the hinges 4231 The purpose of the deck seal in an inert gas system is to prevent 4232 The Pollution Prevention Regulations state that a ship's oily bilge
C. in a protected location to prevent cargo damage C. tap the bulkhead with a hammer to check for a water level ________________. slops may be pumped in port only if the ______________.
D. pointing downward or horizontal to prevent kinking of the fire hose D. feel the bulkhead to see if it is hot
A. flammable vapors from entering machinery space A. local port authority gives permission
Ans: D Ans: C B. flue gas escaping to atmosphere B. local port authority has completed the required pollution inspection
4215 If flammable liquids are being pumped with a centrifugal pump, you 4216 When preparing to pump flammable liquids with a centrifugal pump,
should _____________. you should ____________. C. inert gas escaping to atmosphere C. discharge is led to a slop barge or shoreside tank
A. stop the pump immediately if it becomes vapor bound A. lift the relief valve by hand to check its operation D. air entering inert gas system D. engineer on watch has signed the declaration of inspection
B. throttle the discharge valve to assure positive pumping B. draw a small quantity of liquid to prime the pump Ans: A Ans: C
C. vent the pump casing continuously to expel vapors C. have a standby pump running with the discharge valve closed 4233 Your vessel has run aground and upon taking fuel oil tank 4234 According to regulation, a single layer flame screen of corrosion
soundings, you find that a fuel tank level has increased. You resistant wire is required to be of at least a mesh of ____________.
D. gag relief valves to prevent recirculating and heating of the liquid D. check for gland leakage and any fire hazard therefore should suspect _____________.
A. condensation in the fuel tank A. 8x8
Ans: A Ans: D B. a crack in the hull portion of the fuel tank B. 10 x 10
4217 Tankers carrying cryogenic cargoes, such as LNG, are fitted with 4218 An LNG carrier has an approved type of gas detecting system to C. a load of bad fuel C. 20 x 20
gas detector systems alarmed at 30% of the lower explosive limit. If detect methane leaks in the _____________. D. contamination from the saltwater flushing system D. 30 x 30
the gas detector alarms sounds, this means _____________. Ans: B Ans: D
4235 A new ocean going ship of 2000 gross tons having an inoperative 4236 Which of the following statements represents the correct action to
A. the detector sensor is sampling a space where the cargo vapor A. barrier spaces oily water separator may dispose of its bilge slops by take when three crew members discover a fire?
concentration is 30 percent by volume _____________.
B. an explosion is about to take place B. cargo handling rooms A. holding its slops onboard until they can be pumped into the city A. One man report the fire, and the other two men fight the fire.
C. the detector is sampling a space in which 30 percent of the C. boiler burner supply piping sewer system
atmosphere is explosive B. circulating them through the lube oil purifier to remove water and B. One man report the fire, one man fight the fire, and one man
D. a flammable vapor concentration exists at the sample point, but it is D. all of the above debris evacuate and secure the area.
too lean to burn C. holding its slops onboard until they can be discharged to a shoreside C. One man report the fire, one man fight the fire, and one man act as a
Ans: D Ans: D reception facility safety observer.
4219 Which of the following statements describes how the main bank of 4220 During fueling operations, which of the listed precautions should be D. pumping them into a settling tank for separation before pumping the D. All three men fight the fire and report it immediately after it is
CO2 bottles is released into an engine room from most fixed CO2 taken when topping off fuel tanks? oily water residue overboard extinguished.
fire extinguishing systems? Ans: C Ans: B
A. Manually releasing the bottles in groups of four. A. Reduce the pumping rate by closing the deck filling valve. 4237 In an oil pumping operation where pumping connections are made 4238 While on watch in the engine room, you hear a continuous sounding
B. CO2 pressure from the pilot cylinders. B. Close all overflow valves. up of flanged hoses the weakest link is the _________. of the general alarm. Which of the following actions should you
C. Steel wire trigger lines provided to all bottles in the main bank. C. Place 20 litre containers under all flange connections in the fuel line. take?
A. flange A. Make an entry in the official logbook.
D. Remote pull cables provided to each group of four bottles in the D. Reduce the pumping rate and sound tanks frequently as the level B. hose B. Open the master control valves on the fixed CO2 system.
main bank. rises. C. stud C. Start the fire pump and check discharge pressure.
Ans: B Ans: D D. bolt hole D. Secure auxiliary condenser overboard discharge.
4221 When a fuel oil tank is being topped off during bunkering operations, 4222 The amount of expansion space to be left in a fuel tank when fuel oil Ans: B Ans: C
the tank valve should be closed ____________. is being received, is determined by the __________. 4239 According to Pollution Prevention Regulations , no person may 4240 Which of the actions listed should be taken by the engineer on watch
A. slowly to prevent surge stresses A. quantity of fuel to be received connect or engage in any other critical oil transfer operation unless when the general alarm is sounded continuously for 10 seconds?
B. to prevent gas from escaping through the pressure-vacuum relief B. flash point of the fuel as it is received _____________.
valves A. the designated person-in-charge is present A. Engine room ventilation should be started.
C. after the shore pumps are stopped C. fuel temperature as it is received B. that person holds a tankerman endorsement B. Main engines should be secured.
D. rapidly to prevent overflow D. viscosity of the fuel being received C. that person holds a license as master, mate, or engineer C. The fire pump should be started.
Ans: C Ans: C D. that person holds a valid port security card D. The fixed CO2 system should be activated.
4223 According to Regulations , when loading, or discharging oil in bulk at 4224 According to Pollution Prevention Regulations , tank vessels are Ans: A C
Ans:
a dock, which of the following signals must be displayed? required to have a means of emergency shutdown. This device 4241 Pollution Prevention Regulations specify that the person-in-charge of 4242 According to Pollution Prevention Regulations , how much hose
_____________. bunkering is responsible for the _____________. should you use in transferring oil in bulk?
A. A red flag (day), red light (night) A. shuts off the main propulsion plant A. vessel draft A. Twice the distance between ship and dock.
B. A yellow flag (day), red light (night) B. shuts off the firefighting foam systems B. quantity of fuel received B. One and one half times the distance between ship and dock.
C. A green flag (day), green light (night) C. stops the flow of oil to shore facility or other vessel C. quality of fuel received C. Not over 300 feet (91.4 m) of hose.
D. A signal is not required for discharging oil, only gasoline D. secures electrical power to all motors D. communications with terminal operator D. Sufficient for maximum vessel movement without straining the
A
Ans: C
Ans: hoses.
4225 The emergency shutdown requirements of Pollution Prevention 4226 Where will you find the procedures for the reporting of oil discharge Ans: D Ans: D
Regulations apply to _____________. into the water? 4243 The term "oily mixture", as defined in the Pollution Prevention 4244 Which of the following represents the maximum percent of oxygen,
A. condensate pumps A. The vessel's Certificate of Inspection Regulations includes ______________. by volume, required to be achieved by a ship'sinert gas system, prior
B. air compressors B. The vessel's Oil Record Book to the commencement of crude oiltank washing?
C. induced draft fans C. The vessel's Oil Transfer Procedures
D. cargo transfer systems D. The vessel's International Oil Pollution Prevention Certificate A. sludge A. 0.06
Ans: D Ans: C B. oily ballast water B. 0.08
C. bilge slops C. 0.1
 Page 233 Page 234

D. all of the above D. 0.12 C. cleats C. verify the hydrostatic data

Ans: D Ans: B D. manifold riser D. verify data in the vessel's operating manual
4245 Each inert gas system gas main must have an automatic shut down 4246 Which of the following statements is true regarding oxygen Ans: C Ans: B
valve at the outlet of the gas production plant. This valve must close indicators? 4263 Atificial respiration to an adult should be administered ___________. 4264 Which of the firefighting agents listed is the least hazardous to
automatically upon ___________. personnel?
A. cargo pump failure A. The instrument is capable of providing an immediate accurate A. 4 to 6 times per minute A. CO2
reading of any space with no delay. B. 12 to 15 times per minute B. Steam
B. blower failure B. Prolonged exposure to gases such as CO2 may affect the accuracy C. 20 to 30 times per minute C. Water
of the indicator. D. At least 30 times per minute D. Carbon tetrachloride
C. deck seal low water level C. A cotton filter placed in the end of the sampling tube prevents Ans: B Ans: C
damaging the instrument when exposed to strongly acidic gases. 4265 The external flotation bladder on an immersion suit should be 4266 The principle personnel hazard unique to Halon fire extinguishers is
inflated ____________. ____________.
D. low inert gas temperature D. All of the above. A. before you enter the water A. displacement of oxygen
Ans: B Ans: B B. after you enter the water B. skin irritation
4247 An inert gas system incorporating a separately fired inert gas 4248 Which of the following liquids can ordinarily be discharged overboard C. after one hour in the water C. inhaling toxic vapors produced when exposed directly to a flame for
generator shall be provided with visual and audible alarms to without being processed through an oily water separator? extended periods
indicate failure of the power supply to the generator, the automatic D. after you notice that your suit is losing buoyancy D. eye irritation produced immediately after discharge from cylinder
control system, and _____________.
A. cooling water flow A. Cargo tank ballast Ans: B Ans: C
B. combustion air temp too low B. Segregated ballast 4267 "Air gap" is the vertical distance between the bottom of the hull and 4268 Which of the listed conditions could cause a dangerous reduction in
C. high sea water temperature C. Engine room bilges the __________. oxygen in a shipboard compartment?
D. insufficient fuel supply D. Cargo pumproom bilges A. still water level A. Fire
D
Ans: B
Ans: B. wave crest B. Rusting or the drying of paint
4249 People should be protected from the rotating parts of machinery by 4250 The word "discharge" as used in Pollution Prevention Regulations C. wave crest plus the charted water depth and tidal corrections C. Decomposing organic material
_____________. applies to oil __________.
A. vents A. leaked into navigable waters D. wave crest plus the charted water depth, plus tidal correction and D. All of the above conditions
B. bright lights B. poured into navigable waters storm surge
C. reflective tape C. pumped into navigable waters through a fixed piping system Ans: A Ans: D
D. guards D. all of the above 4269 Horizontal transverse motion of a vessel is known as 4270 As a precaution against oil spills when topping off fuel tanks, you
Ans: D Ans: D ____________. should _____________.
4251 Why is it important for fuel oil tanks not to be topped off when 4252 The trim of a vessel is the _____________. A. pitch A. close the deck filling valve to reduce the pumping rate
loading cold oil? B. surge B. close all tank vents to prevent overflow
A. Increased viscosity of the product needs higher loading pressure, A. value of the mean draft C. sway C. fill the tank to the bottom of the expansion trunk
which increases the chance of a spill. D. heave D. notify the shore pumping station to reduce the pumping rate as tanks
B. Air pockets may cause the fuel to bubble out of the ullage hole. B. degree of list near full capacity
Ans: C Ans: D
C. The change in its specific volume when heated may cause an C. amount of roll 4271 The signal to man emergency stations is _________. 4272 When administering chest compression during CPR, at what part of
overflow. the victim's body should the pressure be applied?
D. The fueling valve may become stuck closed and cause the fuel oil to D. difference in fore and aft drafts A. a 30 second on - 30 second off alternating signal A. Lower half of the sternum
spill before the valve can be opened. B. the continuous ringing of the general alarm signal B. Tip of the sternum
Ans: C Ans: D C. an intermittent ringing of the general alarm for not less than ten C. Top half of the sternum
4253 Which of the following statements is true concerning a,Halon 1301 4254 Regulations require that lifejackets shall be _____________. seconds
fixed extinguishing system? D. announced over PA system D. Left chest over the heart
A. The quantity of Halon supplied would be less than the quantity of A. provided for each person onboard Ans: C Ans: A
CO2 for the same space protected. 4273 Dry chemical fire extinguishers may be effectively used on which of 4274 When removing the cap from a sounding tube ,the sound of air
B. CO2 gas is used to propel the Halon to the space on fire. B. provided for all personnel on watch the listed classes of fires? escaping indicates _______________.
C. The Halon must be agitated occasionally to ensure that it doesn't C. readily accessible to persons in the engine room A. Class "A" only A. the tank is full
cake up. B. Class "B" only B. the tank may be partially flooded
D. All of the above. D. all of the above C. Class "B" and "C" only C. the tank level has dropped
Ans: A Ans: D D. Class "A" and "C" only D. the tank is completely flooded
4255 The most critical time for preventing an accidental oil spill during 4256 Where would you look to find out what your duties are during a fire? Ans: C Ans: B
bunkering, is when the _____________. 4275 When the height of the metacenter has the same value as the height 4276 If a liferaft should capsize, _____________.
A. tanks are being topped off A. Ship's articles of the center of gravity, the metacentric height is equal to
B. fuel begins to come aboard B. Muster List ______________.
C. hoses are being blown down C. Certificate of Inspection A. height of the metacenter A. climb onto the bottom
D. hoses are being disconnected D. Manning Certificate B. height of the center of gravity B. swim away from the raft
Ans: A Ans: B C. same as half the height of the metacenter C. right the raft using the righting straps
4257 When administering only mouth-to-mouth resuscitation, you should 4258 Which of the listed classes of fires should be extinguished with a D. zero D. inflate the righting bag
continue the victim's ventilation rate at how many inflations per water fog? D
Ans: Ans: C
minute? 4277 A solid stream of water might be useful in fighting a burning oil fire 4278 Yawing is the angular motion of the vessel about what axis?
A. 4 A. Class A and B on deck when it is used ____________.
B. 8 B. Class A and C A. to wash burning oil over the side A. Longitudinal
C. 12 C. Class B and C B. to provide cooling for the fire fighters B. Transverse
D. 20 D. Class A, B, and C C. in conjunction with chemical foam C. Vertical
Ans: C A
Ans: D. to cool the main deck D. Centerline
4259 The zipper of an immersion suit should be lubricated with 4260 The blocking open or absence of fire dampers can contribute to Ans: A Ans: C
_____________. _________. 4279 If you observe any situation which presents a safety or pollution 4280 The signal for fire alarm on a vessel must be indicated
A. paraffin A. the accumulation of explosive gases hazard during fuel transfer operations on a ship, which of the listed ____________.
B. oil B. faster cooling of the fire actions should be taken first?
C. graphite C. the fire spreading by way of the ventilation system A. Wait for the person-in-charge to act. A. at each alarm bell
D. vegetable oil D. fixed foam systems to be ineffective B. Notify the ballast control operator. B. at each alarm actuator
Ans: A Ans: C C. Shutdown the transfer operations. C. near all exits
4261 Topping lifts and runners supporting flexible cargo hoses should be 4262 The purpose of the vessel inclining experiment is to __________. D. Sound the fire alarm. D. on the station bill
made fast to the ____________. Ans: C Ans: D
A. capstan A. determine the location of the metacenter
B. gypsy head B. determine the lightweight center of gravity location
 Page 235 Page 236

4281 Immediately after abandoning a vessel, lookouts should be posted 4282 Recharging a previously used cartridge-operated dry chemical fire 4299 The relief valve on a fire pump is set at 1.75kg/cm2 (25 psi )above 4300 The horizontal distance between the vertical lines of action of gravity
aboard liferafts to look for _____________. extinguisher is accomplished by ______________. the pressure necessary to maintain the required fire hose streams, and the buoyant forces is called the ___________.
or ___________.
A. survivors in the water A. authorized fire equipment servicing personnel only A. 3.5kg/cm2 A. righting arm
B. food and water B. replacing the propellant cartridge and refilling it with powder B. 5.0kg/cm2 B. metacentric height
C. land C. puncturing the cartridge seal after installation C. 8.8kg/cm2 C. metacentric radius
D. bad weather D. recharging the cartridge and refilling it with powder D. 10.5kg/cm2 D. height of the center of buoyancy
Ans: A Ans: B C
Ans: A
Ans:
4283 Heave is the motion of a vessel along the _____________. 4284 Pollution Prevention Regulations (MARPOL) state that when a tank 4301 The amount of Halon remaining in a fire extinguisher cylinder is 4302 The order of importance in addressing damage control on a floating
vessel is discharging cargo, each sea suction valve connected to the determined by ______________. ship is ________________.
vessel's oil transfer, ballast, or cargo tank systems must be A. internal inspection A. control flooding, control fire, repair structural damage
____________. B. checking the quantity indicating gauge B. restore vital services, control fire, control flooding
A. longitudinal axis A. sealed or lashed closed C. weighing the cylinder C. control fire, restore vital services, control flooding
B. transverse axis B. fitted with a blank flange D. checking the tag D. control fire, control flooding, repair structural damage
C. vertical axis C. fitted with an anti-siphon device Ans: C Ans: D
D. centerline axis D. lined up for immediate use 4303 The use of flexible hose pipes to connect the crude oil washing 4304 Which of the following is NOT a recommended safe practice?
Ans: C Ans: A machines is permitted only on ________________.
4285 You are attempting to administer CPR to a victim. While blowing into 4286 Why should passageway fires be fought from one end only? A. product tankers A. Securing equipment against slipping or drifting.
the victim's mouth, it is apparent that no air is getting to the lungs. B. crude oil tankers B. Operating machinery at its recommended speed.
Which of the following actions should you take? C. combination OBO tankers C. Repairing loose handles on tools before using.
D. chemical tankers D. Using tools for purposes for which they are not designed.
A. Blow harder to force the air past the tongue. A. This action will cause the passageway to become slippery and Ans: C Ans: D
difficult for fire fighters to stand. 4305 Fire hydrant valves on a crude oil tanker shall be isolated from the 4306 If accidents are considered as an "unexpected contact", you will be
B. Raise the victim's head higher than his feet. B. So that one hose team does not push the flames heat and smoke crude oil washing system by ____________. able to perform a better job by observing which of the following
directly at the other hose team. practices?
C. Press on the victim's lungs so that air pressure will blow out any C. It is impossible for the fire main to handle two fully pressurized A. spade blanks A. Looking for unsafe practices.
obstruction. hoses. B. face blanks B. Inspecting for unsafe conditions.
D. Re-tip the head and try again. D. So that the extinguishing water can be trapped at the end of the C. nonreturn valves C. Analyzing jobs for safer methods.
passageway. D. automatic closing valves D. Doing all of the above.
Ans: D Ans: B A
Ans: D
Ans:
4287 CO2 cylinders equipped with pressure actuated discharge heads 4288 Keeping the draft of a vessel at, or below the load line mark, insures 4307 Antiseptics are used principally to ___________. 4308 Low velocity water fog is very effective in _____________.
will discharge automatically when ______________. the unit will have adequate _______________. A. promote healing A. removing toxic fumes from the air
A. the discharge valve is open A. reserve ballast B. prevent infection B. controlling the movement of burning oil
B. the control box glass is broken B. reserve buoyancy C. reduce inflammation C. removing combustible vapors from the air
C. pressure from the control cylinders is initially detected C. lightweight displacement D. increase blood circulation D. shielding fire fighters from the fire
D. the control cylinders have been completely discharged D. critical motion Ans: B Ans: D
Ans: C Ans: B 4309 Which type of firefighting foam listed is supplied in both 3% and 6% 4310 What information can be obtained from a marine chemist'scertificate
4289 In the first 24 hours after abandoning a vessel, water should be 4290 Mechanical foam used for firefighting is produced by mechanically concentrations? issued to a fishing vessel?
given only to personnel who are ______________. mixing and agitating _____________. A. Mechanical foam A. The number of fire extinguishers required onboard.
A. thirsty A. soda acid and water B. Protein foam B. The quality of fuel in the vessel's tanks
B. sick or injured B. dry chemical and water C. Aqueous film forming foam C. The tanks which are safe to enter when the certificate was issued
C. wet C. foam chemical with air and water
D. awake D. bicarbonate soda with air and water D. All of the above D. The vessel's stability information
Ans: B Ans: C Ans: D Ans: C
4291 After you have put water on a burning mattress, and the fire appears 4292 When a vessel is floating upright, the distance from the keel to the 4311 The water in which a vessel floats provides vertical upward support. 4312 Sufficient portable drive heads for a crude oil washing system must
to have been extinguished, you should then _____________. metacenter is called the ______________. The point through which this support is assumed to act is known as be provided in order to avoid one head being used during the tank
the center of ______________. washing procedure more than __________.
A. dry the mattress in a warm area A. metacentric differential
B. make sure the fire is out with CO2 B. height of the baseline A. effort A. 2 times
C. pull the mattress apart to ensure no fire remains C. height of the metacenter B. flotation B. 3 times
D. secure the mattress in a well ventilated area D. righting arm C. gravity C. 4 times
C
Ans: Ans: C D. buoyancy D. 5 times
4293 Which of the listed devices is required to be located on the 4294 Artificial respiration may be necessary in cases of _______. Ans: D Ans: B
discharge side of the pump in a fire main system? 4313 If you have to abandon ship, and enter a liferaft, your main course of 4314 A seaman has sustained a small, gaping laceration of the arm
A. Pressure gage A. drowning action should be to ________________. requiring sutures to close if medical facilities were available. Which
B. Strainer B. electrocution of the following remedies can be done to temporarily close the
C. Reduction valve C. poisoning wound?
D. International shore connection D. All of the above A. remain in the vicinity of the sinking vessel A. Wrap a tight bandage around the wound.
Ans: A Ans: D B. head for the closest land B. Gently close the wound and while holding it closed apply a
4295 Carbon dioxide cylinders must be recharged when the cylinder 4296 The discharge side of every fire pump must be provided with a compression bandage.
charge weight is less than what percent of the stamped full weight ______________. C. head for the closest sea-lanes C. Use temporary stitches of sail twine.
charge? D. get a majority opinion D. Apply butterfly strips and cover with a sterile dressing.
A. 0.8 A. gate valve Ans: A Ans: D
B. 0.85 B. pressure gage 4315 No outlet on a fire hydrant may point above the horizontal, in order 4316 Aqueous film forming firefighting foam is also known as
C. 0.9 C. check valve to _______________. _____________.
D. 0.95 D. strainer A. avoid kinking the hose A. chemical foam
Ans: C B
Ans: B. avoid personal injury during connection B. high-expansion foam
4297 When personnel are lifted by a helicopter from an inflatable liferaft, 4298 Which of the devices listed must be used in conjunction with the C. make connecting easier C. mechanical foam
the personnel on the raft should ______________. portable in-line foam proportioner to produce foam? D. prevent spray on electrical equipment D. all of the above
A. deflate the floor of the raft to reduce the danger of capsizing A. A plain or common fire hose nozzle Ans: A Ans: C
B. inflate the floor of the raft to provide for additional stability B. The mechanical foam nozzle 4317 When water fog is used as an extinguishing agent, the fire is 4318 A person reports to you with a fishhook in their thumb. The accepted
C. remove their lifejackets to prepare for the transfer C. Any low velocity applicator extinguished principally by the ____________. procedure for removing it should be to ___________.
D. take in the sea anchor to prevent fouling of the rescue sling D. An all-purpose nozzle
Ans: A Ans: B A. isolation of the fuel A. pull it out with pliers
B. absorption of heat B. cut the skin from around the hook
C. displacement of gases of combustion C. push the barb through, cut it off, and then remove the hook
 Page 237 Page 238

D. extinguishment of incipient smoldering D. have a surgeon remove it B. left closed with vents off until all boundaries are cool B. there is also a control valve outside
Ans: B Ans: C C. checked for the proper oxygen level C. the CO2 cylinders are also in the space
4319 A vessel is subjected to "hogging" when it __________. 4320 Which of the actions listed and instituted on your part will have the D. opened and doused with water to prevent reflash D. an automatic heat sensing trip is installed
greatest lasting effect on the crew with respect to safety? B
Ans: C
Ans:
4339 If the cause of severe list, or trim is due to off-center ballast, 4340 As a firefighting medium, CO2 can be dangerous under certain
A. has its main deck under compressive stress A. Posting posters illustrating practices counterflooding into empty tanks will ____________. conditions as it can cause _____________.
B. has its bottom plating under tensile stress B. Showing video tapes of actual accidents A. increase the righting moment A. hallucinations
C. is supported on a wave whose crests are at the bow and stern C. Incorporating safety practices in daily routine B. increase the righting arm B. burns and blistering
C. increase list or trim C. undulation
D. is supported on a wave whose crest is amidships D. Publishing comprehensive safety rules D. decrease list or trim D. carbon monoxide poisoning
Ans: D Ans: C Ans: D Ans: B
4321 At which of the listed tank locations should you obtain oxygen 4322 When a floating vessel inclines to an angle slightly greater than the 4341 The important stability parameter "KG" is defined as the 4342 A quick and rapid motion of a floating vessel in a seaway is an
content readings prior to tank washing? angle of loll, it will ____________. _______________. indication of ____________.
A. At the hatch coaming and tank bottom. A. capsize A. metacentric height A. large "GM"
B. At the hatch coaming and middle of the tank. B. incline further B. height of the metacenter above the keel B. high center of gravity
C. At the middle and bottom of the tank. C. flop to the other side C. height of the center of buoyancy above the keel C. excessive free surfaces
D. At the center of the ullage and one meter below deck. D. return to the angle of loll D. height of the center of gravity above the keel D. small "GZ"
Ans: D Ans: D Ans: D Ans: A
4323 Which of the following fire extinguishing agents has the greatest 4324 Initial stability refers to the vessel's stability ________. 4343 A person suffering from possible broken bones and internal injuries 4344 The object of plugging holes below the waterline on a ship should be
capacity for heat absorption? should __________. to ____________.
A. Water fog A. at small angles of inclination A. be assisted in walking around A. eliminate all water entering through the hole
B. Dry chemical B. when loaded with minimum deck load B. be examined then walked to a bunk B. only plug holes in machinery or other vital spaces
C. Chemical foam C. when at transit draft C. not be moved, but made comfortable until medical assistance C. reduce the entry of water as much as possible
D. Carbon dioxide D. when GZ is zero arrives, provided he is in a safe environment
Ans: A Ans: A D. not be allowed to lie down where injured but moved to a chair or D. plug the largest holes first
4325 Overhauling a fire in the living quarters on a vessel must include 4326 Which of the following must be carried out in order to launch and bunk
_______________. inflate an inflatable liferaft? Ans: C Ans: C
A. opening dead spaces to check for fire or lingering sources of heat A. Pull on the hydrostatic release, pull on the sea painter. 4345 What is the function of the small gas accumulator cylinder attached 4346 A CO2 fire extinguisher is checked by __________.
to the discharge piping of the engine room fixed CO2 system?
B. evacuation of the vessel B. Push on the hydrostatic release, pull on the sea painter.
C. immediately sounding the "all clear" signal C. Push on the hydrostatic release, push on the sea painter. A. It absorbs the pressure shock to the piping resulting from the initial A. reading the gage pressure
D. operation of the emergency generator D. Pull on the hydrostatic release, push on the sea painter. release of carbon dioxide.
A
Ans: B
Ans: B. It delays the release of carbon dioxide into the engine room. B. weighing the extinguisher
4327 Which of the documents listed will describe lifesaving equipment 4328 The maximum draft to which a cargo ship may be safely loaded is C. It directly activates the warning siren in the engine room. C. discharging a small amount of CO2
located aboard your vessel? called __________. D. It controls the rate of discharge of carbon dioxide into the engine D. checking for broken inspection seals
A. Station bill A. mean draft room.
B. Certificate of Inspection B. calculated draft Ans: B Ans: B
C. Forecastle card C. deep draft 4347 Your assigned emergency stations aboard your vessel can be found 4348 You should operate a fixed CO2 system by opening the control
D. Clearance papers D. load line draft on the ship's ______________. valve to the space protected and ___________.
Ans: B Ans: D A. clearance papers A. visually checking to see that CO2 is discharging through the piping
4329 A fire main system must have enough fire hydrants for each 4330 The preferred method of controlling external bleeding is by
accessible space to be reached with ______________. _____________. B. permit to proceed B. operating a separate control to release CO2
A. a low velocity spray applicator A. applying direct pressure on the wound C. certificate of inspection C. listening for the sound of the warning siren
B. a water spray or solid stream B. elevating the wounded area D. muster list D. modulating the proper amount of CO2 from individual bottles
C. at least two spray patterns of water C. applying pressure on a pressure point D
Ans: B
Ans:
D. at least 1.75kg/cm2 delivered pressure D. applying a tourniquet above the wound 4349 Operation of the release control valve on a fixed CO2 fire 4350 In order to release CO2 to the machinery spaces, you must
Ans: C Ans: A extinguishing system, must automatically ______________. physically open the engine room ____________.
4331 With damaged floating vessels, the most important consideration is 4332 You have found a person laying prone and not breathing. An electric A. release CO2 to the protected space A. control valve and actuate the alarm
the preservation of ________________. wire is touching the victim. Which of the actions listed is the FIRST B. secure all mechanical ventilation in the protected space B. CO2 releasing valve and actuate the alarm
thing you should do? C. sound the general alarm signal for a fire C. control valve, then open the CO2 releasing valve
A. bilge pumping capacity A. Shut off the power or remove the wire from the person. D. sound an alarm in the ballast control room D. control valve, then shut off the engine room ventilation
B. reserve buoyancy B. Immediately begin artificial respiration. Ans: B Ans: C
C. level attitude C. Immediately begin cardiac massage. 4351 How often must fixed CO2 fire extinguishing systems be inspected 4352 Portable Halon fire extinguishers used may be charged with
D. instability D. Leave the accident scene and summon medical assistance. to confirm the cylinders are within 10% of the stamped full charge _______________.
Ans: B Ans: A weight?
4333 Water applied as a "fog" can be more effective than water applied as 4334 The stability term for the distance between the center of gravity (G) A. Quarterly. A. HALON 1301 only
a "solid stream", because _____________. to the Metacenter (M), when small angle stability applies is known B. Semiannually. B. HALON 22 only
as the _________________. C. Annually. C. HALON 1211 only
A. a given amount of water can absorb more heat when it is in the form A. metacentric height D. Biannually. D. HALON 1301 or 1211
of fog Ans: C Ans: C
B. it reduces the total amount of water that must be pumped into the B. metacentric radius 4353 Unless there is danger of further injury, a person with a broken bone 4354 The most effective means for combating an oil fire on the water
ship to fight a given fire should not be moved until bleeding is controlled and surrounding a vessel is to use _____________.
C. it does not have to hit the seat of fire to be effective C. height of the metacenter _______________.
D. of all of the above D. righting arm A. the bone has been set A. high velocity fog over the fire
Ans: D Ans: A B. the fracture is immobilized B. solid streams of water directed at the edge of the fire
4335 On a cargo ship, firefighting equipment must be inspected once 4336 Bleeding from a vein can be characterized as _____________. C. radio advice has been obtained C. dry chemicals over the fire
every _______________. D. the wound has been washed D. foam directed against the side of the vessel
A. three months A. dark red and slow B
Ans: D
Ans:
B. six months B. bright red and slow 4355 The usual method for effectively applying foam on a fire is by 4356 At all angles of inclination, the true measure of a vessel's stability is
C. twelve months C. bright red and spurting ___________. the _____________.
D. eighteen months D. dark red and spurting A. spraying directly on the base of the fire A. metacentric height
Ans: C Ans: A B. flowing the foam down a vertical surface B. displacement
4337 After extinguishing a paint locker fire using the fixed CO2 system, 4338 Control valves for a CO2 fire extinguishing system may be located C. sweeping the fire before you with the foam C. righting moment
the next immediate action is for the space to be ____________. within the protected space when _____________. D. spraying directly on the surface of the fire D. inclining moment
Ans: B Ans: C
A. opened and burned material removed A. it is impractical to locate them outside
 Page 239 Page 240

4357 The weight of the liquid displaced by a vessel floating in sea water is 4358 The inspection of portable fire extinguishers must be D. The tank vapors should be tested with an explosimeter before D. Give the person a stimulant to increase blood flow.
equal to the _______________. _______________. personnel enter.
A. weight required to sink the vessel A. accomplished by an authorized servicing representative Ans: C Ans: C
B. total weight of the vessel B. recorded by the person-in-charge 4375 Why is an upper limit switch used when raising the lifeboat? 4376 The empty weight of a "100 pound" (45.4 kg) cylinder in a fixed CO2
C. displaced submerged volume C. completed every six months system is 130 pounds (58.9 kg). What is the minimum acceptable
D. reserve buoyancy D. all of the above total weight of the cylinder before recharging is required?
Ans: B Ans: B
4359 When the height of the metacenter is less than the height of the 4360 On a cargo ship equipped with a combination detection-carbon A. To prevent the davits from pulling up against the stops. A. 200 lbs (90.7 kg)
center of gravity, a vessel has what type of stability? dioxide system, the presence of fire is indicated at the cabinet B. To assist in cranking in the lifeboat. B. 210 lbs (95.2 kg)
simultaneously in two spaces: #3 hold upper between decks, C. To keep the tricing lines from releasing or getting tangled. C. 220 lbs (99.8 kg)
containing bagged coffee beans; and #4 lower hold containing D. To stop the lifeboat from being lowered. D. 230 lbs (104.3 kg)
fertilize Ans: A Ans: C
A. Stable A. open the three-way valves to each space simultaneously 4377 The maximum concentration of hydrogen sulfide to which workers 4378 When the engine room fixed CO2 system is activated, which of the
B. Neutral B. open the applicable three-way valve for #3 hold and fight the fire in may be regularly exposed without adverse effects is following actions should be taken FIRST if the automatic fuel oil and
#4 hold with water _____________. ventilation shutoffs have failed to operate?
C. Unstable C. open the applicable three-way valve for #4 hold. After discharge,
secure the valve; then open the applicable valve for #3 hold. A. 10 ppm A. Manually operate the remote shutdown controls.
B. 20 ppm B. Activate an additional CO2 bottle to increase pressure on the
D. Positive D. activate the pilot CO2 cylinders, directing the discharge to #3 hold, pressure switch plunger.
then to #4 hold through the three-way valve C. 40 ppm C. Send someone down to manually secure the fuel oil pumps and
Ans: C Ans: C ventilation fans.
4361 Foam extinguishes a fire by _____________. 4362 When the height of the metacenter is the same as the height of the D. 80 ppm D. Discharge extra carbon dioxide into the engine room.
center of gravity, the upright equilibrium position is Ans: B Ans: A
________________. 4379 Firefighting foam is only effective when the foam ________. 4380 The difference between the initial trim of a vessel and the trim after a
A. chemically absorbing the oxygen A. stable change in load has occurred is known as _____________.
B. smothering the burning material B. neutral
C. chemically absorbing the burning material C. unstable A. penetrates to the bottom of the fire A. trim
D. releasing large amounts of carbon dioxide D. negative B. is kept saturated with low velocity water fog B. change of trim
B
Ans: Ans: B C. mixes with the burning fuel oil C. final trim
4363 Which of the following conditions is a symptom of a person in 4364 Foam extinguishes a fire by ____________. D. completely covers the top of the burning liquid D. change of draft
shock? Ans: D Ans: B
A. Warm and dry A. destroying the burning materials 4381 When fighting a fire on deck with foam, you should ________. 4382 A weathertight door on a ocean going ship must not allow water to
B. Warm and damp B. chemical reaction with the burning material penetrate into the unit _____________.
C. Cold and dry C. absorbing the burning material A. play the foam stream directly on the burning oil A. in 50 knot winds
D. Cold and damp D. smothering the burning material B. play the foam stream off nearby vertical vessel structures B. in 70 knot winds
Ans: D D
Ans: C. only use the foam on flowing liquids C. in 100 knot winds
4365 Which of the following conditions is NOT a symptom of traumatic 4366 Extinguishing an oil fire when using foam is a result of D. play the foam stream on the base of the fire with whirling motion D. in any sea condition
shock? _____________.
A. Slow deep breathing A. Cooling Ans: B Ans: D
B. Pale and cold skin B. Dampening 4383 Which of the following machinery space operations is required to be 4384 In firefighting, the term "protecting exposures" means
C. Weak and rapid pulse C. Smothering logged in the Oil Record Book? _____________.
D. Restlessness and anxiety D. Vapor absorbtion A. Ballasting or cleaning of fuel oil tanks. A. protecting fire fighters from direct exposure to the heat of the fire
Ans: A Ans: C
4367 Which of the following procedures is always recommended in the 4368 When treating a person for shock, you should wrap the victim in B. Shifting suction of main fuel pump to reserve fuel oil tank. B. keeping flames from burning at the tank vents
rescue of an unconscious person from a compartment containing an warm coverings to ____________. C. Changing out sprayer plates to adjust for steam demand. C. protecting exposed areas of the superstructure from flames
unsafe atmosphere? D. Daily inspection of engine room bilges. D. taking measures to prevent the spread of fire from the involved
A. Have the rescuers wear an approved self-contained breathing A. decrease body heat compartment to an adjacent compartment
apparatus. Ans: A Ans: D
B. Have the rescuers carry in a stokes basket for the victim. B. preserve present body heat 4385 Chemical foam is most suitable for use on a fire involving 4386 For an upright vessel, draft is the vertical distance between the keel
C. Have the rescuer carry an emergency first aid kit for the victim. C. avoid self-inflicted wounds caused by spastic movement _____________. and the _____________.
A. oil A. waterline
D. Have the rescuers carry a combustible gas analyzer. D. protect the person from injury during transportation B. burning insulation B. freeboard deck
Ans: A Ans: B C. hot bulkheads C. Plimsoll mark
4369 A person who observes an individual fall overboard from a ship 4370 The reserve buoyancy of a vessel varies directly with changes in D. electrical machinery D. amidships section
should ______________. the vessel's _____________. Ans: A Ans: A
A. immediately jump into the water to assist the individual A. free surface 4387 First, second, and third degree burns are classified according to 4388 Aqueous Film Forming Foam (AFFF), commonly known as "light
B. call for help and keep the individual in sight B. freeboard ____________. water", is especially suitable for fighting _____________.
C. run to the radio room to send an emergency message C. rolling period
D. go to the control room for the distress flares D. none of the above A. area of the body burned A. oil fires in the engine room bilges
Ans: B Ans: B B. source of heat causing the burn B. class B fires in paint lockers
4371 Increasing the free surface of a confined liquid has the effect of 4372 High concentrations of hydrogen sulfide gas are most dangerous to C. layers of skin affected C. any class D fire
raising the ____________. personnel because they can _____________. D. size of the burned area D. all of the above
A. uncorrected "KG" A. cause involuntary skeletal muscle contractions C
Ans: A
Ans:
B. virtual height of the center of gravity B. paralyze your breathing system 4389 The approval period for a shipboard oil pollution emergency plan 4390 When treating a person for third degree burns, you should
C. metacenter C. cause eye inflammation expires after __________. ___________.
D. metacentric height D. cause dizziness A. one year A. submerge the burn area in cold water
Ans: B Ans: B B. two years B. make the person stand up and walk to increase circulation
4373 Which of the following statements is true concerning the actions of a 4374 After an accident, the victim may go into shock and die. Which of the C. four years C. cover the burns with thick sterile dressing
properly organized rescue party for removing an unconscious victim following actions should be taken to help prevent shock? D. five years D. break blisters and remove dead tissue
from a tank containing toxic vapors? Ans: D Ans: C
A. The victim should not be moved until the extent of his injuries is A. Slightly elevate the head and feet. 4391 The hand brake of a lifeboat winch is _____________. 4392 The centrifugal brake mechanism incorporated in a lifeboat handling
determined. winch is intended to _____________.
B. The victim should be fitted with a canister type OBA as soon as B. Keep the person awake. A. manually disengaged when hoisting a boat A. automatically stop the boat if electric power fails
possible. B. applied by dropping the counterweighted lever B. mechanically stop the boat when the hand brake fails
C. The rescue party should provide the victim with oxygen or fresh air C. Keep the person lying down and at a comfortable temperature. C. controlled by the centrifugal brake mechanism C. hold the load suspended during lowering operations
immediately. D. automatically engaged if lowering speed is excessive D. automatically control the speed of lowering by gravity
 Page 241 Page 242

Ans: B Ans: D 4411 How should a Halon fire extinguisher be used to extinguish an 4412 Which of the following types of bearings is designed to limit end
4393 A device for preventing sparks or flames from entering a tank, yet 4394 A shipboard oil pollution emergency plan is required of _________. electrical fire? movement and carry loads applied in the same direction as the shaft
permitting the free passage of gases is _____. axis?
A. gas absorption detector A. all vessels, regardless of size and commercial application A. Apply by bouncing agent off nearby bulkheads. A. Rigidly mounted reduction gear bearing
B. pressure-vacuum relief valve B. any barge or other ship which is constructed or operated in such a B. Use a quick sweeping motion towards the base of the fire. B. Segmental pivoted-shoe thrust bearing
manner that no oil in any form can be carried aboard C. Always direct discharge at the source of the fire. C. Self-aligning radial bearing
C. flame screen C. an oil tanker of 150 gross tons or above, or other ship of 400 gross D. It shouldn't be used on an electrical fire. D. Spherically-seated radial bearing
tons or above Ans: C B
Ans:
D. sacrificial anode D. an oil tanker of 400 gross tons and above, or other ships of 150 4413 Chemical burns are caused by the skin coming in contact with 4414 Which of the following statements is true concerning the Halon 1301
gross tons and above ___________. fire extinguishing agent?
Ans: C Ans: C A. acids or alkalies A. The agent is highly toxic as stored in pressurized cylinders.
4395 A fine mesh wire screen is fitted to tank vent pipes to prevent 4396 Which of the toxic gases listed is a product of incomplete B. diesel oil B. The agent is less effective than carbon dioxide.
_____________. combustion, and is often present when a fire burns in a closed C. acids, but not alkalies C. Halon extinguishes the fire by a chain breaking reaction.
compartment? D. alkalies, but not acids D. The agent can not be used on electrical fires because it leaves a
A. passage of flames into the tank A. Carbon dioxide residue.
B. entry of rodents into the tank B. Hydrogen sulfide Ans: A Ans: C
C. debris stopping up the vent pipe C. Carbon monoxide 4415 Which of the fire extinguishing agents listed uses a chain breaking 4416 The person on a ship who is responsible for maintaining the
D. embers from a fire entering the tank D. Nitric oxide action to put out a fire? engineering spaces in a clean and sanitary condition is the
Ans: A Ans: C _____________.
4397 Each fireman's outfit and its spare equipment on a ship must be 4398 Why are flame screens an important safety device? A. Halon 1211 A. master, or person-in-charge
stowed _____________. B. Halon 1301 B. chief engineer, or engineer-in-charge
A. in a locked cabinet in the machinery space A. They provide a "dead air space" within a fuel tank. C. Purple K C. senior mechanic, or mechanic on duty if no senior mechanic
B. in an unlocked cabinet in the machinery space B. They accelerate the dispersal of fuel vapors. designated
C. in a separate and accessible location C. They prevent the passage of flames from or into closed spaces. D. All of the above D. senior electrician, or electrician on duty if no senior electrician
designated
D. at a fire hydrant location D. They smother flames once a fire has been started. Ans: D Ans: B
Ans: C Ans: C 4417 Compliance with the terms of the load line certificate on a ship is the 4418 Periodic surveys to renew the load line assignment for a ship must
4399 If a crewman suffers a second degree burn on the arm, you should 4400 On a ship, a cabinet or space containing the controls or valves for responsibility of the ______________. be made at intervals not exceeding ____________.
____________________. the fixed firefighting system must be __________. A. Chief Officer A. 18 months
A. drain any blisters A. posted with instructions on the operation of the system B. Chief Engineer B. two years
B. apply antiseptic ointment B. ventilated and equipped with explosion-proof switches C. Officer in charge C. three years
C. scrub the arm thoroughly to prevent infection C. painted with red and black diagonal stripes D. Master D. five years
D. immerse the arm in cold water D. equipped with a battery powered source of emergency lighting Ans: D Ans: D
4419 Since electrical burn victims have been subjected to electric shock, 4420 Halogenated fire extinguishing agents such as Halon 1301
Ans: D Ans: A the FIRST medical response is to check for ____________. extinguish fires by _____________.
4401 On a ship, the locker or space containing the self-contained 4402 Each hand portable fire extinguisher carried on a ship must be
breathing apparatus must be _____________. marked with ____________. A. indication of broken bones A. cooling
A. located in close proximity to the main control station A. the name of the unit on which it is located B. breathing and heartbeat B. producing excess CO2
B. equipped with battery powered emergency lighting B. the date that it was installed on the unit C. location of burns C. breaking the chain reaction
C. marked "SELF-CONTAINED BREATHING APPARATUS" C. the names of the individuals qualified to use it D. bleeding injuries D. foaming action
D. all of the above D. an identification number different from other extinguishers on the unit Ans: B Ans: C
4421 What should you do with your emergency position indicating radio 4422 When a rescuer discovers a burn victim in the vicinity of electrical
Ans: C Ans: D beacon if you are in a liferaft during storm conditions? equipment or wiring, his first step is to ________________.
4403 In the Oil Record Book, a comprehensive list of operational items 4404 A minor heat burn of the eye should be treated by _________.
are grouped into operational sections. Each section is codified by A. Bring it inside the liferaft and leave it on. A. flush water over any burned area of the patient
a/an ____________. B. Bring it inside the liferaft and turn it off until the storm passes. B. apply ointment to the burned areas on the patient
A. number A. gently flooding with water C. Leave it outside the liferaft and leave it on. C. shutdown electrical power in the area
B. abbreviation B. warming the eye with moist warm packs D. Leave it outside the liferaft but turn it off. D. remove the patient from the vicinity of the live electrical equipment or
C. letter C. laying the person flat on his back wiring
D. all of the above D. mineral oil drops directly on the eye Ans: A Ans: C
Ans: C A
Ans: 4423 After being launched from a ship, a totally enclosed survival craft 4424 Basic emergency care for an electrical burn is to _________.
4405 Severe airway burns will cause _____________________. 4406 Which of the listed substances is susceptible to spontaneous which has been afloat over a long period of time, requires
combustion? _______________.
A. nausea A. Coal A. frequent opening of hatches to permit entry of fresh air A. flood the burn with water for two minutes
B. reddening of cheeks B. Scrap rubber B. regular checks of bilge levels B. brush away the charred skin and wrap the burned area
C. complete obstruction of respiratory passages C. Leather C. use of ear plugs to dampen engine noise C. cover the burned area with a clean cloth and transport the patient to
D. nosebleed D. All of the above a medical facility
Ans: C Ans: D D. frequent flushing of the water spray system with fresh water D. apply ointment or spray to the burned area and wrap with a clean
4407 Which is the best way to ensure adequate oxygen is present for safe 4408 The FIRST action in the treatment of a person suspected of having cloth
entry into a seldomly used cargo tank? airway burns is to ____________. Ans: B Ans: C
A. Test tank atmosphere with a combustible gas indicator. A. move him to a cool location 4425 The purpose for the bag or box on top of some survival craft is to 4426 A patient has an electrical burn, after checking breathing and pulse,
B. Observe the amount of rust deposited on the tank's surface. B. confirm and maintain an open airway ______________. ____________.
C. Ventilate the tank with fresh air and test with an oxygen indicator. C. apply cool damp dressing to his neck A. right it in case of capsize A. look for a second burn, which may have been caused by the current
exiting the body
D. Open the manhole cover for approximately ten minutes. D. have him drink cool liquids B. increase area for radar detection B. locate the nearest water source and flood the burn with water for
Ans: C Ans: B five minutes
4409 A vessel would most likely develop a list if you were 4410 It shall be insured that each lifeboat on a cargo ship is lowered to the C. act as a sail in case of a power loss C. remove any dirt or charred skin from the area of the burn
_____________. water, launched, and operated at least once every _____________. D. steady the craft in heavy seas D. apply ointment to the burn area and wrap with clean cloth
Ans: A Ans: A
A. burning fuel from a centerline tank A. month 4427 Normally fire hose should be stowed with the ___________. 4428 To prevent the spread of fire by convection ____________.
B. using water from two equally sized tanks on either side of the B. two months A. female end connected to the fire hydrant A. cool the bulkhead around the fire
centerline simultaneously B. male end attached to the fire hydrant B. remove combustibles from direct exposure
C. using fuel from tanks on the port side only C. three months C. female end connected to the nozzle C. close all openings to the area
D. using water from the fore peak tank D. six months D. female end and nozzle arranged to be quickly run out to the fire D. shut off all electrical power
Ans: C Ans: C
Ans: A Ans: C
 Page 243 Page 244

4429 If an oil spill occurs on deck, you should _____________. 4430 Which of the listed burning materials would be described as a class 4447 A crew member has suffered frostbite to the toes of both feet. You 4448 The best way to effectively use a dry chemical type fire extinguisher
"B" fire? should __________. in fighting a fire, is to _____________.
A. cover the area with foam A. Acetylene A. immerse the feet in warm water A. discharge a stream horizontally and allow it to flow down evenly on
B. cover the area with absorbent material B. Lube oil all burning surfaces
C. wash down immediately with a fire hose C. Grease B. warm the feet with a heat lamp B. discharge a stream at the base of the fire, starting at the near edge,
D. wash down immediately with an oil dispersing solvent D. All of the above and use side-to-side sweeping motions
B
Ans: D
Ans: C. warm the feet at room temperature C. play the stream off adjacent vertical surfaces until the area is
4431 Dry chemical extinguishing agents extinguish a fire by 4432 At a speed of six knots the fuel aboard a survival craft should last blanketed
_____________. ________. D. rub the feet to restore circulation D. use concentrated amounts in small locations and put the fire out in
A. cooling the fuel below ignition temperature A. 8 hours sections
B. smothering and removing the oxygen from the fuel B. 12 hours Ans: A Ans: B
C. breaking up the molecular chain reaction C. 24 hours 4449 When transferring survivors from a survival craft to a rescue vessel, 4450 Except in rare cases, it is impossible to extinguish a shipboard fire
D. removing the fuel by absorbing the heated vapors D. 48 hours personnel onboard the craft should ____________. by ____________.
Ans: C Ans: C
4433 With the air supply on, the air pressure in the survival craft will be 4434 Which of the listed conditions is a symptom of sun stroke? A. remove their lifejackets to make it easier to climb onboard the A. removing the heat
_____________. rescue vessel
A. changing in relation to the speed of the craft A. Temperature falls below normal, pulse is rapid and feeble, and skin B. climb on top of the survival craft while waiting for their turn to B. removing the oxygen
is cold and clammy. transfer to the rescue vessel
B. less than outside air pressure B. Temperature is high, pulse is strong and rapid, and skin is hot and C. remain seated inside the survival craft and make the transfer one C. removing the fuel
dry. person at a time
C. greater than outside air pressure C. Temperature is high, pulse is slow and feeble, and skin is clammy. D. enter the water and swim over to the rescue vessel D. interrupting the chain reaction
Ans: C Ans: C
D. equal to outside air pressure D. Temperature falls below normal, pulse is rapid, and skin is clammy. 4451 The ventilation system aboard your vessel has fire dampers 4452 If a fire hose is left unattended and under pressure with the nozzle
restrained by fusible links. Which of the following statements shut off, the fire hose will ____________.
Ans: C Ans: B concerning the fusible links is true?
4435 Aboard a survival craft, ether can be used to _____________. 4436 The backup system on an electric start survival craft is a A. A fusible link will automatically open after a fire is extinguished and A. burst under pressure
_____________. reset the damper.
A. start the engine in cold weather A. hydraulic system B. Fusible links must be replaced at every inspection for certification. B. lash about violently
B. aid in helping personnel breathe B. pneumatic system
C. prime the sprinkler system C. spare battery C. Fusible links are tested by applying a source of heat to them. C. remain motionless
D. prime the air supply D. hand crank D. Fusible links must be replaced if a damper is closed. D. become elongated by 125%
Ans: A Ans: D Ans: D Ans: C
4437 If the survival craft is not loaded to full capacity, the personnel 4438 When a rescue vessel approaches a survival craft in heavy seas, 4453 A health hazard, listed on a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS), 4454 A fire, occurring in the windings, of an overloaded electrical motor,
should be ______________. the person in charge of the survival craft should ______________. that can cause cancer in exposed individuals is called a ________. is considered a ______________.

A. loaded more on port side to forward A. tie up to the rescue vessel A. carcinogen A. class "A" fire
B. loaded equally on both sides with more forward B. transfer only those personnel who are not seasick B. cryogenic B. class "B" fire
C. loaded equally on both sides with more aft C. wait for calmer weather before transferring personnel C. irritant C. class "C" fire
D. allowed to sit anywhere D. transfer all personnel immediately D. mutagen D. class "D" fire
Ans: C Ans: C Ans: A Ans: C
4439 When an electrical fire has been extinguished with a dry chemical 4440 The survival craft engine is fueled with _____________. 4455 Which of the listed methods, is the most effective to fight a fire on 4456 Fire dampers prevent the fire spreading through the process of
agent, there is always a possibility of the _________. the open deck of a vessel if using a dry chemical type fire ____________.
extinguisher?
A. machinery suffering thermal shock damage A. kerosene A. Approach the fire from the windward side. A. convection
B. fire being rekindled by spontaneous combustion B. unleaded gasoline B. Direct the extinguisher discharge at the base of the fire. B. conduction
C. electrical contacts or relays being rendered inoperative C. diesel oil C. Move the discharge stream back and forth in a rapid sweeping C. radiation
D. chemical crystals suffocating the fire fighter D. liquefied gas motion.
Ans: C Ans: C D. All of the above. D. direct contact
4441 During an abandonment or drill, the first person to arrive at the 4442 Which of the following methods should be used to prevent a class Ans: D Ans: A
survival craft should _____________. "A" fire in a topside compartment, with steel bulkheads, from 4457 Which of the following is least likely to cause the ignition of fuel 4458 If emergency welding repairs must be made to the upper areaof a
spreading to the adjacent compartments? vapors? fuel tank, the tank and/or adjacent compartments mayneed to be
A. pass out food and water to personnel A. Sweep all exterior surfaces with water water fog until the fire is ____________.
reportedly extingished. A. Static electricity A. gas freed
B. open the doors and start the sprinkler system B. Sweep all exterior surfaces with a solid stream of water until the fire B. An open running electric motor B. inerted
is reportedly extinguished. C. Loose wiring C. filled with water
C. activate the emergency release handle C. Sweep all exterior surfaces with a solid stream of water until steam D. Explosion proof lights D. all of the above as necessary
is no longer produced, secure the nozzel, and repeat as necessary. Ans: D Ans: D
4459 A fire in an electrical generator is considered to be ___________. 4460 The flammable limits of methane by volume is 5% to 15%. If the
D. open the doors and prepare the craft for boarding D. Sweep all exterior surfaces with water fog until steam is no longer combustible gas indicator reading is 50% when sampling a
produced, secure the nozzle, and repeat as necessary. compartment containing methane, the flammable vapor
concentration at the sample point is ____________.
Ans: D Ans: D A. Class "A" A. 0.5% by volume
4443 While retrieving the survival craft, the engine should be stopped 4444 When retrieving the survival craft, the helmsman should instruct the B. Class "B" B. 2.5% by volume
____________. crewman to __________. C. Class "C" C. 7.5% by volume
A. when the craft clears the water A. check the fuel level D. Class "D" D. 50.0% by volume
B. when the cable has been attached B. open the doors Ans: C Ans: B
C. on approach to the platform C. take the lifejackets off 4461 Which of the following statements is NOT true concerning life- 4462 Besides heat, fuel, and oxygen, which of the following is necessary
D. at the embarkation D. check that hooks are fully locked in place jackets? for a fire to exist?
Ans: A Ans: D A. They come in two sizes, child and adult. A. Chain reaction
4445 Small oil spills on deck can be kept from contaminating the 4446 A class "C" fire would occur in _____________. B. They are required to be of a highly visible color. B. Thermal action
surrounding waters by _____________. C. The life jackect will always support an unconscious wearer in an C. Chemical occulsion
A. driving wooden plugs into the vents A. bedding upright position.
B. closing the lids on the vents B. pipe insulation D. They must be able to support the wearer in an upright position. D. Pyrotechnical reaction
C. plugging the scuppers C. paint
D. keeping plugs in the sounding pipes D. a generator Ans: C Ans: A
Ans: C Ans: D
 Page 245 Page 246

4463 In order to retrieve an inflatable liferaft and place it on deck, you 4464 The symptoms of heat exhaustion are ____________. 4479 When the concentration of gas vapor in the sample is above the 4480 If an inflatable liferaft is overturned, it may be righted by
should heave on the ____________. 100% explosive reading on the meter shown in the illustration, then ____________.
A. lifelines A. slow and strong pulse ____________.
B. righting strap B. flushed and dry skin A. the atmosphere at the sample point consists of 100% flammable A. filling the stabilizers on one side with water
C. sea anchor C. slow and deep breathing gas
D. towing bridle D. pale and clammy skin B. the meter is defective B. releasing the CO2 cylinder
Ans: D Ans: D C. no further increase in vapor concentration at the sample point is C. pushing up from under one end
4465 The vapor explosive range of gasoline by volume is 1.0% to 6.0% in 4466 Which type of wrench listed is used to disconnect fire hose possible
air. If a gasoline tank is sampled with an explosimeter, and the couplings? D. the flammable vapor concentration at the sample point is above the D. standing on the inflating cylinder and pulling on the straps on the
reading obtained is 30% L.E.L., the vapor concentration at the lower explosive limit underside of the raft
sample point is ____________. Ans: D Ans: D
A. 0.3% by volume A. Locking wrench 4481 If you must enter the water on which there is an oil fire, you should 4482 According to the Pollution Prevention Regulations (MARPOL), which
B. 0.6% by volume B. Spanner wrench ____________. of the following statements is correct regarding the fuel oil
C. 1.3% by volume C. Crescent wrench containment under the oil filling connection section?
D. 6.3% by volume D. Pipe wrench A. protect your lifejacket by holding it above your head A. The containment may be fixed or portable depending upon the age
A
Ans: B
Ans: of the vessel.
4467 The class of fire on which a blanketing effect is essential to 4468 Extra chemicals maintained aboard the vessel for producing B. enter the water on the windward side of the vessel B. The containment drains must have quick-closing valves to be closed
extinguish the fire is ________. chemical foam, should be stored ____________. in the event of leakage or failure of any part of the transfer
A. class A A. in a freezer connection.
B. class B B. in a cool dry place C. keep both hands in front of your face to break the water surface C. All containment drains must lead to a common, fixed drain tank.
C. class C C. at a temperature not less than 80°F when diving head first
D. class D D. in open bins D. wear very light clothing D. Containment drains are prohibited from leading to a common tank.
Ans: B Ans: B
4469 If you have to jump in the water when abandoning ship, your legs 4470 If a crew member faints, you should ___________. Ans: B Ans: A
should be ____________. 4483 Seawater may be used for drinking water ____________. 4484 Which of the following gases represents the greatest threat to
A. spread apart as far as possible A. lay him down with his head slightly raised personnel safety in an engine room where the exhaust is leaking
B. held as tightly against your chest as possible B. administer a liquid stimulant from a diesel engine?
C. in a kneeling position C. lay him down with his head lower than his feet A. at a maximum rate of two ounces per day A. Carbon dioxide
D. extended straight down and crossed at the ankles D. attempt to stand him upright to restore consciousness B. after mixing with an equal quantity of fresh water B. Carbon monoxide
Ans: D C
Ans: C. if gather during or immediately after a hard rain C. Carbon trioxide
4471 Which of the tools listed is designed for connecting and 4472 When should food or water be provided to survivors after boarding a D. under no circumstance D. Hydrogen sulfide
disconnecting fire hose couplings? lifeboat or liferaft? Ans: D Ans: B
A. Vise grips A. After 12 hours 4485 Combustible gas indicators measure the percentage of the 4486 Which of the following components provides a direct source of
B. Channel locks B. After 24 hours concentration of the lower explosive limit of gases. If the seawater for the fire main system?
C. Spanner wrench C. After 48 hours hydrocarbon content of the sample exceeds the upper explosive
D. Pipe wrench D. Some food and water should be consumed immediately and then not limit ____________.
until 48 hours later A. the needle will rise slowly to and remain at the maximum reading A. Rosebox
Ans: C Ans: B
4473 With no alternative but to jump from a vessel, the correct posture 4474 A liferaft which has inflated bottom-up on the water ____________. B. the needle will move rapidly to and remain at the maximum reading B. Sea chest or spool piece
should include ____________.
A. holding down the lifejacket against the chest with one arm crossing A. should be righted by standing on the carbon dioxide cylinder, C. the needle will move to the maximum reading and return to zero C. Sluice valve
the other, covering the mouth and nose with a hand, and feet holding the righting straps and leaning backwards immediately
together D. it will not be detected D. Fire pump stuffing box
B. knees bent and held close to the body with both arms around the B. should be righted by standing on the lifeline, holding the righting Ans: C Ans: B
legs straps and leaning backwards 4487 A small fire is reported in the forward cargo hold on a vessel 4488 When a rescue vessel approaches a lifeboat in heavy seas, the
C. body straight and arms tightly at the sides for feet first entry into the C. will right itself when the canopy tube inflate equipped with a combination smoke detection/carbon dioxide fixed person in charge of the lifeboat should ____________.
water fire extinguishing system. After ensuring the space is unoccupied
D. both hands holding the lifejacket below the chin with knees bent and D. must be cleared of the buoyant equipment before it will right itself and properly sealed off, you should NEXT ____________.
legs crossed
Ans: A Ans: A A. operate the control heads mounted on the main pilot cylinders A. transfer all personnel immediately
4475 Which of the following conditions must be met before a marine 4476 The proper stimulant for an unconscious person is a/an
chemist will issue a certificate for a compartment to be "safe for ___________. B. close all three-way valve levers that are in the detecting position with B. tie up to the rescue vessel
workers, safe for hot work"? the exception of the valve(s) to the involved space
A. The residues in the compartment must not be capable of producing A. vigorous shaking
any toxic gas under existing atmospheric conditions. C. open the three-way valve whose number (on the handle) C. wait for calmer weather before transferring personnel
corresponds with the line index chart number for the space on fire
B. The concentration of combustible gases in the compartment's B. sequence of back blows
atmosphere must be less than 10 percent of the lower flammable D. lock the smoke detector indicator on the monitoring line, which D. transfer only those personnel who are not seasick
limit. automatically activates the CO2 extinguishing system
C. The toxic gases in the compartment's atmosphere must be within C. precardial thump Ans: C Ans: C
permissible concentrations. 4489 If a cargo tank has not been certified as gas free, ______. 4490 A crewman has suffered a blow to the head and various symptoms
D. All of the above. D. ammonia inhalant indicate a concussion. Proper treatment should include
Ans: D Ans: D ____________.
4477 If an inflatable life raft inflates upside down, you can right it by 4478 When collecting condensation for drinking water, __________. A. entry without a breathing apparatus may be made at the top of the A. turning the victims's head to the side to keep his airway open
____________. tank since petroleum vapors are heavier than air
A. pushing up on one side A. a sponge used to mop up and store condensation must be kept salt B. a man may work safely without breathing apparatus in cold weather B. positioning the victim so the head is lower than the body
free as vapors are less volatile
B. standing on the CO2 bottle, holding the bottom straps, and throwing B. only condensation on the bottom of the canopy should be collected C. breathing apparatus would not be necessary in an emergency as C. giving the victim water but no food
your weight backwards you would only be in the tank a short time
C. getting at least three or four men to push down on the side C. it should be strained through a finely woven cloth D. fresh air breathing apparatus should always be used D. placing a pillow only under the victim's head
containing the CO2 cylinder Ans: D Ans: A
D. doing nothing; it will right itself after the canopy supports inflate D. chlorine tablets should be used to make it drinkable 4491 One of the limitations of foam as a fire extinguishing agent is that 4492 A magnesium fire would be classified as a ________.
foam ____________.
Ans: B Ans: A A. cannot be made with salt water A. class A
B. is heavier than oil and sinks below it surface B. class B
C. is corrosive and a hazard to fire fighters C. class C
 Page 247 Page 248

D. conducts electricity D. class D D. 300 metres D. Any tear or leak will render the suit unserviceable and it must be
Ans: D Ans: D replaced.
4493 For a ship of 10,000 gross tons, constructed after 30 June 1974, a 4494 How is the external flotation bladder of an immersion suit inflated? Ans: C Ans: B
fixed container, or enclosed deck area, must exist under or around 4507 When using a handheld smoke signal in a liferaft, you should 4508 An example of class "A" fire is a/an _______________.
each fuel oil tank vent. The container must have a capacity of at ____________.
least ______________. A. activate the signal on the downwind side A. electrical fire in the engine room
A. 5 gallons (18.9 l) A. It is inflated by a small CO2 bottle that is automatically tripped when B. activate the signal on the upwind side B. oil fire in the engine room bilges
the front zipper is at the top of zipper track. C. activate the signal inside the boat C. oil fire involving a grade "A" petroleum product
B. 10 gallons (37.8 l) B. It is inflated by a small CO2 bottle that is manually tripped. D. activate the signal at the stern D. mattress fire in a stateroom
C. 21 gallons (79.5 l) C. It is inflated by blowing through an inflation tube. Ans: A D
Ans:
D. 42 gallons (158.9 l) D. It inflates by sea water bleeding into the flotation bladder and 4509 While at your lifeboat station, you hear a signal consisting of one 4510 A person suffering from a heart attack may show which of the
reacting with a chemical. short blast of the whistle. This indicates ________. following symptoms?
Ans: D Ans: C A. abandon ship A. Shortness of breath
4495 Limit switches on gravity davits should be tested by ____________. 4496 If a person gets battery acid in their eye while filling a battery, they B. commence lowering boats B. Pain in the left arm
should FIRST wash the eye with ____________. C. stop lowering boats C. Nausea
A. the engineers, from a panel in the engine room A. boric acid solution D. secure from boat stations D. All the above
B. shutting off the current to the winch B. water Ans: B Ans: D
C. pushing the switch lever arm while the winch is running C. baking soda solution 4511 Combustible gas indicators are used to detect flammable gases, or 4512 A vessel having a concentration of weight toward the top of the
D. all of the above D. ammonia vapors present in a tank. This is accomplished by an intricate vessel is said to be ____________.
Ans: C Ans: B instrument incorporating a/an ____________.
4497 There is always a lower water pressure at the fire hose outlet than 4498 The use of sinking and dispersing agents for the removal of surface A. inflatable bag A. stiff
is found at the discharge of the pump. Which of the following oil is ____________. B. heated filament B. tender
reasons is the common cause of this loss in pressure? C. sensitive liquid chemical C. buoyant
D. vapor detecting carbon compound D. neutral
A. Leaky pilot valve A. the most common method used in the United States Ans: B Ans: B
B. Leaky pump suction valve B. too expensive for common use 4513 An inflatable liferaft can be launched by ____________. 4514 Combustible gas indicators incorporate the use of a/an
C. Friction in the piping and valves C. generally safe to sea life ____________.
D. Wear in the hydrant D. generally harmful to sea life A. the float-free method only A. sensitive liquid chemical
Ans: C Ans: D B. kicking the hydrostatic release B. vapor-detecting carbon compound
4499 An inflatable liferaft is floating in its container, attached to the ship 4500 Which of the following statements is true concerning an immersion C. throwing the entire container overboard, then pulling on the C. Wheatstone bridge
by its painter, as the ship is sinking rapidly. Which of the actions suit and its use? operating cord to inflate the raft
listed should be taken with respect to the liferaft container? D. removing the securing straps D. inflatable bag
Ans: C Ans: C
A. Cut the painter line so it will not pull the life raft container down. A. Only a light layer of clothing may be worn underneath. 4515 Which of the following statements is true concerning carbon dioxide 4516 Hydrogen sulfide is the constituent giving sour crude oil the
when used as a fire extinguishing agent? characteristic odor of rotten eggs. One of the hazards associated
B. Swim away from the container so you will not be in danger as it goes B. They provide sufficient flotation to do away with the necessity of with hydrogen sulfide is _____________.
down. wearing a lifejacket. A. Carbon dioxide is corrosive when exposed to fire. A. chemical burning of the skin
C. Take no action as the pull on the painter will cause the liferaft to C. They should be tight fitting. B. Carbon dioxide should be applied slowly to a large engine room fire. B. irritation of the intestinal tract
inflate and open the container.
D. Manually open the container and inflate the liferaft with the hand D. A puncture in the suit will not appreciably reduce its value. C. Its total cooling effect is far greater than water. C. its high toxicity resulting in death
pump. D. Its smothering effect is excellent for class B fires. D. dependency addiction to the highly toxic fumes
Ans: C Ans: B Ans: D Ans: C
4501 A tank which has been sealed for a long period of time can be 4502 For a victim who is coughing and gagging, as a result of a partial 4517 Which of the following statements concerning immersion suits is 4518 The atmosphere of an empty fuel tank is tested and designated
dangerous because _____________. obstruction of the airway by a foreign body, a potential rescuer correct? "gas free". Which of the following statements is correct concerning
should ____________. this tank?
A. steel surfaces consume oxygen by rusting A. encourage the victim to continue coughing. If the victim is unable to A. Some models will not automatically turn an unconscious person A. The concentration of flammable gas in the compartment is less than
expel the object, arrange for prompt transport to an appropriate face-up in the water. 10% of the lower flammable limit.
medical facility B. The immersion suit seals in all body heat and provides protection B. The tank should be frequently retested.
B. sealed tanks usually form a vacuum B. wait for the victim to become unconscious then give four back blows against hypothermia for weeks.
followed by four abdominal thrusts C. The suit is flameproof and provides protection to the wearer while C. The gas free status is good as long as the initial conditions remain
C. moisture condenses in the tank, displacing the oxygen C. immediately give four abdominal thrusts swimming through burning oil. unchanged.
D. most tank coatings give off poisonous vapors in the presence of D. bend the victim over and give back blows D. The wearer of the suit is not severely restricted in body movement D. All of the above.
moisture and permits the wearer to perform any form of strenuous work.
Ans: A Ans: A
4503 The reading on the combustible gas indicator, shown in the 4504 Which of the following statements concerning immersion suits is Ans: A Ans: D
illustration, is obtained by burning the vapor sample withinthe correct? 4519 A fire in a pile of dunnage would be classified as a ___________. 4520 To detect the presence of explosive gases in any space, tank, or
instrument. How is the flame prevented from ignitingthe vapor within compartment, you should use a _____________.
the space being tested? A. class A A. flame scanner
A. The test burn occurs outside the tested space. A. Immersion suits should be worn during routine work on deck to B. class B B. halide torch
provide maximum protection. C. class C C. combustible gas indicator
B. A series of baffles within the instrument prevents a flashback. B. After purchasing, the suit should be removed from its storage bag D. class D D. detector filament
and hung on a hanger where it will be readily accessible. A
Ans: Ans: C
4521 The fire extinguishing action of CO2 is derived mostly from 4522 Which type of fire extinguisher is most prone to the freezing when
C. The length and diameter of the sampling tube are designed to C. During the annual maintenance, the front zipper should be lubricated _____________. exposed to low temperatures?
prevent a flashback. with paraffin or beeswax. A. a blanket of bubbles formed on the surface of the fire A. Halon 1211
D. Flame arresters are placed at the inlet and outlet of the combustion D. Small leaks or tears may be repaired using the repair kit packed with B. smothering B. Carbon dioxide
chamber. the suit. C. cooling C. Foam
Ans: D Ans: C D. isolating the heat from the fuel D. Dry chemical
4505 The operating cord of the inflatable liferaft has a length of 4506 Which of the following statements concerning immersion suits is Ans: B Ans: C
____________. correct? 4523 A liquid, as listed on a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS), having a 4524 If a diabetic suffers an insulin reaction and is conscious, he should
A. 6 fathoms A. Immersion suits should be worn while performing routine work on flash point below 100‚F (37.78‚C) is called a/an __________. be given ____________.
deck.
B. 50 metres B. After purchasing, the suit should be stowed in the storage bag in A. viscous liquid A. soda crackers and water
which it was received. B. explosive liquid B. orange juice or a candy bar
C. 100 feet C. During the annual maintenance, the front zipper should be lubricated C. combustible liquid C. an ounce of whiskey
using light machine oil or mineral oil. D. flammable liquid D. a glass of milk
 Page 249 Page 250

Ans: D Ans: B C. coated with heavy grease to prevent corrosion C. The passengers are strapped to their seats.
4525 An instrument used to detect explosive gas/air mixtures, usually 4526 A person manning a fire hose under pressure with an all-purpose D. painted red to be identified as emergency equipment D. The sea anchor is deployed to windward.
measures the concentration in terms of the lower explosive limit, and nozzle attached, should be aware that the nozzle is most difficult to Ans: B Ans: C
is known as a _____________. control when the handle position is changed from ____________. 4543 The explosive range of a mixture of flammable vapors and air lies 4544 A hydrostatic release mechanism for a liferaft ____________.
between the lower and upper explosive limits. These limits are
A. toxic vapor meter A. solid stream to fog specified as a percentage of _____________.
B. flame safety lamp B. shut to solid stream A. flammable vapor by volume in air A. must be wet before it will release
C. gas absorption detector C. low velocity to high velocity fog B. the lower limit of explosibilty of the mixture B. should be kept in a watertight cover except in an emergency
D. combustible gas indicator D. fog to shut C. oxygen present to support combustion C. will inflate the raft in its cradle if operated manually
Ans: D Ans: B D. the temperature of the flash point D. must be submerged to a certain depth to release automatically
4527 Which of the following items is NOT required to be contained in the 4528 If a raft is to be released manually, where should the operating cord
vessel's oil transfer procedures? be attached before throwing the raft overboard? Ans: A Ans: D
4545 The physical data term on a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) 4546 In a closed container of liquid, the force exerted by vapor on the
A. A line diagram of the vessel's oil transfer piping. A. Do not attach the cord to anything but throw it overboard with the raft that indicates if the vapor formed by a material is lighter or heavier walls of the container above the liquid surface is called ________.
container. than air is called ___________.
B. The number of persons on duty during oil transfer operations. B. To some fixed object on the ship. A. vapor pressure A. storage pressure
B. vapor gravity B. vapor pressure
C. Any special procedures for topping off tanks. C. Stand on it with your foot. C. vapor level C. over-pressure
D. The location and capacity of all fuel and cargo tanks on the vessel. D. To the special pad eye on the "raft davit launcher". D. vapor density D. reactive pressure
Ans: D Ans: B
Ans: D Ans: B 4547 A chemical material, as listed on a Material Safety Data Sheet 4548 The physical difference of the water spray patterns developed by
4529 Most lifeboats are equipped with ____________. 4530 The maximum lowering speed for a lifeboat on gravity davits must (MSDS) that reacts with water or moist air, and produces a health the high velocity tip and low velocity applicator is due to
not be more than ____________. or physical hazard, is called __________. _____________.
A. unbalanced rudders A. 21mtr per minute A. water-reactive A. a difference in water pressure
B. balanced rudders B. 35mtr per minute B. toxic B. the method of breaking up the water stream
C. contraguide rudders C. 78mtr per minute C. flammable C. the type of fire being fought
D. straight rudders D. none of the above D. combustible D. the capacity of the fire pump
Ans: A Ans: C Ans: A Ans: B
4531 The "flammable limits" of an atmosphere are the ___________. 4532 A high velocity fog nozzle will produce the most effective spray 4549 A lifeline must be connected to the liferaft ____________. 4550 The significant difference between the high velocity fog tip and the
pattern when the water pressure is not less than _____________. low velocity fog applicator used with the all-purpose nozzle is the
____________.
A. two temperatures between which an atmosphere will self- ignite A. 2.5kg/cm2 (241.3 kPa) A. at the bow A. difference in available water pressure
B. at the stern B. number of personnel required to effectively use each of them
B. upper and lower percentage of vapor concentrations in an B. 4.2kg/cm2 (413.6 kPa) C. in the middle C. degree to which the water stream is broken up
atmosphere which will burn if an ignition source is present D. all around D. ability to exclude free oxygen
C. upper and lower pressures between which an atmosphere will not C. 5.2kg/cm2 (517.0 kPa) Ans: D Ans: C
burn 4551 A health hazard term listed on a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) 4552 The explosive range of methane is 5% to 15% by volume in air. This
D. two temperatures between which an atmosphere will burn if an D. 7kg/cm2 (689.4 kPa) that indicates allergic-like reaction in some people after repeated means a vapor/air mixture of _____________.
ignition source is present exposure is ______________.
Ans: B Ans: D A. skin contact hazard A. 3 percent methane by volume is too rich to burn
4533 For which of the listed classes of fire combinations would carbon 4534 The transfer procedures for oil products are required to be posted B. sensitizer B. 20 percent methane by volume is too lean to burn
dioxide be most suitable as the extinguishing agent? ____________. C. pyrophorichazard C. 10 percent methane by volume is too rich to burn
A. Class "A" and class "B" A. in the pilothouse D. oxidizer D. 5 percent methane by volume will give a reading of 100 percent
B. Class "B" and class "C" B. in the officer's lounge L.E.L. on a combustible gas indicator
C. Class "A" and class "C" C. in the upper pumproom flat Ans: B Ans: D
D. Class "C", class "D", and class "E" D. where they can be easily seen or readily available 4553 A vessel which is subjected to "hogging" has its __________. 4554 Symptoms of seasickness include ________________.
Ans: B Ans: D
4535 Which of the items in the lifeboat equipment listed would be the 4536 A chemical material, as listed on a Material Safety Data Sheet A. main deck under compressive stress A. fever and thirst
most suitable for night signaling to a ship on the horizon? (MSDS), that can spontaneously burst into flames when exposed to B. main deck plating under strake stress B. nausea and dizziness
air at temperatures below 130‚F (55.5‚C) with no ignition source C. bottom plate under compressive stress C. stomach cramps and diarrhea
needed, is called _______________. D. bottom and deck plating under compressive stress D. reddening of skin and hives
A. A red parachute flare A. expolsive Ans: B Ans: B
B. A red handheld flare B. pyrophoric 4555 Carbon dioxide extinguishers must be recharged when the weight is 4556 What information can be obtained from a marine chemist'scertificate
C. A flashlight C. unstable less than? issued to an offshore supply vessel?
D. A lantern D. flammable A. 0.8 A. The vessel's stability information
Ans: A Ans: B B. 0.85 B. The tanks which were safe to enter when the certificate was issued
4537 If the hydrostatic release mechanism for an inflatable liferaft is not 4538 A fire in a pile of linen is considered to be a class __________.
periodically serviced and becomes inoperable, it will fail to C. 0.9 C. The number of fire extinguishers required to be aboard
____________. D. 0.95 D. The quality of fuel in the vessel's tanks
A. set the water lights on immersion A. A fire Ans: C Ans: B
B. release the dyemarker from the liferaft B. B fire 4557 Each personal flotation device light on a ship that has a non- 4558 An inflatable liferaft is thrown into the water from a sinking vessel.
C. free the liferaft from the vessel C. C fire replaceable power source must be replaced ____________. Which of the following actions occurs automatically after the painter
D. break the seal on the carbon dioxide cylinder D. D fire trips the CO2 bottles to inflate the raft?
C
Ans: A
Ans: A. every six months after initial installation A. The sea anchor is deployed.
4539 Appendicitis symptoms include cramps or pain in the abdomen 4540 If the chemical material is a mixture, what must the Material Safety B. every 12 months after initial installation B. The floor inflates.
located in the ____________. Data Sheet (MSDS) identify? C. every 24 months after initial installation C. If upside down, the craft will right itself.
A. lower left side A. Paints or coatings that are safe to use with it. D. on or before the expiration date of the power source D. The painter detaches from the raft.
B. lower right side B. The name of each hazardous ingredient. D
Ans: A
Ans:
C. upper left side C. Other similar mixtures of liquids, solids or gases. 4559 Tank stripping is accomplished more effectively by using a 4560 The combined fan discharge rate in an inert gas system is related to
D. upper right side D. None of the above. _______________. the ______.
Ans: B Ans: B A. a multistage centrifugal pump A. shoreside loading rate
4541 The high velocity fog tip used with the all-purpose firefighting 4542 Most enclosed lifeboats or covered survival capsules will B. the load on top system B. maximum cargo pump discharge rate
nozzle should always be _____________. automatically right themselves if they capsize. This will occur when C. the water displacement method C. boiler forced draft fan rate
which of the following conditions exists? D. a positive displacement pump D. size of the largest cargo tank
A. stowed separately in a clip or rack at each fire station A. The lower ballast tanks are filled with water. Ans: D Ans: B
B. attached to the all-purpose nozzle by a chain B. The fuel tanks are not less than half full.
 Page 251 Page 252

4561 While taking on fuel oil, the transfer hose begins leaking, causing a 4562 The sections of an Oil Record Book preceeding the log pages A. chemical ignition A. prevent the generation of flammable or combustible gas in tanks
sheen on the water. You should ____________. contain a ____________.
A. apply dispersants to the sheen A. damage control plan for isolating firemain valves B. spontaneous combustion B. blow out cargo lines to prevent gas concentrations
B. repair the leak with duct tape B. list of machinery space operation items C. chemical combustion C. dilute tank atmospheres to keep gas concentrations below the
C. reduce the rate of transfer C. complete classification of hazardous materials lower explosive limit
D. shut down operations D. detailed listing of all organizations to call in the event of an D. radiation ignition D. prevent fires in the pumproom by continually displacing flammable
accidental oil spill vapors
Ans: D Ans: B Ans: B Ans: C
4563 Which of the following methods should be used to prevent a class 4564 The inside light in an inflatable liferaft is turned on ____________. 4579 Water pockets on the under side of an inflatable liferaft are for 4580 Through which of the listed processes is heat produced in
"A" fire in a topside compartment, with steel bulkheads, from ____________. spontaneous ignition?
spreading to the adjacent compartments? A. catching rain water A. Aeration
A. Sweep the exterior bulkheads with a solid stream of water until the A. automatically as the liferaft inflates B. stability B. Anaeroboic decomposition
fire is reportedly extinguished. C. easy drainage C. Putrefaction
B. Sweep the exterior bulkheads with a solid stream of water until B. with a switch near the boarding handle D. maneuverability D. Oxidation
steam is no longer produced, secure the nozzle, and repeat as Ans: B Ans: D
necessary. 4581 In the event of a fire, the doors to a stairtower must be closed to 4582 What is placed on the under side of an inflatable liferaft to help
C. Sweep the exterior bulkheads with water fog until the fire is C. at night because the light has a photosensitive switch prevent the spread of fire by____________. prevent it from being skidded by the wind or overturned?
reportedly extinguished.
D. Sweep the exterior bulkheads with water fog until steam is no longer D. by screwing the bulb in after the raft is inflated A. convection A. Ballast bags
produced, secure the nozzle, and repeat as necessary. B. conduction B. A keel
C. radiation C. Strikes
Ans: D Ans: A D. ventilation D. Sea anchor
4565 An effective method for lifting and carrying patients with spinal 4566 The most effective method of extinguishing a class "A" fire is by Ans: A Ans: A
injuries is known as the ____________. _____________. 4583 A wiper has a small, gaping laceration of the arm that is not bleeding 4584 During oil transfer operations, who would be responsible to
A. pack strap carry A. quenching and cooling excessively. What can be done as an alternative to suturing to close guarantee that the posted transfer procedures are being followed?
B. two man extremities carry B. using a sodium based dry chemical the wound?
C. fireman's drag C. blanketing and smothering A. Apply a copression bandage. A. The designated person in charge
D. four man log roll D. using nonconducting extinguishers B. Use temporary stitches of sail twin. B. The tankerman
Ans: D Ans: A C. Wrap a tight bandage around the wound. C. The senior able seaman
4567 Your assigned emergency stations aboard your vessel can be found 4568 Fire and lifeboat stations are required to be listed on the D. Apply butterfly strips, then a sterile dressing. D. The oiler
on the ship's ______________. _____________. Ans: D Ans: A
A. muster list A. ship's articles 4585 Changing rescuers while carrying out artificial respiration should be 4586 You are attempting to administer CPR to a victim. When you blow
B. certificate of inspection B. muster list done ____________. into his mouth it is apparent that no air is getting into the lungs. What
C. clearance papers C. bunk card should you do?
D. permit to proceed D. forecastle card A. at ten minute intervals A. Raise the victim's head higher than his feet.
Ans: A Ans: B B. by not stopping the respiration for more than five minutes B. Blow harder to force the air past the tongue.
4569 Regulations stipulate that in addition to emergency signals, muster 4570 A vessel trimmed down by the bow has _____________. C. only with the help of two other people C. Re-tip the head and try again.
lists must specify_____________. D. without losing the rhythm of respiration D. Press on the victim's lungs so that air pressure will blow out any
A. actions to be taken by persons on board when each signal is A. a greater draft forward than aft obstruction.
sounded Ans: D Ans: C
B. the order to abandon the vessel B. zero trim 4587 The air spaces in the floor of an inflatable raft will provide protection 4588 Spontaneous combustion can result from _____________.
C. the duties assigned to different members of the crew C. a low mean draft against ____________.
D. all of the above D. a greater draft aft than forward A. warm water temperatures A. water dripping on a running electric motor
Ans: D Ans: A B. cold water temperatures B. oil soaked rags stored in a closed compartment
4571 The amount of garbage disposed must be entered into the records 4572 Which unit will provide excellent mobilty to the wearer in an unsafe C. tears in the outside skin of bottom of the raft C. smoking in a battery room or near a battery storage locker
maintained by each ship and stated in __________. atmosphere and provide oxygen to sustain life? D. all of the above D. an open flame near a fuel tank vent
A. cubic meters A. A fresh air breathing apparatus Ans: D Ans: B
B. barrels, measured in 55 gallon drums B. A self-contained breathing apparatus 4589 Which of the following methods is a convenient and effective system 4590 Which of the fire extinguishing agents listed is the most effectively
C. weight in either kilogram or pounds C. An ammonia gas mask of examining the body of an injury victim? used for putting out a paint locker fire?
D. cubic yards convertible to long tons D. All of the above A. Compare the corresponding parts of the body. A. Solid stream of water
Ans: A Ans: B B. Watch the patient's eyes as you probe parts of the body. B. Soda acid extinguisher
4573 Why should you wear a self-contained breathing apparatus before 4574 A solid stream of water is produced by an all-purpose firefighting C. Look for discoloration of the patient's skin. C. Carbon dioxide
entering a closed compartment to fight a fire? nozzle when the handle is _____________. D. Look for uncontrolled vibration or twitching of parts of the body. D. Carbon tetrachloride
A. The fire produces carbon monoxide which causes an oxygen A. pushed all the way forward
deficiency in the brain and body, leading quickly to death. Ans: A Ans: C
4591 Prior to inserting a low velocity fog applicator into the nozzle shown 4592 Why should you wear a self-contained breathing apparatus before
B. The fire produces smoke, which contains toxic gases that cause B. pushed forward one notch in the illustration, you must _____________. entering the engine room after the fixed CO2 system has been
breathing difficulties and irritation of the respiratory tract. discharged to combat a major fire?
A. move the handle to position "B" A. Because carbon dioxide dilutes the oxygen concentration in the
C. The fire consumes oxygen which may lead to asphyxiation. C. pulled halfway back atmosphere and may cause asphyxiation.
D. All of the above. D. pulled all the way back B. remove the device indicated by the letter "E" B. Because carbon dioxide breaks down in a fire into carbon monoxide
Ans: D Ans: D which may cause blood poisoning in the person breathing this gas.
4575 When launching an inflatable liferaft, you should make sure that the 4576 How does an inert gas system on a tanker function to prevent
operating cord is ____________. explosions in cargo tanks? C. move the handle to position "A" C. Because carbon dioxide is a colorless and odorless gas that
A. fastened to some substantial part of the vessel A. De-energizes the "charged mist" effect. becomes highly toxic in the presence of high temperatures and will
B. not fastened to anything B. Maintains a positive pressure on the vent header to cool the quickly incapacitate a person exposed to this gas.
flammable vapors. D. remove the device indicated by the letter "D" D. This action is unnecessary as carbon dioxide is not poisonous nor
C. secured to the hydrostatic release C. Inert gas filters out the flammable vapors from the cargo tank toxic but is a relatively harmless gas.
spaces. Ans: D Ans: A
D. fastened to the raft container D. Inert gas dilutes the flammable vapor and air concentrations to keep 4593 One feature of an inflatable raft which helps keep people stationary 4594 In which of the areas listed is a fire resulting from spontaneous
them below the lower explosive limit. in rough weather is the set of ____________. combustion most likely to occur?
Ans: A Ans: D A. lashings on the floor of the raft for the passenger's feet A. Engine room bilges
4577 The process that occurs when heat is generated by a chemical 4578 An inert gas system on a tanker should be used to _________. B. straps hanging from the overhead B. Paint locker
reaction within a substance and continues to a point of ignition is C. safety straps on the inside of the raft C. Battery storage locker
known as _____________. D. ridges in the floor of the raft D. Fuel oil tank
Ans: C Ans: B
 Page 253 Page 254

4595 If a victim is unconscious, you should first look for evidence of 4596 Which of the fire extinguishing agents listed can be used to D. None of the above D. place a portable fire extinguisher immediately outside the locker
_______________. effectively combat a class B fire?
A. high fever A. Dry chemical Ans: A Ans: C
B. head injury B. CO2 4613 A characteristic of most petroleum vapors is that they are 4614 If more than one liferaft is manned after the vessel has sunk,
C. broken limbs C. Foam ____________. ____________.
D. irregular breathing D. All of the above A. lighter than air A. each raft should go in a different direction in search of land
Ans: D Ans: D B. not explosive at low temperatures B. the possibility of a search aircraft finding you is increased by
4597 To prepare a low velocity fog applicator for use, _________. 4598 Which statement is TRUE regarding Halon as a fire extinguising spreading out
agent? C. heavier than air C. reduce the number of rafts by getting as many people as possible
A. replace the high velocity tip with the fog applicator and pull the A. It is more effective than CO2. into as few rafts as possible
handle to the middle position D. inert in stable air D. tie each of the rafts together and try to stay in a single group
B. insert the applicator in the solid stream outlet of the all-purpose B. It leaves no residue. Ans: C Ans: D
nozzle and pull the handle back half way 4615 When a ship is abandoned and there are several liferafts in the 4616 An extinguishing agent which effectively cools, dilutes combustible
C. replace the high velocity tip with the applicator and pull the handle C. It is noncorrosive. water, one of the FIRST things to be done is __________. vapors,removes oxygen, and provides a heat and smoke screen is
back all the way back _____________.
D. insert the applicator in the solid stream outlet of the all-purpose D. All of the above. A. separate the rafts as much as possible to increase chances of A. Halon 1301
nozzle and pull the handle back to the solid stream position detection
B. transfer all supplies to one raft B. dry chemical
Ans: A Ans: D C. transfer all the injured to one raft C. water fog
4599 The vapors given off by heated fuel oil are flammable, explosive, 4600 Generally, which of the following gases is used to inflate liferafts? D. secure the rafts together to keep them from drifting apart D. carbon dioxide
and _____________. Ans: D Ans: C
A. lighter than air A. CO2 4617 During annual inspection, each nonmetallic oil transfer hose must 4618 The most effective way of applying carbon dioxide from a portable
B. heavier than air B. Oxygen not burst, bulge, leak, or abnormally distort under a static liquid extinguisher to a fire is by _____________.
C. odorless C. Hydrogen pressure of at least ____________.
D. nontoxic D. Compressed air A. 7bar A. forming a cloud cover over the flames
Ans: B A
Ans: B. the pressure of the relief valve setting B. discharging the carbon dioxide into the heat of the flames
4601 If it becomes necessary to pump bilges while a vessel is in port, 4602 When fighting a fire in an enclosed space, the hose team should C. the pressure applied by the shoreside pump C. directing the gas at the base of the flame in a slow sweeping motion
which of the following procedures should be followed? crouch as low as possible to __________.
A. Pump only if the discharge is led to a shore tank or barge. A. protect themselfs from smoke D. 1 1/2 times the maximum allowable working pressure D. bouncing the discharge off an adjacent bulkhead just above the
B. Pump only during the hours of darkness. B. obtain the best available air burning service
C. Pump only on the outgoing tide. C. allow the heat and steam to pass overhead Ans: D Ans: C
D. Pump only as much as is necessary. D. All of the above 4619 Where should muster lists be posted? 4620 In the fire main system, quick cleaning strainers are located at the
Ans: A Ans: D _____________.
4603 If flammable vapors have penetrated a gas free space, which of the 4604 A low velocity fog applicator is retained in an all-purpose nozzle by a A. In crew's accommodation spaces A. pump suctions
following actions would be the most hazardous thing to carry out? bayonet joint. The applicator is prevented from rotating in the joint by B. On the navigating bridge B. pump discharge
_____________. C. In the engine room C. fire hydrants
A. Opening switches in the space to de-energize circuits. A. water pressure D. All of the above D. hose nozzle
B. Closing switches in the space to operate vent fans. B. a locknut Ans: D Ans: C
C. Leaving electrical circuits energized in the space. C. a keeper screw 4621 While adrift in an inflatable liferaft in hot, tropical weather 4622 The heat generated by a fire will be transferred through a bulkhead
D. Securing all power to the space from a remote location. D. a spring-loaded catch ____________. or deck, as a result of _____________.
Ans: A Ans: D A. the canopy should be deflated so that it will not block cooling A. conduction
4605 Diesel fuel vapors _____________. 4606 You have abandoned ship and are in an inflatable raft that has just breezes
inflated. You hear a continuous hissing coming from a fitting in a B. the pressure valve may be periodically opened to prevent excessive B. radiation
buoyancy tube. Which of the following statements identifies the air pressure
cause of this situation? C. deflating the floor panels may help to cool personnel C. convection
A. can not be ignited by a spark unless the vapor is in a confined A. The saltwater is activating the batteries of the marker lights on the D. the entrance curtains should never be opened D. advection
space canopy. Ans: C Ans: A
B. are nontoxic in all concentrations B. The inflation pump is in automatic operation to keep the tubes full 4623 Quick cleaning strainers are installed in the fire main system at 4624 What effect will transferring fuel oil from #1P double bottom to #3P
inflated. individual fire hydrants to _____________. double bottom have on the trim of a vessel?
C. can not be ignited by a spark unless they are at their autoignition C. A deflation plug is partially open allowing the escape of CO2. A. prevent rust and foreign matter from entering the system piping A. The mean draft will increase.
temperature
D. are heavier than air D. Excess inflation pressure is bleeding off and should soon stop. B. prevent rust and foreign matter from entering the hoses and nozzles B. The mean draft will decrease.

Ans: D Ans: D C. protect the fire pumps from becoming clogged with marine growth C. The forward draft will decrease.
4607 Two people are administering CPR to a victim. How many times per 4608 You are administering chest compressions during CPR. Where on
minute should the chest be compressed? the victim's body should the pressure be applied? D. filter out some of the salt in an effort to reduce pipeline scaling D. The after draft will decrease.
A. 30 A. Tip of the sternum
B. 45 B. Top half of the sternum Ans: B Ans: C
C. 60 C. Lower half of the sternum 4625 How are solid materials kept from fouling a fire hose nozzle? 4626 Which of the listed extinguishing agents could be used to fight a
D. 80 D. Left chest over the heart class "B" fire involving the duct work for the galley stove?
Ans: C Ans: C
4609 The MOST important element in administering CPR is 4610 Most totally enclosed lifeboats are equipped with which of the A. Using a Cadium Chloride coating. A. CO2
____________. following? B. Use of inline system strainers. B. Dry chemical
A. having the proper equipment for the process A. A hydraulic start diesel engine C. Replacement of valve seats at each fire main station. C. Halon
B. treating for shock B. Tanks for the storage of drinking water D. Periodic shutdown and backflush of fire main. D. All of the above
C. administering of oxygen C. Ballast tanks to prevent the boat from capsizing Ans: B D
Ans:
D. starting the treatment quickly D. Auxiliary mechanical propulsion (Fleming gear) 4627 When fighting a liquefied natural gas fire, you should 4628 One of the first actions to be taken by survivors when they have
Ans: D Ans: A _____________. boarded an inflatable liferaft is to ____________.
4611 The oxygen indicator is an instrument that measures the 4612 A simple precaution to reduce the possibility of accidental fires in the A. use only carbon dioxide A. stream the sea anchor
___________. paint locker, is to _____________. B. use only dry chemical B. take an anti-seasickness pill
A. the amount of oxygen in the atmoshere of a confined space A. label the fixed firefighting system C. extinguish the fire, then secure the source of gas C. open the pressure relief valve
B. amount of combustible gas as a percentage of the lower explosive B. store paint cans on metal shelves only D. secure the source of gas, then extinguish the fire D. drink at least one can of water
limit in a confined space Ans: D Ans: B
C. concentration of CO2 as a percentage of oxygen in a confined space C. not allow oily rags to accumulate in the space 4629 A fire can be extinguished by removing _____________. 4630 Which of the following conditions are true concerning shipboard
extinguishing systems?
 Page 255 Page 256

A. the heat A. Carbon dioxide and Halon are both effective fixed systems that B. use the voice transmission capability of the EPIRB to guide the B. cool the motor with air
protect against "class C" fires. aircraft to your raft
B. the fuel B. Flammable gas fires are not extinguished by fixed systems; C. turn on the strobe light on the top of the EPIRB C. remove the load
controlled burning is recommended until the fuel source can be shut D. use visual distress signals in conjunction with the EPIRB D. de-energize the circuit
off. Ans: D Ans: D
C. the oxygen C. No fixed extinguishing system is approved for use against "class D" 4649 Burning electrical insulation is best extinguished by 4650 If a fire occurs in an electric cable, in which the inner layers of
fires involving combustible metals. _____________. insulation, or the insulation covered by armor is burning, you should
D. any of the above D. All of the above. _____________.
Ans: D Ans: D A. soda acid A. secure power to the cable
4631 The FIRST step to take in fighting an engine room fire resulting 4632 Petroleum vapors are dangerous _____________. B. foam B. cut the cable with an insulated cable cutter
from a ruptured fuel oil service line, is to _____________. C. water fog C. separate the two ends
D. carbon dioxide D. all of the above
A. evacuate all engine room personnel A. only if the source of the vapor is above its flash point Ans: D D
Ans:
B. fight the fire with hand portable extinguishers B. only if the vapor is between the upper and lower explosive limit 4651 Portable tank cleaning machines are usually provided with a water 4652 When a vessel is inclined, the tendency for it to return to its original
supply from the _____________. position is caused by the ____________.
C. activate the main CO2 bank C. only if the oxygen concentration is below 16 percent A. inert gas scrubber A. movement of the center of gravity
D. stop the flow of leaking fuel oil D. at all times due to their toxicity B. firemain B. movement of the center of buoyancy toward the low side of the
Ans: D Ans: D vessel
4633 Engines for lifeboats are required to have sufficient fuel to operate 4634 The three basic elements necessary for any fire are _______. C. mucking supply system C. upward movement of the center of flotation
for how many hours? D. pumproom sea chest D. increased free surface in the buoyant wedge
A. 6 hours A. heat, gas, and flames Ans: B Ans: B
B. 12 hours B. fuel, heat, and oxygen 4653 To fight a class "C" fire, you should use carbon dioxide or 4654 If a CO2 fire extinguisher is not readily available, which of the listed
C. 18 hours C. heat, nitrogen, and fuel _____________. fire extinguishers would be best suited to combat a small electrical
D. 24 hours D. fuel oil, nitrogen, and oxygen fire in a switchboard?
Ans: D Ans: B A. mechanical foam A. Dry chemical
4635 When launching a lifeboat, frapping lines should be rigged 4636 When combating a deck fire due to a leaking cargo line, you should B. dry chemical B. Halon
____________. FIRST ____________. C. chemical foam C. Low velocity fog
A. before the gripes are released A. blanket the cargo spill with foam D. chemically teated saw dust D. Steam
B. before the boat is moved from the davits B. apply CO2 on the burning fuel at its source Ans: B Ans: B
C. at the embarkation deck C. stop the transfer of cargo 4655 By definition, combustible liquids are liquids which _____________. 4656 Which of the following signals represents the emergency signal for a
D. after the boat is in the water D. prevent the spread of fire with a foam dam fire aboard merchant vessel?
Ans: C Ans: C A. spontaneously ignite A. Rapid blowing of the ship's whistle for a period of not less than 10
4637 The sea painter of a lifeboat should be led ____________. 4638 An oxygen indicator will detect _____________. seconds, supplemented by the same signal on the ship's bell.
A. forward and outside of all obstructions A. the amount of oxygen in a space
B. forward and inside of all obstructions B. the presence of harmful amounts of carbon monoxide B. are highly volatile with a flash point of 0°F B. Rapid ringing of the ship's bell for a period of not less than 10
C. up and down from the main deck C. concentrations of explosive gas seconds, supplemented by the same signal on the general alarm.
D. to the foremost point on the ship D. all of the above
Ans: A Ans: A C. have a flash point of 80°F or higher C. A continuous blast of the whistle for a period of not less than 10
4639 Frapping lines are fitted to lifeboat davits to ___________. 4640 Frapping lines ____________. seconds, supplemented by the continuous ringing of the general
A. reduce the swinging of the lifeboat as it is being lowered from the A. secure the lifeboat in the davits when in the stowed position alarm bells for not less than 10 seconds.
embarkation level D. give off flammable vapors at or below 80°F D. A rapid ringing of the ship's bell for a period of not less than 10
B. secure the lifeboat in the davits when in the stowed position B. bring the lifeboat close alongside the rail in the embarkation seconds, supplemented by the same signal on the ship's whistle.
position
C. hold it to the ship's side until the tricing lines are passed C. give the occupants a safety line when the boat is being lowered Ans: C Ans: C
from the embarkation level 4657 Which of the listed fire extinguishers is recommended for use on an 4658 Which of the petroleum products listed has the lowest flash point?
D. be used as a safety line in an emergency D. reduce the swinging of the lifeboat at the embarkation level electrical switchboard fire?
Ans: A Ans: D A. CO2 A. Hydraulic oil
4641 When more than six short blasts and one long blast of the ship's 4642 In fighting a fire in a fuel tank, the FIRST action you should attempt B. ABC dry chemical B. Lubricating oil
whistle, accompanied by the same signal on the general alarm bell is to ____________. C. CO2 propelled foam C. Diesel oil
is sounded, the signal is for __________. D. All of the above D. Refrigeration oil
A. fire and emergency A. secure all sources of fresh air to the tank Ans: A Ans: C
B. boat recall B. begin transferring the fuel to other tanks 4659 A vessel's stability is greatly reduced by liquid free surface. Which 4660 What first aid is appropriate for skin contact with tank residue from a
C. man overboard C. top off the tank to force out all vapors of the listed conditions would develop the greatest adverse effect? cargo of leaded gasoline?
D. boat stations D. station someone at the fixed CO2 release controls
Ans: D Ans: A A. Tanks which are 95% full. A. Cover the affected area with petroleum jelly.
4643 Which of the lifeboat parts listed must be painted bright red? 4644 Which of the actions listed should be taken FIRST to control an oil B. Tanks which have been pressed up to full capacity. B. Immerse the area in a solution of boric acid.
fire in a fuel oil tank? C. Tanks which have been completely emptied. C. Wash the area with soap and water immediately.
A. Hatches A. Commence draining that tank as quickly as possible. D. Tanks which are 40% full. D. Administer a strong stimulant and treat for shock.
B. Releasing gear B. Seal off all vents to that tank. D
Ans: C
Ans:
C. Hooks C. Activate the CO2 system to that tank. 4661 Any single ship's compartment sustaining partial flooding with free 4662 A tank or compartment is considered gas free when it isfree of
D. Compass D. Shut off the steam heating coils. communication to the sea will ____________. dangerous concentrations of _____________.
Ans: B Ans: B A. increase reserve buoyancy A. all flammable liquids
4645 Why are lifeboats usually double-ended? 4646 In order for the automatic lifeboat drain to operate properly B. decrease the free surface effect B. any combustible liquid
____________. C. seriously reduce stability C. flammable or toxic gases
A. They are more seaworthy and less likely to be swamped or broach A. the cap should be removed to drain the boat when it is waterborne D. result in the ship's sinking D. all cargo oil
to. Ans: C Ans: C
B. They can go forward and backward more easily. B. the cage must be free of rubbish or the ball may not seat properly 4663 The powder in a dry chemical fire extinguisher ____________. 4664 When any tank or compartment is partially filled with a liquid free to
move as the ship rolls, the free surface effect is present. This
C. They require less space for stowing aboard ship. C. there is an automatic ball check located in a siphon tube condition will usually _______________.
D. There is no particular reason for this. D. the small lever to release the rubber ball float must be turned A. is always ready for use and requires no attention A. increase reserve buoyancy
counterclockwise B. may cake up and fail to discharge properly if not occasionally B. reduce ship stability
Ans: A Ans: B agitated
4647 You have abandoned ship and after two days in a liferaft you can 4648 If an electric motor catches fire, you should first _______. C. deteriorates to an unusable condition within three years C. cause a permanent list
see an aircraft near the horizon apparently carrying out a search D. puts out the fire with its cooling action D. change the ship's trim
pattern. You should ____________. Ans: B Ans: B
A. switch the EPIRB to the homing signal mode A. use a CO2 extinguisher
 Page 257 Page 258

4665 Adverse effects due to free surface will result when ____________. 4666 Before a shipboard fire can be declared completely out, which of the D. freeboard is increased D. you operate the dewatering system from a flooded compartment
following steps is/are essential?
A. the vessel is trimmed by the stern A. The cause of the fire is to be known. Ans: A Ans: A
B. the vessel's draft is decreased exposing more surface area to the B. The fire area is safe for men to enter without a breathing apparatus. 4683 When checking the liquid level in a tank, you should position 4684 Which fire extinguisher is most prone to freezing when stowed in low
wind and current yourself ____________. temperatures?
C. the vessel's draft is increased, thus increasing the vessel's wetted C. The fire area is sufficiently cooled so that accidental skin burns will A. on the windward side of the opening A. Halon 1211
surface area not occur. B. on the leeward side of the opening B. Carbon dioxide
D. a portion of liquid is removed from a full tank D. All of the above. C. at a right angle to the wind direction C. Foam
Ans: D Ans: B D. so that the obstruction of your body will protect you from the fumes D. Dry chemical
4667 If there has been a fire in a closed unventilated compartment it may 4668 On a newly constructed oceangoing vessel of 10,000 gross tons,
be unsafe to enter because of _____________. equipped with an approved 15 ppm oily water separator, and bilge Ans: C Ans: C
monitor, the bilge monitor continuous record must be 4685 The bypass valve on a self-contained, demand-type, breathing 4686 To use a portable CO2 fire extinguisher, you must FIRST
_______________. apparatus bypasses _____________. _____________.
A. unburned carbon particles A. kept readily available for 1 year only A. the regulator in an emergency A. turn the tank upside down
B. excess nitrogen B. detached monthly for enclosure in the Oil Record Book B. a breathing bag containing excessive pressure B. pull the locking pin
C. a lack of oxygen C. maintained onboard for not less than 3 years C. oxygen to the atmosphere C. open the valve on the side of the tank
D. excess hydrogen D. initialled after each engineering watch by the watch engineer D. the regenerator in an emergency D. shake thoroughly
Ans: A Ans: B
Ans: C Ans: C 4687 Which of the components listed are interchangeable between 4688 Which of the listed fire extinguishers cannot be easily recharged
4669 If you find that the pressure cartridge on a dry chemical fire 4670 Free surface effect occurring in tanks should be avoided to different backpack demand-type self-contained breathing apparatus aboard ship?
extinguisher has been punctured, you must ____________. __________. produced by various manufacturers?
A. replace the pressure cartridge A. reduce hogging and sagging A. The facepiece A. Soda acid
B. replace the chemical agent B. maintain stability B. The regulator B. Carbon dioxide
C. have the unit hydrostatically tested C. prevent oil pollution C. The air cylinder C. Dry chemical, cartridge-operated
D. weigh the pressure cartridge to determine if it must be replaced D. all of the above D. All of the above D. Foam
Ans: C Ans: B
Ans: A Ans: B 4689 The safe and efficient use of the facepiece of a demand-type self- 4690 Before the seas get rough, it is a good safety practice to
4671 When handling petroleum products, static electricity is generated by 4672 Which of the following methods will reduce the possibility of contained breathing apparatus is directly influenced by _____________.
moving machinery and _____________. producing an electrical spark? _____________.
A. a grounded person A. Using a cargo hose with a built in electrical bonding wire. A. the donning of the facepiece A. secure loose gear
B. the flowing petroleum liquids B. Connecting a bonding wire between the shoreside piping and the B. the stowing of the facepiece B. move quickly about the ship
vessel. C. the maintenance of the facepiece C. increase lighting
C. stray electric currents C. Placing an insulating flange or a section of nonconducting hose in D. all of the above D. shutdown auxiliary equipment
the hose setup. Ans: D Ans: A
D. a short circuit D. All of the above. 4691 When the alarm bell on a demand-type breathing apparatus sounds, 4692 Which of the following conditions represents a particular advantage
Ans: B Ans: D how much air supply remains? of using a pressure demand type self-contained breathing apparatus
4673 One advantage of a cartridge-operated dry chemical fire 4674 How can the build up of static electricity be prevented so that a static in an atmosphere that is immediately dangerous to life or health?
extinguisher, over that of a stored pressure dry chemical spark does not ignite flammable vapors?
extinguisher is the former ____________. A. A 4-5 minute supply of air. A. The positive pressure in the facepiece prevents contaminated air
A. can be easily recharged aboard ship A. Each machine and hose involved in the operation should be from entering the facepiece.
grounded. B. A 2-3 minute supply of air. B. The average operating time for most air cylinders is over an hour.
B. has a longer operating time B. All electrical circuits near and around the fueling operations should
be opened. C. A 1 minute supply of air. C. The equipment used is lightweight and easy to wear by reducing
C. can be discharged further from the fire C. A dehumidifier used in spaces containing flammable liquids will physical strain on the wearer.
significantly reduce the possibility of static charges being generated. D. Less than 1 minute supply of air. D. The equipment is compact and the wearer can work in confined
spaces without difficulty.
D. is lighter in weight D. Static neutralizers can be used to reduce ionization in the air. Ans: A Ans: A
Ans: A Ans: A 4693 Which of the following statements is correct concerning fire hoses 4694 Special transportation hazards of bulk LPG include ________.
4675 Where would you expect to find a "charged mist" on a tanker? 4676 An electrically "charged mist" will be found in a _____________. used within the machinery spaces of cargo vessels?
A. The fire hoses must be in 25mtr lengths. A. frost burns to flesh
A. In a common vent header during tank ballasting. A. diesel engine cylinder B. The fire hoses must be 1 1/2 inches in diameter or less. B. high toxicity in small quantities
B. In a cargo tank during "Butterworthing". B. cargo tank during Butterworthing C. The fire hoses must be of the lined type. C. noxious odors
C. In a cargo tank during inerting operations. C. fuel tank vent outlet D. The fire hoses must all be fitted with approved 5/8 inch nozzles. D. all of the above
D. In the overflow line while topping off. D. flash evaporator flash chamber
B
Ans: Ans: B Ans: C Ans: A
4677 In order to find out which lifeboat you are assigned, you should look 4678 Which of the following statements is true concerning Halon 1301? 4695 According to Regulations , which of the following conditions is true 4696 Fire main outlet valves or hydrants located on exposed decks shall
at the _____________. concerning the construction and/or operation of pressure-vacuum be _____________.
A. Certificate of Inspection A. The agent is extremely toxic in any concentration. relief valves?
B. Muster list B. The agent leaves no residue. A. Valve bodies, discs, spindles, and seats must all be made of bronze A. behind glass or a suitably marked enclosure
C. Ship's Articles C. The agent extinguishes a fire by smothering. or a corrosion resistant material.
D. Fire Control Plan D. All of the above. B. Pressure-vacuum valves for cargo tanks shall not be less than 2 B. protected against freezing or be fitted with cutout valves and drain
Ans: B B
Ans: inches nominal pipe size. valves
4679 You can generally improve the vessel's stability in a hazardous 4680 Which of the following statements is true concerning Halon 1301 fire C. Where springs are employed to actuate the valve discs, the springs C. opened up and internally examined at each Coast Guard biannual
situation by _______________. extinguishing equipment? are to be either plated or fabricated of a corrosion resistant material. inspection for certification
A. pumping double bottoms to the forepeak A. The agent is considered nontoxic at room temperature in low
concentrations. D. The design and construction of the valves is such that they must be D. all of the above
B. ballasting deep tanks B. The agent is less effective than carbon dioxide. removed for overhauling, insuring there will be no vent blockage
C. transferring ballast athwartships C. Halon primarily extinguishes the fire by cooling. which could occur during a repair period.
D. deballasting double bottoms D. The agent cannot be used on electrical fires because it leaves a Ans: A Ans: B
residue. 4697 When you have completed bunkering operations, the hoses should 4698 When should you expect to find an insulating flange in a fueling
Ans: B Ans: A be ________________. hose?
4681 A vessel's stability normally increases when tanks are ballasted 4682 In the event of a collision, watertight integrity may be lost if A. blown down with inert gas A. When transferring LNG.
because the vessel's _______________. _____________. B. drained into drip pans or tanks B. When a bonding cable is employed.
A. center of gravity is lowered A. the sounding tube cap from a damaged tank is missing C. stowed with their ends open for venting C. When static electricity is not expected to be a problem.
B. center of buoyancy is lowered B. the dogs on a manhole cover are secure D. steam cleaned and flushed with hot water D. When the terminal is equipped with a cathodic protection system.
C. reserve buoyancy is increased C. you have recently replaced a gasket in a watertight door
 Page 259 Page 260

Ans: B Ans: D Ans: A Ans: B

4699 Which of the following operations must be personally supervised by 4700 While loading bulk liquid cargo, a tank valve jams open. You should 4717 Regulations permit which of the following systems to be used for fire 4718 Prior to entering a shipboard compartment containing spilled
the person-in-charge when taking on fuel? FIRST _____________. prevention and the simultaneous inerting of cargo tanks on tank sewage, you should test the atmosphere in thecompartment for
A. Posting of the Declaration of Inspection in a conspicuous place A. unplug the deck scuppers vessels? __________.
under glass. A. An inert gas system A. Hydrogen sulfide
B. Topping off any tanks being loaded. B. run out the vessel's fire hose B. The deck foam system B. Methane Gas
C. Overboard disposal of all waste oil or slops from drip pans. C. order the shore facility to shut down C. The fixed CO2 system C. Oxygen
D. Sampling performed periodically during loading to ensure uniformity. D. call the chief engineer D. A fixed water spray system D. All of the above
A
Ans: D
Ans:
Ans: B Ans: C 4719 Which of the following methods is used to supply inert gas from a 4720 The Pollution Prevention Regulations prohibit draining
4701 A fire station located in the engine room, is required by regulations 4702 The safe rate of bunkering heavy fuel oil is directly related to the flue gas system to the cargo tanks? _____________.
to have ____________. ____________. A. Exhaust gas pressure A. waste oil into the slop tank
A. a spanner wrench suitable for the size of hose at that station A. type of fuel transfer pump aboard B. High capacity fan B. lube oil purifiers into the bilge
C. Inert gas compressor C. fuel oil heaters into buckets
B. lined or unlined hose, depending upon its location B. temperature of the fuel oil being received D. Natural aspiration D. lube oil strainers into drip pans
C. a 2mtr or 3mtr low velocity fog applicator C. size of the fuel storage tanks ashore Ans: B Ans: B
D. all of the above D. distance from the fuel oil storage tanks ashore 4721 Open tank ullage holes which are not gas free, must be protected 4722 Bilges may be pumped _____________.
A
Ans: B
Ans: by _____________.
4703 In a compartment that has been completely flooded, the greatest 4704 When using portable tank cleaning machines, the hoses may be A. flame screens A. on the outgoing tide
pressure will be exerted _____________. disconnected when ____________. B. warning signs B. overboard after dark
A. along the bottom of any bulkhead A. the machine is inside the tank C. P.V. valves C. overboard through an oily water separator
B. at the center of all bulkheads B. the machine is not inside the tank D. stop-check valves D. anytime in an emergency, i.e. main engine lube oil failure
C. along the top of any bulkhead C. a sailor is standing by the machine Ans: A Ans: C
D. on the overhead of the compartment D. the hose has been partially drained 4723 According to Regulations, new tank vessels enroute beyond the 50 4724 The device used for preventing the passage of flames into enclosed
Ans: A Ans: B mile limit may not discharge an oily mixture into the sea from a cargo spaces is called a _____________.
4705 After taking on fuel oil, the hoses should be disconnected and 4706 After transferring fuel to another vessel, hoses should be drained tank or cargo pump room unless __________.
___________. __________. A. the quantity of oil discharged into the sea does not exceed 1/30,000 A. flame relief valve
A. draped over the fantail to dry out A. to the bilges of the total quantity of cargo carried on board
B. drained over the side and washed out B. over the side B. anchored outside the breakwater B. flame stopper
C. drained into the bilges and washed out C. into a bucket C. discharging oil at a rate not exceeding 200 liters per nautical mile C. safety valve
D. drained into buckets or fuel tanks D. all of the above
Ans: D Ans: C D. the quantity of oil discharged into the surrounding waters does not D. flame arrester
4707 Span gas is used aboard liquefied natural gas carriers to 4708 To prevent the overflow of cargo tanks due to expansion, you should exceed 1/600,000 of the total quantity of cargo carried onboard
_____________. top off ____________.
A. inert the barrier spaces A. to the bottom of the expansion trunk Ans: A Ans: D
B. calibrate the gas leak detectors B. to within 1% to 3% of its capacity 4725 A low velocity fog applicator is held in an all-purpose nozzle by a 4726 In port, after chemically cleaning a fuel oil tank, you should dispose
C. odorize the cargo C. to within 3 to 8 cm of its capacity bayonet joint. The applicator is prevented from rotating in the joint of the waste oil by _____________.
D. detect leaks in cargo piping D. 3 to 8cm from top of the vent pipe by ___________.
Ans: B Ans: B A. water pressure A. pumping it into the sewer connection
4709 The most critical part of the bunkering operations, which can result 4710 After fuel tanks have been topped off, which of the listed procedures B. a keeper screw B. centrifuging and reclaiming it
in an oil spill, is when the _____________. should be followed next? C. a spring-loaded catch C. circulating it through an oil and water separator
A. hose joints are made up A. The pressure-vacuum relief valve should be reset. D. a locknut D. discharging it into a slop barge or holding tank
B. tanks are being topped off B. The tanks should be made seaworthy to prevent contamination. Ans: C Ans: D
4727 As soon as you hear the fire and emergency signal, you should 4728 Which of the following actions should be taken by the engine room
C. system is being lined up C. The tanks should be sounded to make sure the levels are not rising. ensure that the _____________. watch when the general alarm is sounded continuously?

D. pumping operation is first started D. The tanks should be marked A. ring buoys are thrown overboard A. The fire pump should be started.
Ans: B Ans: C B. engines are stopped B. The boiler fires should be secured.
4711 Regulations for carbon dioxide fixed fire extinguishing systems 4712 Regulations state that any space containing charged CO2 C. fire pumps are started C. The fixed CO2 system should be initiated into action.
require __________. cylinders, shall be properly ventilated to prevent a temperature D. life preservers have been issued to everyone D. The engine room ventilation should be secured.
higher than ___________. C
Ans: Ans: A
A. a separate supply of CO2 be provided for each space protected A. 130°F (54.5°C) 4729 Which of the listed operations must be personally supervised by the 4730 During topping off of bunker tanks, the loading rate must be
person-in-charge while taking on fuel? personally supervised by the ____________.
B. the total supply of CO2 to be at least sufficient for the space B. 140°F (60.0°C) A. Posting of the Declaration of Inspection in a conspicuous place A. terminal operator
requiring the greatest amount under glass.
C. the total supply of CO2 be equal to the gross tonnage of the vessel C. 150°F (66.6°C) B. Topping off of any tanks being loaded. B. person-in-charge
divided by 30 C. Disposing overboard all waste oil or slops from drip pans. C. master
D. all of the above D. 160°F (71.1°C) D. Periodic sampling during the loading to ensure uniformity. D. engineer on watch
Ans: B Ans: A Ans: B B
Ans:
4713 Which of the signals listed is required to be displayed during the 4714 The Pollution Prevention Regulations requires an emergency means 4731 When bunkering operations are completed, the hoses should be 4732 The term "oil", as used in the Pollution Prevention Regulations ,
day while loading fuel? of stopping the flow of oil during oil transfer operations. That _____________. means _____________.
emergency means may be a/an _____________. A. drained into drip pans or tanks A. fuel oil only
B. blown down with nitrogen or inert gas B. crude oil only
A. A red flag A. manually-operated quick-closing valve C. steam cleaned and flushed with hot water C. liquefied petroleum gas
B. A yellow flag B. self-closing automatic disconnect fitting D. stowed with their ends open for venting D. petroleum oil of any kind
C. A red and yellow flag C. emergency pump control on the cargo deck Ans: A Ans: D
D. A red light D. automatic pressure-sensitive oil flow regulator 4733 Where are remote readouts for oxygen concentration, pressure, 4734 An oxygen indicator will detect __________.
Ans: A Ans: C and temperature of an inert gas system required to be located?
4715 Which of the listed functions is the purpose of a gas scrubber in an 4716 While your vessel is fueling, you notice that the transfer hose has
inert gas generation system? developed a large bulge. Which of the following actions should be A. Bridge and engine control consoles A. concentrations of explosive gas
taken, according to Regulations , if you are the person-in-charge? B. Bridge and tank(s) being inerted B. an oxygen deficiency in a space
C. Main deck and engine control consoles C. the presence of harmful amounts of carbon monoxide
A. Cools the inert gas. A. Wrap the bulge area with nylon line. D. Cargo control and engine control consoles D. all of the above
B. Maintains the oxygen content at 5% by volume. B. Stop the transfer of fuel. Ans: D Ans: B
C. Drains off static electricity in the inert gas. C. Report the incident to the Master
D. Maintains the water seal on the gas main. D. Simply order new hose for the next fueling operation.
 Page 261 Page 262

4735 During loading and discharging operations, in addition to when the 4736 An International Oil Pollution Prevention (IOPP) Certificate ceases to B. Set the load on a movable dolly when transportation may be needed. B. To use it as a secondary service system.
cargo tanks have been properly filled, each inert gas system must be valid on a Ship when _____________.
be capable of maintaining a minimum gas pressure of C. Have one man keep a hand on the load to steady it. C. To store reserve feed or potable water for extended cruises.
________________. D. Insure that the lifting gear capacity is not exceeded. D. To stabilize the ship by flooding certain designed tanks with
A. 150 millimeters of water pressure A. the ship changes its port of documentation seawater.
B. 125 millimeters of water pressure B. the certificate exceeds 2 years from the date of issue Ans: D Ans: D
C. 100 millimeters of water pressure C. an intermediate survey as required is not carried out 4753 The angular movement of a vessel about a horizontal line drawn 4754 To prevent oil from escaping into the sea when ballasting through
D. 75 millimeters of water pressure D. the vessel owners cease to belong to IMO (International Maritime from its bow to its stern is _______________. the cargo piping system, you should FIRST _________.
Organization)
Ans: C Ans: C A. pitching A. open sea suction valves, then start the cargo pump
4737 Used engine oil may be properly disposed of by ___________. 4738 According to Regulations , all exposed and dangerous places, such B. rolling B. start the cargo pump, then open sea suction valves
as gears and machinery shall be properly protected with C. heaving C. open block valves, then start the cargo pump
_____________. D. swaying D. open sluice valves, then start the cargo pump
A. draining it into the bilges A. covers Ans: B Ans: B
B. discharging it to a dockside oil waste station B. guards 4755 The rescuer can best provide an airtight seal during mouth-to- 4756 Why is it necessary to cool the bulkheads, decks, and overheads
C. pumping or throwing it over the side in port C. rails mouth ventilation by pinching the victim's nostrils and surrounding an involved compartment fire?
D. dumping it in a gasoline fuel tank D. all of the above _____________.
Ans: B Ans: D A. cupping a hand around the patient's mouth A. Cool the metal below its ignition temperature
4739 What safety precautions should be observed by the crew while 4740 According to the Pollution Prevention Regulations , which of the B. keeping the head elevated B. Form a dense coating of smothering steam
working around machinery in an engine room? following qualifies as a discharge of oil? C. applying his mouth tightly over the victim's mouth C. Prevent oxygen from reaching the flames
A. They should wear safety shoes. A. Leakage of oil to the water by an improperly blanked transfer hose. D. holding the jaw down firmly D. Prevent the fire from spreading by heat conduction
Ans: C D
Ans:
B. They should wear ear protection. B. Spilling oil on the main deck and having it flow over the side. 4757 An immersion suit should be equipped with a/an ____________. 4758 Portable Halon extinguishers used on a class "B" fire should be
C. They should not wear jewelry. C. Pumping oil overboard through a fixed piping system. directed _______________.
D. All of the above. D. All of the above. A. air bottle for breathing A. at the top of the flames
Ans: D Ans: D B. whistle and handheld flare B. at the base of the fire near the edge
4741 Vessel stability can be adversely affected by ___________. 4742 Which of the following represents the maximum percent of oxygen, C. whistle, strobe light, and reflective tape C. in short, quick bursts
by volume, required to be achieved by a ship's inert gas system, D. whistle, handheld flare, and sea dye marker D. toward the upwind side of the fire
prior to the commencement of crude oil tank washing? Ans: C Ans: B
4759 When taking soundings ,the tape should be lowered and brought 4760 Which of the following conditions represents the appropriate time
A. increasing the free surface effect A. 0.06 back quickly to _____________. for setting off distress flares and rockets?
B. decreasing the free surface effect B. 0.08 A. reduce the time the sounding tube is open A. Only when there is a chance of them being seen by rescue vessels.
C. ballasting down by the bow C. 0.1
D. ballasting down by the stern D. 0.12 B. avoid creating a spark B. At half-hour intervals.
Ans: A Ans: B C. lessen the effect of roll or pitch on the reading C. At one hour intervals.
4743 Fuel oil tank vents are fitted with a corrosion resistant wire mesh 4744 You are alone and administering CPR to a an adult victim. How D. lessen the effect of heave on the reading D. Immediately upon abandoning the vessel.
screen to _____________. many chest compressions and how many inflations should you C
Ans: Ans: A
administer in each sequence? 4761 A straight stream of water should be used to extinguish 4762 Rolling is the angular motion of the vessel about what axis?
A. prevent dirt from entering the tank A. 5 compressions, then 1 inflation _____________.
B. dissipate fumes leaving the vent B. 15 compressions, then 2 inflations A. galley grease fires A. Longitudinal
C. prevent flames from entering the tank C. 20 compressions, then 3 inflations B. fuel oil fires B. Transverse
D. prevent accidental overflow D. 30 compressions, then 4 inflations C. burning bedding materials C. Vertical
Ans: C Ans: B D. a fire in the paint locker D. Centerline
4745 A vessel which is subjected to "sagging" _____________. 4746 Automatically closed fire dampers installed in the vessel's ventilation Ans: C A
Ans:
system are operated by the use of a ____________. 4763 Changing rescuers while carrying out artificial respiration should be 4764 Which of the listed types of fires should be extinguished with a
done _______________. straight stream of water?
A. has its main deck under tensile stress A. remote operated valve A. without losing the rhythm of respiration A. Bilge
B. has its bottom plating under tensile stress B. fusible link B. only with the help of two other people B. Mattress
C. is supported on a wave whose crest is amidships C. CO2 system pressure switch C. by not stopping the respiration for more than 5 minutes C. Galley range
D. is said to be under a form of transverse bending D. heat or smoke detector D. at ten minute intervals D. Switchboard
Ans: B Ans: B Ans: A Ans: B
4747 The horizontal port, or starboard movement of a vessel is called 4748 If a cup of oil is spilled during fueling and causes a sheen upon the 4765 When is it required for a dry chemical fire extinguisher to be 4766 You are transferring fuel from a supply vessel to your Ship. If you
_____________. water it _____________. recharged? close off one tank in the line of tanks being filled, the flow rate to the
A. yaw A. must be reported to the fire department other open tanks on the same line will _______________.
B. sway B. must be reported to the Port Control Authourities
C. surge C. must be reported to the harbour master A. After each use A. increase
D. heave D. need not be reported since the spill was less than 250 barrels B. When the air temperature exceeds 32°C B. decrease
C. Every six months C. stop
Ans: B Ans: B D. Every 12 months D. stabilize
4749 In accordance with Regulations, approved buoyant work vests 4750 Prior to entering a cargo pumproom, you should ensure that Ans: A Ans: A
___________. ____________. 4767 The term "segregated ballast" is defined in the Pollution Prevention 4768 For a floating vessel, the center of buoyancy and the metacenter
A. should be stowed in engineering spaces in lieu of approved life A. the forced ventilating system is operating Regulations as ballast water introduced into a/an ____________. are in the line of action of the buoyant force ____________.
preservers because they are less bulky and permit free movement in
confined spaces A. tank that is completely separated from the cargo oil and fuel oil A. only when there is positive stability
B. may be used as a substitute for approved life preservers during B. the cargo pumps are secured systems
routine drills, but never during an emergency B. fuel settling tank for segregation from lighter fluids B. only when there is negative stability
C. should not be stowed where they could be confused with life jackets C. no monocarbon gases are present C. oily water separator for segregation C. only when there is neutral stability
in an emergency D. isolated tank for analysis because of its noxious properties D. at all times
D. all of the above D. the oily water separator is de-energized Ans: A Ans: D
Ans: C Ans: A 4769 Before CPR is started on the victim, you should ___________. 4770 When entering a burning compartment and equipped with a fire hose
4751 To safeguard the operator and other personnel working on or near a 4752 Which of the following statements describes one of the functions of and an all-purpose nozzle, you should first direct _____________.
hoisting operation, which of the following precautions should be the ballasting system?
observed? A. establish an open airway A. a straight stream into the center of the space
A. Keep a load on the hoist until all personnel are finished working. A. To permit flooding of any fuel oil storage tank on any class of ship. B. treat any bleeding wounds B. the high velocity fog into the center of the space
C. insure the victim is conscious C. the high velocity fog at the overhead to absorb heat
D. make the victim comfortable D. the high velocity fog at the deck to cool it for entry
 Page 263 Page 264

Ans: A Ans: C 4789 In order for you to operate your vessel's crude oil wash system, the 4790 Oil Pollution Regulations (MARPOL) require any transfer or
4771 The free surface effects of a partially full tank in a floating vessel 4772 A load line for a cargo ship is assigned by the ______________. cargo tanks to be washed must be ______________. discharge of oil or oily mixtures to be recorded in the
decrease with the _______________. ____________.
A. surface area of the tank A. P & I club A. opened to the atmosphere for ventilation A. bridge log
B. displacement volume B. Ministry of Surface Transport B. gas free B. Master's log
C. draft of the MODU C. Corps of Engineers C. inerted C. engine room log
D. height of the tank above the keel D. a recognized classification society approved by the Administration D. full of cargo D. oil record book
Ans: C Ans: D
Ans: B Ans: D 4791 Where multiple fire pumps are installed, they may be used for other 4792 In order to initiate CPR on a drowning victim, ____________.
4773 Once the daily ration of drinking water in a survival situation has 4774 Mechanical foam used for firefighting, is produced by purposes, provided that one pump is _____________.
been established, the drinking routine should include ____________. A. on line and in operation at all times to the fire main A. start chest compressions before the victim is removed from the
______________. water
A. small sips at regular intervals during the day. A. mechanically mixing and agitating foam chemical, water, and air B. kept available for use on the fire main at all times B. drain water from the lungs before ventilating
C. capable of being quickly connected to the fire main with a suitable C. begin mouth-to-mouth ventilations
B. a complete daily ration at one time during the day. B. a chemical reaction of foam components and air pipe spool
C. one-half the daily ration twice during the day. C. gas bubbles liberated when the foam chemical contacts fire D. rated at or above 125 psi D. do not tilt the head back since it may cause vomiting
D. small sips only after sunset. D. chemical reaction of foam components and water Ans: B Ans: C
Ans: C Ans: A 4793 Inspection of a Halon fire extinguisher involves checking the hose, 4794 Which of the following is a correct statement with respect to inserting
4775 Horizontal fore or aft motion of a vessel while underway is known as 4776 According to Pollution Prevention Regulations (MARPOL), if a cargo handle, nozzle, and _______________. an airway tube?
______________. hose shows a small leak in its fabric, you may transfer oil after A. each sight glass A. Only a trained person should attempt to insert an airway tube.
_____________.
A. pitch A. the terminal foreman is notified B. weighing of the extinguisher B. A size #2 airway tube is the correct size for an adult.
B. surge B. the hose is replaced C. the service technicians report C. The airway tube will not damage the victim's throat.
C. sway C. the hose leak is securely wrapped D. the last date it was charged D. Inserting the airway tube will prevent vomiting.
D. roll D. a drip pan is placed under the leak B
Ans: A
Ans:
Ans: B Ans: B 4795 The piece of equipment shown in the illustration is used with a fire 4796 After using a portable Halon fire extinguisher, it shouldbe
4777 When two people are administering CPR to a victim, how manytimes 4778 To effectively and safely combat a passageway fire, ___________. hose to produce _____________. ____________.
per minute should the chest be compressed? A. high velocity fog A. put back in service if more than 50% of the charge remains
A. 15 A. two hose teams should attack the fire from opposite directions B. mechanical foam B. repainted
C. low velocity fog C. hydrostaticly tested before reuse
B. 30 B. the fire should be attacked from above if possible D. light water D. discarded
C. 60 C. the fire should be attacked from one direction only Ans: B Ans: D
D. 80 D. water must not be used if the passageway is above the metacentric 4797 A floating vessel will behave as if all of its weight is acting downward 4798 In a crude oil washing system, according to regulations, each cargo
height through the ____________. tank shall be fitted with a sufficient number of machines, such that
Ans: C Ans: C those areas unwashed by direct impingement shall not exceed 10%
4779 Spaces protected by a fixed CO2 system must be equipped with an 4780 What must be accurately determined to assess the potential for for horizontal areas, and ____
alarm which is to sound ________________. progressive flooding after a vessel has been damaged?
A. for the first 20 seconds CO2 is being released into the space A. The integrity of the watertight boundaries. A. center of gravity A. 5% for vertical areas
B. center of buoyancy B. 10% for vertical areas
B. for at least 20 seconds prior to release of CO2 B. The capacity of the water sprinkler system. C. center of flotation C. 15% for vertical areas
C. during the entire period that CO2 is being released C. The operation of the machinery space bilge level alarms. D. metacenter D. 20% for vertical areas
D. if all doors and ventilation are not secured D. All of the above. A
Ans: Ans: C
B
Ans: Ans: A 4799 To turn over a liferaft that is floating upside down, you should pull on 4800 Which of the following conditions can contribute to accidents?
4781 If a leak in a fueling hose coupling cannot be stopped by tightening 4782 When using the rainwater collection tubes on a liferaft, the FIRST the _____________.
the coupling joint, you should _____________. collection should be _____________. A. canopy A. Good housekeeping
A. reduce the pumping pressure to reduce the leakage rate A. passed around so all can drink B. manropes B. Inspections
B. stop the fueling operation and correct the leak B. poured overboard because of salt washed off the canopy C. sea painter C. Unsafe conditions
C. spread absorbent material on deck beneath the leak in order to C. saved to be used at a later time D. righting lines D. Intelligent work habits
confine it Ans: D Ans: C
D. notify the local port authority of a potential oil spill D. used to boil food 4801 Class "B" EPIRB's transmit on frequencies that are monitored by 4802 Which of the following procedures is the generally accepted method
Ans: B Ans: B ______________. of determining whether the atmosphere within a cargo tank is over
4783 Low velocity fog extinguishes a fire by ____________. 4784 In small angle stability, when external forces exist, the buoyant force rich, explosive, or too lean to support combustion?
is assumed to act vertically upwards through the center of buoyancy
and through the _______________. A. orbiting satellites in space A. Use the open flame test on a small sample that has been taken
A. smothering and washing out A. center of gravity from the tank.
B. smothering and cooling B. center of flotation B. commercial radio stations B. Send a gas sample ashore for laboratory analysis.
C. cooling and washing out C. metacenter C. private, commercial, and military aircraft C. Enter the tank with a teledyne oxygen analyzer.
D. none of the above D. metacentric height D. commercial fishing vessels D. Use an explosimeter.
B
Ans: C
Ans: Ans: C Ans: D
4785 After a person has been revived by artificial respiration, they should 4786 A low velocity fog applicator is used in firefighting to 4803 The master or person in charge of a cargoship must record the date 4804 In the absence of external forces, the center of gravity of a floating
be ____________. _____________. of each test of emergency lighting systems, power systems, the vessel is located directly above the ___________.
A. walked around until he is back to normal A. apply large droplets of foam condition of each and the performance of the equipment
B. given several shots of whiskey B. cool and smother the fire ____________.
C. kept lying down and warm C. break up burning embers A. on the Certificate of Inspection A. metacenter
D. allowed to do as he wishes D. extinguish hard to reach electrical fires B. on the muster list B. amidships
Ans: C Ans: B C. in the Operations Manual C. center of flotation
4787 The passive safety device installed on each Halon fire extinguishing 4788 The jettisoning of topside weight from a floating vessel serves which D. in the official log D. geometric center of the displaced volume
cylinder, to prevent its overpressurization is called a ____________. of the purposes listed? Ans: D Ans: D
4805 A vessel which is subjected to "hogging" _____________. 4806 The sea painter of an inflatable liferaft should be ____________.
A. safety valve A. It returns the vessel to an even keel.
B. relief valve B. It reduces free surface effect. A. has its main deck under compressive stress A. free running on deck
C. rupture disc C. It lowers the center of gravity. B. has its main deck plating under tensile stress B. faked out next to the case
D. control head D. It raises the center of gravity. C. has its bottom plate under tensile stress C. secured to a permanent object on deck via a weak link
Ans: C Ans: C D. has its bottom plating under ductile stress D. stowed near the raft
Ans: B Ans: C
 Page 265 Page 266

4807 Water ballast placed in a tank that has been crude oil washed, but 4808 At all angles of inclination the metacenter is located 4825 On a cargo ship, size I and II fire extinguishers are considered 4826 The upward force of displaced water is known as __________.
not water rinsed, shall be regarded as ________. ______________. ____________,
A. fixed systems A. buoyancy
A. clean ballast A. vertically above the center of buoyancy B. steam generated B. deadweight
B. dirty ballast B. vertically above the center of gravity C. hand portable units C. draft
C. segregated ballast C. at the intersection of the upright vertical centerline and the line of D. semi-portable units D. freeboard
action of the buoyant force Ans: C Ans: A
D. crude oil D. geometric center of the underwater volume 4827 Blood flowing from a cut artery would appear _____________. 4828 One of the main concerns when fighting a galley fire is__________.
Ans: B Ans: A
4809 According to MARPOL Regulations , all ships are required to 4810 A person has suffered a laceration of the arm. Severe bleeding has A. dark red with a steady flow A. contamination food with extinguishing agent
prepare, submit, and maintain a(an) __________. been controlled by using a sterile dressing and direct pressure. B. bright red with a steady flow B. spreading of fire through the engineering space
Which of the following actions should be taken next? C. bright red and in spurts C. the loss of stability
D. dark red and in spurts D. the igniting of a grease fire in the range hood ventilation system
A. synthetic plastic discharge plan A. Apply a tourniquet to prevent the bleeding from restarting.
B. oil discharge plan B. Apply a pressure bandage over the dressing. Ans: C Ans: D
C. shipboard oil pollution emergency plan C. Remove any small foreign matter and apply antiseptic. 4829 Actuating the fixed CO2 system should cause the automatic 4830 The stamped full weight of a 45kgs CO2 cylinder is 142kgs. What is
D. vapor recovery procedures plan D. Administer fluids to assist the body in replacing the lost blood. shutdown of the ________________. the total minimum weight of the cylinder before it must be
Ans: C Ans: B recharged?
4811 Paints and solvents used aboard a vessel should be __________. 4812 The primary function of an automatic sprinkler system is to A. fuel supply only A. 128kgs
____________. B. exhaust ventilation only B. 133kgs
A. stowed safely at the work site until work is completed A. instantaneously extinguish the fire which triggered it C. supply and exhaust ventilation C. 136kgs
B. returned to the paint locker after each use B. limit the spread of the fire and control the amount of heat produced D. mechanical and natural ventilation D. 138kgs
Ans: C Ans: D
C. covered with a fine mesh screen to protect from ignition sources C. protect people in the areas which have had sprinkler heads installed 4831 During counterflooding to correct a severe list or trim aggravated by 4832 If the alarm provided in the fixed CO2 system sounds in the engine
an off center load, a cargo ship suddenly takes a list or trim to the room, you should _____________.
D. continuously kept in closed containers at all times D. alert the crew to the fire opposite side. You should ____________.
Ans: B Ans: B
4813 The term "arrival ballast" refers to ___________. 4814 The volume of a floating vessel above the waterline that can be A. continue counterflooding in the same direction A. leave the space immediately
made watertight is its __________. B. continue counterflooding, but in the opposite direction B. start the fire pump
A. brackish water ballast A. displacement volume C. immediately stop counterflooding C. make certain that the CO2 starts flowing into the space
B. dirty ballast B. reserve buoyancy D. deballast from the low side D. immediately assist the fixed system by discharging all portable units
C. clean ballast C. gross tonnage as well
D. any form of sea water ballast D. net tonnage Ans: C Ans: A
Ans: C Ans: B 4833 Which abbreviation represents the height of the center of buoyancy? 4834 How often are fire hoses required to be tested ?
4815 When fire pumps are used for purposes other than firefighting 4816 Bleeding from a vein may ordinarily be controlled by ___________.
service, each pipe connection to the other service (except for A. BK A. Once a week.
branch lines used for deck washing) must have a ___________. B. KB B. Once a month.
C. CB C. Once a year.
A. check valve installed in the line A. applying direct pressure to the wound D. BM D. During each drill.
B. shut off valve at a manifold near the pump B. heavy application of a disinfectant Ans: B Ans: C
C. quick disconnect union within ten feet of the pump C. pouring ice water directly onto the wound 4835 What is the primary purpose for applying a splint in first aid? 4836 A Crude Oil Wash (COW) system is considered as ____________.
D. regulator in the line set at 8.8kg/cm2 D. pinching the wound closed
Ans: B A
Ans: A. Control bleeding A. a water operated Butterworth system
4817 The stability existing after the unintentional flooding of a 4818 According to MARPOL regulations, the shipboard oil pollution B. Reduce pain B. a mechanism which filters and purifies crude oil
compartment on a cargo ship is called ______________. emergency plan must include __________. C. Immobilize the fracture C. a Butterworth system using crude oil instead of water as the cleaning
A. intact stability A. all information ordinarily provided in the oil record book medium
B. initial stability B. an explanation and purpose of this plan D. Reset the bone D. a cleanup for pump room bilges
C. immersion stability C. a one-line schematic of the plan to be implemented Ans: C Ans: C
D. damage stability D. the operating instructions for any and all oily-water separators 4837 A CO2 fire extinguisher provided aboard has lost 10% of its charge. 4838 Before releasing CO2 into the machinery space, the alarm for a fixed
installed aboard the vessel It now must be _______________. CO2 fire extinguishing system must sound for at least
Ans: D Ans: B ______________.
4819 When compared to other fire extinguishing agents, water fog 4820 The quality of initial stability is indicated by __________. A. used at the earliest opportunity A. 20 seconds
_____________. B. hydrotested B. 30 seconds
A. has the greatest ability to produce foam A. GM C. recharged C. 40 seconds
B. has the greatest cooling ability B. KM D. weighed again in one month D. 60 seconds
C. will completely remove toxic fumes from the air C. Deck load C
Ans: A
Ans:
D. will completely remove combustible vapors from the air D. Maximum allowed KG 4839 A CO2 fire extinguisher must be weighed ____________. 4840 A compound fracture is a fracture _____________.
Ans: B Ans: A A. monthly A. in which more than one bone is broken
4821 An initial attempt to extinguish a galley grease fire may be made by 4822 Which of the following is the correct procedure to follow when B. quarterly B. in which the same bone is broken in more than one place
using ____________. launching an inflatable liferaft by hand from an ocean going vessel? C. semiannually C. which is accompanied by internal bleeding
D. annually D. which causes external bleeding at the site of the fracture
A. water A. Connect the stainless steel link (float free link) to the vessel. Ans: D Ans: D
B. a mechanical foam system B. Pull the line (painter) from the container and make it fast to the cleat 4841 Which of the listed of fractures would be considered as the most 4842 Which of the following statements concerning chemical foam is true?
provided. serious?
C. the range hood extinguishing system C. Open the canopy relief valves. A. Compound A. It is formed as a result of the reaction between dry powder and
D. fire dampers only D. Remove the raft from the container to permit complete inflation. water.
B. Greenstick B. It is recommended for use on fires in main propulsion electric
Ans: C Ans: B motors.
4823 The wooden plug fitted tightly in the vent of a damaged tank may 4824 The angle to which a floating vessel, with a negative initial C. Closed C. It is formed as a result of the rapid mixing of foam liquid, water, and
prevent the tank from _____________. metacentric height, lies while at rest in still water is the angle of air.
__________. D. Crack D. It is useful in fighting only chemical fires.
A. filling completely A. trim Ans: A Ans: A
B. developing free surfaces B. yaw 4843 When positive stability exists, "GZ" represents the _______. 4844 In a fixed CO2 system, the "pilot" cylinders are used to
C. developing free surface moments C. heel ____________.
D. collapsing D. loll A. righting moment A. direct CO2 to the pilot house
Ans: A Ans: D
 Page 267 Page 268

B. center of gravity B. activate individual groups of CO2 bottles in a predetermined time A. The agent cannot be used in conjunction with dry chemicals. A. natural roll period
delay sequence B. AFFF can only be produced from fresh water. B. metacentric height
C. righting arm C. activate the main bank all at once C. Because AFFF works through surface tension, it cannot be broken C. waterplane area
D. metacentric height D. automatically activate the main bank if an abnormal heat rise is up if it is agitated.
detected D. AFFF controls the vaporization of flammable liquids by means of a D. uncorrected height of the center of gravity
Ans: C Ans: C water film.
4845 To keep injured survivors warm in the water after abandoning a ship, 4846 If you have to jump into the water when abandoning a ship, your legs Ans: D Ans: A
they should _____________. should be ____________. 4865 The minimum concentration of hydrogen sulfide that can result in 4866 While you are fighting a fire in a smoke-filled compartment one of
A. be placed in the middle of a small circle formed by the other A. spread apart as far as possible death if a person is exposed for even an instant is _____________. your shipmates falls sustaining a severe laceration and ceases
survivors in the water breathing. Your FIRST response should be to __________.
B. float on their backs with their arms extended for maximum exposure B. held as tightly against your chest as possible
to the air A. 200 ppm A. remove him from the compartment
C. remove their lifejackets and hold on to the uninjured survivors C. in a kneeling position B. 400 ppm B. begin artificial respiration
C. 600 ppm C. control the bleeding
D. sip seawater at intervals of fifteen minutes D. extended straight down and crossed at the ankles D. 1000 ppm D. treat for shock
Ans: A Ans: D Ans: D Ans: A
4847 When discharging the main bank of fixed CO2 into a major engine 4848 When should the emergency position-indicating radio beacon be 4867 Which of the following is a mandatory section of the shipboard oil 4868 The lethal concentration of hydrogen sulfide that will result in death
room fire, CO2 pressure is used to _____________. activated after abandoning a ship? pollution emergency plan? with short-term exposure is a minimum of _____________.
A. discharge each bottle A. Immediately
B. sound the general alarm B. After on hour A. reporting requirements A. 100 ppm
C. secure the ventilation fan dampers C. Only when another vessel is in sight B. removal equipment list B. 200 ppm
D. All of the above. D. Only after sunset C. plan exercises C. 400 ppm
Ans: A Ans: A D. list of individuals required to respond D. 700 ppm
4849 Flooding of any compartment in a ship, resulting in a serious loss of 4850 Which of the equipment listed is required to be included in the Ans: A Ans: D
reserve buoyancy, will always _____________. fireman's (emergency) outfit? 4869 Which of the following is NOT required to be provided as part of the 4870 Which of the listed fixed fire extinguishing systems is most effective
A. increase ship stability A. Chemical protection face shield appendixes of the Shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan? for use in the cargo holds?
B. reduce ship stability B. Approved work vest
C. cause a serious permanent list C. Self-contained breathing apparatus A. a list of agencies or officials of Coastal State administrations A. Sprinkler
D. decrease the heeling moment D. 5 cell approved flashlight responsible for receiving and processing incident reports
Ans: B Ans: C
4851 Smoking in bed on a ship is prohibited _______________. 4852 The order to abandon a ship should only be given by the B. a list of agencies or officials in regularly visited ports. B. Chemical foam
___________. C. a list which specifies who will be responsible for informing the parties C. Dry chemical
A. at all times A. Chief Officer listed and the priority in which they must be notified.
B. during evening hours B. Chief engineer
C. unless another person is present C. Master D. a list of personnel duty assignments D. CO2
D. during drilling operations D. Head office Ans: D Ans: D
A
Ans: Ans: C 4871 Individuals who have consumed alcohol within 24 hours of exposure 4872 A man has suffered a burn on his arm characterized by reddening of
4853 When the height of metacenter is greater than the height of the 4854 If you wear extra clothing when entering the water after abandoning to H2S can tolerate ___________. the skin, blistering, and swelling. This is an example of what kind of
center of gravity, a vessel has what type of stability? a ship it will ____________. burn?
A. Positive. A. weigh you down A. unusually large concentrations of H2S A. Major burn
B. Neutral. B. preserve body heat B. smaller than normal concentrations of H2S B. Third degree burn
C. Unstable. C. reduce your body heat C. moderate concentrations of H2S without the usual reactions C. Second degree burn
D. Negative. D. make it more difficult to breathe D. longer exposure to H2S concentrations D. Blister burn
Ans: A Ans: B B
Ans: C
Ans:
4855 The lowest temperature at which the vapor formed from a liquid 4856 Fire and lifeboat stations are required to be listed on the 4873 Which of the devices listed below is designed to prevent flames from 4874 Part of the required equipment for a lifeboat includes
ignites and continues to burn steadily in the presence of an ignition _____________. entering through fuel tank vents? _____________.
source is called the ___________. A. Safety cap A. a boathook
A. flash point A. ship's articles B. Flame screen B. life preservers
B. fire point B. bunk card C. Spark arrester C. a sea painter
C. upper explosive limit C. forecastle card D. Flame inhibitor D. all of the above
D. lower explosive limit D. muster list Ans: B Ans: D
B
Ans: D
Ans: 4875 Which of the following operations aboard a tanker must be recorded 4876 An explosive mixture containing air with a maximum concentration
4857 When using mechanical foam to fight a bilge fire, the stream of foam 4858 Reducing the free surface of a liquid within a tank has the effect of in the Oil Record Book on a tank-to-tank basis according to of vapor, is capable of ignition when it is at the ____________.
is most effective when directed _________. lowering the _______________. MARPOL Regulations?
A. at the overhead A. uncorrected "KG" A. Any internal transfer of oil cargo during a voyage. A. flammable range
B. at a vertical surface B. virtual height of the center of gravity B. The discharge overboard in port or at sea of any bilge water B. rich point limit
C. onto the deck C. metacenter accumulated in machinery spaces.
D. directly into the bilge water D. metacentric height C. The loading or unloading of any or all oil cargo. C. autoignition point
Ans: B Ans: B D. All of the above. D. upper explosive limit
4859 The sense of smell cannot be depended upon to detect hydrogen 4860 Which of the following is NOT a mandatory requirement part of the Ans: D Ans: A
sulfide because _______________. shipboard oil pollution emergency plan? 4877 After transferring a weight forward on a vessel, the draft at the 4878 The Oil Record Book must be maintained onboard the vessel for
A. it has a smell similar to petroleum products A. reporting requirments center of flotation will ____________. ______________.
B. the gas is odorless in any concentration B. diagrams A. change, depending on the location of the LCG A. not less than 3 years and be readily available for inspection
C. of paralysis to the olfactory nerves C. steps to control a discharge B. increase B. 6 months and then submitted to the nearest Marine Safety Office for
D. it is better to rely on eye irritation as a detector D. national and local coordination review
Ans: C Ans: B C. decrease C. an annual inspection
4861 The effects of free surface on initial stability depend upon the 4862 When the wave period and the apparent rolling period of the ship are D. remain the constant D. the duration of the ship's active employment
surface area dimensions of the free liquids andthe __________. the same, __________. Ans: D Ans: A
4879 According to Regulations , a bulkhead capable of preventing the 4880 The average of the observed drafts is known as ____________.
A. volume of liquid in the tank A. synchronous rolling occurs passage of smoke and flame for one hour would be classified as
B. volume of displacement of the ship B. the roll period decreases a/an ____________.
C. location of the tank in the ship C. the roll period increases A. A-60 A. mean draft
D. height of the center of gravity of the ship D. the roll amplitude is dampened B. B-60 B. true mean draft
Ans: B Ans: A C. C-60 C. mean of the calculated drafts
4863 Which of the following statements is true concerningAqueous Film 4864 Reducing the free surfaces within a vessel, reduces the D. D-60 D. draft at the center of flotation
Forming Foam (AFFF)? ____________. Ans: A Ans: A
 Page 269 Page 270

4881 For small first degree burns the quickest method to relieve pain is to 4882 When flooding occurs in a damaged vessel, reserve buoyancy C. wrap the burn with sterile dressing C. Halon extinguishes the fire by smothering.
__________. ______________. D. apply an ice pack to the burned area D. The agent can not be used on electrical fires as it leaves a residue.
A. immerse the burn in cold water A. decreases
B. administer aspirin B. remains the same Ans: B Ans: B
C. apply petroleum jelly C. increases 4901 A fire in a fuel oil settling tank is a ____________. 4902 If fuel oil is burned from the port side tanks alone, the ship will
D. apply a bandage to exclude air D. shifts to the low side _____________.
Ans: A Ans: A A. Class A fire A. go down by the head
4883 An inflatable liferaft should be lifted back aboard the ship by using 4884 A victim has suffered a second degree burn to a small area of the B. Class B fire B. list to starboard
____________. lower arm. Which of the following statements represents the proper C. Class C fire C. trim by the stern
treatment for this injury? D. Class D fire D. list to port
A. the single hook at the top of the raft A. Immerse the arm in cold water for 1 to 2 hours, apply burn ointment, Ans: B Ans: B
and bandage. 4903 Each distress signal and self-activated smoke signal must be 4904 If a line shaft bearing begins to overheat the shaft speed should be
B. two lines passed under the raft B. Open any blisters with a sterile needle, apply burn ointment, and replaced not later than the marked date of expiration, or from the reduced. If overheating persists, you should then _____________.
bandage. date of manufacture, not later than ___________.
C. the towing bridle C. Apply burn ointment, remove any foreign material, and insure that A. 12 months A. increase lube oil pressure to the bearing
nothing is in contact with the burn. B. 24 months B. decrease lube oil pressure to the bearing
D. all of the above D. Immerse the arm in cold water for 1 to 2 hours, open any blister, and C. 36 months C. apply emergency cooling water externally to the bearing
apply burn ointment. D. 42 months D. flood the bearing with a higher viscosity oil to provide emergency
Ans: C Ans: A lubrication and cooling
4885 On a ship, how many ring buoys are required to have a buoyant line 4886 Spontaneous combustion is most likely to occur in _________. Ans: B Ans: C
attached? 4905 Which of the following would be considered a Class "B" fire? 4906 Convection spreads a fire as a result of ____________.
A. One ring life buoy. A. rags soaked in linseed oil A. Electrical fire in a motor A. transmitting the heat of a fire through the ship's metal
B. One ring life buoy on each side of the MODU. B. overloaded electrical circuits B. Waste rag fire in the engine room B. burning liquids flowing into another space
C. Three ring life buoys. C. dirty swabs and cleaning gear C. Oil fire in the engine room bilges C. heated gases flowing through ventilation systems
D. Two ring life buoys on each side of the MODU. D. partially loaded fuel tanks D. Fire in the main switchboard D. the transfer of heat across an unobstructed space
Ans: B A
Ans: Ans: C Ans: C
4887 The spread of fire can be prevented by ____________. 4888 A branch line valve of a fixed fire extinguishing system on a ship 4907 If a person is unconscious as a result of an electric shock, you 4908 Fire fighting agents, such as Halon and Purple K, suppress the fire
must be marked with the ____________. should first remove the victim from the electrical source and then by ______________.
A. cooling surfaces adjacent to the fire A. maximum pressure allowed at that branch ____________.
B. removing combustibles from the endangered area B. name of the space or spaces which it serves A. administer ammonia smelling salts A. dissipating heat
C. shutting off the oxygen supply C. date of the last maintenance inspection B. check for serious burns on the body B. breaking the chain reaction
D. all of the above D. pressure needed to maintain an effective stream at that point C. determine if he/she is breathing C. removing the fuel
D
Ans: Ans: B D. massage vigorously to restore circulation D. all of the above
4889 In the absence of external forces, adding weight to one side of a 4890 Each completed page of the Oil Record Book must be signed by the Ans: C Ans: B
floating vessel, will cause the vessel to ____________. ____________. 4909 The master or person-in-charge of a MODU is required to submit a 4910 Which of the following substances is to be considered as fuel for a
A. heel until the angle of loll is reached A. engineer on watch casualty report of an intentional grounding when ______________. class "B" fire?
B. list until the center of buoyancy is aligned vertically with the center of B. Chief Engineer
gravity A. it creates a hazard to the vessel A. Wood
C. trim to the side opposite TCG until all moments are equal C. Chief Mate B. it will last longer than 24 hours B. Rags
D. decrease draft at the center of flotation D. Master C. it will last longer than 48 hours C. Electrical insulation
Ans: B Ans: D D. it occurs in international waters D. Fuel oil
4891 Each emergency light on a ship must be marked with ________. 4892 In treating a person for extensive first or second degree thermal Ans: A Ans: D
burns it is important to prevent or reduce _____________. 4911 Which of the listed precautions should be taken when testing a line 4912 You are in a survival craft boadcasting a distress message. What
throwing gun? information would be essential to your rescuers?
A. the letter "E" A. disfigurement A. Never remove the line from the rocket. A. The nature of the distress.
B. an arrow pointing to the nearest exit B. infection B. Fire it at an angle of approximately 90 degrees to the horizon. B. The time of day.
C. a no smoking symbol C. pain
D. the word "DANGER" D. asphyxia C. Wear asbestos gloves. C. Your radio call sign.
Ans: A Ans: C D. All of the above. D. Your position by latitude and longitude.
4893 With no environmental forces acting on the vessel, the center of 4894 For each passenger vessel, the minimum number of immersion suits Ans: A Ans: D
gravity of an inclined vessel is vertically aligned with the to be carried for each lifeboat is at least ____________. 4913 Who is charged with appointing persons to be in command of the 4914 A self-righting survival craft will return to an upright position provided
______________. lifeboats and/or liferafts on a mobile offshore drilling units? that all personnel ____________.
A. longitudinal centerline A. 1
B. center of flotation B. 2 A. Rig superintendent A. are seated with seatbelts on and doors shut
C. original vertical centerline C. 3 B. Toolpusher B. are seated with seatbelts on and doors open
D. metacenter D. 4 C. Company man C. are to shift to one side to right it
Ans: C Ans: C D. Designated person-in-charge D. escape from the craft
4895 With no environmental forces present, the center of gravity of an 4896 How are line shaft bearings usually lubricated? Ans: D Ans: A
inclined vessel is vertically aligned with the ____________. 4915 When abandoning a ship, following the launching of the survival 4916 When the scuppers are plugged and an oil spill occurs on deck, you
craft you should _____________. should _____________.
A. longitudinal centerline A. Gravity feed A. plot a course for the nearest land A. remove scuppers and wash fuel overboard with water
B. center of flotation B. Pressure feed B. take a vote on which direction you should go B. use absorbent material, such as sawdust, to clean up the spill
C. original vertical centerline C. Oil lubricating disks
D. center of buoyancy D. Oil lubricating rings C. stay in the immediate area C. remove scuppers to allow the spill to run overboard and wipe the
Ans: C Ans: D area dry with rags
4897 Halon 1301 enters the fire area as a _____________. 4898 If the metacentric height is large, a floating vessel will D. go one direction until fuel runs out D. remove scuppers and wash the fuel overboard with a solvent
______________.
A. powder A. be tender Ans: C Ans: B
B. gas B. have a slow and easy motion 4917 If help has not arrived in 10-12 hours after having abandoned a 4918 Treatment of heat exhaustion should consist of ____________.
C. pellet C. be stiff ship in a survival craft, you should __________.
D. glassy slag D. have a tendency to yaw
Ans: B Ans: C A. go in one direction until the fuel runs out A. moving to a shaded area and laying down
4899 The most effective first aid treatment for chemical burns is to 4900 Which of the following statements is true concerning the Halon 1301 B. plot course for the nearest land B. bathing with rubbing alcohol
immediately ____________. fire extinguishing agent? C. take a vote on which direction you should go C. placing patient in a tub of cold water
A. apply ointment to burned area A. The agent is highly toxic at normal room temperature. D. shutdown the engines and set the sea anchor D. All the above
B. flood the affected area with water B. The agent by weight is more effective than CO2. Ans: D Ans: A
 Page 271 Page 272

4919 In a typical automatic fire alarm system, all zone circuits are always 4920 Properly stowed fire hose is either faked or rolled into a rack with the A. a nuclear environment A. diesel oil
connected ____________. _____________. B. a fire and toxic environment B. magnesium
A. in parallel A. male and female ends connected together to prevent damage C. a hurricane C. dunnage
B. in series B. female end available to be quickly connected to the hydrant D. a drop greater than ten feet D. electrical insulation
C. to the detecting cabinet C. male end attached to the adjacent fire hydrant Ans: B Ans: D
D. to the trouble alarm supervising resistor D. nozzle end arranged to be easily run out to the fire 4939 Treatment of frostbite is to _________. 4940 When using a dry chemical fire extinguisher to fight a fuel oil fire, you
C
Ans: D
Ans: should ___________.
4921 In the event of a small bunker oil spill on deck occurring while 4922 The source of power for the CO2 alarm is obtained from A. rub with ice or snow A. attack the fire from the leeward side
fueling, you should _____________. ___________. B. rub briskly to restore circulation B. direct the chemical discharge into the center of the burning fuel
A. wash down the area immediately with a fire hose A. the emergency power and lighting bus surface
B. wash down the area with kerosene B. the general alarm 24 volt DC bus C. wrap tightly in warm cloths C. sweep the chemical discharge back and forth across the burning
C. cover the area with absorbent material C. the flow of CO2 under pressure fuel surface
D. cover the area with foam D. all of the above D. warm exposed parts rapidly D. invert the dry chemical extinguisher before starting to fight the fire
Ans: C Ans: C
4923 An "on-load" release system on a survival craft means the cable can 4924 Small oil spills on deck can be prevented from contaminating any Ans: D Ans: C
be released ______________. waters by _____________. 4941 On a cargo vessel, fire and boat drills must be held within24 hours of 4942 The most likely location for a liquid cargo fire to occur on a tanker
A. only when the load is taken off the cable A. plugging all scuppers and drains leaving port if the percentage of the crew replaced is more than would be ____________.
B. only there is a load on the cable B. placing floating booms around the ship ____________.
C. only when activated by the controls at the lowering station C. regularly emptying all drip pans A. 0.05 A. in the midships house
D. at any time D. thoroughly draining all bunkering hoses B. 0.1 B. at the main deck manifold
Ans: D Ans: A C. 0.25 C. at the vent header
4925 Treatment of sunstroke consists principally of ____________. 4926 In a cartridge-operated dry chemical type fire extinguisher, when the D. 0.4 D. in the pumproom
CO2 cartridge is activated, the dry chemical is released from the Ans: C Ans: D
extinguisher _____________. 4943 When the cotton cover of a fire hose becomes oily or greasy, it 4944 Fusible link fire dampers are operated by ____________.
A. cooling, removing to shaded area and having the victim lay down A. with the squeeze grip trigger on top of the container should be washed with a solution of mild soapy freshwater and
_____________.
B. bathing with rubbing alcohol B. by squeezing the control valve carrying handle A. a soft-bristled brush A. a mechanical arm outside the vent duct
C. drinking ice water C. by turning the activating handle on the bottom of the container B. a holystone B. electrical controls on the bridge
C. a canvas wiper C. the heat of a fire melting the link
D. All of the above D. with the squeeze-grip on/off nozzle at the end of the hose D. cornstarch D. a break-glass and pull-cable system
Ans: A Ans: D A
Ans: Ans: C
4927 Fire hoses located at protected fire stations, must always be 4928 When a helicopter is lifting personnel from a survival craft, the other 4945 When compared to low-expansion foam, a high-expansion foam will 4946 A burning AC motor would be considered what class of fire?
_____________. individuals in the craft should __________. ____________.
A. connected to the fire hydrant A. enter the water in case the person being lifted slips from the sling A. be wetter A. Class "A"
B. be lighter B. Class "B"
B. capped on the ends for protection B. stand on the outside of the craft to assist the person being lifted C. be more heat resistant C. Class "C"
D. not cling to vertical surfaces D. Class "D"
C. supplied with a smooth bore nozzle C. remove their lifejackets to prepare for their transfer to the helicopter Ans: B C
Ans:
4947 The most effective warming treatment for a crew member suffering 4948 When using a dry chemical type fire extinguisher in a windy location,
D. open to the air to prevent rot D. remain seated inside the craft to provide body weight for stability from hypothermia is ____________. you should direct the stream from _____________.
A. running or jumping to create heat A. downwind
Ans: A Ans: D B. lying in the sun B. upwind
4929 Which of the conditions listed is necessary for a substance to burn? 4930 The sprinkler system of a survival craft is used to ____________. C. a warm water bath C. across the wind
D. mouth-to-mouth resuscitation D. directly above
A. The temperature of the substance must be equal to or above its fire A. cool the craft in a fire Ans: C Ans: B
point. 4949 If the threads and gasket of a fire hose coupling are in good 4950 A fire and boat drill on a tank vessel shall, by regulation, include
B. The air must contain oxygen in sufficient quantity. B. cool the engine condition, the minimum mechanical advantage necessary for making ____________.
C. The mixture of vapors with air must be within the "explosive range." C. spray oil on the sea to calm it a watertight connection to another hose coupling, can be developed
with ______________.
D. All of the above. D. spray personnel during a fire A. your hands A. starting the fire pumps
Ans: D Ans: A B. a hose wrench B. bringing all rescue and safety equipment from the emergency
4931 The MAIN objection to the use of a dry chemical fire extinguisher on 4932 The scuppers should be plugged ____________. equipment lockers
an electrical fire is that the __________. C. a monkey wrench C. demonstrations of rescue and safety equipment by designated
A. extinguishing action is not as good as with soda acid A. only if fixed containment is not used persons
B. powder conducts electricity back to the fire fighter B. only if portable containment is not used D. a coupling wrench D. all of the above
C. dry chemical leaves a powder residue which may render electrical C. only if fixed containment drains are open Ans: A Ans: D
equipment inoperative 4951 When compared to a high-expansion foam, a low-expansion foam 4952 Which of the listed classes of fire is considered as one involving
D. extinguisher will need to be recharged D. whenever the vessel is being fueled will ____________. electrical equipment?
Ans: C Ans: D A. be dryer A. Class "A"
4933 Limit switches are located on the survival craft winch systems to 4934 Physical exertion on the part of a person who has fallen into cold B. be lighter B. Class "B"
____________. water can ___________. C. be less heat resistant C. Class "C"
A. stop the winch just before the craft reaches final stowage position A. be the best thing to try if there were no rescue in sight D. not cling to vertical surfaces D. Class "D"
Ans: D Ans: C
B. limit the amount of cable on the drum B. increase survival time in the water 4953 Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning lifejackets? 4954 Fires are grouped into which of the listed categories?
C. limit the ascent rate C. increase the rate of heat loss from the body
D. stop the winch in case the craft weighs too much D. not affect the heat loss from the body A. Buoyant vests may be substituted for lifejackets. A. Class A, B, C, and D
A
Ans: C
Ans: B. Lifejackets are designed to turn an unconscious person's face clear B. Type 1, 2, 3, and 4
4935 All ship's personnel should be familiar with the survival craft 4936 Which of the following statements concerning fire hose couplings is of the water.
__________. true? C. Lifejackets must always be worn with the same side facing C. Combustible solids, liquids, and gases
A. boarding and operating procedures A. Fire hose couplings are strong and not easily damaged. outwards to float properly.
B. maintenance schedule B. Fire hose couplings must be lubricated with oil. D. Lightly stained or faded lifejackets will fail in the water and should D. Flammable solids, liquids, and gases
C. navigational systems C. Fire hose couplings can be easily damaged by dropping. not be used.
D. fuel consumption rates D. Fire hose couplings should be painted red. Ans: B Ans: A
Ans: A Ans: C
4937 With the sprinkler system and air system on, and all hatches shut, 4938 A class "C" fire is burning _____________.
the survival craft will be protected from ___________.
 Page 273 Page 274

4955 Which of the following events shall be conducted during a fire and 4956 If, in a compartment or space, the gas or oxygen content is not B. oil B. the atmosphere contains 50% kerosene vapor by volume in air
boat drill? within permissible concentration, and dangerous gases are either
present, or may be produced by residues, what would be the safety C. electrical equipment C. the sample is below the lower explosive limit
designation listed on a marine chemist's certificate? D. magnesium D. the sample contains approximately 3.0% kerosene vapor by volume

A. All watertight doors which are in use while the vessel is underway A. Safe for Men - Safe for Fire Ans: D Ans: C
shall be operated. 4973 An unconscious person should NOT be _____________. 4974 Why is it essential to introduce CO2 from a fixed fire extinguishing
B. All lifeboat equipment shall be examined. B. Safe for Men - Not Safe for Fire system, into a large engine room, as quickly as possible?
C. Fire pumps shall be started and all exterior outlets opened. C. Not Safe for Men - Safe for Fire
D. All of the above. D. Not Safe for Men - Not Safe for Fire A. placed in a position with the head lower than the body A. The fire may warp the CO2 piping.
Ans: A Ans: D B. given an inhalation stimulant B. To keep the fire from spreading through the bulkheads.
4957 If the liferaft you are in should capsize, all personnel should leave 4958 When using the combustible gas indicator to test a cargo tank, and C. given something to drink C. Updraft from the fire tends to carry the CO2 away.
the raft and ____________. the hydrocarbon content of the atmosphere exceeds the upper D. treated for injuries D. Carbon dioxide takes a long time to disperse to all portions of a
explosive limit (UEL), _____________. space.
A. climb onto the bottom A. the needle will move to zero and stay there Ans: C Ans: C
B. swim away from the raft B. the needle will move to the maximum reading and stay there 4975 When a helicopter is lifting personnel from an enclosed lifeboat, the 4976 Which of the hazards listed is of a primary concern, other than fire
C. right the raft using the righting straps C. the needle will move to the maximum reading and return to zero other individuals in the boat should ____________. damage, associated with a class C fire?
immediately
D. inflate the righting bag D. an audible beeping will be heard A. enter the water in case the person being lifted slips from the sling A. Susceptible to reflash
Ans: C Ans: C
4959 Lifesaving equipment shall be stowed so that it will be 4960 An oil fire would be classified as a _________. B. stand on the outside of the boat to assist the person being lifted B. Electrocution or shock
____________.
A. locked up A. class A C. remove their lifejackets to prepare for their transfer to the helicopter C. Explosion
B. readily accessible for use B. class B
C. inaccessible to passengers C. class C D. remain seated inside to provide body weight for stability D. Deep seated fire
D. on the topmost deck of the vessel at all times D. class D Ans: D Ans: B
Ans: B Ans: B 4977 The reading of a combustible gas indicator indicates the percentage 4978 The fire main system should be flushed with fresh water whenever
4961 A reproductive health hazard, listed on a Material Safety Date Sheet 4962 A compartment is tested and found to contain 20.8% oxygen by of the _____________. possible to _____________.
(MSDS), that can cause genetic changes in sperm or egg cells is volume, permissible concentrations of toxic materials, and A. concentration of flammable gas in a compartment A. help destroy marine growth
called a ___________. concentrations of flammable gas just below the lower flammable B. lower explosive limit of a flammable gas concentration B. identify loose pipe joints
limit. If the residues are not capable of producing toxic materials or C. upper explosive limit of a flammable gas concentration C. prevent corrosion of valve stems
D. concentration by weight of nonflammable gas in a compartment D. eliminate cracking of fire hose linings
A. cyrogenic A. Safe for men - Safe for Fire
B. carcinogen B. Safe for men - Not Safe for Fire Ans: B Ans: A
C. teratogen C. Not safe for men - Safe for Fire 4979 One of the disadvantages of using carbon dioxide to extinguish a 4980 Inflatable liferafts are provided with ____________.
D. mutagen D. Not safe for men - Not Safe for Fire fire in an enclosed space is _____________.
Ans: D Ans: B A. the "snow" which is sometimes discharged along with the gas is A. a portable radio
4963 The flammable limits of benzene are 1.4% to 8.0% by volume in air. 4964 After the lifeboat has reached the top of the davit heads, the davit toxic
If a reading of 50% of the lower explosive limit isobtained, using the arms begin moving up the tracks until the movement is stopped by B. prolonged exposure to high concentrations of CO2 gas causes B. an oil lantern
meter shown in the illustration, thevapor concentration at the sample the ____________. suffocation
point is __________. C. rapid dissipation of the CO2 vapor C. canned milk
A. 3.3% by volume A. hoist man D. the CO2 gas is lighter than air and a large amount is required to D. a towing bridle
B. in the flammable range B. limit switch extinguish a fire near the deck
C. too rich to burn C. brake handle Ans: B Ans: D
D. too lean to burn D. preventer bar 4981 A good approach to personnel safety is to assume that all tanks and 4982 In reviving a person who has been overcome by gas fumes, which of
D
Ans: Ans: B pumprooms are potentially dangerous. You should immediately the following treatments would you AVOID using?
4965 Which of the following procedures is NOT recommended when it is 4966 If ignited, which of the listed materials would be a class "B" fire? leave an area whenever _______________.
necessary to swim through an oil fire? A. you have irritation of the eyes, nose, or throat A. Giving stimulants
A. Wear as much clothing as possible. A. Magnesium B. you smell an unusual odor B. Prompt removal of the patient from the suffocating atmosphere
B. Enter the water feet first and legs together. B. Paper
C. Swim in the same direction as the wind is blowing. C. Wood C. you experience an abnormal bodily sensation C. Determine the need for, and administer CPR if appropriate
D. Cover your eyes with one hand when entering the water. D. Diesel Oil D. any of the above conditions occur D. Keeping him warm and comfortable
Ans: C Ans: D Ans: D Ans: A
4967 The function of the lifeboat davit limit switch is to ____________. 4968 To determine whether or not an adult victim has a pulse, the rescuer 4983 When testing the atmosphere of a compartment with a combustible 4984 Lower level fire main stations in the engine room should undergo
should check for the pulse at the ___________. gas indicator, the operator must remember that _____________. regular routine maintenance, including ____________.
A. control the descent rate of a lifeboat A. carotid artery in the neck
B. control the ascent rate of a lifeboat B. femoral artery in the groin A. most petroleum vapors are lighter than air and accumulate around A. operating the self-cleaning strainers once a day
C. cut off power to the winch when the lifeboat nears the final stowed C. brachial artery in the arm deck longitudinals
position B. the indicator guarantees a safe atmosphere for a maximum of two B. flushing out the hydrants with full fire main pressure
D. cut off power to the winch when the lifeboat reaches the davit D. radial artery in the wrist hours
bumpers C. the meter scale indicates only the upper explosive range C. repacking valve stems at three month intervals
Ans: C Ans: A D. the indicator tests only the atmosphere at the end of the suction tube D. a weekly replacement of fire hose fittings
4969 Provided every effort is used to produce, as well as preserve body 4970 You will find a limit switch on a ____________.
moisture content by avoiding perspiration, how long is it normally Ans: D Ans: B
possible to survive without stored quantities of water? 4985 When any fire has been extinguished with carbon dioxide, there is 4986 A safety feature provided on all inflatable liferafts is ____________.
always the danger of the _____________.
A. Up to 3 days A. liferaft cradle A. fire being reignited by residual heat A. overhead safety straps
B. 8 to 14 days B. radial davit B. machinery suffering thermal shock damage B. built in seats
C. 15 to 20 days C. sheath-screw davit C. dry ice crystals clogging the machinery C. internal releasing hooks
D. 25 to 30 days D. gravity davit D. atmosphere containing a dangerous charge of static electricity D. the use of water stabilizing pockets
Ans: B Ans: D
4971 A class "D" fire would be considered as burning __________. 4972 The flammable limits of kerosene is 0.7% to 6.0% by volume in air. If Ans: A Ans: D
a tank having contained kerosene is tested with the combustible gas 4987 When operating gravity davits, ____________. 4988 Which of the following can result in an oxygen deficiency in a closed
indicator, shown in the illustration, and a reading of 50% is obtained, space?
this means _____________. A. the gripes should be released after the boat is moving A. Rusting
A. wood A. insufficient oxygen exists in the space to support life
 Page 275 Page 276

B. the davits should always be hand cranked the last 12 inches into the B. Cargo residue 5003 In cleaning up an oil spill, the use of chemical agents would 5004 If fuel is burned from only the starboard tanks, the ship will
final stowed position ____________. _____________.
C. the boats are generally lowered by surging the falls around cruciform C. Fuel oil residue A. absorb the oil for easy removal A. go down by the head
bits B. remove the oil from the water B. list to starboard
D. the tricing pendant should be tripped prior to releasing the gripes D. All of the above C. disperse or dissolve the oil in the water C. trim by the stern
D. not affect the oil D. list to port
Ans: B Ans: D C
Ans: Ans: D
4989 Combustible gas indicators are used to detect flammable gases or 4990 Which of the following conditions would be true if a serious leak 5005 A raft should be manually released from its cradle by 5006 A fire in a pile of canvas would be classified as a ______.
vapors in the atmosphere. As a safety feature, they are equipped developed in the main line of a horizontal, looped, fire main system? ____________.
with _____________. A. cutting the straps that enclose the container A. class A
A. an audible signaling devices A. It would not be possible to provide water beyond the point where the B. removing the rubber sealing strip from the container B. class B
break occurred. C. loosening the turnbuckle on the securing strap C. class C
B. an inflatable bag B. The ruptured section could be isolated allowing water to be delivered D. pushing the button on the hydrostatic release D. class D
to all other parts of the system. Ans: D Ans: A
C. a pressure relieving devices C. The capability of the system would be greatly reduced due to the 5007 Which of the following best defines First Aid? 5008 Which of the following terms is the minimum temperature at which a
drop in line pressure but still remain operational through the use of liquid, as listed on a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS), gives off
the alternate loop. sufficient vapor concentration to ignite in the presence of an ignition
D. flame arrestors D. Full fire main pressure could be maintained but only on one side of source?
the vessel through the use of either the fore or aft isolation valve. A. Medical treatment of internal injuries A. Explosion point
B. Setting of broken bones and transport of victim B. Flash point
Ans: D Ans: B C. Emergency treatment of the injury at the scene. C. Fire point
4991 If you continue to wear extra clothing when entering the water after 4992 The operating cord on an inflatable liferaft also serves as a D. Dosage of medications and application of bandages D. Danger point
abandoning your vessel, it will ____________. ____________. Ans: C Ans: B
A. weigh you down A. lifeline 5009 While at your lifeboat station, a signal consisting of two short blasts 5010 Which of the following statements concerning immersion suits is
B. preserve body heat B. painter of the ship's whistle is sounded. This indicates _______. FALSE?
C. reduce your body heat C. drogue
D. make it more difficult to breathe D. marker A. abandon ship A. They should be worn while working on deck if the possibility exists of
Ans: B Ans: B being washed overboard.
4993 The purpose of the wire stretched between the lifeboat davit heads 4994 A tank has been sealed and unventilated for a long period of time. B. commence lowering boats B. The suit is received from the manufacturer in a bag intended to be
is to ____________. Which of the following conditions does this indicate? used for storage of the suit onboard ship.
A. keep the movement of the davits at the same speed A. The tank is safe to enter. C. stop lowering boats C. During the annual inspection and maintenance, the zipper should be
B. keep the davits from slipping when they are in the stowed position B. The tank is especially dangerous to enter. lubricated with beeswax or paraffin.
D. secure from boat stations D. A small leak of water into the suit will destroy the protective qualities
C. prevent vibration during lowering of the boat C. Carbon monoxide is present. against hypothermia.
D. support the manropes D. Water vapor present when the tank was sealed has oxidized. Ans: C Ans: D
5011 To launch a liferaft by hand, you should ____________. 5012 A fire involving trash and paper waste would be classified as a
Ans: D Ans: B _______.
4995 The most common type of containment device for spilled oil on the 4996 Which of the following signals is used to report for boat stations or A. cut the casing bands, throw the liferaft over the side and it will then A. class A
water is the use of ____________. boat drill? inflate
A. straw A. More than six short blasts followed by one long blast of the whistle. B. detach the operating cord, throw the raft over the side and it will then B. class B
inflate
B. booms B. A continuous blast of the whistle for a period of not less than 10 C. cut the casing bands, throw the raft over the side and pull the C. class C
seconds. operating cord
C. skimmers C. One long blast followed by three short blasts of the whistle. D. throw the liferaft over the side and pull the operating cord D. class D
D. chemical dispersants D. Three short blasts of the whistle. Ans: D Ans: A
Ans: B Ans: A 5013 A liquid, as listed on a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) having a 5014 If an emergency pump control is used as the emergency shutdown
4997 Combustible gas indicators detect flammable gases, or vapors 4998 How may a cargo tank atmosphere be tested for explosive gases? flash point at or above 100‚F is called a/an ____________. on a tank vessel, it must stop the flow of oil through __________.
present in the atmosphere by an intricate system which includes
____________. A. explosive liquid A. the main deck manifold
A. burning the vapors A. Use the open flame test on a small sample that has been taken B. combustible liquid B. the facility
from the tank. C. flammable liquid C. the pump
B. metering the vapors B. Send a gas sample ashore for laboratory analysis. D. viscous liquid D. a means that is not dependant on electrical power
C. measuring the vapor volume C. Enter the tank with a teledyne oxygen analyzer. Ans: B Ans: C
D. weighing the vapor D. Use an explosimeter. 5015 When should distress flares and rockets be used? 5016 Physical data on a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) which
A
Ans: Ans: D describes chemicals that produce health effects requiring medical
4999 Before you initiate the engine room fixed CO2 system to extinguish 5000 After having thrown the liferaft and stowage container into the water, attention where damage may be permanent but is neither life-
a serious fire, you would _____________. the liferaft is inflated by ____________. threatening nor seriously disabling, is called ________.
A. start the emergency diesel A. pulling on the painter line
B. stop the main engine B. forcing open the container which operates the CO2 A. Only when there is a chance of them being sighted by rescue A. moderate exposure level
C. evacuate all engine room personnel C. hitting the hydrostatic release vessels.
D. turn off electrical power D. using the hand pump provided B. They should be set off at half-hour intervals. B. high toxicity
Ans: C Ans: A C. They should be set off at one-hour intervals. C. high exposure level
5001 Which of the following statements concerning immersion suits is 5002 Persons who have swallowed a non-petroleum based poison are D. Immediately upon abandoning the vessel. D. moderate toxicity
correct? given large quantities of warm, soapy water or warm salt water to Ans: A Ans: D
____________. 5017 Burning wood is considered to be which of the listed classes of fire? 5018 A specific document identifies a chemical, listing its physical
A. All models will automatically turn an unconscious person face-up in A. induce vomiting properties, health hazards, required controls, firefighting
the water. procedures, clean up methods, waste disposal, and the safe
B. The immersion suit seals in all body heat and provides protection B. absorb the poison from the blood handling and storage requirements. This document is a
against hypothermia for weeks. ____________.
C. The suit will still be serviceable after a brief (2-6 seconds) exposure C. neutralize the poison in the blood A. Class A A. Hazardous Chemical Information Sheet
to flame and burning. B. Class B B. Physical/Chemical Characteristics Document
D. The wearer of the suit is no way restricted in body movement and D. increase the digestive process and eliminate the poison C. Class C C. Material Safety Data Sheet
the suit may be donned well in advance of abandoning ship. D. Class D D. Hazardous Chemical Loading Document
Ans: A Ans: C
Ans: C Ans: A
 Page 277 Page 278

5019 Epilepsy is a chronic nervous disorder characterized by 5020 Which of the following statements describes the correct method to A. give patient a laxative to relieve pain A. that concentration above which there is just enough flammable
______________. use when applying CO2 from a portable fire extinguisher? vapor to produce an explosion
B. give patient morphine sulfate to relieve pain B. that concentration above which the mixture is too rich to burn
A. severe nausea and cramps A. Bounce the CO2 off the bulkhead. C. evacuate patient to a hospital C. the percentage of flammable vapor by volume in air sufficient to
B. muscular convulsions with partial or complete loss of consciousness B. Apply CO2 to the base of the flames in a sweeping motion. create an explosion
D. give patient aspirin with a glass of water D. the percentage of oxygen present in the air sufficient to support
C. sudden thirst and craving for candy C. Apply the CO2 to the center of the flames with a beating motion. combustion
Ans: C Ans: B
D. severe agitation and desire to get out of close spaces D. Direct the CO2 in as near a vertical upward direction as possible. 5037 Your vessel is equipped with totally enclosed lifeboats. Which of the 5038 Victual waste is __________.
following statements is correct should the boat be enveloped in
Ans: B Ans: B flames?
5021 When using a handheld smoke signal in a lifeboat, you should 5022 A chemical material, as listed on a Material Safety Data Sheet A. The ventilators will automatically close by the action of fusible links. A. the final discharge of sewage treatment plants
____________. (MSDS) that supplies oxygen required to start or support fire is
called a/an ____________. B. The diesel engine will take its air supply from outside the lifeboat to B. any garbage that comes from food or food provisions
A. activate the signal on the downwind side A. irritant prevent asphyxiation of the crew.
B. activate the signal on the upwind side B. polymerization hazard C. A water spay system to cool the outside of the boat is operated by a C. the resultant sludge that is collected after waterwashing a boiler
C. activate the signal inside the boat C. oxidizer high-volume manual pump.
D. activate the signal at the stern D. toxin D. A pressurized air tank will provide approximately ten minutes of air D. the final waste product of a manufacturing process
Ans: A Ans: C for the survivors and the diesel engine.
5023 As a vessel sinks to a depth of 5 metres, the hydrostatic trip 5024 Which of the statements listed is accurate concerning fires involving Ans: D Ans: B
releases the liferaft container from its cradle by ____________. carbon tetrachloride? 5039 Most totally enclosed lifeboats are equipped with _________. 5040 According to Regulations , which of the following statements is
accurate concerning the discharge of garbage?
A. breaking the weak link A. It will explode if exposed to a flame. A. tanks for the storage of drinking water A. The discharge of plastic or garbage mixed with plastic into any
B. releasing the tie-down strap B. Phosgene gas may be formed if it comes in contact with hot metal. waters is permitted.
B. ballast tanks to prevent the boat from capsizing B. The discharge of dunnage, lining, and packing materials that do not
C. pulling the operating cord C. It will burn rapidly once ignited. float is prohibited within 25 nautical miles of the nearest land.
D. releasing the CO2 canister D. You cannot use water to fight the fire because it will react with the
carbon tetrachloride. C. buoyant oars and paddles C. The discharge of all garbage is prohibited in the navigable inland
Ans: B Ans: B waters and in all other waters within three nautical miles of the
5025 Prior to lowering the lifeboat, the most important item to check is the 5026 While providing assistance to a victim of an epileptic seizure, it is nearest land.
____________. most important to ____________. D. auxiliary mechanical propulsion (Fleming gear) D. All of the above are correct.
A. oars A. move a patient to a comfortable bed Ans: C Ans: C
B. sail B. get professional medical advice for further medical care 5041 Which of the devices listed will prevent an inflated liferaft from being 5042 If you detect oil in the water around your vessel while discharging
C. boat plug C. keep the patient awake and make him walk if necessary to keep him pulled under by a vessel which sinks in water over 35mtr deep? fuel, the FIRST thing to do is ____________.
awake
D. life preservers D. remove any soiled clothing and put the patient in a clean bed A. The hydrostatic release A. try to find out where the oil is coming from
Ans: C Ans: B B. A shear pin B. call the Master
5027 A combustible gas indicator is used to determine __________. 5028 Which of the following visual distress signals is acceptable for C. A rottmer release C. have the pumpman check the discharge piping
daylight use only? D. A weak link in the painter D. shutdown operations
A. if there is sufficient oxygen to support life A. Handheld red flare Ans: D Ans: D
B. the toxicity of flammable gases or vapors B. Self-contained rocket propelled parachute red flare 5043 Except in rare cases, it is impossible to extinguish a shipboard fire 5044 A patient suffering from heat exhaustion should first be
C. the amount of CO2 present in flue gas C. Orange smoke signal by __________. ______________.
D. the presence of flammable gases or vapors in the air D. Red aerial pyrotechnic flare A. removing the fuel A. placed in a sitting position with the head lowered to the knees
Ans: D Ans: C B. removing the heat B. kept standing and encouraged to walk slowly and continuously
5029 Your vessel is taking on fuel oil when a small leak develops in the 5030 What is the purpose of the liferaft hydrostatic release?
hose and you have ordered the pumping stopped. Before resuming C. interrupting the chain reaction C. given a glass of water and told to return to work after 15 minutes of
pumping you should ____________. rest
A. notify the terminal superintendent A. To release raft from the cradle automatically as the ship sinks D. removing the oxygen D. directed to move to a cool space unassisted
B. place a large drip pan under the leak and plug the scuppers B. To inflate the raft automatically Ans: A Ans: D
C. repair the hose with a patch C. To test rafts hydrostatically 5045 When the height of the metacenter is less than the heightof the 5046 If the metacentric height is small, a floating ship will
D. replace the hose D. None of the above center of gravity, a vessel has what type ofstability? _______________.
Ans: D Ans: A A. Stable A. be tender
5031 According to Regulations , grinders orcomminutors used for the 5032 Material listed on a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) referring to B. Neutral B. have a quick and rapid motion
discharge of garbage between 3 and12 nautical miles from the more than one chemical is called a _____________. C. Negative C. be stiff
nearest land must be ________. D. Positive D. yaw
A. provided with flush back capabilities insuring the passage of all A. mixture Ans: C Ans: A
ground particles through a final control element 5047 If you observe any situation which presents a safety or pollution 5048 A patient suffering from heat exhaustion should first be
B. provided on all vessels that may operate on the Great Lakes and B. combination hazard during fuel transfer operations, which of the following actions ______________.
shall discharge under the highest load line of the vessel should be taken FIRST?
C. capable of reducing the size of garbage so that it will pass through a C. multi-material A. Close the valves at the transfer manifold. A. given a mild seawater solution to drink to replace salt and fluids
screen with openings no greater than 25 millimeters
B. Notify the person in charge of the shore facility. B. kept standing and encouraged to walk slowly and continuously
D. capable of processing all garbage generated onboard the vessel D. toxin
including all deck and engine department refuse C. Shut down the transfer operation. C. given a glass of water and told to return to work after 15 minutes of
Ans: C Ans: A rest
5033 While loading bulk oil, you notice oil on the water near the barge. 5034 Before entering a fuel tank that has been cleaned, it should be D. Sound the fire alarm. D. moved to a cool room and told to lie down
Which of the following actions should you carry out FIRST? checked with an oxygen indicator and a/an ______________. Ans: C Ans: D
5049 The symptoms of a fractured back are ____________. 5050 To fight a large class "A" fire contained in a closed compartment,
A. Search the vessel for leaks A. Orsat apparatus the nozzleman should open a door enough to insert the hose nozzle
B. Notify terminal superintendent B. flame safety lamp and initially ____________.
C. Stop loading C. Halide torch A. leg cramps in the muscles in one or both legs A. sweep a straight stream around the compartment
D. Notify the Port authorities D. combustible gas indicator B. pain and uncontrolled jerking of the legs and arms B. hold the nozzle steady while applying a straight stream in the area
Ans: C Ans: D where he suspects the source of the fire to be
5035 When a patient is suspected of having appendicitis, the primary 5036 The upper explosive limit (UEL) of a mixture of flammable vapors C. vomiting and involuntary urination or bowel movement C. sweep a fog stream around the compartment
action is to ____________. and air is defined as _____________. D. pain at the site of the fracture and possible numbness or paralysis D. hold the nozzle steady and direct a fog stream in the area where he
below the injury suspects the fire
 Page 279 Page 280

Ans: D Ans: C C. coated with heavy grease to prevent corrosion C. Move the reserve lever to the "reserve" position on the regulator
5051 Which statement regarding garbage disposal is correct? 5052 When dumping garbage into the sea, other than special areas, and reset the alarm so you can evacuate the area when it sounds
__________. again.
A. Records for ground garbage disposal are not required when disposal A. the Port State Control must be notified for each occurence D. left in place in the all-purpose nozzle D. Move the tank selector lever to the full tank position and reset the
into the sea occurs more than 25 miles offshore. alarm so you can evacuate the area when it sounds again.
B. Discharging or transfer of garbage while in port to a shore facility B. records must be provided and maintained for two years
must be recorded. Ans: A Ans: A
C. Maintaining records for the incineration of garbage aboard ship is C. an entry into the official log book must be made 5069 Which of the following statements is correct regarding the fog 5070 While wearing a self-contained breathing apparatus, the user must
not required. applicators used in conjunction with the combination nozzle? be aware of the bulkiness of the unit in order to avoid confined
D. The recording of garbage disposal should include the approximate D. no record is required if dumping is carried out more than 25 miles spaces. Of what other limitations should the user be aware?
weight. offshore and there is no included plastic material
Ans: B Ans: B A. All cargo and miscellaneous vessels must be equipped with high A. The weight of the unit changes the user's center of gravity.
5053 How much warning must be provided by the CO2 warning alarm 5054 CO2 extinguishes a fire by __________. velocity fog applicators for use with the required combination nozzle
before CO2 is discharged into a space? at each station.
A. 5 seconds A. a blanket of bubbles formed on the surface of the fire B. In machinery spaces, the applicators should be 3 to 4 mtrs. in length B. The lens of the facepiece reduces the user's peripheral vision.
B. 10 seconds B. smothering to insure all portions of the bilge can be effectively reached.
C. 15 seconds C. cooling
D. 20 seconds D. isolating the heat from the fuel C. On container ships, an applicator termed a bayonet or piercing type C. The attached lifeline limits the user's mobility.
Ans: D B
Ans: utilizes a sharp tip for cutting and penetrating the metal skin of a
5055 You can find the location of your abandon ship post by checking the 5056 The lights on the outside of the canopy of an inflatable liferaft container.
_________________. operate ____________. D. All of the above. D. All of the above.
A. vessel's logbook A. by turning the globe clockwise Ans: C Ans: D
B. vessel's documentation B. by a switch at each light 5071 Hazardous conditions exist which may result in spontaneous 5072 A person suffering from possible broken bones and internal injuries
C. muster list C. by a light sensor combustion when ____________. should ___________.
D. Certificate of Inspection D. automatically when the raft is inflated A. oil soaked rags are stowed in the machine shop A. be examined then walked to a bunk
Ans: C Ans: D B. powdered aluminum is stowed dry B. be assisted in walking around
5057 When administering first aid you should avoid ____________. 5058 The best extinguishing agent for fighting a burning mattress fire is C. dry metal turnings accumulate C. not be allowed to lie down where injured but moved to a chair or
the use of _____________. bunk
A. any conversation with the patient A. carbon dioxide D. all of the above D. not be moved but made comfortable until medical assistance arrives
B. instructing bystanders B. water in a solid stream
C. unnecessary haste and appearance of uncertainty C. foam Ans: A Ans: D
D. touching the patient D. dry chemical 5073 When it is necessary to remove a victim from a life threatening 5074 The longer an oil fire is permitted to burn, the __________.
Ans: C Ans: B situation, the person giving first aid must ____________.
5059 Normal mouth temperature is ________________. 5060 Which of the following fire extinguishing agents is best suited for use
on a large class "B" fire occurring on the open deck of a vessel? A. pull the victim by the feet A. harder it is to extinguish
B. avoid subjecting the victim to any unnecessary disturbance during B. easier it is to extinguish
A. 96.4°F A. CO2 movement
B. 97.5°F B. Aqueous film forming foam C. not move the victim to a another location until all injuries have been C. less chance there is of reignition
C. 98.6°F C. Dry chemical assessed
D. 99.7°F D. Steam smothering system D. place the victim on a stretcher before attempting removal D. easier it is to control
Ans: C Ans: B Ans: B Ans: A
5061 The sorting of accident victims according to the severity of their 5062 In each inflatable raft, what piece of equipment is provided to make 5075 To safely enter a closed compartment, where CO2 has been 5076 First aid treatment for small cuts and open wounds is to _________.
injuries is called ____________. quick, emergency, temporary repairs to a cut, or rip in a raft? released from a fixed extinguishing system, you should
_____________.
A. evaluation A. There is no equipment provided A. test the air with an Orsat apparatus A. stop the bleeding, clean, medicate, and cover the wound
B. triage B. Glue and rubber patches B. wear a self-contained breathing apparatus B. lay the patient down and cover the wound when the bleeding stops
C. surveying C. Several various-sized repair clamps
D. prioritizing D. Self-adhesive rubberized canvas patches C. wear a canister type gas mask C. apply an ice pack to the wound and cover it when the bleeding stops
Ans: B Ans: C
5063 The tendency of a ship to resist a change in trim is 5064 You are wearing a self-contained breathing apparatus while fighting D. test the air with an explosimeter D. apply a hot towel to purge the wound, then medicate and cover it
_______________. a fire in an enclosed space. If sudden strong resistance to breathing
is experienced, your first action should be to ____________. Ans: B Ans: A
5077 Which of the devices listed would be safe to use in a compartment 5078 Which of the following statements is true concerning a low velocity
A. the righting arm couple A. tug twice on your lifeline and slow your breathing until help arrives with insufficient oxygen? fog tip?
A. Cascaded air tanks. A. It is usually kept in the nozzle when stowed.
B. longitudinal stability B. retreat immediately to outside air B. Self-contained breathing appratus. B. It sprays large droplets.
C. metacentric height C. take a deep breath and remove your apparatus for adjustment C. Canister type mask. C. It is chained to the combination nozzle.
D. Dust or gas mask. D. It sprays a fine mist.
D. transverse inclination D. give two or three strong exhalations to increase the flow through the Ans: B Ans: D
apparatus 5079 Antiseptics are used principally to ___________. 5080 The air spaces in the floor of an inflatable liferaft will provide
Ans: B Ans: B protection against ____________.
5065 The addition of weight at the longitudinal center of flotation will 5066 When you are wearing a self-contained breathing apparatus, you A. speed healing A. asphyxiation from CO2
____________. should immediately return to fresh air if you feel _____________. B. prevent infection B. loss of air in the sides of the raft
C. reduce inflammation C. rough seas
A. increase the forward draft and decrease the after draft A. heat in the canister or hose D. increase blood circulation D. cold water temperatures
B. decrease the forward draft and increase the after draft B. excess air flow in the mask Ans: B Ans: D
C. have no effect on the trim C. two pulls on the safety line 5081 A person on a fixed or floating platform engaged in oil exploration 5082 When giving first aid, you should understand how to conduct primary
D. have no effect on the stability D. nauseous, dizziness or high breathing resistance MAY discharge food waste into the sea when the distance from the and secondary surveys in addition to __________.
Ans: C Ans: D nearest land is at least ____________.
5067 The low velocity fog applicator used in conjunction with the all- 5068 What should you do when the alarm bell on a self-contained A. 3 nautical miles A. which medications to prescribe
purpose firefighting nozzle, should always be _____________. breathing apparatus sounds? B. 5 nautical miles B. how to diagnose an illness from symptoms
C. 12 nautical miles C. the limits of your capabilities
A. stored in the rack when not in actual use A. Immediately evacuate the contaminated area. D. 25 nautical miles D. how to set broken bones
B. attached to the nozzle by the chain B. Open the bypass valve on the regulator and immediately evacuate Ans: C Ans: C
the contaminated area. 5083 Before inserting a low velocity fog applicator into an all-purpose 5084 A squeeze-grip type carbon dixide portable fire extinguisher has
combination nozzle, you must _____________. been partially discharged. It should be ____________.
 Page 281 Page 282

A. tighten the high velocity fog tip A. replaced in its proper location reguardless of weight D. starvation D. All of the above.
B. put the control handle in the solid steam position B. replaced in its proper location if weight loss is no more than 15% Ans: C Ans: D
5103 Which of the devices listed will prevent an inflated liferaft from being 5104 A crewmember has a small, gaping laceration of the arm that is not
C. put the control handle in the fog position C. labled empty and recharged as soon as possible pulled under by a vessel which sinks in water over 100 feet (30.48 bleeding excessively. What can be done as an alternative to suturing
D. remove the high velocity fog tip D. replaced in its proper location if weight loss is no more than 25% m) deep? to close the wound?
A. The hydrostatic release A. Apply a copression bandage.
Ans: D Ans: C B. A shear pin B. Use temporary stitches of sail twin.
5085 By definition, an example of a combustible liquid is 5086 The canopy of your liferaft should ____________. C. A rottmer release C. Wrap a tight bandage around the wound.
______________. D. A weak link in the painter D. Apply butterfly strips, then a sterile dressing.
A. lube oil A. go into place as the raft is inflated Ans: D D
Ans:
B. gasoline B. be put up after everyone is aboard 5105 When approaching a fire from windward, you should shield 5106 The best method of extingquishing a class A fire is to
C. butane C. be put up only in severe weather firefighters from the fire by using _____________. _____________.
D. benzene D. be used as a sail if the wind is blowing A. low-verlocity fog A. remove oxygen from the area
Ans: A A
Ans: B. high-velocity fog B. smother fire with foam
5087 To prevent the spread of fire by convection you should __________. 5088 The term "discharge", as it applies to the pollution regulations, C. a straight stream of water C. smother fire with CO2
means ____________. D. foam spray D. cool fuel below igition temperature
A. remove combustibiles from direct exposure A. spilling Ans: A Ans: D
B. cool the bulkhead around the fire B. leaking 5107 Which of the listed fire extinguishing agent combinations is the best 5108 The rate of expansion of heated fuel oil is _____________.
C. close all openings to the area C. dumping for simultaneous use on a large oil fire?
D. shut off electrical power D. all of the above A. A solid stream of water in conjunction with CO2. A. approximately 1% for each 13.9°C(25°F) temperature rise
Ans: C Ans: D B. Water fog used in conjunction with foam. B. calculated in British Thermal Units
5089 The chief source of spontaneous combustion aboard tankers is 5090 Fire prevention during welding or burning aboard any vessel should C. CO2 applied in conjunction with foam. C. measured by weight
_____________. include _____________. D. CO2 applied in conjunction with dry chemical. D. also called absolute viscosity
A. JP4 cargo A. posting a fire watch in the immediate area Ans: B Ans: A
B. gasoline cargo B. providing an extinguisher which is ready for immediate use 5109 On a tanker, the most likely location for a liquid cargo fire to occur 5110 If you see an individual fall overboard, you should
C. kerosene cargo C. requiring the fire watch to remain on post for 30 minutes after the would be ____________. ______________.
completion of welding or burning A. in the midships house A. throw them a life ring
D. oil soaked rags or rubbish D. All of the above. B. at the main deck manifold B. hail "Man overboard"
Ans: D Ans: D C. at the vent header C. pass the word to the bridge
5091 You have just extinguished an oil fire on the floor plates of the 5092 The vapors given off by heated fuel oil are heavier than air and are D. in the pumproom D. all of the above
engine room with a portable CO2 extinguisher. Which of the listed _____________. Ans: D Ans: D
dangers should you now be preparing to handle? 5111 When abandoning ship in an emergency situation, you should 5112 The rate of expansion of heated fuel oil varies with the
A. Reflashing of the fire. A. odorless _____________. _____________.
B. Sudden stoppage of the main engine. B. explosive A. jump off feet first from the windward side A. conductivity
C. Complete lack of oxygen in the engine room. C. nontoxic B. dive head first from the bridge B. viscosity
D. Chemical reaction of the CO2 and oil forming carbonic acid. D. visible C. dive head first from the main deck C. volume
A
Ans: B
Ans: D. follow directly behind another person on the leeward side D. specific gravity
5093 In order to discharge a CO2 portable fire extinguisher, the operator 5094 A person reports to you with a fishook in his thumb. To remove it you Ans: A Ans: D
must FIRST ___________. should _________. 5113 A large oil fire on the weather deck of a ship can be effectively 5114 The greatest danger in cold temperatures, when at sea in an
A. open the discharge valve A. have a surgen remove it fought using _____________. inflatable liferaft is ____________.
B. remove the locking pin B. pull it out with pliers A. dry chemical A. asphyxiation due to keeping the canopy closed
C. invert the CO2 extinguisher C. cut the skin from around the hook B. soda acid B. hypothermia caused by the cold temperature
D. squeeze the two trigger handles together D. push the barb through, cut it off, then remove the hook C. foam C. collapsing of the raft due to the cold temperature
Ans: B Ans: D D. high velocity fog D. starvation
5095 You are along and administering CPR to an adult victim. How many 5096 Which of the following procedures reduces the possibility of an Ans: C Ans: B
chest compressions and how many inflations should you administer interior ventilation duct fire from rapidly spreading? 5115 Which of the following statements is true concerning an inflatable 5116 Which of the gases listed is the poisonous gas most likely to be
in each sequence? liferaft? found in a closed compartment involved in a fire?
A. 5 compressions then 1 inflation A. Having a portable CO2 ready at each duct opening. A. The floor may be inflated for insulation from cold water. A. Nitrogen
B. 15 compressions than 2 inflations B. Keeping the duct interior clean. B. Crew members can jump into the raft without damaging it. B. Hydrogen
C. 20 compressions then 3 inflations C. Having a fire hose charged at each duct opening. C. The raft may be boarded before it is fully inflated. C. Carbon dioxide
D. 30 compressions then 4 inflations D. Keeping the duct exterior clean. D. All of the above. D. Carbon monoxide
Ans: B Ans: B Ans: D Ans: D
5097 Which of the following statements is true concerning Bunker "C" 5098 You have just abandoned ship and boarded a liferaft. After the raft is 5117 Fires resulting from escaping liquefied flammable gases are 5118 A class "B" fire develops on the weatherdeck amidships of moored
vapors? completely inflated you hear a whistling noise coming from a safety generally extinguished by _____________. tank vessel. The fire party should man the _______.
valve. You should ____________. A. cooling below the ignition point A. leeward monitor and direct the foam onto a vertical surface while
A. They can not be ignited by a spark unless the vapors are in a A. not become alarmed unless it continues for a long period of time applying a solid stream of water to wash residual fuel over the side
confined space. away from the pier
B. They are nontoxic in all concentrations. B. plug the safety valve B. cutting off the oxygen supply B. leeward monitor and direct the foam onto a vertical surface while
C. They can not be ignited by a spark unless vapors are at their C. unscrew the deflation plugs applying water fog to protect the monitor operator
autoignition temperature. C. stopping the flow of gas C. windward monitor and direct the foam onto a vertical surface while
D. They are heavier than air. D. remove the safety valve and replace it with a soft patch applying water fog to the fire
Ans: D Ans: A D. interrupting the chemical chain reaction D. windward monitor and direct the foam onto a vertical surface while
5099 The lifeline which is part of a fireman's outfit must be ___________. 5100 A hand portable CO2 fire extinguisher is effective on burning oil only standing by with a charged hose to protect the monitor operator with
_____________. water fog if needed
A. made of steel or bronze wire rope A. if applied promptly Ans: C Ans: D
B. corrosion resistant B. if applied in connection with foam 5119 If a fire occurs in the fireroom as a result of fuel oil leaking from the 5120 If you are forced to abandon ship in a lifeboat, you should
C. not less than 16mtrs in length C. to prevent rekindling boiler fuel oil manifold, the FIRST action taken should be to ____________.
D. All of the above D. if attempts to extinguish the fire with low velocity fog have failed _____________.
A. pressurize the fire main A. remain in the immediate vicinity
Ans: D Ans: A B. activate the CO2 system B. head for the nearest land
5101 You are at sea in an inflatable liferaft. In high latitutes, the greatest 5102 You have abandoned ship in tropical waters. Which procedure(s) C. secure the fuel supply C. head for the closest sea-lanes
danger is ___________. should be used during a prolonged peroid in a raft? D. sound the general alarm D. vote on what to do, so all hands will have a part in the decision

A. collapse of the raft due to cold temperatures A. Wet clothes during the day to decrease perpiration. Ans: C Ans: A
B. asphyxiation due to keeping the canopy closed B. Get plenty of rest. 5121 If help has not arrived in 10-12 hours after abandoning ship in a 5122 The four basic components of a fire are chain reaction, heat, fuel,
C. hypothermia caused by cold temperature C. Keep the entrance curtins open. lifeboat, you should ____________. and _____________.
 Page 283 Page 284

A. go in one direction until the fuel runs out A. carbon monoxide C. Water damage to machinery not involved in the fire C. nonconducting property
B. plot course for the nearest land B. oxygen D. Toxic fumes from burning insulation D. lack of fumes
C. plot a course for the nearest sea lane C. carbon dioxide Ans: D Ans: C
D. shut down the engines and set the sea anchor D. any gaseous substance 5141 The center of volume of the immersed portion of the vessel is the 5142 The most important characteristic of a fire extinguishing agent to be
D
Ans: B
Ans: ____________. used on electrical fires is for the agent to be _____________.
5123 When fighting a spreading fire resulting from a broken fuel line, you 5124 When lowering lifeboats as the vessel is pitching in heavy seas, a
should FIRST _____________. good practice is to rig frapping lines ____________. A. center of flotation A. nonconducting
A. look for a CO2 extinguisher A. on only the forward falls B. metacentric height B. flame resistant
B. use a soda acid extinguisher B. on only the after falls C. center of buoyancy C. easily removable
C. shut off the fuel supply C. fore and aft with a lead of about 45‚ to the boat D. center of gravity D. wet
D. smother the fire with rags D. from the falls to the tricing gear Ans: C Ans: A
Ans: C Ans: C 5143 If a fire broke out in an automation console, you would first secure 5144 To extinguish an electrical fire, you should use __________.
5125 The highest concentration of a harmful substance to which a person 5126 The rekindling of a fire can occur when a fire, extinguished by the power and then proceed to use which of the listed hand portable
may be exposed without danger to health, is termed the smothering, is resupplied with oxygen. Which of the fire fire extinguishers?
____________. extinguishing agents listed, when properly used on an oil fire, will A. Soda acid A. mechanical foam
prevent rekindling? B. Dry chemical B. chemical foam
A. odor threshold A. Low velocity fog C. CO2 C. carbon dioxide
B. threshold limit value B. High velocity fog D. Foam D. soda acid
C. vapor pressure C. Chemical foam Ans: C Ans: C
D. tolerance point D. Dry chemical 5145 Which of the listed fire extinguishers would be most effective to use 5146 A continuous sounding of the vessel's whistle, supplemented by a
B
Ans: C
Ans: on a fire in a small electric motor? continuous ringing of the general alarm bells for a period of not less
5127 The volatility of a liquid is the tendency of a liquid to 5128 Lines passed around the falls to hold the boat into the vessel while than 10 seconds, is the signal for ____________.
_____________. boarding passengers are called ____________. A. Soda acid A. man overboard
A. ignite A. lifelines B. Foam B. boat stations
B. explode B. frapping lines C. CO2 C. fire stations
C. asphyxiate C. tricing lines D. Light water D. secure from all drills
D. vaporize D. tripping lines Ans: C Ans: C
Ans: D Ans: B 5147 A continuous blast of the ship's whistle for a period of not less than 5148 If you hear a continuous blast of the whistle for a period of not less
5129 Vessel bilge keels are designed primarily to ____________. 5130 Which of the following emergency signals are used to report for boat 10 seconds, supplemented by a continuous sounding of the general than 10 seconds, supplemented by a continuous ringing of the
stations or boat drills? alarm for a period of not less than 10 seconds, is the general alarm bells for not less than 10 seconds, you should go to
A. assist in reducing rolling A. Three short blasts of the whistle along with the same signal on the _______________. your _____________.
general alarm bells. A. boat stations signal A. boat station
B. improve vessel steering response B. More than six short blasts and one long blast of the whistle, along B. secure from boat stations signal B. fire station
with the same signal on the general alarm bells. C. fire alarm signal C. man overboard station
C. reinforce the bilge knuckle in way of double bottom tanks C. Steady rapid ringing of the ship's bell for at least 10 seconds, along D. lower lifeboats signal D. collision station
with the same signal on the general alarm bells. Ans: C Ans: B
5149 A class "D" fire would involve the burning of ____________. 5150 While in a foreign port, burning and welding repairs are to be carried
D. provide strengthening of the bilge plating through the mid-body D. Less than five short blasts and one long blast of the whistle, along out on a section of heating coil located in a tank having last
with the same signal on the general alarm bells. contained a grade "D" product. Which of the following procedures
Ans: A Ans: B should be followed when a certified marine chemist is no
5131 The No. 3 lifeboat would be ____________. 5132 To extinguish a fire in an unruptured cargo tank, you should FIRST
_____________. A. diesel oil A. It is solely the chief engineer's responsibility to ensure all safety
A. the forward boat on the starboard side A. cool nearby decks, bulkheads and, equipment with high velocity fog precautions are observed, and all entries are to be made in the
engine room log.
B. behind boat No. 1 on the port side B. shut off the air supply by closing tank tops, ullage plugs, P.V. valves, B. magnesium B. The repair work cannot be done at this time due to the lack of the
and other openings chemist's certificate.
C. behind boat No. 1 on the starboard side C. activate the fixed CO2 system C. dunnage C. Prior to any hot work, an inspection must be made by the senior
D. behind boat No. 2 on the port side D. activate the portable CO2 system officer present, and an entry made in the official logbook.
Ans: C Ans: B
5133 If you hear more than six short blasts, followed by one long blast on 5134 All personnel should be familiar with the lifeboats ____________. D. electrical insulation D. Repairs should proceed as scheduled since a chemist's certificate is
the whistle, and supplemented by the same signal on the general not required for that type of work.
alarm, you should _____________. Ans: B Ans: C
A. start the fire pump A. boarding and operating procedures 5151 Excessive free surface occurring in tanks carrying liquid cargo 5152 Servicing of a cartridge-operated dry chemical fire extinguisher
B. go to your man overboard station B. maintenance schedule should be avoided in order to _____________. aboard ship would include ensuring that the ____________.
C. go to your lifeboat station C. navigational systems
D. stand by for collision D. fuel consumption rates A. maintain hog and sag A. pressure gage is within the operating range
C
Ans: Ans: A B. maintain good stability B. powder is not caked and there is a full charge
5135 When combating a major electrical fire at sea, the main 5136 By definition, an example of a flammable liquid is ________. C. prevent oil pollution C. cartridge weight is not less than 1/4 ounce of weight stamped on
consideration is _____________. cartridge
A. reducing the possibility of electrical shock to personnel A. kerosene D. all of the above D. recharge of weight loss exceeds 10% of the weight of charge
B. preventing a total loss of electrical power B. gasoline
C. preventing saltwater damage to electrical equipment C. caustic potash Ans: B Ans: B
D. eliminating the toxic fumes from burning insulation D. animal and vegetable oils 5153 After a fire has been extinguished in a closed space, personnel may 5154 Ships are less stable when water or fuel tanks are partially filled
Ans: A Ans: B safely enter the space when ____________. because of the ____________.
5137 If the diesel fuel vapors present are within the flammable range 5138 You are transferring fuel from the storage tanks to the day tanks by A. smoke density has been decreased sufficiently to see the bulkhead A. free surface effect
_____________. means of an electric fuel oil transfer pump. If the pump motor opposite the compartment's entrance
catches fire, you would FIRST ___________. B. a lifeline and explosion proof flash light are used B. increase in buoyancy
A. the vapor air mixture is too rich to burn A. secure the fuel manifold C. all smoke and toxic fumes are removed and an adequate oxygen C. decrease in draft
B. an explosion may occur if a source of ignition is present B. shut off power to the pump supply is present
C. the vapor air mixture is too lean to burn C. shut off the power ventilation D. overhaul has been completed to remove any possible source of D. reduction in trim
D. the upper explosive limit has been exceeded D. spray water on the fire reignition
Ans: B Ans: B Ans: C Ans: A
5139 When combating a class C fire, which of the following dangers may 5140 The most important property of any extinguishing agent used in 5155 According to Regulations , pumproom ventilation on a tanker may 5156 Regulations require electric hand lamps, approved for use in fuel
be present? fighting class "C" fires is the agent's _____________. be accomplished by _____________. tanks, to be battery powered and _____________.
A. Flooding of the vessel A. cooling capacity A. steam or air actuated gas ejectors A. flame resistant
B. Increased surface area of the burning fluid B. ability to suppress rekindling B. power blowers B. explosion proof
 Page 285 Page 286

C. natural ventilators C. corrosion resistant A. is now higher than 300mm above the deck A. open valve, pull pin, and pull up on release lever
D. all of the above D. moisture proof B. does not block access to the fire station hydrant B. pull pin, open valve, and pull up on release lever
Ans: D Ans: B C. will cover no more than 25 percent of deck space C. open valve and pull pin
5157 Vessel stability can be adversely affected by ________. 5158 Regulations stipulate that in addition to emergency signals, muster D. will be easily visible from the bridge D. pull pin and open valve
lists must specify_____________. Ans: B Ans: D
A. decreasing the laden draft A. actions to be taken by persons on board when each signal is 5175 Prior to entering a compartment containing an atmosphere 5176 A safety "ring pin" is usually inserted in the handle of a CO2 fire
sounded potentially dangerous to life or health, you should don an approved extinguisher to prevent _____________.
B. increasing the free surface effect B. the order to abandon the vessel self-contained breathing apparatus. Which one of the listed devices
C. ballasting down by the bow C. the duties assigned to different members of the crew is a self-contained breathing apparatus?
D. ballasting down by the stern D. all of the above A. A demand-type breathing apparatus A. the cylinder valve from coming loose
Ans: B Ans: D B. A fresh-air breathing apparatus B. the handle from contacting the cylinder
5159 When you hear three short blasts on the ship's whistle and the same 5160 Following an engine room bilge fire, believed to be extinguished, C. A canister-type gas mask C. contamination of the valve parts
signal on the general alarm bells, you ___________. and properly fought using a fixed CO2 fire extinguishing system; the D. All of the above D. accidental discharge from the extinguisher
investigating team should reenter the closed space ____________. Ans: A Ans: D
5177 The knife edges and gaskets of watertight doors should be 5178 A carbon dioxide fire extinguisher has been partially discharged,
A. are required to be at your liferaft A. no sooner than 15 minutes after the fire is believed extinguished _____________. and should be immediately _____________.
A. clean and uncoated A. tagged and restowed properly in its rack
B. are dismissed from drills B. via the lowest access door B. lightly coated with tallow B. weighed and the charge loss recorded
C. should point to the man overboard C. via the lowest access door and equipped with SCBA's no sooner C. coated with petroleum jelly C. given to the chief engineer for recharging
than 30 minutes after the fire is believed extinguished D. painted to prevent weathering D. tagged "empty" and stowed separately from charged extinguishers

D. should start the fire pump D. via the highest access door and equipped with SCBA's Ans: A Ans: D
Ans: B Ans: D 5179 While wearing a demand-type self-contained breathing apparatus 5180 You are replacing a section of heavy piping on deck and using a
5161 To initially combat a fire the ventilation to a compartmentshould be 5162 An insulating flange should be used in a cargo hose connection the alarm bell begins ringing. Which of the following conditions does chain fall to lift the pipe. Which of the following precautions should
secured to ____________. instead of a bonding wire _____________. this indicate? be taken to prevent personal injury?
A. allow the exhaust fans to remove the smoke A. when pumping LNG only A. There is a 4-5 minute supply of air remaining in the air cylinder. A. Position several men under the pipe so they can catch it if it falls.
B. lower the carbon monoxide smothering capabilities B. when static electricity may be generated
C. reduce the amount of available oxygen to the fire C. when the terminal is equipped with a cathodic protection system B. There is approximately 35bar (3.5 MPa) of pressure left in the air B. Attach lines to the ends of the pipe and have your helpers steady the
cylinder. load.
D. protect the fire fighters from smoke D. during cold weather C. The wearer should immediately leave the contaminated area. C. Place an old mattress under the hoist to prevent the load from hitting
Ans: C Ans: C the deck.
5163 The advantage of using a dry chemical fire extinguishing agent is 5164 Bonding cables are used to reduce the possibility of accidental D. All of the above. D. Have a first aid kit at the job site.
_____________. spark discharge when _____________. Ans: D Ans: B
A. permanent extinguishment regardless of the reignition sources A. transferring flammable liquids to or from a vessel 5181 When is it required for carbon dioxide fire extinguishers to be 5182 A flat block placed under the end of a shore for the purpose of
recharged? distributing pressure is referred to as a ____________.
B. its excellent cooling ability B. transferring dry mud to or from a vessel A. At least once each year. A. strong back
C. its good stability and nontoxicity C. transferring fuel oil from storage to day tanks B. Each time the vessel drydocks. B. butt piece
D. all of the above D. securing drill pipe on deck C. When the charged weight decreases by 10%. C. shore foot
Ans: C Ans: A D. When the trigger seal has been broken. D. shole
5165 Any liquid with a flash point above 26.7°C is a __________. 5166 Any liquid which gives off flammable vapors at or below 26.7°C, as Ans: C Ans: D
determined by flash point from an open cup tester, describes a 5183 If a fixed fire extinguishing system is installed on any vessel, it must 5184 According to Regulations , which of the following statements
_____________. be of a type approved by the _____________. concerning fire main shore connections for a 20,000 gross ton
A. flammable liquid A. flammable liquid cargo vessel on an international voyage is correct?
B. combustible liquid B. combustible liquid A. Ship owner A. There must be at least one shore connection to the fire main system
C. coal base oil C. nonflammable liquid on each side of the vessel.
D. synthetic base oil D. noncombustible liquid B. Administration B. Shore connections must be in an accessible location and fitted with
Ans: B A
Ans: cutoff and check valves.
5167 What is the usual effect of moving weight from the main deck to a 5168 Which of the following statements is true concerning Halon 1301 fire C. Class C. There must be at least one portable international shore connection
position lower in the vessel? extinguishing equipment? available to each side of the vessel.
A. The stability of the vessel is increased. A. The agent is highly toxic at normal room temperature. D. P & I club D. All of the above.
B. The trim of the vessel is changed substantially. B. For portable extinguishers, the agent is only available in a 2½ pound Ans: B Ans: D
unit. 5185 Which of the following pressures represents the normal pressure 5186 Fire doors are released by a/an _____________.
C. The stability of the vessel is significantly decreased. C. Halon extinguishes the fire by smothering action. setting of a pressure-vacuum relief valve?
D. The vessel will list in proportion to the volume of the cargo shifted. D. The agent can not be used on electrical fires because it leaves a A. +1bar a, - 76cm Hg A. hydraulic directional valve that automatically releases the door in the
residue. event of a disruption to the control power system
Ans: A Ans: B B. +2500mm WG, -750mmWG B. spring-loaded catch that automatically lifts to release the door in the
5169 Which of the listed conditions will occur to the ship's center of 5170 Which of the listed effects will occur when an operating diesel event of the presence of a fire
gravity if 200 tons of steel is transferred to the ships cargo hold from engine ingests Halon 1301? C. +1250mmWG -300WG C. method that automaticly releases the door in the event of a
shore side? disruption of control system power
A. The reserve buoyancy will rise. A. The high engine combustion temperatures liquefy the Halon. D. +1bar g 0 bar g D. pneumatic heat sensor
B. The center of gravity will remain in the same position. B. The engine absorbs the Halon into its cooling system. Ans: D Ans: C
C. The center of gravity will be lowered. C. The engine decomposes the ingested Halon. 5187 To avoid excessive pressures in the fuel oil filling system during 5188 For all loading operations, the terminal must supply the vessel with a
D. The reserve buoyancy will remain the same. D. The engine will stall regardless of how little Halon has been taken in bunkering, you should ____________. means in which the vessel's designated person-in-charge may stop
through the air intake. the flow of oil to the vessel, insuring immediate shutdown in the
Ans: C Ans: C event of a hose rupture, tank overflow, etc. This me
5171 A vessel's center of gravity is lowered when the __________. 5172 Each vessel in ocean and coastwise service must have an approved
EPIRB. An EPIRB ____________. A. close the tank filling valves quickly A. electrically
A. freeboard is increased A. must be stowed in a manner so that it will float free if the vessel B. top off all tanks at the same time B. pneumatically or mechanically
sinks C. fill completely all tanks to less than 95% full C. via a communications device used for no other purpose
B. tanks are ballasted B. must be stowed where it is readily accessible for testing and use D. reduce the loading rate when topping off D. All of the above.
Ans: D Ans: D
C. reserve buoyancy increases C. is a device that transmits a radio signal 5189 Prior to loading or discharging bulk cargo, all sea valves should be 5190 If a leak in an oil hose coupling cannot be stopped by tightening the
D. trim is increased D. all of the above _____________. coupling bolts, you should ____________.
Ans: B Ans: D A. secured and lashed A. notify the Master of a potential pollution incident
5173 If deck cargo is carried, it should be stowed so that it 5174 To operate a carbon dioxide extinguisher having the type of head B. secured and locked B. reduce the pumping pressure to reduce the leakage rate
_____________. shown in the illustration, you would ____________. C. opened and lashed C. spread absorbent material on deck beneath the leak
 Page 287 Page 288

D. opened and locked D. stop transfer operations and renew the gasket D. cutting a square notch at each end of the crack D. Emergency battery storage compartment where discharge gases
Ans: A Ans: D have accumulated.
5191 According to Regulations , each fire hydrant must have at least 5192 One precaution to take prior to working in a freshly painted Ans: C Ans: B
_____________. compartment where there are an excessive amount of paint fumes, 5207 The blowers of an inert gas generation system aboard a tanker, will 5208 When pumping sour crude, which gas should be tested for prior to
is to _____________. be automatically secured if _____________. entering the cargo pumproom to repair a leaking pump?
A. one length of fire hose A. take shallow breaths of air
B. a spanner wrench B. ventilate the area A. normal water supply at the water seal is lost A. Benzene
C. a hose rack or other device for stowing hose C. wear a breathing apparatus while working B. the temperature of the inert gas being delivered to the cargo tanks B. Carbon monoxide
D. all of the above D. keep a charged fire hose handy is more than 65°C
Ans: D Ans: B C. the cooling water supply to the scrubbers is lost C. Hydrogen sulfide
5193 A gurgling noise is heard from within a cargo tank when discharging 5194 Which of the listed pumping arrangements will be hazardous when D. all of the above D. Tetrathyl lead
cargo, this would indicate that the ___________. two similar centrifugal pumps are used to discharge a cargo of Ans: D Ans: C
flammable liquid? 5209 After allowing for pressure losses, the pressure-volume capacity of 5210 The Pollution Prevention Regulations prohibits draining
A. tank liquid is too viscous A. Both pumps operating at the same speed and discharging into a an inert gas blower must be able to maintain a pressure, in any ____________.
common line. cargo tank, with a minimum of ____________.
B. pump discharge pressure is excessive B. Both pumps operating at the same speed and taking suction from a
common line. A. 50 millimeters of water A. fuel oil burners into buckets
C. pump is sucking air C. Each pump operating at a different speed and taking suction from a B. 100 millimeters of water B. oil transfer hoses into buckets
common line. C. 150 millimeters of water C. fuel oil strainers into the ship's bilges
D. tank foot valve is partially clogged D. Each pump operating at a different pressure and discharging into a D. 200 millimeters of water D. lube oil strainers into fixed drip pans
common line. B
Ans: C
Ans:
Ans: C Ans: D 5211 Flame screens used on ullage openings prevent flames from 5212 Following a grounding, you can best determine that a SLACK fuel oil
5195 If your vessel is to carry ten portable foam fire extinguishers, you 5196 A portable foam fire extinguisher carried aboard a tank vessel must entering a tank by _____________. tank has been holed by _____________.
must maintain a supply of at least ____________. be recharged every _____________. A. reducing the cross-sectional area of the opening A. sounding the tank
B. restricting the flow of gases through the opening B. waiting for the vessel to list
A. one spare extinguisher A. 3 months C. creating turbulence in the exiting gas stream C. examining tank boundaries
B. one spare charge B. 6 months D. dissipating heat from the flame into the surrounding metal D. checking fuel oil strainers
C. five spare charges C. 9 months Ans: D Ans: A
D. ten spare charges D. 12 months 5213 When cargo oil tanks are cleaned by crude oil washing while in port, 5214 At the earliest indication of fire aboard your vessel, you must FIRST
Ans: C Ans: D _____________. _____________.
5197 In order to release CO2 to the machinery spaces from a fixed fire 5198 Why is it important for fuel oil tanks not to be topped off at the inner A. provision should be made for a shoreside holding tank or an A. locate the fire
extinguishing system, you must _____________. bottom level when loading on a cold day? onboard slop tank
A. actuate an alarm and open the engine room control valve A. Increased viscosity of the product needs higher loading pressure, B. water should be allowed to settle before discharge overboard B. determine which type of fire is burning
which increases the chances of a spill.
B. actuate an alarm and open the engine room CO2 releasing valve B. Air pockets may cause the fuel to bubble out of the ullage hole. C. filters should be installed in bilge strainers to absorb oil before C. sound the alarm
discharge overboard
C. open the engine room control valve and shut off engine room C. The temperature rise of the fuel will cause an overflow. D. the dock supervisor need not be notified before discharging oily D. fight the fire
ventilation fans mixtures overboard
D. open the engine room control valve and then the CO2 releasing D. Fueling valve may become stuck closed and cause the fuel oil to Ans: A Ans: C
valve spill before the valve can be opened. 5215 A fireman's outfit carried onboard cargo vessels, must have a 5216 While on watch in the engine room, you hear a continuous sounding
Ans: D Ans: C _____________. of the general alarm. Which of the following actions should you take
5199 If the overflow tank high-level alarm sounds while the fuel oil tanks 5200 To avoid shock pressures in the fuel oil filling hoses while you are FIRST?
are being topped off, the engineer should _____________. topping off tanks, the ____________. A. canister-type gas mask A. Secure the burners then proceed to your assigned boat station.

A. close the static leg filling valve A. loading rate should be decreased B. fresh-air breathing apparatus B. Start the fire pump and establish flow to the fire main.
B. close the overflow tank filling valve B. oiler should sound all tanks continuously C. self-contained breathing apparatus C. Open the guardian valve and standby to maneuver.
C. reduce the fuel oil pumping rate C. hoses should be looped D. combustible gas indicator D. Open the master control valves on the fixed CO2 system.
D. stop the fuel oil pumping operation D. tank vent valves should be clear Ans: C Ans: B
Ans: D Ans: A 5217 Pollution Prevention Regulations state that no person may transfer 5218 When the general alarm is sounded continuously, the engine room
5201 A cylinder used for storing CO2 in a fixed firefighting system, must 5202 Which of the following statements is correct concerning fixed carbon oil to or from a vessel unless _____________. personnel should _____________.
be hydrostatically retested and restamped every _____________. dioxide fire extinguishing systems? A. hoses are supported so that couplings have no strain on them A. proceed to their man overboard stations

A. once in every calendar year A. A separate supply of carbon dioxide must be provided for each B. a sample has been taken from the oil being received B. start the fire pump
space protected. C. an oil containment boom is available for immediate use C. put on lifejackets and go to their abandon ship stations
B. 5 years B. The piping shall be used for no other purpose except that it may be D. each part of the transfer system is blown through with air D. secure the propulsion diesel engines and evacuate the engine room
incorporated with the fire-detecting system.
C. 8 years C. Distribution piping within the space shall be proportioned from the Ans: A Ans: B
supply line to give the proper throttling to the outlets. 5219 As soon as you hear the fire and emergency signal, you should 5220 When fuel tanks are being topped off, the person-in-charge of
D. 12 years D. All of the above. ensure that _____________. bunkering is directly responsible for the _____________.
Ans: D Ans: B A. the ring buoys are thrown overboard A. loading rate
5203 The component in an inert gas system used for cleaning the gas of 5204 The fire extinguishing action of CO2 comes mostly from B. the engines are stopped B. vessel draft readings
solid and sulphur combustion products, while simultaneously _____________. C. the fire pumps are started C. quality of fuel received
cooling the inert gas, is called the _____________. D. everyone is suited in an approved life preserver D. temperature of fuel received
Ans: C Ans: A
A. filter A. breaking the fire chemical chain reaction 5221 The term "oil" as defined in the Pollution Prevention Regulations 5222 Each inert gas system must be designed to supply the cargo tanks
B. cooler B. smothering means: ____________. with a gas, or mixture of gases, that has an oxygen content by
C. scrubber C. cooling volume of ____________.
D. purifier D. isolating the heat from the fuel A. petroleum in any form A. 5% or less
Ans: C Ans: B B. animal or vegetable based oil B. 10% or less
5205 The lengthening of a crack formed in the shell plating of a ship may 5206 A high concentration of hydrogen sulfide gas is most likely to be C. noxious liquid substances designated under Annex II of MARPOL C. 15% or less
be prevented by ________. found in which of the locations listed? 73/78
A. welding brackets across both ends of the crack A. Fireroom bilges where hydrazine has accumulated. D. All of the above D. 20% or less
B. chipping out and slot welding the entire crack B. Sewage compartment bilges where leaked sewage has Ans: A Ans: A
accumulated.
C. drilling a hole at each end of the crack C. Engine room bilges where chemical cleaners and solvents have
accumulated.
 Page 289 Page 290

5223 Each inert gas system must be equipped with the following 5224 To determine that a compartment contains sufficient oxygen to
instruments: oxygen concentration indicator and recorder, pressure sustain life, you should use a/an _____________.
indicator and recorder, and temperature indicator. The point of
ELECTRO - TECHNOLOGY
5231 The full torque electric brake on an electric cargo winch functions to 5232 When troubleshooting most electronic circuits, "loading effect" can
measurement for these instruments must be located
_____________. be minimized by using a voltmeter with a/an
____________.
___________________.
A. after the gas regulating valve A. explosimeter A. act as a backup brake in the event the mechanical brake should fail A. input impedance much greater than the impedance across which
B. downstream of the blowers B. oxygen indicator the voltage is being measured
C. scrubber outlet C. fresh air indicator B. automatically hold the load as soon as current to the machine is B. input impedance much less than the impedance across which the
D. upstream of the liquid filled breaker D. all of the above shut off voltage is being measured
Ans: B Ans: B C. automatically govern the lowering speed of the load C. sensitivity of less than 1000 ohms/volt
5225 Each ship having an inert gas system must have a portable 5226 The upper limit of sulphur dioxide permitted to be maintained in the D. automatically govern the hoisting speed of the load D. sensitivity of more than 1000 volts/ohm
instruments to measure concentrations of hydrocarbon vapor in inert inert gas should not exceed ___________. Ans: B Ans: A
atmospheres and also to measure ____________.
5233 An electric tachometer receives the engine speed signal from a 5234 A semiconductor that decreases in resistance with an increase in
_______________. temperature is known as a _____________.
A. nitrogen A. 0.0008 A. small generator mounted on the engine A. resistor
B. oxygen B. 0.0006 B. bimetallic sensing device B. thermistor
C. carbon dioxide C. 0.0004 C. stroboscopic sensing device C. diode
D. water vapor D. 0.0002 D. vibrating reed meter generating a voltage proportionate to engine D. thermopile
Ans: B Ans: D speed
5227 If fuel tank levels are found to have increased after a grounding, 5228 Regulations require gears, couplings, flywheels, and all machinery Ans: A Ans: B
you should suspect _______________. capable of injuring personnel shall be ____________. 5235 Which of the listed devices may be installed on a large turbo- 5236 Moisture damage, as a result of condensation occurring inside of
electric alternating current propulsion generator? the cargo winch master switches, can be reducedby
A. a damaged pneumercator line A. protected with adequate covers or guards __________________.
B. a puncture, crack, or hole in the skin of the vessel B. identified by yellow and black warning signs A. Temperature detector coils inserted in the stator slots for measuring A. installing a light bulb in the pedestal stand
C. improper record keeping of fuel transfer activities C. conspicuously identified as to their particular hazard stator temperature.
D. contamination of the contaminated steam supply system D. located where they may not be easily contacted B. A CO2 fire extinguishing system. B. coating the switch box internals with epoxy sealer
Ans: B Ans: A C. Electric space heaters to prevent condensation of moisture. C. venting the switch box regularly
5229 The explosive range of a mixture of flammable vapors is specified 5230 What operational limitation should the user of a self-contained D. All of the above. D. using strip heaters inside the switch box
as a percentage of ________. breathing apparatus be concerned with when using the device? Ans: D Ans: D
5237 The output voltage of a 440 volt, 60 hertz, AC generator is controlled 5238 Any electric motor can be constructed to be _____________.
A. flammable vapor by volume in air A. The weight of the unit changes the user's center of gravity. by the _____________.
B. oxygen present to support combustion B. The lens of the facepiece reduces the user's peripheral vision. A. prime mover speed A. short proof
B. exciter output voltage B. ground proof
C. the temperature of the flash point C. The attached lifeline limits the user's mobility. C. load on the alternator C. explosion proof
D. the lower limit of explosibility of the mixture D. All of the above are correct. D. number of poles D. overload proof
Ans: A Ans: D Ans: B Ans: C
5239 The electrolyte used in a nickel-cadmium battery is distilled water 5240 Which of the damages listed can occur to the components of a
and ______________. winch master control switch, if the cover gasket becomes
deteriorated?
A. diluted sulfuric acid A. Overheating of the winch motor.
B. potassium hydroxide B. Contamination of lube oil.
C. lead sulfate C. Sparking at the winch motor brushes.
D. zinc oxide D. Rapid corrosion of switch components.
Ans: B Ans: D
5241 While starting a main propulsion synchronous motor, the ammeter 5242 The purpose of a short circuit forcing module (short time trip)
pegs out at maximum and then returns to the proper value after installed in a branch line is to provide ____________.
synchronization. This indicates the _____________.

A. motor has started properly A. high speed clearance of low impedance short circuits in the branch

B. field windings are grounded B. continuity of service on main bus under short circuit conditions in a
branch
C. slip rings are dirty C. isolation of short circuits by selective tripping of branch circuit
breakers
D. power transmission cables are grounded D. all of the above
Ans: A Ans: D
5243 Autotransformer starters or compensators are sometimes usedwith 5244 In an AC synchronous motor electric propulsion plant,propeller
polyphase induction motors to _____________. speed is controlled by varying the _____________.

A. reduce the voltage applied to the motor during the starting period A. prime mover speed

B. increase the voltage for "across-the-line starting" B. electric coupling field strength
C. provide a backup means of voltage regulation for emergency starting C. number of energized main motor poles

D. allow the voltage to be either stepped up or down, depending on the D. propulsion generator field strength
application, to ensure full torque
Ans: A Ans: A
5245 Grounds occurring in electrical machinery as a result of insulation 5246 The amount of voltage induced in the windings of an AC generator
failure may result from _____________. depends on ____________.
A. deterioration through extended use A. the number of conductors in series per winding
B. excessive heat B. the speed at which the magnetic field passes across the winding

C. extended periods of vibration C. the strength of the magnetic field

D. all of the above D. all of the above
Ans: D Ans: D
 Page 291 Page 292

5247 The device that most commonly utilizes the principle of 5248 A tubular fuse should always be removed from a fuse panel with D. farads D. steady voltmeter reading, while the other coil readings are fluctuating
electromagnetic induction is the _____________. _____________.
A. diode A. a screwdriver Ans: A Ans: B
B. transformer B. a pair of insulated metal pliers 5263 The electrical energy necessary to transmit a person's voice over a 5264 Which of the listed procedures should be carried out to prevent
C. transistor C. any insulated object sound-powered telephone circuit is obtained from _____________. moisture damage to electrical apparatus during extended periods of
D. rheostat D. fuse pullers idleness?
Ans: B Ans: D A. dry cell batteries A. Fill the motor housing with CO2 to inert the space.
5249 Which of the following statements concerning analog anddigital 5250 The number of cells in a 12 volt lead-acid battery is B. the ship's service switchboard B. Strap silica gel around the commutator.
devices are correct? ________________. C. the emergency switchboard C. Place heat lamps in the motor housings.
A. The variables in digital systems are fixed quantities, and the A. three cells D. the speaker's voice D. Cover the equipment with a canvas tarpaulin.
variables in analog systems are continuous quantities. Ans: D Ans: C
B. There are no basic differences between the two systems. B. four cells 5265 Which of the listed conditions is an advantage of a PNdiode over a 5266 The freezing point of the electrolyte in a fully charged lead-acid
C. Analog devices are superior in accuracy compared to digital devices. C. six cells vacuum diode? battery will be _____________.
A. Longer life. A. higher than in a discharged battery
D. Operations in a digital device are performed simultaneously. D. twelve cells B. No warm up time. B. lower than in a discharged battery
Ans: A Ans: C C. Less delicate. C. the same as in a discharged battery
5251 The current at which a magnetic-type overload relay tends to trip 5252 Protection against sustained overloads occurring in molded-case D. All of the above. D. higher than in a discharged battery, but the specific gravity will be
may be decreased by raising the plunger further into the magnetic circuit breakers is provided by a/an __________. less
circuit of the relay. This action ___________. Ans: D Ans: B
A. reduces magnetic pull on the plunger and requires more current to A. overvoltage release 5267 A shading coil used in an AC magnetic controller, functions to 5268 In a cartridge-type fuse, the metal element is contained in a
trip the relay _____________. ___________________.
B. reduces magnetic pull on the plunger and requires less current to B. thermal acting trip A. reduce vibration and noise in the contactor A. porcelain window
trip the relay B. prevent flux buildup in the operating coil B. thermal cut out
C. increases magnetic pull on the plunger and requires more current to C. thermal overload relay C. eliminate arcing when the contacts close C. fiber tube
trip the relay D. energize the operating coil and "pull in" the contacts D. flasher device
D. increases magnetic pull on the plunger and requires less current to D. current overload relay Ans: A Ans: C
trip the relay 5269 Time delayed or delayed action-type fuses are designed to 5270 Silicon diodes designed for a specific reverse breakdown voltage,
Ans: D Ans: B _____________. become useful as an electronic power supply voltage regulator,
5253 Regarding an AC generator connected to the main electrical bus; as 5254 In an induction motor, rotor currents are circulated in therotor by called _____________.
the electric load and power factor vary, a corresponding change is _____________. A. prevent grounds in branch circuits A. tunnel diodes
reflected in the generator armature reaction. These changes in B. prevent opens in motor circuits B. hot-carrier diodes
armature reaction are compensated for by the _________ C. permit momentary overloads without melting C. compensating diodes
D. guard lighting and electronic circuits D. Zener diodes
A. governor speed droop setting A. slip rings and brushes Ans: C Ans: D
B. voltage regulator B. an armature and brushes 5271 To effectively clean a commutator in good physical condition, you 5272 What will be the phase angle relationship of a six-pole, three-phase,
C. balance coil C. inductive reaction of the rotating stator field should use ____________. rotating field generator?
D. phase-balance relay D. external variable resistors A. trichloride ethylene A. 60°
Ans: B Ans: C B. kerosene B. 120°
5255 Electrical leads and insulation on a motor should be painted with 5256 Voltage generated by most AC generators is fed from the machine C. a canvas wiper C. 180°
____________. to the bus by means of ____________. D. a commutator stone D. 360°
A. heat-resisting acrylic A. brushes on a commutator Ans: C Ans: B
B. heat-resisting aluminum B. brushes on slip rings 5273 When charging lead-acid batteries, you should reduce the charging 5274 Ammeters and voltmeters used in sinusoidal AC power
C. insulating varnish C. slip rings on a commutator rate as the battery nears its full charge capacity to ______________. systemsindicate which of the following values of the waveforms
D. insulating white lead D. direct connections from the stator measured?
Ans: C Ans: D A. prevent excessive gassing and overheating A. Peak value
5257 The alarm system for an engine order telegraph uses small selsyn 5258 As a general rule, the first troubleshooting action to be taken in B. allow equalization of cell voltages B. Root-mean-square value
motors attached to the indicators. The alarm soundswhen the rotors checking faulty electric control devices is to _____________. C. reduce lead sulfate deposits C. Average value
are _____________. D. increase lead peroxide formation D. Maximum value
A. in synchronous position, no current is flowing, and the relays are A. draw a one line diagram of the circuitry Ans: A Ans: B
open 5275 Since fuse elements are made of zinc or any alloy of tin and lead, 5276 Which of the following statements correctly applies to transistors?
B. in synchronous position, no current is flowing, and the relays are B. test all fuses and measure the line voltage the melting point of the fuse element must be _____________.
closed
C. not synchronized, current is flowing, and the relays are open C. take megger readings A. higher than that of copper A. NDN and PNP are the two basic types of transistors.
D. not synchronized, current is flowing, and the relays are closed D. insulate the apparatus from ground B. lower than that of copper B. The three terminals are called the emitter, base, and collector.

Ans: D Ans: B C. equal to that of copper C. The emitter separates the base and collector.
5259 Which of the following statements is correct concerning the circuits 5260 The first requirement for logical troubleshooting of any system is the D. reached when the conductor it is protecting becomes "white hot." D. The collector separates the emitter and base.
in a sound powered telephone system? ability to ______________.
A. The ringing circuit is composed of only one common wire to ground. A. collect all available data on a casualty Ans: B Ans: B
5277 Fuses are rated in _____________. 5278 Which of the following statements comparing transistors and
B. The common talking circuit is composed of two ungrounded wires. B. recognize normal operation vacuum tubes is correct?
A. voltage A. Both transistors and vacuum tubes have a cathode that must be
C. The ringing circuit has two grounded wires connected to each C. identify the probable cause of a symptom heated to give off electrons.
station. B. amperage B. A vacuum tube must have a heated cathode, where transistors do
D. The talking and calling circuits are electrically dependent upon each D. isolate the faulty component not.
other. C. interrupting capacity C. Neither transistors nor vacuum tubes require heat for electrons to
Ans: B Ans: B flow.
5261 AC circuits possess characteristics of resistance, inductance, and 5262 A low voltage source is being used for testing armature coils. A coil D. all the above D. The anode of both transistors and vacuum tubes must be heated to
capacitance. The capacitive reactance of acircuit is expressed in short circuit will be indicated by a _______. give off electrons.
_____________. Ans: D Ans: B
A. ohms A. high voltage reading, while the other coil readings will have an equal 5279 A damper winding is designed as part of a synchronous motor to 5280 The type of control circuit that will not permit automatic restarting
or lower value ____________. after power is restored, following a power failure is called
B. mhos B. low or zero voltage reading, while the other coils will have higher _____________.
readings A. increase efficiency A. low voltage protection
C. henrys C. fluctuating voltmeter reading, while the other coil readings are steady B. provide starting torque B. low voltage release
C. provide excitation C. overload lockout
 Page 293 Page 294

D. eliminate slippage D. reduced voltage restart B. The shunt field rheostats are interconnected. B. permit a greater air gap with the starter
Ans: B Ans: A C. The series fields of both generators are connected in series. C. permit a smaller air gap with the starter
5281 Which of the following types of motors is often designedfor use in 5282 Electric cables are formed of stranded wire to ____________. D. The series fields of both generators are connected in parallel. D. reduce eddy current losses
correcting power factor?
A. Polyphase A. increase the current carrying capability for a given size wire Ans: D Ans: A
B. Wound-rotor B. increase their flexibility 5299 When using a megohmmeter to test insulation, good insulation will 5300 A three-phase, induction-type motor experiences an open in one
C. Induction C. decrease the weight for a given size wire be indicated by _____________. phase. Which of the listed automatic protective devices will prevent
D. Synchronous D. assure good conductivity at junction points the machine from being damaged?
Ans: D Ans: B A. slight kicks of the needle down scale A. Overspeed trip
5283 The purpose of amortisseur windings in a synchronous motor is to 5284 A lead-acid battery is considered fully charged when the B. a downward dip followed by a gradual climb to the true resistance B. Thermal overload relay
______________. ______________. value
A. reduce eddy current losses A. electrolyte gasses freely C. a gradual rise in the pointer reading at the outset C. Three-pole safety switch
B. produce a higher power factor B. battery charger ammeter indicates a positive reading D. the initial dip of the pointer D. Magnetic blowout coil
C. provide a means for starting C. terminal voltage reaches a constant value at a given temperature Ans: B Ans: B
5301 The process, whereby electrons gain sufficient energy to bereleased 5302 Before testing insulation with a megohmmeter, the windings of large
D. eliminate arcing between the stator and the rotor D. specific gravity of all cells reaches the correct value and no longer from the surface of a thin, heated metal plate, isknown as machines should be grounded for about 15 minutes just prior to the
increases over a period of 1 to 4 hours _____________. test as the ______________.
Ans: C Ans: D A. photo electric emission A. insulation may be damaged
5285 High vacuum diodes, gas-filled diodes, and germanium 5286 Local action in a dry-cell, or lead-acid storage battery is the process B. secondary emission B. insulation may be covered with moisture
semiconductor diodes may all be used as _____________. whereby ________________. C. thermionic emission C. armature windings will have a greater number of leakage paths
A. potentiometers A. hydrogen gas is liberated
B. rectifiers B. the electrolyte compensates for overcharging D. regressive emission D. larger machines may acquire a charge of static electricity during
C. power sources C. potassium hydroxide absorbs carbon dioxide from the air operation
D. photocells D. the battery becomes discharged without being connected to a load Ans: C Ans: D
5303 The multiple prefix "tera" (T) means ____________. 5304 Most conducting materials such as copper, aluminum, iron, nickel,
Ans: B Ans: D and tungsten _____________.
5287 Large cable sizes are formed as individual conductors that may be 5288 The conversion of the throttle command voltage to thesignal A. thousand (10 to the 3rd power) A. increase in resistance with increased temperature
comprised of several smaller strands to __________. necessary to achieve the desired shaft RPM isaccomplished by the B. million (10 to the 6th power) B. increase in resistance with decreased temperature
_____________. C. billion (10 to the 9th power) C. decrease in resistance with increased temperature
A. obtain the flexibility required for easy handling A. ahead or astern function generator of the throttle control circuit D. trillion (10 to the 12th power) D. increase in conductance with increased temperature
Ans: D Ans: A
B. reduce the overall weight of the wire run B. feedback resistor of the summing amplifier circuit 5305 In a series circuit, which value will remain unchanged at all places in 5306 If the pointer fails to return to zero when a megger is disconnected,
C. reduce the number of supports needed for a horizontal overhead C. operational amplifiers in the autorotation circuit the circuit? the _____________.
run A. Voltage A. pointer is stuck
D. all of the above D. long time constant amplifier circuit B. Current B. hair springs are burned out
Ans: A Ans: A C. Resistance C. megger is out of calibration
5289 A hydrometer indicates specific gravity by comparing the 5290 The unit of apparent power in a purely inductive circuit is called the D. Inductance D. megger is operating normally
_____________. _____________. Ans: B Ans: D
A. density of a substance in water with the density of the same A. kva 5307 Which of the listed conditions describes the effect on intrinsic 5308 In electronic circuits, DC voltages can be positive (+) or negative (-)
substance in air semiconductor operation as a result of a temperature increase? when measured with respect to the _________.
B. differences in weight between water and the liquid measured B. var
A. Additional heat sinks will be required A. printed circuit board "common" trace
C. mass of substance measured with the density of the same C. emf B. Conductivity will increase B. chassis, console frame or hull "ground"
substance C. Conductivity will decrease C. analogue or digital circuitry "common" bus
D. buoyancy of an object in water with the buoyancy of the same object D. watt D. Resistivity will increase D. all of the above
in the liquid being measured Ans: B Ans: D
Ans: D Ans: B 5309 To minimize magnetic field interaction between electrical conductors 5310 Capacitors are used on the output of the power supply in today's
5291 A common type of protective covering used on electrical conductors 5292 The main difference between an electron tube and a transistor is in physical proximity, it is best to keep them ___________________. consoles to _____________.
is _____________. the _____________.
A. plain paper A. type of function they can perform A. parallel and as close as possible to each other A. filter out "ripple"
B. fibrous braid B. reaction of electron flow through a gas or vacuum in a transistor B. at right angles and as close as possible to each other B. prevent overloads
C. parallel to and as far as practicable from each other C. act as a permanent load
C. silver sheathing C. reaction of electron flow through a semiconductor when placed in a D. at right angles and as far as practicable from each other D. decrease the average value of the output voltage
tube Ans: D Ans: A
D. babbitt sheathing D. reaction of electron flow through a semiconductor used to form a 5311 The purpose of a motor undervoltage protection device is to 5312 Which of the following components are used to assemble a
transistor _____________. fluorescent lighting system?
Ans: B Ans: D A. prevent high armature current when power is restored A. Lamp
5293 An across-the-line starter is typically used for which of the following 5294 The multiple prefix "kilo" means ____________. B. start the motor at a very low voltage B. Starter
applications? C. trip the load off the motor in case of fire C. Ballast
A. Reduced-current starting of large motors A. thousand (10 to the 3rd power) D. protect personnel from low voltage shocks D. All of the above
B. Low torque starting of small motors B. million (10 to the 6th power) Ans: A Ans: D
C. Low resistance starting of DC motors C. billion (10 to the 9th power) 5313 Low voltage releases as used in some shipboard motor starter and 5314 The schematic symbol for an operational amplifier in an analog
D. Full-voltage starting of motors D. trillion (10 to the 12 power) control equipment will have which of the following characteristics? circuit is a _________.
Ans: D Ans: A
5295 Before testing insulation with a megohmmeter, the windings of large 5296 A double squirrel-cage motor is designed to have__________. A. They trip circuit contactors when the motor starts to overspeed. A. circle
machines should be grounded for about 15 minutes just prior to the
test, because the ___________. B. They require manual resetting upon restoration of normal voltage. B. square
A. static charge of the machine may give a false reading A. low starting torque
B. armature will have a greater number of leakage paths B. low starting current C. They use a phase sensitive relay to trip contacts in series with the C. trapezoid
C. insulation may be damaged C. high starting voltage holding coil of the starter.
D. insulation may be covered with moisture D. low starting resistance D. They allow the motor to restart upon restoration of normal voltage. D. triangle
Ans: A Ans: B
5297 Which of the methods listed is used to maintain equal load sharing 5298 The rotor slots of a repulsion-type motor are generally skewed Ans: D Ans: D
between two compound wound DC generators operating in parallel? (placed nonparallel to the rotor axis) to _________. 5315 A motor controller contains three selector push buttons labeled 5316 For more complete vessel protection when using an impressed
"start", "jog", and "stop". When the "jog" button is pushed, the motor current cathodic system _____________.
A. The shunt fields are interconnected. A. produce a constant starting torque _____________.
 Page 295 Page 296

A. will run continuously after the "jog" button is released A. all ship's service alternators have additional temperature sensing C. excessive ambient temperature C. The unit should remain off for the specified amount of time so as not
devices and a thermal recorder installed to disturb curing.
B. will run until the "jog" button is released B. machinery on deck and in the engineroom is first coated with zinc D. excessive magnetic gap D. A slight (10-15%) overcurrent to the anodes should be allowed in
chromate before final painting order to speed drying.
C. will not start until both the "jog" and "start" buttons are pushed C. the hull's magnetic fields are aligned with a solid-state degaussing Ans: B Ans: C
circuit using SCR's 5331 Possible phase relationships between voltage and current in an 5332 A suspected "open" in a motor field can be tested by using a/an
D. will not stop unless the "stop" button is pushed D. straps connect the rudder with the hull and the propeller shaft is alternating current circuit include which of the following conditions? ____________.
grounded through a slip ring/brush arrangement
Ans: B Ans: D A. Current and voltage may be in phase. A. potentiometer
5317 When you are making a high potential test on a piece of repaired 5318 What is the function of the interpoles installed in DC motors? B. Current may lead the voltage. B. megger
electrical machinery, a rise in leakage current indicates C. Current may lag the voltage. C. wattmeter
____________. D. All of the above. D. ammeter
A. good insulation A. To provide greater torque by strengthening the main field. Ans: D Ans: B
B. bad insulation B. To provide sparkless commutation without having to shift the 5333 Which of the procedures listed could result in damaging a transistor 5334 Basically, a magnetic amplifier is a saturable reactor withthe addition
brushes. beyond repair? of _____________.
C. high insulation power factor C. To limit the production of counter-electromotive force. A. Applying incorrect polarity to the collector circuit. A. AC to the bias winding
D. a high slot discharge factor D. To limit the starting surge current. B. Applying excessive voltage to the input circuit. B. variable capacitance to all windings
Ans: B Ans: B C. Careless soldering which would overheat the transistor. C. eddy current protectors
5319 Regarding an induction motor, the power developed by the rotor 5320 You are testing the insulation in an AC generator with a D. All of the above. D. a rectifier in the load circuit
automatically adjusts itself to the _____________. megohmeter. The resistance value of a dry, clean winding will Ans: D Ans: D
____________. 5335 If the contacts of a motor starter or controller fail to drop out when 5336 A capacitor discolored due to excessive heat should be
A. power required to drive the load A. continue to rise as the test potential is maintained, becoming fairly the "stop" button is depressed the ____________. _____________.
steady as the leakage current stabilizes A. contacts are carrying excessive current A. calibrated
B. speed required to drive the load B. remain constant as the temperature of the windings increases B. contacts have become welded together B. replaced
C. shading coil is broken C. cooled
C. current flow in the motor stator C. continue to drop as the potential is maintained, becoming fairly D. shading coil is loose D. soldered
steady after 5 to 7 minutes Ans: B Ans: B
D. torque developed by the rotating field D. stabilize after approximately 2 to 4 minutes of fluctuation 5337 Grease coatings on electrical contact surfaces increase contact 5338 A ground in an electrical circuit outside the engine room
Ans: A Ans: A resistance and should be removed with a/an _______________. _____________.
5321 Routine maintenance of dry-type transformers should include 5322 The sub-multiple prefix "micro" (Greek letter 'mu') means
____________. ____________. A. small wire brush A. cannot be detected under normal conditions
A. cleaning the windings, if accessible, with a vacuum cleaner or very A. thousandth (10 to the -3rd power) B. compressed air jet B. is of no consequence to engineering personnel
low pressure air C. clean dry cloth C. is indicated at the branch circuit breaker panel
B. measuring and recording the winding temperature with an accurate B. millionth (10 to the -6th power) D. 10% solution carbon solvent and water D. is indicated by the ground detecting lamps on the main switchboard
mercury thermometer
C. periodic cleaning of the winding insulation with an approved solvent C. billionth (10 to the -9th power) Ans: C Ans: D
5339 Controller contacts should be routinely cleaned by ________. 5340 The third color band on a resistor is used to indicate the
D. making sure that the units are close to bulkheads or corners to D. trillionth (10 to the -12th power) ______________.
protect them from damage A. blowing with compressed air A. tolerance of the resistor
Ans: A Ans: B B. filing with a bastard file B. number of zeros following the first two significant figures in the
5323 The part of the shipboard electrical system used to control the 5324 The amount of current flow required for the cathodic protection of a resistance value
distribution of power to the branch circuits, is the _____________. vessel is dependent upon the _________. C. wiping with a clean dry cloth C. first significant figure of the resistance
D. dressing with crocus cloth D. second significant figure of the resistance
A. bridge control panel A. amount of bare steel surface Ans: C Ans: B
B. disconnect links B. speed of the ship through the water 5341 When troubleshooting AC motors, a portable growler can be used 5342 Impressed current cathodic protection is used on vessels instead of
C. governor relay box C. temperature of the water for locating ____________. _________________.
D. main switchboard D. all of the above A. open field coils A. fire alarm systems
Ans: D Ans: D B. grounded field coils B. repeated painting
5325 A switchboard for an AC electrical system requires the use of which 5326 When replacing a power transistor fitted with a heat sink in a circuit, C. grounded stator coils C. sacrificial zincs
of the following devices? a coating of silicone grease is applied between the transistor case D. shorted stator coils D. vacuum tube degaussing systems
and the heat sink. This is done to ____________. Ans: D Ans: C
5343 When charging a nickel-cadmium battery, ____________. 5344 Common basic applications for the operational amplifier include
A. Frequency meter. A. lubricate the transistor ____________.
B. Ohmmeter. B. lubricate the heat sink A. the charging rate should be lessened when gassing commences A. counting, pulsing and clocking amplifiers
C. Induction voltage regulator. C. aid in the removal of the heat sink
D. Current transformer governor. D. provide maximum heat transfer B. overcharging should be avoided B. summing, scaling and difference amplifiers
Ans: A Ans: D C. the specific gravity of the electrolyte will be unaffected by the state C. step-up, step-down and rectifying amplifiers
5327 One function of the movable cams in a drum-type motor controller is 5328 The point of operation for a saturable reactor in a power circuit is of charge
to _____________. that at which _______________. D. add distilled water just prior to charging to insure proper mixing D. all of the above
A. regulate the speed of the motor A. a large change in control current results in small change in load
current Ans: C Ans: B
B. maintain resistance contacts in clean condition B. a small change in load current results in a large change in control 5345 Which of the listed items will stop a motor due to a reduction in 5346 The timer element found in a reverse power relay obtains its
current voltage and restart it when the voltage is restored to normal? operating torque via _____________.
C. insulate the operating handle C. a small change in control current results in a large change in load
current A. Low voltage protection circuit A. line voltage
D. limit the amount of load put on the motor D. a large change in load current causes a small change in control B. Non-renewable link fuse B. the main bus
current C. Renewable link fuse C. electromagnets
Ans: A Ans: C D. Low voltage release circuit D. a separate battery source
5329 Magnetic controller contacts may become welded together during 5330 What precaution should be taken with a vessel's impressed current Ans: D Ans: C
operation due to _____________. cathodic protection system after a drydocking period during which 5347 The difference between the synchronous speed of an induction 5348 The set point current at which a magnetic-type overload relay tends
the hull has been painted? machine and its operating speed (slip) may be correctly expressed to trip may be increased by turning the dashpot in the "lower"
A. an open coil A. Output currents should be carefully monitored to assure operation at _____________. direction. This action _____________.
nearly 100 % capacity for proper curing. A. as a percent of synchronous speed A. reduces magnetic force on the plunger and requires more current to
B. low contact pressure B. Reference cell voltages should be maintained at half the normal trip the relay
range for approximately 48 hours. B. as a decimal fraction of synchronous speed B. reduces magnetic force on the plunger and requires less current to
trip the relay
 Page 297 Page 298

C. directly in revolutions per minute C. increases magnetic force on the plunger and requires more current 5365 As load is added to an AC generator provided with constant field 5366 A characteristic of an induction motor with a low resistance rotor
to trip the relay excitation, the prime mover slows down with the effect of winding is _____________.
D. as all of the above D. increases magnetic force on the plunger and requires less current to ____________.
trip the relay A. lowering frequency and lowering generated voltage A. high starting voltage
Ans: A Ans: A B. increasing frequency and increasing generated voltage B. high starting current
5349 Which of the listed statements is correct when using an analog 5350 Kilowatt load is divided between two AC generators operating in C. increasing frequency and lowering generated voltage C. high slippage
multimeter as an ohmmeter? parallel by _____________. D. lowering frequency and increasing generated voltage D. low starting voltage
A. The pointer should be adjusted to zero each time a new resistance A. adjusting the governor controls Ans: A Ans: B
range is selected. 5367 The most inefficient method of voltage reduction from the stand 5368 Which is a function of the voltage regulators used with
B. The pointer will move to infinity when the meter is not in use. B. varying the excitation voltage point of power loss, is a/an _____________. ACgenerators?
C. Ohmmeters are not sufficiently sized to measure conductor C. increasing both prime mover speeds simultaneously A. capacitor in series with the load A. To cut out generators when they are no longer required.
insulation resistance. B. inductor in series with the load B. To cut in additional generators automatically as required.
D. All of the above. D. decreasing both prime mover speeds simultaneously C. capacitor and inductor in series with the load C. To divide the KW load equally between generators operating in
Ans: D Ans: A parallel.
5351 When a nickel-cadium battery begins gassing while connected to the 5352 The frequency of an alternator at a given RPM is determined by the D. resistor in series with the load D. To divide reactive current between generators operating in parallel.
battery charging circuit, you should _____________. _____________.
Ans: D Ans: D
A. do nothing as this is a normal condition when charging A. number of turns of wire in the armature coil 5369 A transformer works on the basic principle of ____________. 5370 Before measuring an unknown resistance with an ohmmeter, you
B. add distilled water to each cell to reduce the specific gravity of the B. number of magnetic poles should _____________.
electrolyte A. self impedance A. adjust the meter's pointer to mid-scale
C. add potassium hydroxide to each cell to increase the specific gravity C. strength of the magnets used B. attraction and repulsion B. short the test leads and calibrate the meter reading to "zero"
of the electrolyte C. mutual induction C. change the meter's batteries
D. decrease the charging rate D. output voltage D. increasing power D. center the meter's pointer at infinity
Ans: A Ans: B Ans: C Ans: B
5353 In a three-phase circuit, the phase voltages are _____________. 5354 A solid-state circuit is inoperative; the FIRST action that should be 5371 An ohmmeter can be used to measure ____________. 5372 Under normal conditions, the speed of a two-speed squirrel cage
taken is to ____________. induction motor is changed by varying the ____________.
A. 120‚ apart A. wiggle all the components to check for loose connections
B. 160‚ apart B. check all the resistors A. current flow in a circuit A. frequency of the applied voltage
C. 180‚ apart C. change all transistors B. voltage between two points in a circuit B. resistance in the rotor circuit
D. 360‚ apart D. check the DC supply voltage C. circuit continuity C. number of field poles
Ans: A Ans: D D. power D. amplitude of the applied voltage
5355 When troubleshooting electronic equipment, the FIRST step to be 5356 When charging a 100 amp-hour lead-acid battery, ___________. Ans: C Ans: C
taken before testing the circuit voltage is to _________. 5373 The basic operating principle of a transformer is attributedto 5374 Which of the meters listed should only be used after a circuit has
A. set the meter to the lowest range A. the temperature of the electrolyte should not be allowed to exceed ______________. been electrically disconnected?
32oC A. electromagnetic induction A. Wattmeter
B. check the voltage supply from the power source B. the charging rate should be no greater than 125% of the battery B. variance of a conductor in a magnetic field B. Frequency meter
amp-hour rating C. mutual reaction C. Ammeter
C. remove the suspected component C. the source of power for charging should be 2.5 volts per cell D. thermionic emission D. Ohmmeter
D. check the current flow through the circuit D. gassing within the battery decreases when nearing full charge and it Ans: A Ans: D
will be necessary to reduce the charging current to a low finishing 5375 When using an ohmmeter to test a semiconductor diode, you find a 5376 The capacity of a storage battery is measured in ______________.
rate low resistance in both the forward and reverse bias directions. This
Ans: B Ans: C indicates that the diode has a/an ____________.
5357 The charging of lead-acid storage batteries will always result in 5358 When the current flow through a power transmission line is doubled,
__________. the power loss _____________. A. open A. volts
A. dangerous acid burns A. is halved B. short B. ampere-hours
B. a dangerously explosive gas being liberated B. is doubled C. good resistive quality C. farads
C. the danger of lead poisoning C. is quadrupled D. good capacitive quality D. amps
D. all of the above D. remains the same Ans: B Ans: B
Ans: B Ans: C 5377 The pitting of controller contacts can be caused by 5378 A transformer in an electric circuit serves to ____________.
5359 Transformers are used onboard ships with AC generators to 5360 A full-wave rectifier has one diode burned out in an open condition, _____________.
_____________. what will be the output characteristic of the device? A. excessive spring pressure A. generate its own electrical power
B. insufficient contact pressure B. transform electrical energy into mechanical energy
A. change frequency A. Zero C. continuous motor overload C. increase or decrease circuit voltage as required
B. increase power output to modulating frequency controllers B. Half-wave rectified D. all of the above D. convert AC current to DC current
C. decrease power output to modulating frequency controllers C. Full-wave rectified Ans: B Ans: C
D. permit higher voltage for electric motor operation and low voltage for D. Equal to the AC input 5379 The main purpose of an electric space heater installed in a large AC 5380 The speed of a squirrel-cage induction motor is determined by the
lighting circuits generator is to _____________. ____________.
Ans: D Ans: B A. prevent the windings from becoming brittle A. diameter of the stator
5361 The function of the autotransformers used with the starters of large 5362 When lead-acid batteries are charging, they always give off B. prevent moisture from condensing in the windings during shutdown B. number of stator poles
AC motors is to provide _____________. hydrogen gas that is _____________.
A. increased voltage for starting A. considered inert C. prevent acidic pitting of the slip rings C. rotor winding resistance
B. increased torque for starting B. highly explosive D. keep the lube oil warm for quick starting D. rotor conducting bars resistance
C. reduced voltage for starting C. extremely toxic Ans: B Ans: B
D. speed control D. heavier than air 5381 Prior to starting an AC generator prime mover, the voltage regulator 5382 A loud buzzing noise at the contacts of a magnetic controller could
Ans: C Ans: B cutout switch should be placed in the __________. indicate _____________.
5363 Reversing any two of the three rotor leads on a wound-rotor 5364 Which of the following conditions is most likely to occur if a single A. manual position A. weak contact spring pressure
induction motor will _____________. element fuse were used to replace a blown dual element fuse in a B. bus neutral position B. misalignment of the magnet faces
motor controller circuit? C. raise voltage position C. excessive line current
A. increase motor performance A. The fuse will blow when the motor is started. D. transfer position D. mechanical binding
B. decrease motor performance B. The fuse works, but overheats at high motor loads. Ans: A Ans: B
C. reverse the motor rotation C. The motor runs at reduced voltage. 5383 When securing an AC generator, you should FIRST___________. 5384 The speed of a squirrel-cage motor is usually changed by
D. have no effect on the direction of rotation or motor performance D. The motor runs normally. _____________.
A. open the generator circuit breaker A. varying the frequency to the machine
Ans: D Ans: A B. switch the voltage regulator to "manual" B. adding resistance in series with the stator windings
C. decrease the field excitation to minimum C. adding resistance in parallel with the stator windings
D. reduce the load on the unit D. changing the number of connected poles in the stator
 Page 299 Page 300

Ans: D Ans: D B. A CO2 fire extinguishing system. B. always less than the power used in the smallest load
5385 Which of the following actions must be carried out before a voltage 5386 The cycles per second developed by the alternator aboard your C. Electric space heaters to prevent condensation of moisture. C. the sum of the powers used in each individual load
tester can be used to test the three line fuses to a three-phase vessel is determined by _____________. D. All of the above. D. never more than the power used in the largest load
motor? Ans: D Ans: C
A. The fuses must be removed from the circuit. A. the speed of the engine driving the alternator 5405 The arc resulting from the tripping of a circuit breaker is prevented 5406 When a lead-acid battery begins gassing freely while receiving a
B. The starter must be placed in the STOP position to stop the motor. B. the resistance applied to the field rheostat from damaging the contacts by _____________. normal charge, the charging current should _____________.

C. The three line connections in the motor terminal box must be C. the synchronous speed of induction A. designing the contacts to open slowly A. be increased
disconnected and tagged. B. directing the arc into an arc chute B. remain unchanged
D. Nothing need be done as long as the motor is running under a light D. the adjustments made to the voltage regulator C. an inverse timed thermal trip for short circuit currents C. be decreased
load. D. instantaneous magnetic trip for overload currents D. shut off
Ans: B Ans: A Ans: B Ans: C
5387 The existing resistance of a conductor is dependent upon its length, 5388 The frequency of an AC generator is adjusted by means of the 5407 When the voltage remains constant, and the resistance increases in 5408 A DC ammeter is always connected ______________.
cross-sectional area, _____________. ____________. a series circuit, current flow _____________.
A. temperature and insulation A. main alternator field rheostat A. decreases A. in series with a circuit
B. material and insulation B. exciter field rheostat B. remains the same B. in parallel with a circuit
C. resistive coefficient and material C. prime mover governor control C. increases C. with internal shunts only
D. material and temperature D. equalizing reactor D. increases by the square D. without regard to polarity
Ans: D Ans: C Ans: A Ans: A
5389 In a simple DC circuit, the resistance is held constant while the 5390 When measuring AC current flow, you must always connect the 5409 An operational amplifier, as used in today's consoles, may have a 5410 Under which of the following conditions will a lead-acid battery be
applied voltage is halved. Current flow, therefore, will meter _____________. calculated gain of 5. This means that as the input changes by given a "test discharge"?
______________. ______________.
A. double A. in series with the power source and load A. 1 volt, the output changes 5 volts A. To determine its capacity.
B. remain the same B. in parallel with the power source and load B. 5 volts, the output changes 1 volt B. Whenever a cell cannot be brought within 10 points of full charge
C. be divided by two C. insuring correct polarity specific gravity.
D. be divided by four D. using the lowest range possible to prevent instrument damage C. 5 volts, the output changes 10 volts C. When one or more cells is found to have less than normal voltage
after an equalizing charge.
Ans: C Ans: A D. 10 volts, the output changes 5 volts D. All of the above.
5391 To conduct an in-circuit test of a transistor, you should use a/an 5392 The specific gravity of the electrolyte solution in a lead acid battery Ans: A Ans: D
____________. _____________. 5411 Nickel-cadmium batteries are superior to lead-acid batteries at high 5412 When the operating handle of a molded-case circuit breaker is in the
A. voltmeter or transistor tester A. is not effected during charging discharge rates because they _______________. mid-position, the circuit breaker is indicated as being ____________.
B. impedance meter B. remains the same during discharge
C. ohmmeter or transistor tester C. would read close to 1.830 when discharged A. deliver a large amount of power and can be recharged in a shorter A. in the "closed" position
D. wattmeter D. gives an indication of the state of charge of the battery time
Ans: A Ans: D B. need fewer cells in connected series and less mounting space B. in the "opened" position
5393 Normally, the FIRST step in troubleshooting a transistor circuit card 5394 During discharge of a lead-acid storage battery, which of the
is to _____________. following actions occurs? C. have higher output voltages and require no maintenance C. tripped
A. carefully remove the transistors from the card A. The acid becomes stronger. D. all of the above D. reset
B. give the circuit an initial test with a signal generator B. Both plates change chemically to ammonium chloride. Ans: A Ans: C
C. test for continuity with a low voltage DC supply C. The acid becomes weaker. 5413 Which of the following represents a characteristic of an ungrounded 5414 What is the approximate voltage per cell produced by the nickel-iron
D. visually inspect the card D. Hydrogen gas is liberated. electrical distribution system? (Edison) battery?
Ans: D Ans: C A. Accidental contact between one line and ground does not cause an A. 0.85 volts
5395 If many turns of an alternating current coil for a contactor become 5396 A bus disconnect link is used to isolate _____________. outage.
short circuited, the coil _____________. B. Double ground faults on different phases will not cause an outage. B. 1.35 volts
A. temperature will drop A. one bus bar from another
B. will probably burn out immediately B. the generator circuit breaker from the bus C. Ground detection systems are unnecessary. C. 2.20 volts
C. will continue to operate C. different phases from the equalizer connection D. Accidental contact between one line and ground will always cause D. 6.05 volts
D. will operate on reduced current D. positive and negative buses from the neutral an outage.
Ans: B Ans: B Ans: A Ans: B
5397 Which of the following operating characteristics for DC motors is 5398 If a magnetic controller contactor fails to pick up when the coil 5415 Part of the insulation of practically all electrical machinery is in the 5416 When the current in a power transmission line is increased, the
considered to give high starting torque? voltage is applied to the contactor coil, the cause may be form of organic compounds which containsome amount of power loss _____________.
_____________. ______________.
A. series A. overload A. asbestos A. increases as the square of the current
B. shunt B. misalignment of the affected contactor contacts B. water B. decreases as the square root of the current
C. cumulative-compound C. low spring pressure C. fibre C. remains the same, as it is independent of current flow
D. differential-compound D. an open contactor coil D. plastic D. increases in direct proportion as the current
Ans: A Ans: D Ans: B Ans: A
5399 Equal power factors on paralleled AC generators are maintained by 5400 If a lower than normal resistance is applied to the shunt field of a DC 5417 The standard method of controlling the output voltage of a 440 volt, 5418 The air gap provided in induction motors should be checked
an automatic _____________. compound motor, the motor speed will _____________. 60 Hz, AC generator is accomplished by adjusting the periodically with a feeler gage to detect an unequal air gap and
____________. _____________.
A. voltage regulator A. decrease A. prime mover speed droop A. decreased motor magnetizing current
B. reverse power relay B. increase B. number of poles B. hysteresis loses
C. reverse current relay C. remain constant C. alternator field excitation C. increased power factor
D. governor control switch D. brake down to a stop D. load on the alternator D. mechanical damage to the rotor
Ans: A Ans: A Ans: C Ans: D
5401 As load is added to a shunt motor, the motor will _________. 5402 Which of the processes listed occurs during the charging ofa lead- 5419 An accidental path of low resistance which passes an abnormal 5420 A milliammeter, with a full scale deflection reading of 100 milliamps,
acid storage battery? amount of current is known as a/an _____________. is known to have an accuracy of + or - 2%. A meter reading of 10
A. speed up A. Negative plates change to lead peroxide. milliamps would indicate a line current of between _____________.
B. continue to operate at the same speed B. Positive plates change to lead peroxide.
C. slow down slightly C. Both plates change to lead peroxide. A. polarized ground A. 8.0 and 10.0 milliamperes
D. stop D. Both plates change to lead sulfate. B. short circuit B. 8.0 and 12.0 milliamperes
Ans: C Ans: B C. ground reference point C. 9.8 and 10.0 milliamperes
5403 Which of the listed devices may be installed on a large diesel- 5404 The total power consumed in a parallel circuit is __________. D. open circuit D. 9.8 and 10.2 milliamperes
electric alternating current propulsion generator? Ans: B Ans: B
A. Temperature detector coils inserted in the stator slots for measuring A. the sum of the powers used in each load (resistor) divided by the 5421 An instantaneous-trip-type fuse will _____________. 5422 Basic electrical motor action depends on _______________.
stator temperature. number of loads A. open as soon as the load current exceeds its set point A. a conductor rotated within a magnetic field
 Page 301 Page 302

B. allow a preset delay between overcurrent and melting B. a current carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field A. capacitive circuit A. visual inspection for dirt accumulation
C. open a circuit by using a time delay element with a magnetic trip C. the relative force of the commutator and commutating poles B. inductive circuit B. high megger readings
C. magnetic circuit C. low operating temperature
D. reset itself when the overcurrent is corrected D. the relative force of the armature and interpoles D. resistive circuit D. the time period since the last cleaning
Ans: A Ans: B Ans: B Ans: A
5423 Upon failure of the normal power supply, the emergency generator 5424 Routine maintenance of a ship's service alternator should include 5443 When troubleshooting a console circuit card suspected of being 5444 Four lamps are connected in parallel in a single circuit. If one of the
is placed on the line by the _____________. ______________. faulty, first check operating voltages, clean the card and then lamp burns out, the others will _____________.
A. main bus tie feeder A. changing the pedestal bearing insulation yearly _________________.
B. automatic bus transfer device B. megger testing of all rectifying diodes A. make sure wired connections and push-on connectors are tight A. all go out
C. line connection feeder C. lubricating excitation slip rings
D. power failure alarm bus D. periodic cleaning of the air filters or screens B. test each resistor and capacitor on the card with an ohmmeter B. become dimmer
Ans: B Ans: D
5425 The speed of a multi-speed, squirrel-cage, induction motor operating 5426 In the construction of D.C. motors, parts of both theseries and shunt C. check the continuity of all printed circuit traces with an ohmmeter C. burn with their original intensities
in a fixed frequency system can be changed by _____________. fields are wound on the _____________.
D. measure the gain of each transistor or integrated circuit D. become brighter
A. reconnecting stator windings for different numbers of poles A. opposite main pole Ans: A Ans: C
B. changing the RPM of the rotor flux B. rotor core 5445 Discharge switches are often located on hand-driven meggers. The 5446 You are attempting to parallel two AC generators and the
C. changing the phase sequence of the applied voltage C. interpole purpose of these switches is to discharge capacitive charges stored synchroscope pointer stops at a position other than 0‚ prior to closing
D. reconnecting the stator so that no poles have the same polarity D. same main pole in the _____________. the circuit breaker. This indicates ___________.
A. megger hand generator A. the frequency of the incoming machine is the same as the bus
Ans: A Ans: D frequency
5427 Inductance is the property of an electric circuit that _____________. 5428 An important factor in reducing D.C. motor commutator wear is B. megger movement coils B. the incoming machine is in phase with the bus, but the frequency is
_______________. not the same
A. opposes any change in the applied voltage A. keeping the ambient humidity as low as possible C. tested equipment while conducting test C. the circuit breaker may be closed after breaker has been reset
B. opposes any change in the current flow through the circuit B. ensuring a very low brush current density
C. aids any changes in the applied voltage C. establishing the copper oxide surface film D. tested equipment after testing D. there is an existing cross current between generators
D. aids any changes in the current through the circuit D. all of the above Ans: D Ans: A
Ans: B Ans: C 5447 A megohmmeter can be used to test for ____________. 5448 You are attempting to parallel two AC generators and the
5429 Capacitance is the property of an electric circuit opposinga change 5430 A megohmmeter is connected to each end of an individual motor synchroscope pointer is revolving slowly in the fast direction. You
in the _____________. winding. A low ohm reading indicates ____________. should _____________.
A. current in the circuit A. an open coil A. an open field coil A. use the governor control switch to adjust the incoming voltage so it
B. voltage in the circuit B. a loose coil is equal to the bus voltage
C. inductance in the circuit C. good continuity B. synchronous speed B. use the governor control switch to increase the speed of the
D. resistance in the circuit D. a dirty coil machine on the line only
Ans: B Ans: C C. undercut mica C. close the circuit breaker when the synchroscope pointer approaches
5431 At high discharge rates, nickel-cadmium storage batteries are 5432 A megohmmeter can be used to test for _____________. the 0° position
superior to lead-acid batteries because they __________. D. reversed polarity D. use the field rheostat to adjust the speed of the incoming machine
A. require fewer cells for the same voltage and less mounting space A. an open field coil
Ans: A Ans: C
B. are able to produce higher voltages and do not have to be charged B. a shorted field pole 5449 When changing fuses and the spring clips are found to have lost 5450 Which of the substances listed should be applied to battery terminals
as often their grip, they should be replaced or _____________. to help prevent corrosion?
C. can be charged and discharged many times without much damage C. undercut mica A. tightened firmly with insulated pliers A. Zinc chromate
B. clip clamps should be used B. Naval jelly
D. have no individual cells to replace at the end of useful life D. reversed polarity C. wired closed with uninsulated, varnished copper wire C. Lead peroxide
Ans: C Ans: A D. carefully bent back to their original shapes D. Petroleum jelly
5433 In an AC circuit, the inductive reactance of a coil varies with the 5434 Complete maintenance of electrical motors should include periodic Ans: B Ans: D
_______________. checks for machine _____________. 5451 The direction of rotation of a DC propulsion motor can be reversed 5452 Motor controllers are seldom troubled by grounds because
A. resistance of the circuit A. vibration by __________. ________________.
B. frequency of the circuit B. watertight integrity A. reversing the field connections A. cabinet heaters always keep internal components dry
C. voltage of the circuit C. speed droop B. reversing the field and the armature connections B. special insulation is used on wire for vital circuits
D. current of the circuit D. reactive power C. wiring the field and armature in parallel C. shock mounts on controller panels greatly reduce vibration
Ans: B Ans: A D. wiring the field and armature in series D. contactors and relays are mounted on nonconducting panels
5435 Sparking of D.C. motor brushes can be caused by __________. 5436 A hydrometer is used to measure the ____________. Ans: A Ans: D
5453 When the voltage and the current developed in an AC circuit reach 5454 Which of the instruments listed is used to check insulation
A. an open commutating winding A. specific gravity of a battery electrolyte their peak values at the same time, the power factor is considered to resistance?
B. many mechanical, electrical or operating faults B. water pressure in a deck pipeline be _____________.
C. an open interpole C. amount of potable water a vessel is taking on A. lagging A. Magneto
D. all of the above D. power developed by a salt water service pump B. leading B. Megohmmeter
Ans: B Ans: A C. unity C. Dynamometer
5437 Electrical insulation is classed by the _____________. 5438 In D.C. motor construction, commutating windings are wound on D. infinity D. Rheostat
_________________. Ans: C Ans: B
A. International Association of Electrical Manufacturers A. opposite main poles 5455 The direction of propeller shaft rotation in a turbo-electric 5456 When voltage and current developed in an AC circuit reach their
B. approximate operating voltage and current expected B. interpoles synchronous propulsion drive motor is changed by reversing the peak values at the same time, the power factor is _____________.
C. IEEE C. adjacent main poles _____________.
D. temperature stability of the manufacturing material(s) D. the rotor core A. polarity of the propulsion motor A. lagging
Ans: D Ans: B B. polarity of the propulsion generator B. leading
5439 Electric current is the flow of electrons through a conductor. The 5440 If the pointer on a megger fails to return to "zero" when not being C. phase sequence of power to the motor C. maximum
rate of this flow is measured as ___________. used, the _____________. D. phase sequence of power to the generator D. minimum
Ans: C Ans: C
A. volts/watt A. megger is out of calibration 5457 Compressed air should not be used to clean motor controller 5458 Which of the following problems is indicated if a lead-acid battery
B. amperes/centimetre B. megger is operating normally equipment because ________________. begins to gas violently when it is first placed on charge?
C. coulombs/second C. hairsprings are burned out
D. ohms/volt D. pointer probably stuck in that position A. it may force metallic particles into coil insulation A. Insufficient compartment ventilation is being provided.
Ans: C Ans: B B. the surrounding area may need additional cleaning B. A short circuit exists in one of the battery cells.
5441 Voltage will always lead current in a/an ______________. 5442 The need for insulation cleaning may be determined by _____. C. the air blast dries out insulation quickly C. The battery is undergoing its normal charging rate.
D. a mask and respirator would be required D. An excessive charging rate is being applied to the battery.
 Page 303 Page 304

Ans: A Ans: D 5475 An internal resistance is placed in series with the meter movement 5476 When paralleling two alternators using three synchronizing lamps,
5459 Temporary repairs to an open DC propulsion armature coil can be 5460 When shore power is being connected to a ship in dry dock, of which of the following instruments? the flickering of all three lamps becomes progressively slower and
made by _____________. _____________. slower. This means the ______________.
A. connecting the coil ends directly to a pair of negative brushes A. the ship's generators are paralleled with the shore power to provide A. AC ammeter A. frequency of the incoming generator is approaching that of the bus
continuous power
B. disconnecting coil ends, insulating each, and short circuiting the B. proper phase sequence must be established B. DC ammeter B. frequency of the incoming alternator is less than that of the bus
two commutator bars
C. grounding the coil ends and short circuiting the commutator bar C. exactly 450 volts must be supplied from the shore C. DC voltmeter C. phase rotation of the incoming alternators is opposite to that of the
bus
D. removing the sparking brushes D. exactly 60 Hz must be provided by the terminal D. Frequency meter D. terminal voltage of the incoming alternator is approaching that of the
Ans: B Ans: B bus
5461 You are attempting to parallel two AC generators and the 5462 The timer element of a reverse power relay cannot be energized Ans: C Ans: A
synchroscope pointer stops at a position other than 0‚. If you close unless _____________. 5477 AC voltmeters are generally calibrated to read the ________. 5478 When paralleling two AC generators, the synchroscope selector
the circuit breaker at this moment _____________. switch and frequency meter switch should be set upto sense the
A. the incoming machine will accept all of the load A. the power flow is the same as the tripping direction frequency of the _____________.
B. the incoming machine will trip out on low voltage release B. the power flow is the opposite to the tripping direction A. instantaneous voltage A. bus
C. a hazardous condition will be created by the cross current between C. the movement of the disk is damped by a permanent magnet B. average voltage B. generator on the line
the machines C. RMS voltage C. oncoming generator
D. a hazardous condition will be created by the incoming machine D. one generator is motorized D. peak voltage D. bus transfer relay
being at a higher frequency than the bus Ans: C Ans: C
Ans: C Ans: A 5479 If a small electric motor has been submerged in saltwater for a short 5480 How will a molded-case circuit breaker react after it has tripped, as a
5463 You are attempting to parallel two AC generators, and the 5464 A "dielectric" is a/an ________________. period of time, you should _____________. result of an overloaded circuit?
synchroscope pointer is revolving fast in the clockwise direction. A. send it ashore for rewinding A. The breaker will trip again if immediately reset.
This indicates that the frequency of the incoming machine is B. rinse it with warm freshwater and bake it dry in an oven B. The breaker handle will lock in the OFF position.
_____________. C. soak it in a bucket of commercial solvent and bake with internal C. The breaker handle will lock in the tripped position until the thermal
A. higher than the bus frequency A. electrical insulator heat element cools down.
B. lower than the bus frequency B. current flow D. clean it with carbon tetrachloride and blow it out with compressed D. The breaker handle cannot be moved to the OFF position until the
C. the same as the bus frequency and the circuit breaker may be C. good conductor air thermal element cools down.
closed at any pointer position Ans: B Ans: A
D. the same as the bus frequency but out of phase with it D. semiconductor material 5481 When a fluorescent lamp has reached the end of its useful life, it 5482 One of the generator or motor bearings is generally insulated from
Ans: A Ans: A should be replaced immediately, or the resultant flashing may the end housing in order to prevent ________.
5465 A galvanometer is an instrument used to measure ___________. 5466 Using a fuse whose rating is higher than necessary ________. _____________.
A. blow the lamp's circuit breaker A. rapid brush wear
A. thickness of galvanized metal A. endangers the apparatus it is supposed to protect B. explode, causing glass to fly in all directions B. current leakage from the shaft
B. resistance of electrical wiring insulation B. reduces the possibility of short circuits C. short circuit the ballast transformer C. excessive field winding heat
C. very small amounts of current or voltage C. increases the efficiency of the equipment by allowing more current to D. damage the starter and the ballast D. circulation of shaft currents induced in the machine's frame
be used Ans: D Ans: D
D. quantity of galvans in an electric circuit D. wastes money because they are more expensive 5483 Electrostatic forces in high voltage circuits cause indicating 5484 If a circuit breaker that utilizes built-in, current limiting fuses (CLF's)
Ans: C Ans: A instruments to give ____________. cannot be closed, the problem may be traced to __________.
5467 A device which can be used to check the calibration of a circuit 5468 Propulsion DC motor brush pressures can be calculated by
breaker is a _________________. _____________. A. parallax readings A. a blown CLF plunger holding the trip bar in the open position
A. 500 volt megohmmeter A. dividing the brush contact area by the spring pressure B. highly intuitive readings B. a missing CLF
B. portable low voltage high current testing unit B. subtracting the brush contact area from the spring pressure C. highly accurate readings C. a misaligned limiter housing assembly
C. standard digital multimeter C. dividing the spring force by the brush contact area D. inaccurate readings D. all of the above
D. clamp-on voltmeter D. subtracting the spring pressure from the brush contact area Ans: D Ans: D
Ans: B Ans: C 5485 Which of the following procedures should be used to maintain a 5486 In replacing a defective transformer with a new one, which of the
5469 The operating torque of the upper induction disc-type element, or 5470 Which of the following statements represents the action of a large electric motor during periods of inactivity? following actions must be carried out to insure proper operation of
timer element, of an AC reverse power relay is obtained from megohmmeter when testing a small capacitor in good condition? the equipment it serves?
____________. A. A thin layer of air-drying varnish should be applied on the windings. A. The secondary leads must be grounded for 10 minutes to remove
A. the main bus A. The meter pointer should immediately swing to the maximum static charges.
resistance value for the capacitor. B. Compressed air should be blown over areas where dust is B. The transformer connections must be made as before with regard to
B. a separate battery source B. The meter pointer should first swing quickly to zero and then deposited. the indicated polarity.
gradually move up the scale as the capacitor charges. C. Spraying a solvent periodically to remove carbon dust. C. The iron core of the transformer must be flashed to pre-magnetize
C. line voltage C. The meter pointer should immediately swing to infinity and then drop it.
in sharp jerks as the voltage increases. D. Space heaters should be used to prevent condensation of moisture. D. The iron core must be grounded for 10 minutes to remove any
D. electromagnets D. The meter pointer should immediately swing to a high reading and residual magnetism.
gradually decrease. Ans: D Ans: B
Ans: D Ans: B 5487 The speed of a synchronous motor is varied by _____________. 5488 When working on electrical circuits containing large capacitors, in
5471 Which of the listed transformer uses a single winding to produce 5472 A capacitor is to be tested with a megohmmeter. If the meter is addition to de-energizing the circuit, which of the listed precautions
voltage transformation? connected to a shorted capacitor, the meter pointer should should also be taken?
_____________. A. interchanging any two of the three live leads A. Keep all radio equipment away.
A. Stepup transformers A.
immediately swing to the maximum resistance value B. changing the voltage of the system B. Measure capacitor insulation resistance.
B. Stepdown transformers B.
deflect to zero and remain at that position C. changing the input frequency C. Ground the capacitor terminals.
C. Autotransformers C.
swing to a high reading and gradually decrease D. increasing the field excitation D. Check capacitor circuit polarity.
D. Isolation transformers D.
swing to zero then gradually increase with slight pointer movements Ans: C Ans: C
down scale 5489 Seating the brushes on a D.C. motor is first accomplished using 5490 The basic type of D.C. motor speed control where a generator
Ans: C Ans: B ________________. armature directly feeds the motor armature and the motor and
5473 The hook-on AC volt-ammeter consists essentially of a split-core 5474 Which type of flux should be used when soldering electrical wire generator fields are excited by a separate D.C. source is called
and a rectifier-type instrument connected to the secondary winding connections and electronic components? ___________________.
of a _____________. A. a file for cutting the approximate curvature followed by sandpaper for A. Burmeister-Wain
A. potential transformer A. Silver flux the final fit
B. control transformer B. Rosin flux B. sandpaper with the motor not operating and then a seating stone B. Ward-Leonard
C. current transformer C. Solid flux while running the machine
D. reactance transformer D. Acid flux C. emery paper for the initial cut and crocus cloth for the finishing cut C. Sperry-Rand
Ans: C Ans: B
 Page 305 Page 306

D. course lapping compound, followed by a medium and then a fine D. Atlas-Copco C. condenser C. have poor sensitivity characteristics
grade D. shunt D. have poor power response
Ans: B Ans: B Ans: B Ans: B
5491 Which of the following problems will most likely occur if the starting 5492 When insulation failure produces a low resistance current path 5509 An alternator is being paralleled with one on the line. At the 5510 If a three-phase induction motor is operated under a light load and it
winding of a split-phase induction motor failed to cutout once the between two conductors, the resulting condition is known as INSTANT the circuit breaker is closed, the frequency of the incoming develops an open in one of its supply lines, the motor will
motor was in continuous operation? ____________. alternator will normally _____________. _____________.
A. The motor will overspeed. A. an open A. increase A. continue to run, but will vibrate and have reduced torque
B. The motor will run at a reduced speed. B. a short circuit B. not change B. speed up due to the reduced number of poles
C. A time delay will stop the motor. C. a ground C. decrease C. run cooler due to reduced current flow
D. The winding will burn out. D. a surge D. be exactly 60 hertz D. stop
Ans: D Ans: B Ans: C Ans: A
5493 A single-phase induction motor fails to start. The rotor is spun 5494 When disassembling motors for maintenance or overhaul, 5511 Battery capacities are given in _____________. 5512 When a low input voltage is imparted to a device which then delivers
rapidly with the line switch closed. Having started by this method it is ________________. a high output voltage, the device is known as a _____________.
noted that the motor fluctuates between a very slow speed and half
speed. The problem probably lies in the _________. A. volts A. primary transformer
B. volt-amperes B. secondary transformer
A. starting winding A. punch mark frame and end bells for proper assembly C. volt-hours C. stepdown transformer
B. centrifugal mechanism B. wrap bearings in lint free cloths if they are to be reused D. ampere-hours D. stepup transformer
C. centrifugal switch C. tag and store small parts in a box Ans: D Ans: D
D. running winding D. all of the above 5513 The twisting force developed by a motor and applied to a shaft is 5514 If field excitation is suddenly lost to an alternator operating in
Ans: D Ans: D called _____________. parallel, that alternator will _____________.
5495 The true power indicated by a wattmeter depends on the current 5496 When paralleling two AC generators, the frequency of the machine A. magnetism A. supply excessive current to the bus
flow through the load, the magnitude of the potential across the coming on-line, immediately prior to closing its breaker, should be B. electromotive force B. operate at the same load, but with reduced voltage
load, and the _____________. ____________. C. torque C. lose its load and tend to overspeed
A. power factor of the load A. slightly less than the oncoming generator frequency D. voltage D. become overloaded and slow down
B. angle of coil displacement B. the same as the bus frequency Ans: C Ans: C
C. inertia of the movable coil C. slightly greater than the bus frequency 5515 The unit of electrical power is the _____________. 5516 If the energy input is significantly reduced to the prime mover of one
D. high resistance from the load D. the same as the bus voltage shipboard alternator operating in parallel with others, that alternator
Ans: A Ans: C will _____________.
5497 A multimeter can be used to directly measure _____________. 5498 The kilowatt load can be adjusted on a paralleled generator by using A. ampere A. continue to operate at no load
the _____________. B. kilovolt B. lose its load and overspeed
A. watts A. field rheostat C. watt C. begin to motorize and then trip out
B. field flux B. governor control D. farad D. slow down and operate at reduced load
C. current C. automatic voltage regulators Ans: C Ans: C
D. all of the above D. hand tachometer 5517 Some large A.C. motors are equipped with with heaters. Thesecould 5518 The unit of electrical resistance is the _____________.
Ans: C Ans: B be ___________. I. resistance heaters bolted directly to the frame II.
5499 A volt-ohm-millimeter can be used to check for ____________. 5500 When paralleling two AC generators, the frequency (cycles) of the low voltage windings embedded in the motor windings
incoming generator, just prior to closing the circuit breaker, should
be _____________. A. I only A. ampere
A. continuity A. slightly less than the frequency of the generator on the line B. II only B. volt
B. grounds B. the same as the frequency of the generator on the line C. either I or II C. watt
C. voltage C. slightly more than the frequency of the generator on the line D. neither I or II D. ohm
D. all of the above D. all of the above Ans: C Ans: D
Ans: D Ans: C 5519 A current-carrying conductor making electrical contact with a wiring 5520 Maintenance of alkaline batteries should include _________.
5501 When paralleled, AC generators must have the same _________. 5502 Discoloration of the rotor bars in a squirrel-cage motor is typical conduit will be indicated by a _____________.
evidence of _____________. A. high switchboard wattmeter reading A. checking the electrolyte weekly using a hydrometer
A. frequency A. moisture B. totally dark switchboard ground detecting light B. replacing the electrolyte every 5 years
B. number of phases B. overheating C. low switchboard wattmeter reading C. trickle charging
C. phase rotation C. vibration D. all of the above D. replacment when the volts per cell drops below 1.8 VDC
D. all of the above D. all of the above Ans: B Ans: C
Ans: D Ans: B 5521 If air gap readings for an electical generating machine have changed 5522 In the event of a power failure during cargo loading operations, the
5503 A voltmeter located on a control panel has been operating correctly 5504 Which of the following should be the FIRST step in removing a significantly from the last reading, you should check _________. movement of an electric powered cargo winchwill be stopped by
for six months, suddenly burns out. After removing it, it is found that generator from parallel operation? ____________.
neither side of the meter has been grounded. When installing the A. the bearings A. a manual override switch
new meter it should be __________. B. insulation readings and machine cleanliness B. the weight of the load on the boom
C. the prime mover thrust bearing C. a spring set brake
A. grounded to the negative side A. Trip the generator off the switchboard. D. the field coil bolts for the proper torque values D. a hand operated band brake
B. connected to a large resistor between the positive side and the B. Turn off all electrical equipment. Ans: A Ans: C
ground 5523 A circuit that has one of two wires in contact with the hull of a ship, 5524 Attempting to parallel an AC generator which is out of phase with
C. installed exactly as the old installation C. Remove the load from the "off going" generator. is called a _____________. the bus will result in which of the following problems?
D. grounded to the positive side D. Increase the cycles of the generator staying on the line. A. grounded circuit A. The breaker should trip.
Ans: C Ans: C B. short circuit B. The KVA will decrease.
5505 If a synchronous motor begins to vibrate severely and pull out of 5506 Accidental grounds in a shipboard electrical system must be repaired C. series circuit C. The synchronizing lamps will burn out.
synchronism, the cause may be ____________. as soon as possible as they will ____________. D. closed circuit D. The power factor will be unitized.
A. an overload A. result in immediate power outages Ans: A Ans: A
B. an open in the field coils B. damage circuit breakers 5525 Which of the following statements is true concerning transformer 5526 To remove an alternator operating in parallel with another unit from
C. no exciter voltage C. appear on the ground detection system operation? the main electrical bus, you must FIRST _________.
D. all of the above D. damage insulation and may cause outages A. The inductance on the primary side is the same as the inductance A. adjust the power factor on both units
Ans: D Ans: D on the secondary side.
5507 A device used in an electrical circuit to change alternating current to 5508 Two AC generators of the same capacity are operating in parallel. B. The voltage to the primary side is the same as the voltage from the B. set the desired voltage on the outgoing alternator
direct current, is known as a _____________. One with a zero speed droop setting and the other with a 5% speed secondary side.
droop. If its capacity is not exceeded, the unit whose governor has C. The current to the primary side is the same as the current from the C. open the circuit breaker on the outgoing alternator
the zero speed droop setting will _____________. secondary side.
D. The power to the primary side is greater than the power from the D. remove the load from the outgoing alternator
A. current transformer A. assume the smaller share of the load secondary side.
B. rectifier B. maintain the frequency of the system Ans: D Ans: D
 Page 307 Page 308

5527 Maintenance of alkaline batteries should include _________. 5528 One item listed on the name plate of a cargo pump motor is C. Reduce the phase angle C. vary power factor
"degrees centigrade rise." This number is based on D. Prolong the life of the starting contacts D. change the number of brushes
_____________. Ans: B Ans: B
A. checking the electrolyte weekly using a hydrometer A. normal temperature change from cold to hot 5547 Which of the following is a characteristic of fractional horsepower 5548 A vessel is equipped with two ship's service generators. Generator
B. replacing the electrolyte every 5 years B. an ambient temperature of 40°C repulsion start motors? #1 is rated at 900 kw and generator #2 is rated at 600 kw. During
C. top off with sulfuric acid as needed C. minimum heat rise from no load to full load parallel operation, with a load of 1,000 kw, what should be the kw
D. making certain connections are tight and clean D. maximum degrees centigrade rise from absolute zero load on generator #2?
Ans: D Ans: B A. They start with a rotating stator field. A. 100 kw
5529 If your multimeter gives a reading in ohms when testing each end of 5530 What is the rotor speed of a four pole, 60 cycle, induction motor B. The short circuiting ring is removed from the commutator while B. 400 kw
each conductor of a three-conductor cable, this indicates operating at full load with 3% slip? starting.
______________. C. The brushes are removed from the commutator while starting. C. 500 kw
A. continuity of the conductor A. 270 RPM
B. an infinite resistance B. 540 RPM D. They have a low starting torque. D. 600 kw
C. the presence of a partial ground C. 873 RPM Ans: B Ans: B
D. that the conductor is not short circuited D. 1746 RPM 5549 Which statement is true concerning a split-phase inductionmotor? 5550 Which of the following statements, concerning the general
Ans: A Ans: D maintenance of a brushless generator, is correct?
5531 Which of the methods listed is used to start a AC generator turning? 5532 When a megohmmeter is being used on a alternating current A. Motor rotation can be reversed without changing the windings or A. Paint should be applied to insulating surfaces on an annual basis.
machine, the meter pointer will dip toward "zero" and then gradually leads.
rise to the true resistance value if the motor insulation is B. Motor speed can be readily adjusted from zero to full speed. B. Alcohol should be used to remove dust and grime from windings.
_____________.
A. Residual magnetism remaining in the field poles. A. grounded C. The motor will run as a generator with the proper wiring. C. High pressure air should be used to blow out carbon dust.
B. Residual magnetism remaining in the field coils. B. good D. Motor rotation can be reversed by reversing the leads on the starting D. Accessible generator parts should be wiped with a clean dry rag on a
C. Residual magnetism remaining in the armature. C. shorted winding. periodic basis.
D. Rotation by a mechanical prime mover. D. dirty Ans: D Ans: D
Ans: D Ans: B 5551 A lead-acid battery can deliver 20 amperes continuously for 10 5552 An advantage of DC motors over AC motors is that they
5533 The most effective method of locating a loose commutator bar in a 5534 An open armature connection in a DC propulsion motor could be hours with an ampere-hour rating of ____________. _____________.
D.C. motor is by _____________. caused by ____________. A. 20 A. are less expensive
A. visual inspection A. low-load operation B. 40 B. require less maintenance
B. jiggling each by hand B. clogged ventilation ducts C. 200 C. offer infinite speed variation
C. sounding each bar with a light weight hammer C. sparking at the brushes D. 400 D. all of the above
D. checking with a calibrated torque wrench D. a grounded shunt field coil Ans: C Ans: C
Ans: C Ans: B 5553 An increase in the amount of current flow through the armature of a 5554 The torque produced by a DC motor armature is the productof the
5535 An equalizing connection between two compound-wound DC 5536 If a D.C. motor hums, but does not run when energized, which of the shunt motor is the final result of a/an _____________. force acting at the armature surface multiplied by _____________.
generators when paralleled, serves to _____________. listed conditions could exist?
A. reverse the polarity of the incoming generator as the series field A. Incorrect lead connections A. increase in the load on the motor A. work done by the armature in one revolution
weakens B. decrease in the load on the motor B. effective armature diameter at which the force acts
B. automatically equalize the power factors B. Incorrect brush setting C. increase in counter EMF C. maximum moment arm at the center of rotation of the armature
C. reverse the direction of current in the series field of the incoming C. A dirty commutator
generator D. decrease in armature torque D. perpendicular distance to its center of rotation
D. parallel the series fields of the generators D. All of the above are correct. Ans: A Ans: D
Ans: D Ans: D 5555 A four pole, 60 Hz, three-phase synchronous motor comes up to 5556 In preparing to take insulation resistance readings on a main
5537 Which of the following represents the corrected specific gravity of a 5538 A shorted armature coil in a DC motor can be detected by 1760 RPM when started as an induction motor. What is the percent generator, the windings should be grounded for about 15 minutes
lead acid battery, with a temperature of 90‚F,and a hydrometer _____________. slip after the rotor field is energized? prior to the test to _____________.
reading of 1160? A. 0 A. allow accurate zeroing of the meter
A. 1150 A. sparking at the brushes B. 1.1 B. help the windings to cool to ambient temperature
B. 1156 B. shiny armature coil C. 2.2 C. release any residual capacitive charge from the windings
C. 1160 C. worn grooves in the armature D. 3.3 D. help the windings to cool to the same temperature as the ground test
D. 1164 D. undercut mica connection
Ans: D Ans: A Ans: A Ans: C
5539 A short in the shunt field of a DC motor is best located by 5540 In a three-wire, 230/115 volt DC system, the potential between 5557 Chattering of the collector ring brushes on a generator may be 5558 When the current flow in a power transmission line is halved, the
_____________. neutral and negative is _____________. remedied by _____________. power loss _____________.
A. visual inspection of the commutator A. 0 volts A. lubricating brush holders A. is halved
B. applying AC voltage to each field coil and measuring the voltage B. 115 volts B. reinsulating the brushes B. is doubled
drop across each field coil C. cleaning the collector rings C. is divided by four
C. using a growler and hacksaw blade C. 230 volts D. increasing length of pigtail D. remains the same
D. isolating each coil from the others and using a megohmmeter D. 460 volts Ans: C Ans: C
Ans: B Ans: B 5559 If the excitation of an alternator operating in parallel is decreased 5560 Motorization of an alternator is undesirable because
5541 Sparking at the brushes of a running motor could be an indication of 5542 Electrical failures in motors are caused by the breakdown of below normal, its _____________. _____________.
_____________. insulation, which may be caused by _____________. A. power factor will change in the lagging direction A. the alternator will be damaged
A. normal operation A. penetration of moisture B. power factor will change in the leading direction B. it puts an additional load on the bus
B. a dirty commutator B. accumulation of dirt C. ampere load will be greatly increased C. high voltage pulses are induced in the bus
C. increased brush capacity C. overheating D. kilowatt load will be greatly decreased D. all of the above
D. water vapor absorption D. all of the above Ans: B Ans: B
Ans: B Ans: D 5561 Which of the following statements is true concerning the operation of 5562 An alternator switchboard has a synchroscope and synchronizing
5543 A four-pole 60-hertz induction motor has a synchronous speed of 5544 The speed of a squirrel-cage, multi-speed, induction motor, as used two alternators in parallel? lamps. If the synchroscope is broken, which of the steps listed is the
1800 RPM and a slip of 4 percent at full load. What will be its full aboard ship, is varied by changing the __________. most essential before an alternator can be paralleled with the bus?
load speed?
A. 1728.0 RPM A. number of connected poles in the stator A. The cycles per second of each alternator are the same. A. The breaker should be closed when one synchronizing lamp is dark
B. 1730.7 RPM B. frequency to the motor and the other is bright.
C. 1800.0 RPM C. excitation voltage B. Both alternator governors must be set with the same amount of B. The breaker should be closed when both synchronizing lamps are
D. 1872.0 RPM D. resistance of the rotor circuit speed droop. bright.
Ans: A Ans: A C. The number of field poles must be the same on each alternator. C. The frequency meter should be used to determine that the incoming
5545 What is the main function in the use of a capacitor forstarting a 5546 The most practical method of controlling the RPM of a step-speed alternator frequency is slightly higher than the bus.
single phase motor? AC motor is to _____________. D. The load must always be divided equally between alternators. D. A portable phase sequence indicator must be used to verify the
A. Reduce radio interference A. change input voltage information from the lamps.
B. Split the phase to establish a rotating magnetic field B. vary the number of poles Ans: A Ans: C
 Page 309 Page 310

5563 Sparking at the brushes of a DC propulsion motor can be the result 5564 When using a megohmmeter to determine which shunt field coil is C. Galvanizing C. cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR)
of ____________. grounded in a DC machine, you must ____________. D. All of the above D. all of the above
A. improper brush pressure A. insulate the field frame from the ship's hull Ans: D Ans: D
B. improper brush seating B. disconnect each shunt field coil before testing 5581 Which of the listed features open the power circuit to a motor due 5582 In accordance with Regulations , each diesel engine driven
C. reversed interpole polarity C. use a motor driven high capacity megohmmeter to low voltage and re-close when the voltage is restored to normal? generator prime mover must have an overspeed device,
D. all of the above D. remove all main line lead connections before testing independent of the normal operating governor, and adjusted so that
Ans: D Ans: B the speed cannot exceed the maximum rated speed by more than
5565 The main purpose of an electric space heater installed in a large AC 5566 In a 60 Hz AC system, the current will pass through one complete
generator is to _____________. cycle in _____________. A. Low voltage protection A. 0.1
A. keep the lube oil warm for quick starting A. 60 seconds B. 6 volt non-renewable link fuse B. 0.15
B. prevent moisture from condensing in the windings when the machine B. 6 seconds C. 12 volt renewable link fuse C. 0.2
is shutdown D. Low voltage release D. 0.25
C. prevent the windings from becoming brittle C. 1 second Ans: D Ans: B
D. prevent acidic pitting of the slip rings D. .016 of a second 5583 Transformer windings must be resistant to ___________. 5584 If a steering motor becomes overloaded, the _____________.
Ans: B Ans: D A. moisture A. overload condition of 5% will trip the motor off the line immediately
5567 The most common type of AC service generator found aboard ship 5568 The load sharing characteristics of two diesel alternators operating in
is the stationary _____________. parallel are directly related to the setting of their governors' B. sea atmosphere B. overload condition will be indicated visually in the engine room
____________.
A. electromagnetic field, revolving armature type A. load limit C. oil vapor C. motor running indicator will begin to flash "on" and "off" in response
B. electromagnetic field, oscillatory armature type B. idle speed to the sustained overload condition
C. armature, oscillatory electromagnet field type C. speed limit D. all of the above D. standby steering pump will start automatically and come on the line
D. armature, rotating electromagnetic field type D. speed droop
Ans: D Ans: D Ans: D Ans: B
5569 Regulations state that a continuous trickle charge, supplied from the 5570 Regulations require manual contactors for operating the general 5585 Regulations state that a normal source for emergency loads and 5586 A storage battery for an emergency lighting and power system must
ship's service power system, is required for batteries supplying emergency alarm on tank vessels tobe located in the navigating power on a cargo vessel must be supplied from ____________. have the capacity to _____________.
power to the ___________. bridge, engine room and the____________.
A. emergency diesel starting system A. deck officers' quarters furthest from the engine room A. emergency generator supply to the emergency switchboard A. close all watertight doors twice
B. emergency power system for the radar B. galley / dining room areas B. emergency generator supply to the main switchboard B. open all watertight doors four times
C. portable radios for the lifeboats C. crew accommodations and sleeping spaces C. battery supply to the main switchboard C. open and close all watertight doors in six consecutive cycles within
D. radios installed in the lifeboats D. engineering officers' quarters furthest from the bridge a 20 second period
Ans: A Ans: A D. ship's service generator via the emergency switchboard D. none of the above
5571 The shipboard general alarm system must receive its main source of 5572 All electric cables passing through watertight bulkheads must be Ans: D Ans: A
power from _____________. _____________. 5587 Regulations require the emergency diesel generator on a cargo 5588 While on watch in the engine room at sea with only one ship's
A. a storage battery A. installed with watertight stuffing tubes vessel of over 1600 gross tons sailing international voyages to be service turbine alternator on line, the entire plant suddenly blacks out
B. the emergency generator B. grounded on both sides of the bulkhead able to supply power to the _____________. without warning. After restoring power, the cause for this casualty
C. an auxiliary generator C. fitted with unions on each side of the bulkhead was attributed to which of the following faults?
D. the ship's service generator D. welded on both sides of the bulkhead
Ans: A Ans: A A. smoke detector system A. The micro switch at the generator throttle trip vibrated open, allowing
5573 When maintenance personnel are working on electrical equipment, 5574 When changing fuses, you should always _____________. the main breaker to open via the under voltage trip.
all supply switches should be secured in the open position and B. emergency loudspeaker system B. Someone pushed the trip button to the "shore power" breaker.
tagged specifically by the _____________.
A. watch engineer A. wear rubber boots C. daylight signaling light system C. The main air compressor suddenly stopped.
B. chief engineer or first assistant B. use a fuse puller D. all of the above D. The standby generator started automatically and became motorized.
C. chief electrician C. stand on a rubber mat
D. person performing the repair D. wear safety glasses Ans: D Ans: A
Ans: D Ans: B 5589 On a vessel with turbo-electric drive, which of the following 5590 On some diesel-electric ships, the DC propulsion motor will only
5575 Wire in general, when used aboard vessels must meet minimum 5576 Which of the following is/are true concerning electric power operated conditions would indicate that the propulsion motor had dropped out attain half speed when the generator fields are fully excited. Speeds
requirements. Which of the following statements is/are correct? watertight door systems? of synchronization with the propulsion generator? above this are obtained by _____________.

A. Each wire must be 14 AWG or larger, regardless of locations and A. Each motor driven door must use the main bus as its source of A. Excessive vibration of the vessel A. rotating brush alignment
use. power. B. Tripped main motor interlocks B. raising the generator engine speed
B. Wire must be stranded. B. Each distribution panel for the system must be on the lowest level C. Overheated crosstie busses C. lowering the generator engine speed
where berthing quarters are located. D. Closed contact in the field circuits D. decreasing excitation
C. The only wire that does not have to be in a suitable enclosure or C. Distribution panels must not be provided with a means of locking in Ans: A Ans: B
cover is the ground wire used with portable tools and lights. order to permit quick activation of the system. 5591 The shunt used in an ammeter should be connected in 5592 Brushless generators are designed to operate without the use of
____________. ___________.
D. All of the above. D. Each system must have a separate branch circuit. A. series with the load and in parallel with the meter movement A. brushes
Ans: B Ans: D B. parallel with the load and in series with the meter movement B. slip rings
5577 Which of the following statements is/are true regarding 5578 An emergency generator, driven by an internal combustion engine, C. parallel with the load and in parallel with the meter movement C. commutators
requirements for receptacle outlets aboard vessels? shall be tested under load for a minimum of 2 hours at least once D. series with the load and in series with the meter movement D. all of the above
every _____________. Ans: A Ans: D
A. Each receptacle outlet operating at 100 volts or more must have a A. week 5593 Which of the following conditions will occur if thesolenoid coil burns 5594 Which of the listed battery charging circuits is used to maintain a wet-
grounding pole. out on a cargo winch with an electricalbrake? cell, lead-acid, storage battery in a fully charged state during long
B. Outlets connecting a lifeboat and the vessel's electrical system must B. 2 weeks periods of disuse?
have threaded plugs. A. The brake will be set by spring force. A. Normal charging circuit
C. Machinery spaces must contain sufficient outlets for lighting all C. month B. The motor will overspeed and burn up. B. Quick charging circuit
machinery with a portable light having a 50 foot flexible cord. C. The load suspended from the cargo boom will fall. C. Trickle charging circuit
D. Nothing will happen; the winch will continue to operate as usual. D. High ampere charging circuit
D. All of the above. D. 3 months
Ans: A Ans: C Ans: A Ans: C
5579 Which of the following methods of finish applications is/are 5580 When working on a high voltage circuit, you should always have 5595 Which of the following statements represents the main difference 5596 Which of the following statements is true concerning a polyphase
considered to be satisfactory for resisting corrosion? another person present with you. This person should have a good between a relay and a contactor? synchronous propulsion motor?
working knowledge of _____________. A. Contactors control current and relays control voltage. A. The motor is started as an induction motor.
A. Electroplating with cadmium A. the circuit being worked on and the location of all switches and B. A relay is series connected and a contactor is parallel connected. B. Resistance is gradually added to the rotor circuit.
circuit breakers controlling it
B. Sherardizing B. first-aid techniques for treating electrical shock C. Contactors can handle heavier loads than relays. C. The starting current is held below the rated current.
 Page 311 Page 312

D. Contactors are made from silver and relays are made from copper. D. The field winding is energized for starting purposes only. Ans: D Ans: D
5615 An electrical device which employs a stationary armature and a 5616 The main purpose of the auxiliary winding on a split-phase,single-
Ans: C Ans: A rotating electromagnetic field is used aboard ship as a phase motor is to _____________.
5597 An accidental path of low resistance, allowing passage of abnormal 5598 A resistance in a circuit of unknown value is to be tested using the ____________.
amount of current is known as a/an ____________. voltmeter/ammeter method. Therefore, the meters should be A. magnetic amplifier A. limit the starting voltage
connected with _____________. B. ship's service alternator B. increase the starting current
A. open circuit A. both meters in series with the resistance C. three-wire DC generator C. start the motor
B. short circuit B. both meters in parallel with the resistance D. saturable core reactor D. keep the motor running in the event the main winding should fail
C. polarized ground C. the ammeter in series and the voltmeter in parallel with the
resistance Ans: B Ans: C
D. ground reference point D. the ammeter in parallel and the voltmeter in series with the 5617 The load sharing characteristics of two diesel generators operating 5618 What type of rotor is used in split-phase motors?
resistance in parallel are mostly dependent on their governor ____________.
Ans: B Ans: C
5599 Which of the following electric motors would be the safestand most 5600 A direct current passing through a wire coiled around a soft iron core A. load limit settings A. Drum
reliable to use on the main deck of a vesselin foul weather is the description of a simple ____________. B. idle speed settings B. Salient pole
conditions? C. speed limit settings C. Squirrel-cage
A. Sealed motors A. magnetic shield D. speed droop settings D. Wound-rotor
B. Drip proof motors B. electromagnet Ans: D Ans: C
C. Enclosed motors C. piezoelectric device 5619 In an AC generator, direct current from a separate sourceis passed 5620 The purpose of a cage rotor winding placed on the rotor of a
D. Watertight motors D. electromagnetic domain through the windings of the rotor _____________. synchronous motor is to _____________.
Ans: D Ans: B A. by means of slip rings and brushes A. provide excitation to the DC field
5601 A molded-case breaker provides protection against short circuits by 5602 The method used to produce electron emission in most B. by means of a commutator B. start the machine as an induction motor
using a/an ____________. vacuumtubes is known as ____________. C. by means of rotating bar magnet C. contribute extra torque at synchronous speed
A. shading coil A. photoelectric emission D. to minimize the danger of arc over D. prevent the machine from falling out of step
B. arc quencher B. secondary electric emission Ans: A Ans: B
C. electromagnet C. cold cathodic electric emission 5621 A constant output voltage from an AC generator is maintained by the 5622 Amortisseur windings are installed in a synchronous motor to
D. holding coil D. thermionic emission _____________. _____________.
Ans: C Ans: D A. prime mover governor A. reduce eddy current losses
5603 A motor using a rheostat in the motor circuit to vary the speed is 5604 Which of the following precautions should you take when securing B. exciter generator B. produce a higher power factor
called a ____________. propulsion generators and motors for an extended period of time? C. voltage regulator C. provide a means for starting
D. reverse power relay D. eliminate arcing between the stator and the rotor
A. squirrel-cage induction motor A. Disconnect the brush pigtails from their contacts and circulate air Ans: C Ans: C
through the units. 5623 The heating of conductors as a result of resistance in a distribution 5624 To repair a small electrical motor that has been submerged in
B. regenerative braking motor B. Disconnect the brush pigtails from their contacts and discharge circuit causes a power loss expressed as _____________. saltwater, you should _____________.
carbon dioxide into the units to keep them dry.
C. wound-rotor induction motor C. Lift the brushes from commutator collector rings and use the built-in A. line droop A. wash it with fresh water and apply an external source of heat
heater to prevent moisture accumulation.
D. synchronous motor D. Lift the brushes from commutator collector rings and circulate cool B. line loss B. renew the windings
dry air through the units. C. IR drop C. send it ashore to an approved service facility
Ans: C Ans: C D. hysteresis D. rinse all electrical parts with a carbon tetrachloride cleaning solvent
5605 One factor that determines the frequency of an alternator is the 5606 The variable resistance placed in the rotor circuit of a wound-rotor and then blow dry the motor with compressed air
____________. induction motor provides for __________. Ans: B Ans: A
A. number of turns of wire in the armature coil A. speed control 5625 In process control terminology values which can change without 5626 The proper way to apply plastic electrical tape to an electric cable
B. number of magnetic poles B. frequency control distinct increments, such as temperature, pressure, or level are splice is to _____________.
C. strength of the magnets used C. voltage control called ____________.
D. output voltage D. use as a split-phase motor A. binary values A. apply tape to the braided cover, but avoid touching it
Ans: B Ans: A B. digital values B. wind the tape so that each turn overlaps the turn before it
5607 The Wheatstone bridge is a precision measuring instrument utilizing 5608 The greatest detrimental effect on idle electrical equipment, such C. bumpless values C. apply the tape in one non-overlapping layer only
the principle of changes in _____________. as cargo pump motors, is the _____________. D. analog values D. heat the tape with a soldering iron for good bonding
A. inductance A. loss of residual magnetism Ans: D Ans: B
B. capacitance B. absorption of moisture in the insulation 5627 Which of the following statements best describes the material 5628 A synchronous motor maintains synchronism with the rotating field
C. resistance C. insulation varnish flaking known as varnished cambric? because _____________.
D. amperage D. dirt collecting on the windings A. Felted asbestos sealed with varnish. A. field strength varies directly with rotor slip
Ans: C Ans: B B. Cotton cloth coated with insulating varnish. B. DC current applied to the rotor coils causes the rotor magnets to
5609 Which of the listed logic gates is considered to be a BASIC building 5610 When choosing a battery for a particular application, major lock in with the rotating flux of the stator
block (basic logic gate) used in logic diagrams? consideration should be given to the battery's ____________. C. Rubber insulation coated with a layer of tin. C. the stator poles are dragged around due to the flux created by the
A. NAND A. amp-hour capacity excitation current
B. OR B. terminal polarity D. Paper impregnated with mineral oil, specially wrapped with D. the stator flux rotates in the opposite direction
C. NOR C. stability under charge nonmetallic tape, and coated with varnish.
D. All of the above. D. ambient temperature rise Ans: B Ans: B
Ans: B Ans: A 5629 The function of amortisseur, or damper windings in a synchronous 5630 The main difference between a motor control circuit containing low
5611 An electrical device which prevents an action from occurring until all 5612 A circuit breaker and a fuse have a basic similarity in that they both motor is to _____________. voltage protection and low voltage release is that the latter contains
other required conditions are met is called a/an ___________. _____________. _____________.
A. eliminate slippage A. a magnetic operating coil
A. limit A. can be reset to energize the circuit B. provide excitation B. normally open line contacts
B. monitor B. should open the circuit when overloaded C. provide starting torque C. thermal-overload protection
C. modulator C. will burn out when an over current flow develops D. increase efficiency D. a momentary-contact start button
D. interlock D. all of the above Ans: C Ans: D
Ans: D Ans: B 5631 Before reassembling any machinery, you should _____________. 5632 The purpose of the commutator and brushes on a DC generator is to
5613 A degree of control over the speed of a slip ring inductionmotor can 5614 A circuit breaker differs from a fuse in that a circuit breaker _____________.
be obtained by _____________. _____________. A. replace all bearings regardless of length of service A. transfer generated direct current voltage from the armature to the
A. adjusting governor linkage A. melts and must be replaced line
B. changing the number of phases to the motor B. is enclosed in a tube of insulating material with metal ferrules at B. apply a heavy coat of oil to all mating surfaces B. convert the alternating voltage generated within the armature to a
each end direct voltage
C. inserting resistance into the stator circuit C. gives no visual indication of having opened the circuit C. clean any corroded surfaces and file all burrs smooth C. provide a sliding contact method to excite the field
D. inserting resistance into the rotor circuit D. trips to break the circuit and may be reset
 Page 313 Page 314

D. coat all parts with alemite grease D. reduce sparking between the armature and the carbon brushes C. The most accurate hydrometer reading is obtained immediately after C. inductive reactance
water is added.
Ans: C Ans: B D. The temperature does not affect the specific gravity of the D. root mean square
5633 The basic measuring unit of inductance is the _________. 5634 Which of the listed precautions should be taken when cleaning the electrolyte.
internals of a motor with compressed air? Ans: B Ans: C
A. coulomb A. Open the machine on both ends so as to allow the air and dust to 5651 An adjustable resistor, whose resistance can be changed without 5652 The purpose of a heat sink, as frequently used with transistors, is
escape. opening the circuit in which it is connected, is called a to ____________.
B. ohm B. Be certain that the circuit breaker is opened and tagged on the _____________.
feeder panel. A. bleeder resistor A. prevent excessive temperature rise
C. farad C. Be certain that the air is clean and as dry as possible. B. rheostat B. compensate for excessive doping
D. henry D. All of the above. C. bridge C. increase the reverse current
Ans: D Ans: D D. variable shunt strip D. decrease the forward current
5635 Which of the following statements concerning nickel-cadmium 5636 Power transformers are rated in _____________. Ans: B Ans: A
batteries is true? 5653 In a DC series circuit, all the conductors have the same 5654 Battery charging rooms should be well ventilated because the
A. When mixing electrolyte always add acid to the water. A. kilowatts ____________. charging process produces_____________.
B. Nickel-cadmium batteries can be charged and discharged only a B. ampere-turns A. power expended in them A. highly poisonous gas
limited number of times without damage to the cells. B. voltage drop across them B. highly combustible oxygen
C. Nickel-cadmium batteries can be stored for a long time and still keep C. kilowatt-volts C. resistance to current flow C. explosive gases
a full charge without additional charging. D. current passing through them D. corrosive gases
D. The electrolyte of an idle nickel-cadmium battery must be replaced D. kilovolt-amperes Ans: D Ans: C
monthly to maintain battery condition. 5655 Shading coils are installed on AC full-voltage starters to 5656 A silicon controlled rectifier (SCR) is a solid state device used to
Ans: C Ans: D _____________. change ________________.
5637 Local action in a nickel-cadmium battery is offset by 5638 Alternating current circuits develop resistance, inductance and A. eliminate contact chatter A. DC to AC and control relatively low load current
_____________. capacitance. The inductance of a coil is expressed in B. dissipate opening contact arcs B. AC to DC and control relatively high load current
_____________. C. delay current build up in the holding coil C. DC to AC and control relatively high load current
A. separating the positive and negative plates with plastic spacers A. ohms D. protect the motor windings from momentary starting current overload D. AC to DC and control relatively low load current

B. separating the positive and negative plates with resin impregnated B. mhos Ans: A Ans: B
spacers 5657 Most three-phase induction motors used for driving engine room 5658 When electrical cables penetrate watertight bulkheads,
C. adding a small amount of lithium hydroxide to the electrolyte C. henrys auxiliaries are started by _____________. _______________.
D. trickle charging D. farads A. resistor starters A. they should be grounded on either side of the bulkhead
Ans: D Ans: C B. across-the-line starters B. they must be bent to a radius of six diameters
5639 A device which prints out a permanent record of the plant operating 5640 Alternating current circuits develop resistance, inductance, and C. impedance starters C. a watertight stuffing tube capable of accepting packing should be
conditions is known as the _____________. capacitance. The capacitance of individual capacitors is expressed employed
in _____________. D. reactor starters D. they should be secured by a clamp
A. analogger A. ohms Ans: B Ans: C
B. bell logger B. mhos 5659 A variable shunt, connected across the series field coils of a DC 5660 Across-the-line starters are used with AC motors to provide
C. alarm logger C. henrys compound wound generator, to permit adjustment of the degree of _____________.
D. data logger D. farads compounding, is called a _____________.
Ans: D Ans: D A. divider A. reduced starting current
5641 The opposition to the establishment of magnetic lines of force in a 5642 The insulation resistance of electric equipment and machinery B. diverter B. regulated starting current
magnetic circuit is called the circuit's_______. should be tested for the lowest normal insulation values C. converter C. high starting torque
_____________. D. rheostat D. controlled starting acceleration
A. resistance A. immediately after shutting down the machine Ans: B Ans: C
B. reluctance B. every time the brush rigging is adjusted 5661 The electrician reports to you that he has obtained low (but above 1 5662 In a faceplate-type motor starter, the starting arm is held in the
C. impedance C. immediately after starting up the machine megohm) megger readings on the windings of a deck winch motor. "OFF" position by a/an _____________.
D. inductance D. every 30 days whether the machine is in use or not Upon checking the records of that motor, you find the readings have
Ans: B Ans: A consistently been at that level for the last six years.
5643 The RMS value of a sine-wave current may also be expressed as 5644 On tank vessels with an electrically-driven capstan, the motor should
the _____________. be meggered periodically to test _____________. A. motor be replaced A. cotter pin
B. windings be dried B. magnet
A. average value A. insulation resistance C. windings be cleaned C. electrical circuit
B. maximum value B. eddy currents D. readings are acceptable D. strong spring
C. effective value C. capacitance Ans: D Ans: D
D. instantaneous value D. armature reactance 5663 Which of the following components are used to convert alternating 5664 In electronic circuitry, the abbreviation "PCB" commonly means
Ans: C Ans: A current produced in the generator windings to direct current? ______________.
5645 The apparent power in a purely inductive circuit is also known as 5646 The multiple prefix "giga" (G) means ____________.
_____________. A. Armature and equalizer A. pulse coded binary
A. true power A. thousand (10 to the 3rd power) B. Commutator and brushes B. printed circuit board
B. lead power B. million (10 to the 6th power) C. Rotor and interpoles C. poly-coated braid
C. induced power C. billion (10 to the 9th power) D. Field and exciter D. personal computer bits
D. reactive power D. trillion (10 to the 12th power) Ans: B Ans: B
Ans: D Ans: C 5665 The final step in testing a circuit for a ground involves the use of a 5666 Which of the following statements is true concerning the cleaning of
5647 A grounded switch or cable will be indicated by a megohmmeter 5648 Regarding battery charging rooms, ventilation should be provided megohmmeter. A grounded switch or cable will be indicated by a electrical contacts?
reading of _____________. __________. megohmmeter reading of ____________.
A. infinity A. at the lowest point of the room A. "zero" A. Compressed air should be used to blow out metallic dust.
B. "zero" B. horizontally near the batteries B. infinity B. Magnetic brushes should be used to remove metallic dust.
C. being unsteady in the high range C. at the highest point of the room C. steady in the high range C. The contact surfaces should be greased to increase contact
D. being unsteady in the low range D. only when charging is in progress resistance.
Ans: B Ans: C D. unsteady in the low range D. Delicate parts should be cleaned with a brush and an approved
5649 Which of the following statements concerning the specific gravity of 5650 The ratio of the effective value of the counter EMF in volts, to the safety solvent.
a battery electrolyte is true? effective value of the current in amperes is called _____________. Ans: A Ans: D
5667 A nickel-cadmium battery is receiving a normal charge and gases 5668 Reduced voltage applied to a motor during the starting period will
A. The electrolyte becomes less dense when it is cooled. A. impedance factor freely. The charging current should _____________. _____________.
B. The specific gravity reading is lowered when the electrolyte is B. capacitive reactance A. be increased A. result in decreased acceleration time only
heated. B. be decreased B. lower the starting current and increase accelerating time
 Page 315 Page 316

C. be cut off and the battery allowed to cool C. cause a greater starting torque 5685 In order to check the performance of a transistor removed from its 5686 To test the state of charge of a nickel-cadmium battery, you should
D. remain the same D. increase the starting current and pump capacity circuit, the instrument to be used should be a/an ____________. use a/an ____________.
Ans: D Ans: B
5669 A saturable-core reactor operates on the principle of controlling a 5670 Operational amplifiers, used primarily in analog circuits, are A. voltmeter or transistor tester A. ammeter
load winding's inductance by varying the core's _____________. characterized by ____________. B. impedance meter B. voltmeter
C. ohmmeter or transistor tester C. hydrometer
A. dielectric A. high input impedance, high gain and low output impedance D. sensitive potentiometer D. potentiometer
B. permeability B. high input impedance, high gain and high output impedance Ans: C Ans: B
C. reactance C. low input impedance, low gain and high output impedance 5687 On a switchboard, if all three ground detection lamps remain burning 5688 Which of the following actions can be carried out in order to prevent
D. inductance D. low input impedance, high gain and low output impedance at half intensity when the test button is depressed, which of the thermal runaway in a transistor?
Ans: B Ans: A listed conditions is indicated?
5671 The total resistance of a parallel circuit is always ____________. 5672 Which of the following expresses the relationship of the input and A. No grounds exist. A. Increase the current through the collector-base junction.
output frequencies in a full wave rectifier? B. All three phases are grounded. B. Install a heat sink.
A. larger than the greatest branch resistance A. The output frequency is the same as input frequency. C. The test switch is grounded. C. Shift the "Q" point to increase collector current.
B. smaller than the lowest branch resistance B. The output frequency is one-half the input frequency. D. The current transformers are shorted. D. Increase the potential difference between the emitter and the base.
C. equal to the sum of the individual branch resistances C. The output frequency is twice the input frequency.
D. one-half the sum of the individual branch resistances D. The output frequency is four times the input frequency. Ans: A Ans: B
Ans: B Ans: C 5689 Insufficient brush pressure on a DC motor may cause _______. 5690 Burning of controller contacts, when opening, is prevented by
5673 A "dead front" switchboard is one _____________. 5674 Mercury filled thermometers should never be used to determine the _____________.
temperature of the battery electrolyte because accidental breakage A. generator overload A. coating the contact surfaces lightly with petroleum jelly
of the thermometer can cause __________________. B. excess residual magnetism B. magnetic blowout coils
C. water vapor absorption C. an overvoltage release
A. without switches on it A. severe sparking and explosions D. sparking of the brushes D. an overcurrent release
B. with insulated switches and no exposed terminals B. rapid oxidation of battery plates Ans: D Ans: B
C. without circuit breakers C. contamination of the electrolyte 5691 Which of the electrical properties listed will always be the same for 5692 Which of the listed instruments can be best used to locate a
D. without safety hand rails nor rubber mats D. corrosion on the battery terminals each component in a parallel circuit? grounded field coil in a synchronous motor?
Ans: B Ans: A A. Impedance A. Frequency meter
5675 The purpose of a main switchboard circuit breaker's reverse-power 5676 A temperature instrumentation system for an engine room console B. Current B. Megohmmeter
trip is to _____________. consists of a resistance temperature detector (RTD), a measuring C. Resistance C. Voltmeter
bridge circuit, and a meter (or alarm circuit).Which of the following D. Voltage D. Multimeter
statements is true concerning the measuring bridge circu Ans: D Ans: B
5693 The standard procedure for maintaining the charge in an 5694 A replacement wire having twice the length and one-half the cross-
A. prevent main circuit overload A. The input voltage varies in a linear fashion with temperature. emergency diesel starting battery is to trickle charge the battery sectional area of the original wire will have a resistance that is
B. protect the circuit breaker blowout coil B. The voltage across the center of the resistance bridge is always _____________. _____________.
constant. A. continuously A. four times that of the original wire
C. prevent alternator motorization C. The resistance bridge is said to be balanced when its output voltage B. at least once each week B. twice that of the original wire
is zero. C. whenever the charge falls to 75% of full charge C. the same as that of the original wire
D. prevent low voltage tripout D. The input voltage of the resistance bridge is the constant D. whenever the electrolyte specific gravity falls to 1.250 or lower D. one-half that of the original wire
temperature signal.
Ans: C Ans: C Ans: A Ans: A
5677 Modern DC generators are fitted with commutating poles to 5678 The purpose of a magnetic relay is to _____________. 5695 If a delicate component must be soldered into a circuit, the 5696 If you disconnect and arrange both ends of a three conductor cable,
_____________. component may be protected from the heat of the soldering process without any contact between the individual conductors, an indicated
A. prevent motorizing A. open a circuit only in the event of overload by _____________. ohmic value between the ends of a single conductor would indicate
B. reduce sparking B. remotely open and close contacts ______________.
C. reduce the load on the main poles C. provide overcurrent protection during starting A. operating the soldering gun not more than 60 seconds at a time A. continuity of the conductor
D. reduce spring pressure on the brushes D. relay voltages at increased power
Ans: B Ans: B B. using a thermal shunt B. an infinite resistance
5679 A semiconductor is a material with a _____________. 5680 A capacitor can be tested using a megohmmeter or an ohmmeter. If C. pre-oxidizing the leads to be soldered C. the presence of a partial ground
the meter is connected to a shorted capacitor, the meter pointer D. coating the leads to be soldered with a light oil film D. that the conductor is not short circuited
should _____________. Ans: B Ans: A
A. conductivity higher than a normal conductor A. immediately swing to the maximum resistance value for the capacitor 5697 Why is it a poor practice to use a high wattage soldering iron when 5698 Which of the following temperatures represents the maximum
soldering or desoldering components on a printed circuit board? allowable temperature for the electrolyte of a lead-acid battery?
B. conductivity higher than a normal insulator B. first swing quickly to "zero", then gradually move up the scale as the
capacitor charges A. The circuit board will blister and warp. A. 100°F
C. high conductivity at low temperatures C. immediately deflect to and remain at zero B. The foil wire bonded to the board may come loosened from the B. 125°F
D. low conductivity at high temperatures D. immediately swing to a high reading and then gradually decrease board.
C. The circuit board has a low melting temperature. C. 145°F
Ans: B Ans: C D. The solder is kept to a dull heat dissipating finish. D. 212°F
5681 When mixing electrolyte for a lead-acid storage battery, you should 5682 To carry out an insulation resistance test, one terminal of the Ans: B Ans: B
pour the ___________. megohmmeter should be connected to the winding, with the other 5699 Which of the following methods should be used to dress the face of 5700 A lead-acid battery may become hotter than normal during a charge
terminal being connected to the ____________________. silver-plated contacts? if the _________.
A. Filing A. battery has a shorted cell
A. distilled water into the acid in a zinc-plated container A. power supply B. Burnishing B. charging voltage is too low
B. distilled water into the acid in a glass container B. variable resistor C. Sanding with 0000 sandpaper C. specific gravity is too high
C. acid into the distilled water in a zinc-plated container C. frame of the machine D. All of the above are correct. D. battery room door is secured
D. acid into distilled water in a glass container D. armature Ans: C Ans: A
Ans: D Ans: C 5701 Which of the substances listed can be used to shield sensitive 5702 Handheld phase sequence indicators are useful when ________.
5683 The charge of a lead-acid battery can be restored by ______. 5684 The resistance of a conductor varies _____________. equipment from static magnetic fields?
A. Glass A. preparing to parallel alternators
A. passing an alternating electric current through the cell A. directly as its length and inversely as its cross-sectional area B. Mica B. connecting lighting branch circuits
B. passing a direct electric current through the cell B. inversely as its length and directly as its cross-sectional area C. Bakelite C. troubleshooting DC motors
C. adding acid to the electrolyte C. directly as its length and directly as its cross-sectional area D. Permeable iron D. connecting shore power lines to the ship
D. all of the above D. inversely as its length and inversely as its cross-sectional area Ans: D Ans: D
5703 When soldering a printed circuit board component, you should be 5704 To determine the state of charge of a nickel-cadmium battery, you
Ans: B Ans: A careful to prevent damage by _________. should ___________.
A. quickly heating the joints, using a high wattage iron A. check the electrolyte with a hydrometer
 Page 317 Page 318

B. using the soldering iron tip sparingly B. use the constant specific gravity method 5719 The transmit and receive elements of a sound-powered telephone 5720 The resistance of most conducting materials will change as a result
C. using only acid cord solder C. use a nonbreakable mercury thermometer handset are _____________. of temperature change. The resistance of copper will
D. applying mechanical pressure to the joints being soldered D. connect a voltmeter to the battery terminals _____________.
Ans: B Ans: D A. identical and can be used for either function A. increase as temperature decreases
5705 The timer element of a reverse power relay cannot be energized 5706 Before touching a small capacitor connected to a de-energized B. of similar construction but different enough to be used only for its B. decrease as temperature decreases
unless _____________. circuit, or even one that is completely disconnected, you should own function
____________. C. of very different construction and MUST be used only for its own C. remain the same between -7°C and 44°C
A. one generator is fully motorized A. gently tap the body with a screwdriver function
B. the movement of the disk is damped by a permanent magnet B. tag it with a de-energized tag D. constructed so that each can fit only in its own recess D. remain the same between 20°C and 110°C
C. the power flow is the same as the tripping direction C. be equipped with an insulated fuse puller Ans: A Ans: B
D. the power flow is the opposite to the tripping direction D. short circuit the terminals to make sure that the capacitor is 5721 The function of a stepdown potential transformer is to reduce the 5722 To avoid damaging the components of a printed circuit board when
discharged load _____________. testing it with a DC volt-ohmmeter, you should _______.
Ans: C Ans: D
5707 An increase in which of the listed conditions will increase the speed 5708 Before working on an electric cargo winch master switch or A. voltage and current A. ground the board
of a synchronous motor? controller, you should _____________. B. voltage and increase line current B. avoid reversing the polarity of the leads
A. Frequency A. spray the gasket surface with a solvent C. current and increase line voltage C. isolate sensitive components with heat sinks
B. Voltage B. drain condensate from the box D. power D. all of the above
C. Armature current C. open the circuit breaker in the power supply and tag Ans: B Ans: B
D. Inductance D. heat the switch box to remove any moisture 5723 A loud buzzing noise in an AC controller is probably caused by 5724 Increasing the load to the secondary windings of a transformer will
Ans: A Ans: C _____________. cause a/an ____________.
5709 Which of the following methods should be used to test for an "open" 5710 If a three-phase induction motor malfunctions and drops to a single- A. poor contact with the overload relay A. decrease in the primary voltage
coil in an AC motor stator? phase (one supply line open) ____________. B. an incorrectly sized heater B. increase in the primary voltage
A. Test with an ohmmeter, one test lead on the shaft, and the other test A. the motor will continue to run if it is not heavily loaded C. a broken shading coil C. decrease in the primary current
lead to the stator leads. D. abnormal starting current D. increase in the primary current
B. Test with an ohmmeter with the test leads between the stator leads. B. more torque will be developed Ans: C Ans: D
5725 If an induction motor were to be operated at 90% rated voltage, 5726 When troubleshooting a magnetic controller, it is found that the
C. Use a growler, listening for noise and vibration to diminish when C. the motor will immediately stop and not be able to be restarted _____________. contacts are welded together. The most probable cause is
over an open coil. _____________.
D. Use a growler, listening for noise and vibration to increase when D. the motor will immediately stop and can only be restarted at no load A. there would be an increase in starting torque A. excessive operation at low load
over an open coil. B. starting current would increase slightly B. high ambient temperature
Ans: B Ans: A C. synchronous speed would decrease slightly C. low voltage on the operating coil
5711 Which of the problems listed will occur if a lead-acid battery is 5712 The division of the kilowatt load between two AC generators D. the slip would increase D. high voltage on the operating coil
allowed to remain in a discharged condition for a long period of operating in parallel is controlled by the settings and characteristics Ans: D Ans: C
time? of the _____________. 5727 The instantaneous reduction in voltage of an AC generator, resulting 5728 A characteristic of a wound-rotor induction motor, with a high
A. The battery may be unable to accept a full charge. A. voltage regulators from an increase in load, and prior to the automatic voltage resistance rotor winding, is _____________.
B. The electrolyte will change to lead sulfate. B. field rheostats regulator correcting the situation, is called voltage ____________.
C. The concentrated sulfuric acid will attack the lead peroxide plates. C. reverse power relays
A. droop A. low starting torque
D. The separators will harden. D. prime mover governors B. drop B. high starting torque
Ans: A Ans: D C. dip C. high speed
5713 When testing a capacitor with an analog type ohmmeter, a good 5714 The division of kilowatt load between two paralleled alternators is D. regulation D. low starting voltage
capacitor will be indicated when _____________. determined by the _____________. Ans: C Ans: B
A. there is no meter deflection A. amount of field excitation of the leading machine 5729 Magnetic controller contacts may become welded together during 5730 If a transformer is connected to a DC source, the transformer will
B. the meter deflects to a low resistance value and remains there B. load-speed characteristics of the governors operation because of _____________. overload at the ____________.
A. excessive magnetic gap A. contacts
C. the meter deflects to a low resistance value and slowly increases C. amount of field excitation to the lagging machine B. low contact pressure B. primary coil
towards infinity C. an open coil C. secondary coil
D. the meter deflects to a low resistance value and increases rapidly to D. type of alternator D. excessive ambient temperature D. core
a higher value, but stays fairly low Ans: B Ans: B
Ans: C Ans: B 5731 The output voltage of a 440 volt, 60 Hz AC generator is controlled 5732 In a three-phase, squirrel-cage type, induction motor the rotating
5715 While troubleshooting a circuit in an engine room central control 5716 Which of the following procedures should be used to determine the by the ______________. magnetic field is established by the _____________.
console, a resistor is suspected of being faulty. Which of the load of a three-phase, delta wound, AC generator? A. load on the alternator A. current induced in the rotor windings
following precautions must be observed if an ohmmeter is to be B. load on the prime mover B. application of a three-phase voltage supply to the stator windings
used to check its value?
A. Correct polarity must be observed because reverse bias will damage A. Multiply the amperage in one phase by three. C. speed of the prime mover C. laminated steel core and aluminum conductors in the rotor
the component. D. exciter output voltage D. interaction of the magnetic field caused by the induced current in
B. Meter leads must not be twisted so as to cancel out the individual B. Divide the total amperage in all phases by three. the squirrel-cage bars with the magnetic field of the stator
magnetic fields.
C. Resistor's circuit must be de-energized and at least one end of the C. Multiply the amperage in one phase by the square root of three. Ans: D Ans: B
component isolated. 5733 When placed in a magnetic field, which of the materials listed will 5734 Before measuring an unknown resistance with an ohmmeter, you
D. The meter case must be grounded prior to attaching the leads. D. Divide the total amperage in all phases by the square root of three. maintain the highest permeability? should _____________.
A. Glass A. adjust the meter's pointers to mid-scale
Ans: C Ans: C B. Bakelite B. change the meter's batteries
5717 The full load torque of an electric motor is the __________. 5718 Prior to using an analog type ohmmeter, the leads are purposely C. Soft iron C. center the meter's pointer at infinity
shorted together. Which of the following actions should be taken if, D. Aluminum D. short the test leads and calibrate the meter
when adjusting to "zero" ohms, the indicating needle can not be Ans: C Ans: D
returned to "zero" on the scale? 5735 One diode of a full-wave rectifier has burned out in a shorted 5736 The charge of a lead-acid battery is checked with a/an
A. minimum torque developed by the motor accelerating from stop to A. The lead clips should be replaced. condition. Therefore, the output will be ____________. ____________.
full speed
B. turning moment exerted by the motor at rated load and speed B. The batteries should be replaced. A. zero A. manometer
C. maximum torque developed by the motor with rated voltage and C. The test reading should be added to each final reading. B. a rectified half-wave B. hydrometer
frequency C. a rectified full-wave C. voltmeter
D. turning moment exerted by the motor from any rotor angular position D. The test reading should be subtracted from each final reading. D. equal to the AC input D. ohmmeter
at any load Ans: D Ans: B
Ans: B Ans: B 5737 Magnetic controller contacts may become welded together during 5738 When a transformer is used to step down voltage, the low voltage
operating conditions as a result of _____________. winding is _____________.
 Page 319 Page 320

A. high spring pressure A. part of the core B. the sum of the powers used in each load B. off
B. high ambient temperature B. the primary coil C. always less than the power used in the smallest load C. reset
C. an open coil C. not insulated D. never more than the power used in largest load D. tripped
D. low voltage on operating coil D. the secondary coil Ans: B Ans: D
Ans: D Ans: D 5757 If a magnetic controller contact fails to pick up when the operating 5758 Which of the listed forms of water should be added to a lead-acid
5739 An AC circuit has capacitance arranged in series. If the line voltage 5740 The total voltage of a series circuit is the _____________. coil is energized, one possible cause may be _______________. battery?
remains constant, the capacitive reactance value can be varied by
changing the _____________. A. low spring pressure A. saltwater
A. line frequency A. sum of the individual voltage drops B. low voltage to the coil B. brackish water
B. resistance B. total resistance divided by the total current C. the residual magnetism of the contact faces C. distilled water
C. number of commutating poles C. sum of the individual currents multiplied by the number of resistors D. dirty contact faces D. light water
Ans: B Ans: C
D. number of interpoles D. total current divided by the total resistance 5759 The primary function of an electric motor is to ___________. 5760 Current measuring instruments must always be connected in
Ans: A Ans: A _____________.
5741 Excessive humming of AC contactors may be caused by 5742 Decreasing the frequency in a capacitive circuit while maintaining a A. develop torque A. series with a circuit
______________. constant circuit voltage, will result in a/an _____________. B. generate high voltages B. parallel with a circuit
C. produce a magnetic field C. series-parallel with a circuit
A. burnt arc shields A. increase in apparent power D. generate high electrical resistance D. delta with the shunt
B. shorted armature coils B. decrease in circuit current Ans: A Ans: A
C. a broken shading coil C. decrease in capacitive reactance 5761 The resistance of electric wire will decrease as its 5762 Which of the instruments listed should always be connected in series
D. high voltage D. decrease in total impedance _______________. with a circuit?
Ans: C Ans: B A. length increases A. Ammeter
5743 The counter EMF produced in the windings of a DC motor is "zero" 5744 A loud buzzing noise coming from the contacts in a magnetic B. cross-sectional area increases B. Megohmmeter
when the ____________. controller can be caused by ____________. C. temperature increases C. Wattmeter
A. armature has just begun to turn A. excessive current D. percent of metallic purities increases D. Voltmeter
B. armature is not turning B. excessive magnet gap Ans: B Ans: A
C. motor is almost up to rated speed C. bouncing of contacts 5763 When the voltage remains constant and the resistance is increased 5764 An ammeter should be used to measure ___________.
D. motor is at rated speed D. dirt on magnet faces in a series circuit, the flow of current _____________.
Ans: B Ans: D
5745 The function of the commutator in a DC motor is to ________. 5746 Humming or buzzing of electric contacts is a symptom of A. increases by the square of the original value A. the voltage between two points in a circuit
____________. B. increases B. circuit continuity
A. reverse the flow of current through the armature A. low voltage on the operating coil C. remains the same C. current flow in a circuit
B. reverse the flow of current in the field poles B. power failure to the operating coil D. decreases D. total or partial circuit resistance
C. reduce the reluctance of the magnetic path through the motor C. a control circuit ground Ans: D Ans: C
D. shift the neutral running plane of the brushes to prevent sparking D. a control circuit overload 5765 The voltage output of an AC generator is accurately controlled by 5766 In a compound-wound motor, a portion of the line current flows
_____________. through the _____________.
Ans: A Ans: A A. changing the sensitivity of the prime mover to large changes in A. inertial poles
5747 To increase the frequency of an operating AC generator, you should 5748 The counter EMF of a DC motor is maximum when the _________. voltage
____________. B. varying the reluctance of the air gap B. stator
A. increase the field excitation A. motor is at rated speed C. varying the DC exciter voltage C. shunt field coils
B. decrease the field excitation B. armature is not turning D. shorting out part of the armature windings D. frame
C. increase the number of magnetic poles C. motor is almost up to rated speed Ans: C Ans: C
D. increase the speed of the prime mover D. armature has just begun to turn 5767 Which of the formulas listed is correct for determining power? 5768 Which of the listed meters uses a shunt connected in series with the
Ans: D Ans: A load, but parallel with the meter movement?
5749 In the flow of one cycle of single phase AC current past any given 5750 AC and DC generators are similar in that they _____________. A. P = (E)(E)/R A. Voltmeter
point in a circuit, the maximum current peak occurs _____________. B. P = (I)(R)(R) B. Power factor meter
C. P = (I)(I)/R C. Ammeter
A. one time A. both generate alternating voltages D. P = E/R D. Wattmeter
B. two times B. both rectify the voltage before delivery Ans: A Ans: C
C. three times C. are constructed at the same physical size for the same kilowatt 5769 When a console indicating lamp burns out, attempts to renew it 5770 The rate at which heat is produced in a direct current circuit is equal
rating should not be made while maneuvering because to ____________.
D. four times D. both supply three-phase power _______________.
Ans: B Ans: A A. the new lamp may be of a higher wattage and cause heat damage A. P divided by R
5751 If the length of a wire is halved and the cross-sectional area is 5752 Prior to taking a resistance reading with a volt-ohm-milliammeter, to the lens
doubled, the resistance will be _____________. the "zero" setting must be adjusted. After clipping the two leads B. removing a faulty lamp usually causes an alarm to sound on the B. I squared times R
together, you find the adjustment knob will not return the pointer to bridge
"zero". This is most likely an indication of _ C. attention should be paid only to engine orders C. E divided by I
D. a socket/wiring fault may cause a ground or short circuit to shut D. I times R divided by T
A. quartered A. an improper resistance range setting down a vital function
B. unchanged B. weak batteries Ans: D Ans: B
C. doubled C. a faulty zero ohms knob 5771 One horsepower is equal to _____________. 5772 An ammeter reads slightly above "zero" when its leads are
D. quadrupled D. a faulty meter movement disconnected, this is a result of ___________.
Ans: A Ans: B A. 500 watts A. mechanical misalignment of the meter pointer
5753 When correcting specific gravity readings of a lead-acid battery for 5754 Relative to the secondary winding of a step-up transformer, the B. 663 watts B. a poor ground for the meter case
existing temperature conditions, you should ______________. primary winding will have _____________. C. 746 watts C. static electricity in the air
D. 1,000 watts D. resistors inside the meter storing charges
A. add 10 points for each 2.2° above 26.7°C A. more turns Ans: C Ans: A
B. subtract 10 points for each 2.2° above 26.7°C B. fewer turns 5773 Modern handheld digital tachometers operate by counting light 5774 To determine the state of charge of a nickel-cadmium battery, you
C. add 4 points for each 4.5° above 26.7°C C. half as many turns pulses returned to the unit by ______________. would use a/an _____________.
D. add 4 points for each 4.5° below 26.7°C D. twice as many turns A. the tach generator A. voltmeter
Ans: C Ans: B B. either the coupling or shaft B. hydrometer
5755 The total power used up in a series circuit is ___________. 5756 When the operating handle of a molded-case circuit breaker is in the C. a small bulb attached to the shaft C. ammeter
mid-position, this indicates that the circuit breaker is D. a piece of reflective tape D. potentiometer
_____________. Ans: D Ans: A
A. the sum of the powers used in each load (resistor) divided by the A. on 5775 When troubleshooting a lead-acid storage battery, a weak or dead 5776 Common nickel-cadmium and nickel-iron storage batteries utilize
number of loads cell is best detected by _________________. _______________.
 Page 321 Page 322

A. measuring and comparing all cells' specific gravity A. acid primary cells D. measuring the electrolyte temperature with an accurate mercury D. the dielectric absorption effect of the insulation
B. taking an open circuit voltage test of individual cells B. alkaline primary cells thermometer
C. visually inspecting the electrolyte levels of each cell C. acid secondary cells Ans: C Ans: C
D. taking each cell's temperature with a calibrated mercury D. alkaline secondary cells 5795 Which of the following statements concerning AC circuits is correct? 5796 When troubleshooting motor controllers, a shorted relay or contactor
thermometer coil is often indicated by _______________.
Ans: A Ans: D A. The power factor of a resistive circuit is always zero. A. a resistance reading of "infinity" on an ohmmeter
5777 The amount of voltage induced in the windings of an AC generator 5778 Which of the following materials is a good electrical insulator? B. True power in an inductive circuit always equals apparent power. B. charred insulation and/or a blown control fuse
depends mainly on _____________.
A. the number of field poles energized A. wood C. Inductive reactance varies directly with the frequency and the C. a reading of "zero" on a megger from one of the coil's leads to
B. the speed at which the stator windings rotate through the magnetic B. silver inductance. ground
field D. Total opposition to the flow of alternating current depends upon the D. a higher-than-normal voltage reading across the winding
C. the strength of the magnetic field C. copper amount of reactive power.
D. all of the above D. gold Ans: C Ans: B
Ans: C Ans: A 5797 If the driving torque, such as that produced by a diesel engine, 5798 Which of the following statements represents the FIRST step in
5779 When mixing electrolyte, which of the following precautions should 5780 Which of the following statements represents the correct method of creates pulsations when coupled with a synchronous generator seating new brushes on slip rings?
always be observed? connecting the shunt of an ammeter prior to taking a reading? operating in parallel; the generator rotor may beperiodically pulled
ahead or behind its normal position as it rotates. This hunt
A. Add the acid to the water. A. In series with the load and in series with the meter movement.
A. amortisseur windings A. Wrap sandpaper around the slip rings and slide it back and forth
B. Use a heavy duty aluminum pail. B. In series with the load and in parallel with the meter movement. between the brushes and the slip rings.
B. direct coupling B. Press the brushes against the slip ring with a wood block.
C. Add the water to the acid. C. In parallel with the load and in series with the meter movement. C. increase governor speed droop C. Increase brush pressure and run at no load for 3 to 4 hours.
D. decreasing governor speed droop D. Apply seating compound under the brushes and run at no load for 2
D. Mix the solution outdoors. D. In parallel with the load and in parallel with the meter movement. hours.
Ans: A Ans: A
Ans: A Ans: B 5799 Motor name plate data includes "‚°C rise". This indicates the 5800 When using a megohmmeter to test the dielectric strength of wire
5781 Nickel-cadmium storage batteries are superior to lead-acid batteries 5782 The force that causes free electrons to move in a conductor as _____________. insulation, a continuous series of slight downscale kicks by the
because they __________. electric current flow is called a/an _____________. pointer is result of ____________.
A. put out higher voltages and require no maintenance A. resistant force A. actual running temperature of the winding from no load to full load A. good insulation
B. can remain idle and keep a full charge for a long time B. electromotive force
C. need fewer cells in series and use less mounting space C. inductive force B. permissible temperature rise of the windings above the designed B. the leakage of current along the surface of dirty insulation
D. all of the above D. dielectric force ambient temperature
Ans: B Ans: B C. maximum allowable temperature rise above normal full load C. the capacitance of the windings
5783 A handheld digital tachometer could give a bad reading if 5784 Which of the listed sections of an emergency switchboard is used to operating temperature
___________________. supply power for alarm signals under emergency conditions? D. maximum allowable temperature rise for continuous no load service D. the dielectric-absorption effect of the insulation

A. aimed directly at the shaft A. The generator and bus transfer section Ans: B Ans: B
B. partially aimed at a 60 Hz. fluorescent light B. The 450 volt, 60 cycle, 3 phase bus 5801 A commutator's protective oxide film can be destroyed by 5802 When the electrolyte level of a lead-acid storage battery has
C. positioned 10-25 cms from the shaft C. The 120 volt, 3 phase, 60 cycle bus _________________. decreased due to normal evaporation, the level should be
D. the tape is too shiny D. The 24 volt DC bus reestablished by adding _____________.
Ans: B Ans: D A. periods of low humidity A. distilled water only
5785 When removing ball or roller bearings from the shaft of a motor, you 5786 The rotation of a three-phase induction motor can be reversed by B. very low brush current density B. sulfuric acid only
should use a _____________. _____________. C. improper brush grade C. a weak solution of sulfuric acid and distilled water
A. rawhide hammer A. interchanging any two of the three line leads to the stator D. all of the above D. a strong solution of sulfuric acid and distilled water
B. brass mallet B. disconnecting one of the three line leads to the stator Ans: D Ans: A
C. wheel puller C. switching the shunt field coil leads 5803 When shipboard electrical distribution circuits are connected in 5804 Which of the listed classes of electrical insulation is suited for the
D. soft iron pry bar D. permanently disconnecting any two of the three line leads to the parallel, additional parallel circuits will cause the total circuit highest operating temperature?
stator resistance to _____________.
Ans: C Ans: A A. increase, causing a drop in the line current A. Class 90 (O)
5787 The frequency of an AC generator is controlled by the 5788 The 24 volt DC bus on the emergency switchboard is used to supply B. increase, causing a decrease in the line voltage B. Class 105 (A)
_____________. power to the _____________. C. decrease, causing an increase in the line voltage C. Class 130 (B)
A. rheostat A. general alarm system D. decrease, causing an increase in the line current D. Class 180 (H)
B. governor B. gyrocompass power failure alarm system Ans: D Ans: D
C. exciter C. smoke detection system 5805 When the control handle is in the "off" position, thesolenoid actuated 5806 In D.C. motor construction, the armature coils' ends are
D. capacitor D. all of the above brake of the electric winch is _________. _______________.
Ans: B Ans: D A. de-energized and the brake is released A. soldered to the commutator bar risers
5789 The frequency of an alternator is controlled from the main 5790 The reversal of an AC, three-phase, induction motor is B. energized and the brake is released B. imbedded into core slots
switchboard by adjusting the _____________. accomplished by ______________. C. energized and the brake is set by a spring C. crimped together with brush pigtails
A. frequency meter A. changing all three motor leads D. de-energized and the brake is set by a spring D. spliced with the field windings
B. voltage regulator B. reversing the position of the slip rings Ans: D Ans: A
C. governor control C. interchanging any two of the three motor leads 5807 When troubleshooting a console circuit card suspected of being 5808 The armature cores of the D.C. motors are constructed with
D. sychroscope switch D. interchanging any two brushes faulty, the last step would be to _______________. laminations to ___________.
Ans: C Ans: C A. check the fuses and voltage levels of all power supplies in the A. eliminate hysteresis
5791 In order to take a current reading with a "clamp-on" ammeter, the 5792 The number of cycles per second occurring in AC voltage is known console
instrument's jaws _________________. as the _____________. B. clean dust and debris from the card and burnish the sliding B. minimize brush sparking
A. should remain open A. phase angle connections
B. cannot touch the adjacent conductor B. frequency C. make sure all connections are tight including wire wrappings and C. reduce eddy current losses
C. must be fully closed C. wave form push-on types
D. will act as a transformer primary D. half mode D. substitute a new or repaired spare card and check the operation of D. compensate for armature reaction
Ans: C Ans: B the circuit
5793 When troubleshooting an alkaline storage battery a weak or dead 5794 When a megohmmeter is used to test the dielectric strength of wire Ans: D Ans: C
cell is best located by ____________. insulation, the initial dip of the pointer toward "zero" is caused by 5809 Which of the listed groups of electrical insulation materials is best 5810 Capacitors can be used in electric distribution systems to improve
_____________. suited for the highest operating temperatures? power factor. This is accomplished by seesawing energy between
A. checking the specific gravity of each cell A. good insulation the capacitor and the _____________.
B. visually inspecting each cell's electrolyte level B. the leakage of current along the surface of dirty insulation A. impregnated cotton and silk A. generator
C. testing each cell with a voltmeter C. the capacitance of the circuit B. unimpregnated paper and cotton B. inductive loads
 Page 323 Page 324

C. pure glass and quartz C. resistive loads 5829 The RPM of an AC generator can be measured with a/an 5830 The "dielectric constant" is a numerical value indicating the
D. mica and porcelain with bonding agents D. all of the above _____________. effectiveness of a dielectric material in comparison to that of a
Ans: C Ans: B standard, which is _______________.
5811 You are paralleling two alternators. The synchronizing lamps grow 5812 If you reverse both the field and the armature connections to a DC A. ammeter A. paper or cloth
dim and are totally darkened as the synchroscope pointer propulsion motor, _____________. B. voltmeter B. glass or mica
approaches the 0‚ position. This indicates that the ____________. C. vibrating reed meter C. plastic or Teflon
D. synchroscope D. dry air or a vacuum
A. alternator voltages are 180‚ apart A. the direction of motor rotation will change Ans: C Ans: D
B. circuit breaker can be closed B. the brushes will become overheated 5831 If the pointer of the synchroscope is rotating in the slow direction 5832 The air gap in an induction motor should be checked periodically
C. incoming alternator is running too slowly C. a magnetic lock will occur in the motor when you are preparing to parallel two alternators, the with a feeler gage to detect ____________.
D. synchroscope is defective or broken D. the direction of motor rotation will remain the same _____________.
Ans: B Ans: D A. incoming machine is turning faster than the load alternator A. rotor contact with the laminations
5813 The leads from a megohmmeter are attached to the leads of an AC 5814 The direction of rotation of a DC propulsion motor can be changed B. loaded alternator is turning faster than the incoming machine B. changes in armature magnetic strength
motor field coil. A reading of infinity is obtained indicating a/an by reversing the _____________. C. load on the loaded alternator is ready to split C. excessive bearing wear
____________. D. incoming machine is beginning to pick up some of the load D. electrical damage to the rotor
A. open field coil A. brush holder position Ans: B Ans: C
B. shorted field coil B. polarity of the field poles 5833 The following air gap readings were obtained from a horizontally 5834 The "dielectric constant" of dry air or a vacuum is _______.
C. grounded field coil C. brush staggered order mounted, bilge pump, induction motor, equipped with sleeve
D. shunted field coil D. motor interpole connections bearings: FWD END AFT END
Ans: A Ans: B Top .045 .049Right Side .045 .047Left Side .
5815 Moisture absorbed in the windings or condensed on the surface of 5816 The voltage developed by an AC generator is controlled by varying A. The aft bearing should be realigned or replaced. A. 1
electrical machinery insulation ________. the ____________. B. Shims should be removed from the aft bearing. B. 10
A. is good for long term preserving since most insulation is organic and A. speed of the prime mover C. The forward bearing should be lowered. C. 100
contains some amount D. The aft bearing should be lowered. D. 1000
B. lowers the insulation value and is a common cause of fault grounds B. AC excitation to the field Ans: A Ans: A
in idle machines 5835 When the operating handle of a molded case circuit breaker is in the 5836 During maintenance of circuit breakers, _______________.
C. will enhance insulation resistance only if it is fresh water and C. DC excitation to the field mid-position, it indicates the circuit breaker is _____________.
contains no salt
D. reduces the amount of current supplied or drawn by the machine so D. DC excitation of the voltage regulator A. in the "opened" position A. always smooth roughened contact surfaces with a file
horsepower is limited B. in the "closed" position B. never pass more than rated breaker current through the overload
Ans: B Ans: C heater element
5817 If a fuse of correct size and type blows frequently, 5818 If violent gassing occurs when a lead-acid storage battery is first C. tripped C. inspect for wear and misalignment of main contacts
________________. placed on charge, the _____________. D. reset D. assume heater elements installed are of correct size
A. try the next higher amperage rating A. battery must be given an emergency charge Ans: C Ans: C
B. try the next lower amperage rating B. charging rate is too low 5837 In a three-phase, open-delta connected transformer, the line current 5838 Most AC voltmeters are calibrated to indicate __________.
C. look for trouble within the circuit C. charging rate is too high is equal to _____________.
D. reduce the applied voltage 10% D. specific gravity of the electrolyte solution is too low A. the phase current A. peak-to-peak voltage
Ans: C Ans: C B. three times the phase current B. root-mean-square voltage
5819 What type of electric motor is commonly used to start small auxiliary 5820 Violent gassing developed by a lead-acid battery during charging C. the sum of any two phase currents C. average voltage
diesel engines? indicates that the ____________. D. the difference of any two phase currents D. peak voltage only
A. synchronous A. plate separators are grounded Ans: A Ans: B
B. series B. cell voltages are excessive 5839 To limit the current flow through a DC voltmeter to as low a value as 5840 Encrusted dirt accumulated inside a motor should be removed with a
C. shunt C. specific gravity in insufficient possible, the moving coil circuit is provided with a/an _____________.
D. cage D. charging rate is excessive _____________.
Ans: B Ans: D A. high series resistance A. fiber scraper
5821 All of the following items can be used in the maintenance of a D.C. 5822 A reverse-current relay will prevent AC generator motorization by B. high parallel resistance B. pointed welding rod
propulsion motor's commutator EXCEPT _______________. ____________. C. series inductor C. hammer and chisel
D. external shunt D. paint scraper
A. a canvas wiper A. automatically redirecting the load Ans: A Ans: A
B. safety solvent B. automatically speeding up the prime mover 5841 To check the three line fuses of a three-phase system consisting of 5842 If the voltage applied to a moving disk frequency meter decreases,
C. abrasive dressing stones C. tripping the panel board main switch a three-phase motor, you must _____________. while the applied frequency remains the same, the frequency
D. sandpaper D. tripping the generator circuit breaker indication will _____________.
Ans: B Ans: D A. place the starter in the "stop" position A. increase
5823 Complete controller maintenance includes _____________. 5824 If a loaded shunt motor's field were weakened by rheostat resistance B. make sure the motor is operating at full load to guard against a B. decrease
or by an open circuit, the motor would _________. false reading
A. periodic testing of protective devices A. overspeed due to reduced CEMF C. place the leads across the "hot" ends of the fuses C. remain the same
B. checking for loose or worn contacts and weak springs B. stop because of low flux D. place the leads across the bottom ends of the fuses D. oscillate
C. maintaining a sufficient supply of spare parts C. continue to run at base speed Ans: A Ans: C
D. all of the above D. slow down and overheat 5843 Which of the listed conditions could indicate the need for cleaning 5844 The reactive power drawn by a motor from an AC generator is the
Ans: D Ans: A electrical insulation? power which is _____________.
5825 How is a wattmeter electrically connected in a circuit? 5826 An AC generator panel is fitted with both synchronizing lamps and a A. Low ambient temperature A. used to establish the magnetic field of the motor
synchroscope. When the synchroscope pointer reaches the noon B. Low operating temperature B. lost in overcoming friction in the bearings
position, one synchronizing light is bright and the other is dark. This C. High dielectric strength C. strictly converted to heat generated by current flow through the
means _____________. windings
A. In series A. there is a ground on the phase with the dark lamp D. Low megger readings D. transmitted directly through the rotor shaft to perform useful work
B. In parallel B. the phase sequence is incorrect
C. In series-parallel C. the phase sequence is correct Ans: D Ans: A
D. Inductively D. the generator breaker may be closed 5845 The most inefficient method of voltage reduction, from the 5846 When using a multimeter for resistance measurements, it should be
Ans: C Ans: B standpoint of power loss, even when placed in series with the load, calibrated by clipping the loose ends of the leads together and
5827 A wattmeter is used to determine ____________. 5828 Which of the following statements is true concerning a stepdown is the use of a/an ____________. _____________.
transformer in an operating AC power circuit? A. capacitor A. setting the instrument pointer at "zero" ohms
A. the power being consumed by electrical equipment A. Voltage and current will both be increased. B. inductor B. adjusting the line voltage to calibrate the instrument
B. partial circuit resistance B. Voltage and current will both be decreased C. resistor C. plugging each end of one test lead into the plus and minus terminals
C. current flowing in a circuit C. Voltage decreases as current increases.
D. voltage existing between two points in a circuit D. Voltage increases as current decreases. D. transistor D. using a special purpose resistance measuring instrument (a bridge)
Ans: A Ans: C
 Page 325 Page 326

Ans: C Ans: A A. alternator frequency A. tendency for the motor to fall out of step
5847 Which of the following statements regarding the use of a current 5848 How many possible states does a binary logic circuit have? B. kilowatt load B. tendency for the motor to overspeed
measuring instrument is correct? C. voltage output C. tendency for the motor to overheat
A. It must be connected in series with the circuit. A. One D. all of the above D. loss of motor speed regulation
B. You should always start with the lowest range until a suitable B. Two Ans: C Ans: C
reading is obtained. 5865 A fuse will "blow" if _____________. 5866 The inductance of a coil is measured in _____________.
C. The indicating needle is deflected from left to right regardless of C. Three A. an electric motor is stopped suddenly by opening a switch A. ohms
polarity. B. the flow of current to the protection device is reversed B. volts
D. An external shunt is generally utilized where current is less than 10 D. Four C. the electrical current exceeds the rated value of the fuse C. henries
amperes. D. unequal resistors are connected in parallel D. amperes
Ans: A Ans: B Ans: C Ans: C
5849 Which of the listed pairs of materials make the best insulators? 5850 In a logic circuit, the NOT gate function _____________. 5867 When a fluorescent lamp fails to light, the trouble can be in the 5868 Electric current is the flow of electrons through a conductor; the
_____________. rate of this flow is measured in ___________.
A. copper and aluminum A. does not alter a logical input A. lamp A. volts
B. glass and mica B. serves to amplify a given signal level B. starter B. amperes
C. dry air and a vacuum C. must be accomplished with a common collector transistor C. ballast C. coulombs
arrangement D. all of the above D. ohms
D. doped silicon and germanium D. reverses an input logic condition Ans: D Ans: B
Ans: B Ans: D 5869 Which of the following conditions can lead to the failure of a 5870 A circuit with a blown fuse would be described as a/an
5851 In a logic circuit the NOR and NAND gate functions ____________. 5852 Conductor resistance may be INDIRECTLY measured by using a/an resistor? _____________.
_____________. A. Excessive vibration A. short circuit
A. must be accomplished with a common base transistor arrangement A. voltmeter only B. Insufficient ventilation B. open circuit
C. Corrosion C. bonded circuit
B. are available in diode form B. ammeter only D. All of the above D. grounded circuit
C. are exact opposites with the same NOR and NAND inputs C. voltmeter and an ammeter Ans: D Ans: B
D. have output conditions that are exact opposites to the output D. ohmmeter only 5871 Which of the conditions listed will indicate the need to clean the 5872 Which of the listed devices may be used as a digitaldevice?
condition for OR and AND, respectively insulation on the windings of an electric motor?
Ans: D Ans: C A. Higher than normal operating temperature. A. variable resistor
5853 A three-phase, squirrel cage, induction motor will run hot due to 5854 The ground indicating light on the main electrical switchboard is B. Excessive vibration at normal speed. B. diode
_____________. indicating a ground. The best procedure for locating the grounded C. Sparking at the brushes. C. strain gauge
circuit is to _____________. D. High megger readings. D. thermistor
A. open stator coils A. trace the circuit paths while looking for burned spots Ans: A Ans: B
B. high power factor B. check circuit resistances with a megohmmeter connected between 5873 Which of the listed procedures is the best way to tell if a motor has 5874 If a small electric motor is imersed in salt water itshould be
the grounded line and the distribution panel framework become overloaded? _________. I. washed in fresh water II. dried in an oven
A. Measure the current flow and compare it with the motor full load A. I only
C. dirty or corroded slip rings C. open the circuit breakers on the distribution panel, one at a time, current flow as shown on the nameplate.
until the lights no longer indicate a ground B. Feel the motor and judge by the temperature. B. II only
D. reversed commutating poles D. check all circuits for continuity C. Watch for telltale signs of smoke coming from the motor. C. both I and II
Ans: A Ans: C D. Periodic opening of the O/L relay coil D. neither I or II
5855 A three-phase, squirrel cage, induction motor will run hot due to a/an 5856 Which of the listed pairs of materials make the best insulators? Ans: A Ans: C
______________. 5875 On some electrical generating equipment one outboard bearing 5876 When an AC or a DC motor fails to start, the FIRST step in
A. improper brush position A. dry air and a vacuum pedestal is insulated from the bedplate. To check this insulation with troubleshooting should be to check the ____________.
B. reversed commutating pole B. tin and lead the machine assembled you should use a____________.
C. shorted stator C. doped silicon and germanium
D. high power factor D. paper and oil A. ohmmeter with the machine secured A. motor windings for obvious opens
Ans: C Ans: D B. millivolt meter and a jumper with the machine running B. motor controller leads for continuity
5857 A split-phase induction squirrel-cage motor will not come up to 5858 A ground is indicated by the ground-detecting system on the main C. megohm meter with the machine running C. fuse or circuit breaker
speed, even though the rated voltage, rated frequency, and rated electrical switchboard. The FIRST step in locating the actual ground D. voltmeter and ampmeter with the machine running D. motor controller leads for grounds
load are applied. The suspected trouble could be due to is to _____________. Ans: B Ans: C
_____________. 5877 If deck machinery is expected to be idle for an extended period of 5878 Ambient temperature is the _____________.
A. a faulty centrifugal switch A. close all circuit breakers in the distribution panel until the ground time you should____________.
detector indicates normal A. have electrical safety gloves available in case of electrical shock A. amount of temperature rise with no load
B. broken rotor bars B. open the individual circuit breakers, one by one until the ground before running
detection system indicates normal B. perform a "high pot" test to determine the condition of the insulation B. amount of temperature developed by an operating motor
C. worn bearings C. change over generators
D. all of the above D. check each circuit with a megohmmeter C. water wash the motor and controller to remove any salt that may C. temperature of the compartment where the motor is located
Ans: D Ans: B interfere with smooth operation
5859 Multiple grounds have developed and were initialy indicated by the 5860 To protect the rotor of a motor disassembled for maintenance or D. check run at regular intervals to inusre correct operation and to D. normal operating temperature, less the room temperature
ground-detecting system as one ground. The FIRST step in locating overhaul, it should be ___________________. renew the internal coating of lubrication
the grounds is to _____________. Ans: D Ans: C
A. examine the main bus bars for signs of overheating A. suspended by wire slings in one corner of the shop 5879 A switchboard ammeter indicates a reading slightly above "zero" 5880 Air gap readings should be periodicly taken for electrical generation
B. eliminate the individual circuits one by one until the ground B. wrapped in several layers of heavy paper or cardboard when the leads are disconnected, this is caused by _____________. equipment. The best tool to use to take these measurements is a
detecting system no longer indicates any grounds ___________.
C. change over generators C. supported by flat wood blocks on the workbench A. mechanical misalignment of the meter pointer A. cloth (non-metalic) tape measure
D. check each circuit with a megohmmeter D. returned to the frame as soon as the bearings are removed B. a poor ground for the meter case B. dial indicator
Ans: B Ans: B C. static electricity in the air C. inside micrometer
5861 An overload in which of the listed motors will result inthe illumination 5862 A current-carrying conductor makes accidental contact with a wiring D. capacitors inside the meter storing charges D. tapered, long blade, feeler gage
of an indicating light at the propulsion control station alarm panel? conduit. This will be indicated by a _____________. Ans: A Ans: D
5881 Brush sparking during commutation may be caused by ________. 5882 Air gap readings for electrical generating equipment should be taken
A. Fuel pump motor A. low switchboard wattmeter reading periodicly. This is to _______. I. determine the condition of the
B. Steering motor B. high switchboard wattmeter reading bearings II. prevent damage to the rotor and stator
C. Condensate pump motor C. darkened switchboard ground detecting lamp
D. Forced draft blower motor D. darkened switchboard synchronizing lamps A. eddy currents in the armature core A. I only
Ans: B Ans: C B. laminations in the generator field pieces B. II only
5863 A change in field excitation of an alternator operating in parallel will 5864 The effect of carrying field excitation excessively high on a C. induced current opposite to coil inductance C. both I and II
cause a change in its _____________. synchronous motor will result in a _____________. D. coil inductance discharge occurring at commutation D. neither I or II
 Page 327 Page 328

Ans: D Ans: C D. 10 volts, the output changes 2 volts D. overheating

5883 The following air gap readings were obtained from a horizontally 5884 A ground on a particular phase of a three-phase low voltage Ans: C Ans: D
mounted, bilge pump, induction motor, equipped with sleeve distribution system would be indicated by a _____________. 5901 When the length and cross sectional area of a wire are both tripled, 5902 Universal motors will operate on AC or DC current, and are generally
bearings: FWD END AFT END the resistance _____________. found in _____________.
Top .045 .049Right Side .045 .047Left Side . A. increases nine fold A. portable tools
A. both the aft and foward bearings should be replaced. A. high switchboard wattmeter reading B. increases three fold B. large pump motors
B. Shims should be removed from the aft bearing. B. low switchboard wattmeter reading C. remains the same C. turbo electric main motors
C. The forward bearing should be lowered. C. dark or dim switchboard ground detecting light D. decreases six fold D. forced draft fans
D. The aft bearing should be lowered. D. bright switchboard ground detecting light Ans: C Ans: A
Ans: A Ans: C 5903 A diesel driven emergency generator is prevented from being 5904 The energy consumed by an AC motor, as strictly reactive power, is
5885 As part of a routine maintenance program for deck machinery, you 5886 Which of the listed conditions will occur if the polarity of the field paralleled with the ship's service generators by __________. _____________.
should ___________. poles and the direction of current to the brushes of a DC motor were A. an electrical interlock system A. used to do mechanical work
both reversed? B. an automatic paralleling trip switch B. used to establish the magnetic field of the motor
A. inspect electrical wiring and pushbutton switches for evidence of A. The motor would not start. C. the synchronizing oscilloscope C. lost as heat generated by the windings
corrosion or burned insulation D. the reverse current relay D. lost in doing work to turn the motor itself
B. disassemble pushbutton switches and drain water each week B. The direction of rotation of the armature would be reversed. Ans: A Ans: B
5905 Which of the listed motors will operate at the highest RPM, 5906 On large generators, space heaters are used to ____________.
C. remove motor covers and ventilate as weather permits C. The direction of rotation of the armature would be unchanged. assuming that each operates at the same frequency?
A. A four-pole synchronous motor under normal load. A. keep the machine at ambient tmperature of the machinery space
D. Check drum switch contact pressure every three months D. The field pole windings would become overheated.
Ans: A Ans: C B. A four-pole induction motor under no load. B. maintain rotor and stator winding temperatures above the dew point
5887 The armature cores of the D.C. motors are constructed with 5888 Equalization of the power factors of two alternators operating in to prevent the formation of condensation
laminations to ___________. parallel is accomplished _____________. C. A six-pole synchronous motor under normal load. C. prevent condensation in the lube oil
A. eliminate hysteresis A. manually, by adjusting the governor controls D. A six-pole induction motor under full load. D. prevent electrolysis due to condensation in the bearings
B. minimize brush sparking B. automatically, by automatic voltage regulators Ans: A Ans: B
C. reduce eddy current losses C. manually, adjusting the output of current transformers 5907 Which of the listed colors properly describes a DC motor 5908 An AC generator produces 60 Hz at 1800 RPM. If the generator
D. compensate for armature reaction D. automatically, by the designed action of the governors commutator when correct commutation is taking place? speed is increased to 1830 RPM, the cycles will _____________.
Ans: C Ans: B
5889 DC generator voltage is decreased by cutting _____________. 5890 In a three-phase electrical system, three ground detecting lamps are A. Shiny blue A. remain at 60 Hz
provided. If all three lamps REMAIN at half-brilliance when the B. Burnished green B. increase to 61 Hz
ground detecting test switch is operated, ______________. C. Brick red C. decrease to 59 Hz
D. Chocolate brown D. increase to 63 Hz
A. in field resistance A. there is a slight ground on all three phases Ans: D Ans: B
B. out field resistance B. the switch must be replaced 5909 A twelve volt lead-acid battery is constructed of _________. 5910 Moisture accumulating in electric motors and generator windings
C. in armature resistance C. there are no grounds present having a cold insulation resistance greater than 50,000 ohms may be
D. out armature resistance D. the light bulbs are of improper voltage baked out with internal heat. This heat can be developed by
Ans: A Ans: C ____________.
5891 An open coil in a transformer will be indicated by which ofthe listed 5892 A four-pole induction motor, operating on three-phase 60 cycle A. one cell A. feeding current into the windings at low voltage
conditions? current will operate at approximately ___________. B. three cells B. short circuiting the armature and field windings
A. "zero" resistance accompanied by high inductance A. 850 RPM C. six cells C. short circuiting the field windings and passing current through the
B. no resistance accompanied by stray inductance B. 1,150 RPM armature
C. infinite resistance in addition to no inductance C. 1,750 RPM D. twelve cells D. obtaining current from a DC source such as an electric welder and
D. infinite resistance in addition to normal inductance D. 3,550 RPM feeding it into the armature while running the motor at full speed
Ans: C Ans: C
5893 An open in the armature of a DC motor is suspected, but is not 5894 An autotransformer is equipped with a 50% tap, a 65% tap, and an Ans: C Ans: A
found by visual inspection of the commutator. The next step in 80% tap. Which of the following statements is true concerning a load 5911 In order to safely carry out repairs to a generator circuit breaker, it 5912 Three 12 volt, lead-acid, batteries connected in series will develop
troubleshooting this problem is to ________________. connected to the 50% tap? must be isolated from the bus. This is accomplished by opening the __________.
A. conduct a bar to bar test of the armature A. The load is receiving minimum voltage and minimum current. _____________.
B. visually inspect the armature windings B. The load is receiving minimum voltage and maximum current. A. reverse power relay A. 12 volts
C. conduct an insulation resistance test of the armature C. The load is receiving maximum voltage and minimum current. B. bus disconnect link B. 24 volts
D. test the commutator for a ground D. The load is receiving maximum voltage and maximum current. C. generator bus fuse connections C. 36 volts
Ans: A Ans: B D. power directional relay D. 48 volts
5895 A battery is connected to a circuit containing three resistors in 5896 When two generators are on the line and are sharing the load Ans: B Ans: C
parallel. The values of the three resistors are 2 ohms, 3 ohms, and 6 equally, they are said to be operating in _____________. 5913 The removal of paint from electrical equipment, such as generators, 5914 An alternator will fail to produce line voltage as a result of
ohms. What is the voltage of the battery if the total circuit current is should be cautiously undertaken because ____________. _____________.
12 amps?
A. 2 volts A. frequency A. the mechanical shock of paint removal lessens the dielectric A. a closed circuit breaker
B. 6 volts B. series strength of the insulation
C. 12 volts C. parallel B. the paint dust is composed of abrasive and semi-conducting B. oxidized slip rings
D. 24 volt D. resonance materials which impair insulation
Ans: C Ans: C C. paint dust buildup has a tendency to cause corrosion C. improperly staggered brushes
5897 If a DC motor runs hot, the cause may be _____________. 5898 Which of the methods listed is used to maintain the division of load D. phase windings frequently become isolated from each other due to D. exciter generator failure
between two compound-wound, DC generators operating in parallel? dust interference at the terminals
Ans: B Ans: D
A. high mica condition A. The shunt fields are interconnected. 5915 An alternator operating in parallel begins to vibrate severely and 5916 Severe vibration, accompanied by flashover at the collector rings of
B. low ambient temperature B. The shunt field rheostats are interconnected. eventually trips out on the reverse power relay. The cause of the an alternator operating in parallel, is a symptom of _____________.
C. clogged ventilation ducts C. The series fields of both generators are connected in series. vibration was a result of ______________________.
D. an open in the shunt field D. The equalizer connection parallels the series fields of all machines.
A. the dropping of load by that alternator A. reverse current motorization
Ans: C Ans: D B. overspeeding of the vibrating alternator B. loss of synchronism
5899 An operational amplifier, as used in today's consoles, has a 5900 Damp armature windings in a D.C. motor may lead to C. the alternator was operating out of synchronism C. destructive overspeeding
calculated gain of 5. This means that when the input changes ____________. D. flashover at the alternator collector rings D. reversed polarity
_____________. Ans: C Ans: B
A. 5 volts, the output changes 10 volts A. reduced voltage 5917 Which of the following problems will occur if the circuit breaker of the 5918 Voltage failure of an AC generator may be caused by
B. 10 volts, the output changes 5 volts B. reduced current incoming alternator is closed and it is 180° out of phase with the ____________.
C. 2 volts, the output changes 10 volts C. increased resistance loaded alternator when paralleling?
 Page 329 Page 330

A. The rotor of the loaded alternator will hunt. A. failure of the exciter generator 5933 Unless it can be shown that a 45°C ambient temperature willnot be 5934 Regulations require each switchboard to have mechanical protection
B. Severe cross currents will occur which could cause damage. B. a tripped bus circuit breaker exceeded, motors within a machinery space must be designed for an including _______.
ambient temperature of _____________.
C. The rotor of the incoming alternator will stop. C. high mica segments on the stator bus bar A. 45°C A. closed sides
D. Both alternators will parallel 180° out of phase. D. excessive prime mover speed B. 50°C B. a dripshield
Ans: B Ans: A C. 55°C C. a door at each entrance to a rear working space
5919 According to Regulations , which of the following systems must be 5920 Hysteresis in a direct current generator is indicated by D. 60°C D. all the above
arranged so as to be energized by the final emergency power _____________. Ans: B Ans: D
source? 5935 Regulations require that each alternating current generator 5936 When supplying emergency lighting loads, the storage battery initial
A. at least one light in the steering gear room A. arcing at the brushes arranged for parallel operation shall be provided with voltage must not exceed the standard system voltage by more than
B. each power operated watertight door system B. pulsating terminal current _____________. _____________.
C. each charging panel for temporary emergency batteries C. heating of the armature core A. more than one means of excitation A. 0.02
D. all of the above D. hunting and over control B. individual circuit fuses B. 0.03
Ans: D Ans: C C. a high back-pressure trip C. 0.05
5921 The most practical method used for resurfacing a ship's service 5922 An open shunt field in a direct current machine may be located by D. a reverse-power trip D. 0.1
motor commutator is to _____________. connecting the field circuit to an external power source, equal to the Ans: D Ans: C
rated field voltage or less, and tested with a voltmeter from 5937 When there is a fire in a large electric motor, normally the very 5938 According to Regulations , which of the following statements is the
_____________. FIRST step is to ____________. ONLY method allowed to ease the starting of emergency diesel
A. turn it down in the ship's lathe A. one line terminal to each coil lead in succession generator engines?
B. use a grinding rig B. one field coil to each adjacent field coil in turn A. secure the electric supply A. Bayonet-type electrical oil heaters
C. use a hand stone C. any suitable ground to any available line lead B. ventilate area to remove smoke B. Steam or hot water lube oil heaters
D. burnish it with commutator stones D. any field pole to each field coil lead C. start the fire pump and lead out hose C. Thermostatically controlled electric jacket water heaters
Ans: B Ans: A D. apply foam D. Electric resistance heaters in the air intake manifold
5923 Three factors responsible for the change in voltage as load is 5924 The division of the reactive KVA load between paralleled AC Ans: A Ans: C
applied to an AC generator are: 1) the drop inresistance in the generators is initiated by the ______________. 5939 Which of the following devices for a lifeboat winch electrical circuit 5940 Regulations require that automatic starting emergency diesel
armature circuit, 2) the change in flux,and 3) the ____________. automatically prevents the davit arms of a gravity-type unit from over generators assume emergency power loads as soon as
traveling their tracks when raising the lifeboat? ____________.
A. armature winding speed A. prime mover governors
B. inductance load drop B. voltage regulators A. Master cutout switch A. it is started
C. coil pitch factor C. phase balance relay B. Emergency disconnect switch B. the electric potential of the ship's service generators drops 15 to 40
D. armature reactance voltage drop D. proportioner percent below normal value
Ans: D Ans: B C. Limit switch C. the potential from the emergency generator reaches 85 to 95 percent
5925 Which of the following statements about a three-phase wye 5926 According to Regulations , the talking and calling circuits of a sound of its normal value
connection is correct? powered telephone system must be _____________. D. Clutch interlock switch D. the electric potential of the ship's service generators drops to 15 to
A. The line current is 1.73 times the phase current. A. intrinsically safe 40 percent of normal value
B. The phase current is 1.73 times the line current. B. independent of each other Ans: C Ans: C
C. The line voltage is 1.73 times the phase voltage. C. independently grounded 5941 Which of the following safeguards can be built into the control 5942 Regulations require that each electrical receptacle is to have a
D. The phase voltage is 1.73 times the line voltage. D. connected to a common ground circuit of a remotely operated fire pump to ensure that the pump is grounding pole, but only if it ____________.
Ans: C Ans: B not started with the suction valve closed?
5927 Regulations require that lighting fixture globes must be protected by 5928 The emergency electrical power source on tank vessels over 500 A. The fire pump starting circuit is completed by a limit switch when the A. operates at 100 volts or more
guards if the fixtures are located in the ____________. GT on an international voyage, should be capable of continuous suction valve opens.
operation under emergency load for _____________. B. A normally closed contact opens in the suction valve starter circuit, B. is in a location exposed to the weather
and the pump starts immediately upon the pushing of the pump start
A. steering gear room A. 6 hours button.
B. galley B. 12 hours C. A normally open contact closes in the fire pump suction valve C. is in a location accessible to other than qualified personnel
C. living quarters C. 18 hours starter circuit, and the pump starts immediately upon the pushing of
D. wheelhouse D. 24 hours the pump start button.
Ans: A Ans: C D. A time delay relay is de-energized when the "ON" button is pushed, D. is connected to a DC source
5929 Which of the following statements concerning electrical cables is 5930 From the standpoint of safety, you should never allow salt water to and the pump starts after a predetermined time delay.
correct? enter a lead-acid storage battery or come in contact with sulfuric
acid because ______________. Ans: A Ans: A
A. Where they pass through watertight bulkheads, they should be fitted A. the resulting gas is extremely flammable 5943 Regulations require a continuous trickle charge is to be supplied 5944 Regulations require that the emergency generator fuel tank on an
with watertight stuffing boxes. from the ship's service power system for batteries supplying power ocean going cargo vessel must be capable of supplying fuel to a
B. Electric cable coverings should never be grounded. B. the resulting gas is a respiratory irritant that can be fatal to the _________________. fully loaded engine for a time period of at least ____________.
C. Electrical cables must be rigidly held in place by welding of armored C. the primary constituent, sodium, reacts lethally with lead peroxide
cable, or glued in place where nonmetallic insulation is used. A. emergency power system for the radar A. 2 hours
B. portable radios for the lifeboats B. 4 hours
D. All of the above. D. combining salt water with lead-acid creates an invisible gas resulting C. radios installed in the lifeboats C. 6 hours
in severe corrosion D. emergency power and lighting system D. 18 hours
Ans: A Ans: B Ans: D Ans: D
5931 If overloading a DC machine becomes necessary in an emergency, 5932 Which of the following statements of Regulations concerning battery 5945 In a diesel electric plant, raising the generator's field excitation will 5946 Electric propulsion coupling excitation is reduced at slow speeds to
you should ____________. installations is correct? cause the DC propulsion motor to ________. ___________.
A. cool the machine with portable blowers and fans A. Sign, permanently secured to the battery trays, indicating that A. increase in speed A. increase speed control
"naked lights or smoking is prohibited in the vicinity" is not necessary B. decrease in speed B. increase shaft torque
to be posted if trickle charging is used. C. affect generator speed only C. prevent coupling overheating
B. hold thermal overload relays open with blocks of wood B. When power ventilation is required, blower blades must be D. affect main motor speed if done in conjunction with higher generator D. prevent coupling slippage
nonsparking and the system must be interlocked with the battery engine speeds
charger to prevent simultaneous operation. Ans: A Ans: C
C. inject small amounts of CO2 into the windings for cooling C. Trays should be chocked with wood strips or equivalent to prevent 5947 An operating characteristic appearing on the name plates of 5948 Low horsepower, polyphase, induction motors can be started with
movement and each tray should be fitted with nonabsorbent shipboard AC motors is _____________. full voltage by means of _____________.
insulating supports on the bottom. A. the type of winding A. compensator starters
D. increase the residual magnetism value of windings to reduce eddy D. Power and lighting batteries must be of the lead-acid type only. B. input kilowatts B. autotransformer starters
currents C. temperature rise C. across-the-line starters
Ans: A Ans: C D. locked rotor torque D. primary-resistor starters
Ans: C Ans: C
 Page 331 Page 332

5949 A ground can be defined as an electrical connection between the 5950 External shunts are sometimes used with ammeters to_______. A. relative speed of the rotor poles A. Slip rings
wiring of a motor and its ____________. B. number of turns of wire in the armature coil B. End rings
A. shunt field A. increase meter sensitivity C. strength of the magnets used C. A centrifugal switch
B. circuit breaker B. permit shunts with larger resistances to be utilized D. output voltage D. End plates
C. metal framework C. prevent damage to the meter movement from heat generated by the Ans: A Ans: A
shunt 5965 The rated temperature rise of an electric motor is the 5966 Which of the following represents the accepted method of cleaning
D. interpole D. enable the construction of a compact meter with a virtually unlimited _____________. dust and foreign particles from electrical equipment while limiting
range damage to electric components?
Ans: C Ans: C A. average temperature at any given latitude A. Carefully wiping off the components with a soft cotton rag.
5951 Where a thermal-acting breaker is required to be used in anarea of 5952 Which of the following statements represents an application of a B. normal temperature rise above the standard ambient temperature B. Blowing a high velocity stream of compressed air rapidly across the
unusually high, low, or constantly fluctuating temperatures, an silicon controlled rectifier? at rated load components.
ambient compensating element must be used.This element consists C. average temperature rise due to resistance at 10% overload C. Using a vacuum cleaner to remove debris from the components.
of a ______________.
A. cylindrical spring on the contact arm A. To provide DC power for a main propulsion motor. D. permissible difference in the ambient temperature of the motor due D. Using carbon tetrachloride as a cleaning solvent to clean the
B. conical spring on the contact arm B. For use as a voltage reference diode. to existing weather conditions components.
C. second bimetal element C. For sensing flame in an automated burner. Ans: B Ans: C
D. second electromagnet D. To eliminate power supply hum. 5967 The electrolyte in a lead-acid storage battery consists of distilled 5968 The torque produced by a motor when its shaft will not turn, even
Ans: C Ans: A water and _____________. though rated voltage is applied to the stator, is known as
5953 In general, polyphase induction motors can be started on full line 5954 Which of the following statements concerning the maintenance of _____________.
voltage by means of ______________. solid-silver contacts in relays and auxiliary control circuits is correct? A. hydrogen chloride A. locked-rotor torque
B. calcium chloride B. pullout torque
A. compensator starters A. When necessary, they should always be dressed with a wire wheel. C. sulfuric acid C. breakdown torque
D. muriatic acid D. torque margin
B. autotransformer starters B. They should be filed with a fine-cut file when projections extend Ans: C Ans: A
beyond the contact surface. 5969 Heat sinks are frequently used with _____________. 5970 Incandescent lamps are classified according to __________.
C. across-the-line starters C. When black silver oxide is present, it should always be removed A. power transistors A. shape of bulb and type of service
from the contact surface with coarse sandpaper. B. vacuum tubes B. size and style of base
D. primary-resistor starters D. If necessary, they should be held together with moderate pressure C. tunnel rectifier diodes C. operating voltage and wattage
while emery paper is drawn between the contacts. D. all of the above D. all of the above
Ans: C Ans: B Ans: A Ans: D
5955 To properly use a hook-on-type volt/ammeter to check current flow, 5956 The use of four diodes, in a full-wave bridge rectifier circuit, will 5971 Which of the following statements describes the significance of 5972 The state of charge of a lead acid storage battery is best indicated
you must FIRST _____________. __________. ambient temperature in relation to the service life of electronic by the _____________.
A. de-energize the circuit to allow connection of the instrument in A. provide unidirectional current to the load components?
series A. Ambient temperature should be as high as possible to drive off A. testing of the individual cell voltages
B. hook the jaws of the instrument around the insulated conductor B. allow a very high leakage current from the load moisture.
B. Increased ambient temperature decreases the service life of B. ampere hour capacity of the battery
C. connect the voltage test leads to the appropriate terminals C. convert direct current to alternating current electronic components.
D. short the test leads and calibrate the instrument to zero D. offer high opposition to current in two directions C. Ambient temperature is not significant as long as the relative C. specific gravity of the electrolyte
Ans: B Ans: A humidity is kept low.
5957 When troubleshooting electronic equipment, you should use ahigh 5958 Which of the listed devices is used to measure pressure andconvert D. A reduced ambient temperature causes a corresponding reduced D. total cell voltages
impedance multimeter ________________. it to an electrical signal? service life.
A. to prevent excess current flow through the meter that would damage A. Transducer Ans: B Ans: C
it 5973 Tightly knit metal braid wire can be used with a printed circuit board 5974 The open-circuit voltage of a fully charged lead-acid battery cell is
B. for AC measurements only and a low resistance meter for DC B. Reducer when ___________. _____________.
measurements A. conductor flexibility is required A. 1.5 volts
C. whenever a low impedance meter is not available, regardless of the C. Transformer B. desoldering components in the circuit B. 1.8 volts
components being tested C. electrically produced magnetic fluxes would cause inaccuracies in C. 2.0 volts
D. so as not to load down the circuit and obtain erroneous voltage D. Rectifier adjacent components
readings D. reactance in the circuit must be kept to a minimum D. 2.3 volts
Ans: D Ans: A Ans: B Ans: C
5959 When reading electrical motor controller diagrams, it helps to know 5960 Which of the following precautions should be taken when 5975 Motor controllers are seldom troubled with grounds because 5976 A delayed-action fuse is most frequently used in which of the listed
that ____________. troubleshooting various power circuits using a common solenoid- _____________. circuits?
type mechanical voltage tester (wiggins)? A. the auxiliary contacts have a high resistance connection A. Lighting circuit
A. current paths in the control circuit are drawn as heavy lines and in A. Never use this tester on circuits greater than 60 Hz, as the coil's B. the contactors and relays are mounted on a nonconducting panel B. Motor circuit
the power circuit as lighter lines resultant high impedance lowers current and magnetic pull. The
tester may not register dangerous voltages. C. the resistor banks are composed of individual series-connected C. Electric heater circuit
B. current paths in the power circuit are drawn as heavy lines and in B. Always remember that the unit is polarity sensitive and if used on DC units
control circuit as lighter lines circuits reversing the leads may result in high temperatures within D. there are separate switches for the motor and the control D. Radar circuit
the tester. Ans: B Ans: B
C. circuits subject to 500 volts or greater are drawn as heavy lines and C. Never connect the device to circuits where potentials greater than 5977 Electric strip heaters are used in motor controllers to 5978 A fuse that blows often should be replaced only with a fuse of
below 500 volts as lighter lines 120 volts may be present, as the coil's extremely fine wire cannot _____________. _____________.
withstand more than a few amps. A. prevent freezing of movable contacts A. the recommended current and voltage rating
D. circuits subject to 500 volts or greater are drawn as light lines and D. Always pre-set the meter to the next higher range than the amount B. keep the components at their design ambient temperature B. higher current and voltage rating
below 500 volts as heavy lines of voltage expected in the circuit in order to prevent damage from C. prevent condensation of moisture C. higher current and lower voltage rating
an off-scale reading. D. minimize resistance in internal circuits D. lower current and higher voltage rating
Ans: B Ans: A Ans: C Ans: A
5961 Which of the motors for the devices listed below is fitted with an 5962 A molded-case circuit breaker provides protection against short 5979 The output voltage of a three-phase alternator is regulated by the 5980 The function of damper windings in a synchronous motor is to
instantaneous overload relay? circuits by using a/an ________________. _____________. _____________.
A. Fan A. electromagnet A. AC voltage to the armature A. eliminate slippage
B. Pump B. shading coil B. AC voltage to the field B. provide excitation
C. Winch C. arc quencher C. DC voltage to the armature C. provide starting torque
D. Machine tool D. burn away strip D. DC voltage to the field D. increase efficiency
Ans: C Ans: A Ans: D Ans: C
5963 The frequency output of an operating alternator is controlled by the 5964 Which of the following physical characteristics does a wound-rotor 5981 Which of the following statements is true concerning all three-phase 5982 A low-voltage protection circuit is used in electric motor starting
_____________. induction motor possess that a squirrel cage motor does not? alternators? equipment to _____________.
 Page 333 Page 334

A. Each has three separate but identical armature windings acted on A. trip circuit contactors when the motor overspeeds due to low voltage 5997 Which of the terms listed best describes a compound-woundDC 5998 The purpose of squirrel-cage windings in a synchronous motor is to
by one system of rotating magnets. generator having a higher voltage at no load than at fullload? ______________.
B. Each has one armature winding acted on by three identical but B. trip circuit contactors when the motor develops a short circuit due to
separate systems of rotating magnets. low voltage A. Flat compounded A. provide more precise balancing
C. All three-phase alternators are designed to operate with a 0.8 C. allow the motor to restart automatically on restoration of voltage B. Over compounded B. produce a higher power factor
leading power factor. without manually resetting C. Under compounded C. eliminate arcing between the stator and the frame
D. The three phases always provide power to the load through three D. prevent the motor from restarting automatically on restoration of D. Terminal compounded D. provide a means for starting
sets of slip rings and brushes. voltage Ans: C Ans: D
Ans: A Ans: D 5999 A triac thyristor functions as a control device and is basically 6000 The speed of a squirrel cage induction motor is determined by the
5983 The part of a fuse that melts and opens the circuit is made of 5984 The cross-sectional area of shipboard electrical cable is expressed ________________. _____________.
_____________. in _____________. A. two NPN transistors in parallel with a common base lead A. diameter of the stator
A. copper and antimony A. millimeters B. a diode in series with a temperature sensitive capacitor B. number of stator poles
B. steel and babbitt B. gage numbers C. two back-to-back SCR's with a common gate lead C. rotor winding resistance
C. aluminum or beryllium alloy C. centimeters D. a triode tube with an extra heavy grid element D. bar resistance of the conducting rotor
D. zinc or an alloy of tin and lead D. circular mils Ans: C Ans: B
Ans: D Ans: D 6001 Copper is often used as an electrical conductor because it 6002 Under which of the listed conditions can the engine room retake the
5985 Fuses placed in series with a thermal trip-type circuit breaker are 5986 On an engine throttle control system, the auxiliary control circuits are _______________. throttle control from the bridge?
used for _____________. provided with devices to prevent excessive overtravel of the pilot A. has high resistance at low temperatures A. Any time it is deemed necessary.
valve by the synchronous motor. These devices are called B. has a highly polished surface B. Only with the master's permission.
_________________. C. is able to pass current with little opposition C. After a 10 minute delay to the input command.
A. time-delay protection A. overlap sensors D. holds insulation together well D. Only after the throttle has been placed in stop.
B. short-circuit protection B. limit switches Ans: C Ans: A
C. short duration surge protection C. overtravel relays 6003 In a 11kw induction-type motor with a cage rotor, the current 6004 A single-phase induction motor having a relatively high starting
D. sustained overload protection D. proximity switches required at standstill to produce starting torque is approximately torque, is the ___________.
Ans: B Ans: B ____________.
5987 The most common source of excitation for synchronous motors is 5988 The type of feature afforded auxiliaries vital to the operation of A. half the full load current A. shaded pole motor
a/an _____________. propelling equipment, where automatic restart after a voltage failure B. equal to the full load current B. wound-rotor motor
would not create a hazard, is termed _____________. C. five times the full load current C. capacitor-start motor
D. ten to twenty times the full load current D. resistance-start motor
A. low voltage battery A. low voltage protection Ans: C Ans: C
B. motor attenuator set B. high amperage protection 6005 A generator has been exposed to water and is being checked for its 6006 The speed of a three-phase squirrel-cage induction-type motor
C. DC exciter generator C. low voltage release safe operation. Therefore, it is necessary to _______________. operating in a fixed frequency system is varied by changing the
D. AC supply D. high amperage release _____________.
Ans: C Ans: C A.
check for shorted coils with a growler A. number of phases to the motor
5989 The purpose of DC generator brushes is to _____________. 5990 The most common source of excitation for synchronous motors is B.
take moisture readings with a hydrometer B. number of stator poles
a/an ______________. C.
test insulation values with a megger C. locked rotor current
A. neutralize armature reaction A. stepup transformer D.
ground the commutator, or slip rings and run it at half load for 12 D. resistance of the rotor winding
B. conduct electric current to an outside circuit B. half-wave rectifier hours
C. convert DC current to AC current C. DC supply Ans: C Ans: B
D. provide excitation to a DC generator D. AC supply 6007 Batteries used for diesel engine starting should __________. 6008 The combined effect of inductive reactance, capacitive reactance,
Ans: B Ans: C and resistance in an AC series circuit is known as _____________.
5991 Which of the listed precautions should be observed before spraying 5992 The simplest method of controlling the terminal voltage of compound-
liquid solvent on the insulation of an electric motor? wound DC generator is with a _____________. A. be located in a locker on the weather deck A. reactance
A. Slow the motor down to low speed. A. hand-operated field rheostat connected in series with the shunt field B. be located as close as possible to the engine B. total reactance
circuit C. have sufficient capacity to provide at least 50 starts consecutively C. impedance
B. Disconnect the motor from the power source. B. separate exciter in a series with the shunt field without recharging
C. Secure all ventilation in the area. C. carbon pile regulator in series with the load D. only be of the nickel alkaline type D. resonance
D. Preheat the insulation to assist in cleaning. D. balance coil diverting neutral current through the shunt field Ans: B Ans: C
Ans: B Ans: A 6009 AC circuits develop resistance, inductance, and capacitance. The 6010 When a megohmmeter is used to test insulation, the gradual rise of
5993 An insulation resistance test is performed on a particular piece of 5994 A compound generator has a no-load voltage of 250 volts anda full- inductive reactance of a circuit is expressed in _____________. the pointer reading as a result of continued cranking, is caused by
electric equipment. In addition to the resistance reading, what load voltage of 230 volts, and therefore, is considered to be _____________.
information listed below should be entered in the electrical log? _____________. A. ohms A. good conductor resistance
B. mhos B. the leakage of current along the surface of dirty insulation
A. The maximum allowable operating temperature of the machine. A. flat compounded C. henrys C. the inductive reactance of the windings
D. farads D. the dielectric-absorption effect of the insulation
B. The temperature of the machine at the time the resistance reading B. over compounded Ans: A Ans: D
was taken. 6011 The basic control action of a magnetic amplifier depends upon 6012 During the charging process of storage batteries, the charging
C. The normal temperature rise of the machine. C. under compounded _____________. rooms should be well ventilated because __________.
D. The complete nameplate data from the resistance test instrument D. terminal compounded
used to obtain the reading. A. variations in the load capacitance A. without ventilation excessive gassing will occur
Ans: B Ans: C B. changes in inductance B. highly poisonous gases are released
5995 One method of testing for a reversed shunt field coil in a DC 5996 Which of the following statements represents the important factor C. type of core material C. highly explosive gases will otherwise accumulate
generator or motor is by connecting the field to a direct current that must be considered when replacing a faultydiode in the exciter D. construction of the core D. without ventilation the battery will not take a full charge
source, at reduced field rated voltage, and test for polarity using rectifier assembly? Ans: B Ans: C
a/an ____________. 6013 The purpose of an impressed current cathodic protection system 6014 Routine maintenance of lead acid batteries should include
A. iron bar across each field A. Be certain that the replacement diode is the same polarity as the one aboard ship is to _______________. _____________.
removed. A. prevent corrosion of the hull, propeller, rudder and line shafting A. keeping the terminals clean
B. magnetic compass placed near each field B. Never alter the diode alignment to cause a change in the neutral
plane. B. neutralize the vessel's stray magnetic fields which would interfere B. coating cable connections with petroleum jelly
C. test lamp across adjacent fields C. Replacement of a diode also requires balancing of the rotor with a with radar
one-piece rotor lamination to be shrunk fit and keyed to the shaft. C. protect engine room and deck machinery from oxidation in the C. maintaining a trickle charge
presence of salt air
D. copper jumper across the interpole connections D. The replacement diode must be dipped in varnish prior to installation D. maintain a minimum constant alternator load to prevent overheating D. all of the above
to protect against humidity.
Ans: B Ans: A Ans: A Ans: D
 Page 335 Page 336

6015 Electrical circuits are protected against overheating bymeans of a/an 6016 The function of a rectifier is similar to that of a _______. A. high frequency low power loads A. monitoring signal
______________. B. low frequency low power loads B. inverse signal
A. circuit breaker A. trap C. high frequency high power loads C. reverse signal
B. amplifier B. regulating valve D. low frequency high power loads D. feedback signal
C. diode C. check valve Ans: D Ans: D
D. capacitor D. filter 6035 A shaded-pole motor is a ____________. 6036 To provide its unique characteristics to analog circuits, the
Ans: A Ans: C operational amplifier is made up of a/an______________.
6017 A circuit is protected from overheating by a/an ___________. 6018 Which of the following devices should be used to measure the A. synchronous motor A. voltage amp, current amp and output amp
temperature of a battery electrolyte? B. three-phase induction motor B. input amp, power amp and output amp
A. pyrometer A. Mercury thermometer C. compound-wound motor C. scaling amp, power amp and voltage amp
B. thermal overload relay B. Alcohol thermometer D. single-phase induction motor D. differential amp, voltage amp and output amp
C. magnetic contactor C. Thermocouple pyrometer Ans: D Ans: D
D. overload transformer D. Potentiometer 6037 The mica used in the commutators of DC machinery is 6038 When starting a DC propulsion motor the variable rheostat must
Ans: B Ans: B _____________. FIRST be turned ____________.
6019 The seven segment arrangement for numerical display on consoles, 6020 Line losses in a distribution circuit are kept to a minimum by A. harder than copper A. all the way to the run position then quickly back to slow
test meters and other applications can be either __________. B. softer than copper B. to the slow position then gradually moved to full speed
________________. C. the same hardness as the copper C. to the mid position
A. UJT or BJT A. adding rubber insulation conductors to the circuit D. softer than copper but wears away at a slower rate D. quickly to the run position
B. BCD or OCD B. using higher current and lower voltage Ans: A Ans: B
C. JFET or IGFET C. increasing the number of thermal relays in the circuit 6039 To determine if a stator coil is grounded, you should use a/an 6040 In an impressed current cathodic protection system, the anode is
D. LED or LCD D. using higher voltage and lower current _____________. ____________.
Ans: D Ans: D A. ammeter A. connected to the hull and deteriorates with time
6021 Which of the following describes the action when the handleis 6022 The multiple prefix "mega" (M) means ____________. B. ground detection lamp B. insulated from the hull and does not waste away
moved to the start position of a drum-type motor controller used C. magneto C. connected to the hull but does not waste away
with a compound motor? D. megger D. insulated from the hull but deteriorates with time
A. Full current is supplied to the shunt field, series field, and armature. A. thousand (10 to the 3rd power) Ans: D Ans: B
6041 When a megohmmeter is being used to test insulation resistance, 6042 Which of the following types of DC motors has its field connected in
B. Full line current is supplied to the shunt and series fields, and B. million (10 to the 6th power) current leakage along the surface of the insulation is indicated by parallel with its armature?
reduced current is supplied to the armature. the megohmmeter's pointer _____________.
C. Full line current is supplied to the shunt field, and reduced current is C. billion (10 to the 9th power)
supplied to the series field and the armature. A. dipping toward zero then raising slowly A. Counter EMF
D. Reduced line current is supplied to the shunt field, series field, and D. trillion (10 to the 12th power) B. continually rising as test voltage is applied B. Shunt
armature. C. kicking slightly down scale as voltage is applied C. Salient pole
Ans: C Ans: B D. fluctuating around a constant resistance reading D. Series
6023 Armature cores in a DC generator are made of laminated steel 6024 The item referred to as a pigtail on a DC motor brush rigging is a/an Ans: C Ans: B
sheets to _____________. ______________. 6043 When checking the specific gravity of the battery electrolyte with a 6044 Basic operating characteristics of the operational amplifier such as
A. fit the curvature of the frame A. feather spring hydrometer, you should be aware that ________________. gain and stability are the function of its _____________.
B. increase the hysteresis effect B. uninsulated wire
C. reduce eddy current losses C. flexible spring adjuster A. the battery is fully charged when the float sinks deepest into the A. differential input stage
D. allow for easy assembly D. brush holder electrolyte
Ans: C Ans: B B. the battery is discharged when the float is highest in the electrolyte B. power output stage
6025 Reversing the current flow through a coil will ___________. 6026 In testing a three-phase delta winding for an open circuit using a
megohmmeter, you must ______________. C. a hydrometer reading is accurate if taken immediately after water is C. feedback circuit
A. reduce the amount of flux produced A. test each phase with all connections intact added to the cell
B. have no effect on the eddy currents produced B. measure the voltage across the open connections while testing D. warm temperatures will lower the specific gravity of the electrolyte D. supply voltages

C. reduce the power consumed C. test the windings as parallel groups to avoid short circuiting Ans: D Ans: C
D. reverse its two-pole field D. open the delta-connections to avoid shunting the phase being tested 6045 The sub-multiple prefix "nano" (n) means ____________. 6046 A switchboard, for a AC electrical distribution system, will be
provided with which of the following components?
Ans: D Ans: D A. thousandth (10 to the -3rd power) A. Frequency meter.
6027 The direction of rotation of an induction motor is ________. 6028 An insulation resistance reading is taken at 20°C and found to be 10 B. millionth (10 to the -6th power) B. Ammeter
megohms. What would you expect the resistance reading to be at C. billionth (10 to the -9th power) C. Voltmeter
40°C? D. trillionth (10 to the -12th power) D. All of the above
A. opposite the rotating field direction A. 2.5 megohms Ans: C Ans: D
B. the same as the direction of the rotating field B. 10 megohms 6047 A generator is prevented from becoming motorized by the use of 6048 Which type of AC single-phase motor will also operate on direct
C. determined by the number of poles C. 15 megohms a/an _____________. current?
D. determined by the staggering of the brushes D. 20 megohms A. overspeed trip A. Split-phase
Ans: B Ans: A B. reverse power relay B. Series-wound
6029 The sub-multiple prefix "milli" (m) means ____________. 6030 When a solid-state component of an electronic circuit is mounted to C. back pressure trip C. Shaded-pole
a metallic mass, the general purpose of that mass is to D. governor controls D. Repulsion-start
____________. Ans: B Ans: B
A. one thousandth (10 to the -3rd power) A. prevent vibration damage to delicate components 6049 Aboard ship, a grounded field coil in an AC motor can be determined 6050 The electrical energy necessary to power a sound-powered
B. one millionth (10 to the -6th power) B. prevent mechanical damage to solid-state components by using a _________________. telephone's small vibrating bell is obtained from _________.
C. one billionth (10 to the -9th power) C. dissipate stray magnetic currents A. portable growler A. the emergency batteries for the general alarm
D. one trillionth (10 to the -12th power) D. act as a heat sink B. galvanometer B. each station's hand-cranked generator
Ans: A Ans: D C. visual inspection C. the emergency switchboard
6031 When charging lead-acid batteries, the charging rate should be 6032 One feature of the operational amplifier is that it can have D. megohmmeter D. normal 115 volt DC supplies
reduced as the battery nears its full charge to ____________. ____________. Ans: D Ans: B
6051 A testing device called a "growler" is being used to locate a shorted 6052 A DC shunt generator has its field windings connected in
A. prevent damaging battery plates A. up to ten outputs coil in the stator of an AC electrical machine. When the "feeler" is _____________.
B. allow equalization of cell voltages B. binary coded decimal inputs moved over a slot containing the shorted coil _____________.
C. reduce lead sulfate deposits C. several hundred amps at the output
D. increase lead peroxide formation D. inverting and non-inverting inputs A. a loud growling noise will be heard A. series with the series windings
Ans: A Ans: D B. any vibration within the feeler will cease B. parallel with the field rheostat
6033 A saturable reactor uses relatively small DC currents to control 6034 A signal derived from a controlled function and returned to the C. the meter needle will be deflected to zero C. series with the armature windings
_______________. initiating point is called a/an ____________. D. the meter needle will be deflected to full-scale D. parallel with the armature windings
 Page 337 Page 338

Ans: A Ans: D C. frequency of the rotor current C. the resistor next to the positive terminal
6053 The sub-multiple prefix "pico" (p) means ____________. 6054 Which of the following statements concerning a simple parallel D. slip in per cent of rotor RPM D. an open circuit
resistance circuit is correct? Ans: B Ans: D
A. thousandth (10 to the -3rd power) A. The voltage drop across each resistor is the same. 6071 An across-the-line starter provides ___________________. 6072 Excessive heat in an operating motor controller can result from
B. millionth (10 to the -6th power) B. The total current flow equals the reciprocal of the sum of the _____________.
individual currents. A. maximum torque A. a closed starter contact
C. billionth (10 to the -9th power) C. The total resistance equals the sum of the individual resistances. B. slow starting power B. loose connections
C. high speed C. missing arc chutes
D. trillionth (10 to the -12th power) D. The total voltage equals the sum of the individual voltages across D. reduced voltage D. low motor starting torque
each resistance. Ans: A Ans: B
Ans: D Ans: A 6073 The speed of a wound-rotor induction motor _____________. 6074 If you hear a loud buzzing noise coming from a magnetic motor
6055 The resistance value of a resistor in a circuit can best be determined 6056 On AC vessels, which of the following statements represents the controller, you should ____________.
by the _____________. most difficult problem involved in obtaining a DC potential suitable A. will be fixed by the number of field poles A. assume that the motor is operating at a full load
for use by computer components? B. can be varied by a rheostat-type control B. assume that the controller is operating normally
A. single solid body color of the resistor A. A stepdown transformer is always required. C. can only be synchronous speed at full load C. notify the electrician or watch engineer of the problem
B. band markings on the resistor B. Vessel vibrations affect the voltage source. D. can only attain synchronous speed at no load D. feel the outside of the casing with your hand to see if it is hot
C. amperage value written on the resistor C. The voltage must be rectified and made ripple free. Ans: B Ans: C
D. physical size of the resistor D. Rectifiers cannot operate with voltage regulators. 6075 Which of the following conditions indicates a short circuited 6076 Which of the following will happen to the alternator frequency if the
Ans: B Ans: C capacitor when checking its condition with an ohmmeter? load is removed from a turbogenerator, whose governor has a 3%
6057 A shunt-wound DC generator is one in which the shunt field 6058 The rotor of a synchronous motor operates in synchronism with the speed droop?
windings are in parallel with the _____________. rotating field because ______________. A. The capacitor shows charging, but the final resistance reading is A. It will remain unchanged.
A. commutator A. of the amortisseur windings appreciably less than normal.
B. brushes B. the rotor is magnetically locked into step with the rotating magnetic B. The reading is practically zero and remains there. B. It will decrease by approximately 3%.
field by the excitation current C. The capacitor shows no charging action, but indicates a very high C. It will become variable.
C. armature C. the field strength varies directly with rotor slip resistance.
D. all of the above D. the stator flux rotates in the opposite direction D. The pointer moves quickly to the low resistance side of the scale, D. It will increase.
Ans: D Ans: B then slowly recedes toward infinity.
6059 Hand-portable phase sequence indicators should be used when 6060 The division of kilowatt load between two paralleled alternators is Ans: B Ans: D
____________. determined by the _____________. 6077 A resistor placed in parallel to the output of a power supply 6078 With both ends of a three conductor cable disconnected and
A. installing a new synchroscope A. amount of field excitation to the leading machine _____________. arranged without the conductors touching each other, an ohmmeter
B. preparing to make the shore power connection B. load-speed characteristics of the governors reading of "zero" ohms between the ends of one conductor would
C. replacing a defective solenoid C. amount of field excitation to the lagging machine indicate _____________.
D. all of the above D. number of field poles per alternator A. is a temperature compensator A. continuity
Ans: B Ans: B B. corrects power factor B. a partial ground
6061 A breakable, mercury-filled thermometer should not be used in a 6062 Which of the following statements is true concerning simple parallel C. prevents excessive currents C. the resistance is infinite
lead-acid battery to measure electrolyte temperature, as an resistance circuits? D. aids in output voltage regulation D. a short circuit
accidental breakage can cause ____________. Ans: D Ans: A
A. severe sparking and explosions A. The total current flow equals the sum of the individual currents. 6079 In troubleshooting a circuit in a console, you find that a resistor may 6080 The state of charge of a lead-acid battery is best indicated by the
be faulty. Which of the precautions listed must be observed when ____________.
B. rapid oxidation of battery plates B. The total current flow equals the reciprocal of the sum of the using an ohmmeter to carry out this test?
individual currents. A. Correct polarity must be observed, connecting the red lead to the A. individual cell voltage
C. violent gassing at the positive plates C. The total resistance equals the sum of the individual resistance. banded end of the resistor.
B. Meter leads must be twisted to cancel the leads' magnetic fields. B. ampere-hour capacity
D. corrosion on the battery terminals D. The total voltage equals the sum of the individual voltages across
each resistance. C. The meter must be placed in series with the resistor and the circuit. C. electrolyte specific gravity
Ans: A Ans: A
6063 The pushbutton on the handset of a ship's sound-powered 6064 When troubleshooting an electronic circuit, a cold solder joint can be D. The resistor's circuit must be de-energized and at least one end of D. total cell voltage
telephone must be depressed to ______________. located with the aid of an ohmmeter. Once the problem has been the component isolated.
located, you should _________________. Ans: D Ans: C
A. talk then released to listen A. reheat the circuit in an oven to an even temperature and recheck 6081 For practical purposes, in a simple series circuit, the source voltage 6082 If both the "high level" and "low level" alarms come on for the same
with an ohmmeter will be dropped across one resistor if it has ______________. address of a centralized control console, the most likely problem is
B. listen then released to talk B. reheat the connection with a match and recheck with an ohmmeter a/an ____________.
A. half the resistance of the other resistor A. sensor failure
C. both talk and listen C. reheat connection with a soldering tool and recheck with an B. a resistance equal to the other B. failed alarm
ohmmeter C. at least ten times the resistance of the other C. low level
D. ring the station being called D. do nothing as this is the normal condition D. a partial short circuit D. extremely high level
Ans: C Ans: C Ans: C Ans: A
6065 During its operation, loud buzzing and resultant welding of contacts 6066 Although saturable reactors are extremely useful in some 6083 You have installed a Zener diode in parallel with a load. While 6084 Violent gassing from a lead-acid battery while it is being charged,
of a magnetic relay may be caused by __________. applications, their gain is low because of ____________. measuring the voltage across the Zener diode it is found that it does indicates that the _____________.
A. overheating of the contactor coil A. core hysteresis losses not change as the current through the load increases. This means
B. low voltage on the operating coil B. inductive reactance in the control winding that the Zener diode __________.
C. low insulation resistance to ground C. IR drop throughout the load winding A. is working as it should A. plate separators are grounded
D. lubrication of the contact bearing points D. all of the above B. is shorted B. battery compartment ventilation is inadequate
Ans: B Ans: A C. is open C. electrolyte specific gravity is too low
6067 Most three-phase induction motors of five horsepower or less, are 6068 If a magnetic controller relay fails to drop out when the coil voltage is D. does not regulate as it should D. charging rate is too high
started by _____________. removed from the relay, the probable cause may be Ans: A Ans: D
_____________. 6085 A burned-out LED should be indicated by _____________. 6086 When a lead-acid battery begins gassing freely while receiving a
A. autotransformer starters A. excessive spring tension normal charge, the charging current should be _____________.
B. resistor starters B. overvoltage
C. across-the-line starters C. excessive current A. excessive output A. increased
D. reactor starters D. welded contacts B. a slight glow in the crystal B. shut off
Ans: C Ans: D C. excessive illumination C. decreased
6069 The synchronous speed of an induction motor is the ________. 6070 In a simple series circuit, the entire source voltage will drop across D. no illumination D. unchanged
______________. Ans: D Ans: C
A. speed at which the rotor turns A. the resistor next to the negative terminal 6087 Motor controller or starter contacts may become pitted and welded 6088 Transformer cores are laminated to reduce _____________.
B. speed of the rotating field B. a short circuit together if the contacts _____________.
 Page 339 Page 340

A. open under loaded conditions A. eddy currents B. Wave guides B. require less maintenance
B. close slowly with light pressure B. secondary flux C. Exciters C. can be started across the line
C. open too quickly and arc C. leakage flux D. Amplidynes D. offer a more effective means of controlling speed
D. close quickly with proportionate pressure D. all of the above Ans: A Ans: D
Ans: B Ans: A 6109 Before using a volt-ohmmeter to measure resistance readings, you 6110 To equalize the power factor of two alternators operating in parallel,
6089 The governor control switch of an alternator is moved to the "raise" 6090 Which of the following statements is true concerning the operating should _____________. the ____________.
position. This action will _____________. characteristics of a squirrel-cage motor? A. replace all batteries A. field excitation of both units is adjusted
A. raise the no-load speed setting of the governor A. Rotor slip is dependent upon the motor load. B. test the insulation resistance of the leads B. governors of both units are adjusted
B. raise the percentage of speed droop B. An increase in motor load results in less slip. C. make sure the test leads do not touch C. phase sequence is altered
C. lower the no-load speed setting of the governor C. A decrease in rotor speed results in less generated current. D. hold the leads together and "zero" the meter D. kilowatt load is evenly divided
D. lower the percentage of speed droop D. A decrease in rotor speed produces a weaker magnetic field. Ans: D Ans: A
Ans: A Ans: A 6111 When you check the specific gravity of the battery electrolyte with a 6112 The total resistance of a parallel circuit is always ____________.
6091 As an armature revolves within a magnetic field, friction isdeveloped 6092 To test fuses in an energized circuit, you should use a hydrometer, it should be kept in mind that ____________.
between the rotated magnetized particles as they pass through each ____________.
magnetization cycle. This results in ____________. A. the battery is fully charged when the indicator floats low in the A. larger than that of the branch with the greatest resistance
electrolyte
A. copper loss A. low voltage light bulb B. any water that has been previously added to the cells will dilute the B. smaller than that of the branch with the lowest resistance
B. eddy-current loss B. megohmmeter solution and give a false reading
C. hysteresis loss C. voltmeter C. a hydrometer reading is inaccurate if taken immediately after water C. equal to the sum of the individual branch resistances
D. armature reaction D. resistance meter is added to the cell
Ans: C Ans: C D. temperature has no effect on hydrometer readings D. equal to the sum of the individual branch resistances divided by the
6093 The proper way to mix the electrolyte for a battery is to add 6094 In order to increase its range of measurement, a resistancewould be number of branches
_____________. placed in series with which of the following instruments? Ans: C Ans: B
6113 If the resistance of a circuit is cut in half and the applied voltage is 6114 The power factor at which a paralleled AC generator operates is
A. acid to alkaline water A. DC voltmeter kept constant, the current flow will be _____________. usually adjusted by the _____________.
B. acid to distilled water B. DC ammeter
C. alkaline water to acid C. frequency meter A. doubled A. connected load
D. distilled water to acid D. power factor meter B. quadrupled B. prime mover speed
Ans: B Ans: A C. unchanged C. field excitation
6095 When mixing electrolyte for a lead-acid storage battery, 6096 If the approximate voltage to be measured in a circuit isnot known, D. cut in half D. generator's rated voltage
______________. you should _____________. Ans: A Ans: C
A. stirring should always be avoided A. use the lowest voltage range on the voltmeter 6115 If the excitation is increased to one of two alternators operating in 6116 In a series wound motor, the current passing through the field
B. a lead container should always be used B. connect the meter in series with the circuit parallel, the _____________. windings is also passing through the _____________.
C. always pour the water into the acid C. only have to calibrate the meter before using it A. power factor will change in the lagging direction A. armature
D. always pour the acid into the water D. use the highest voltage range on the voltmeter B. power factor will change in the leading direction B. shunt field
Ans: D Ans: D C. kilowatt load will be greatly increased C. reactance comparator
6097 Caution must be exercised during the charging of lead-acid storage 6098 When the current flow through a copper wire increases, its D. ampere load will be greatly decreased D. laminations
batteries as _____________. _____________. Ans: A Ans: A
A. the acid will become weaker A. resistance will decrease 6117 The power factor of an AC generator operating singularly is 6118 The speed of a series wound winch motor is controlled by
B. hydrogen gas is being continuously liberated B. insulation will burn determined by the __________. ____________.
C. both plates are changing chemically to lead sulfate C. temperature will increase A. connected load A. varying the voltage applied to the motor
D. lead peroxide in the negative plate is poisonous D. conductivity will increase B. prime mover speed B. the weight of the load on the cargo boom
Ans: B Ans: C C. field excitation C. overcurrent protection devices in the motor
6099 While testing a semi-conductor diode with an ohmmeter, both the 6100 The specific gravity of the electrolyte in a lead-acid battery is D. generator's rated voltage D. a hydraulic speed-limiting governor
forward and reverse readings are almost in the infinity range. This measured by a _____________. Ans: A Ans: A
would indicate that the unit is _____________. 6119 Why is it desirable to operate paralleled AC generators at the same 6120 The charge of a lead-acid battery is checked with a
A. good A. gould plate power factor? _____________.
B. open B. titration pipette A. Circulating currents are kept to a minimum. A. manometer
C. grounded C. hydrometer B. Field excitation losses are kept to a minimum. B. hydrometer
D. shorted D. litmus paper test C. Generator rotors will have a lesser tendency to hunt. C. viscosimeter
Ans: B Ans: C D. Because a power factor increase will decrease kilowatt output. D. ohmmeter
6101 Capacitance in an AC circuit will _____________. 6102 Which of the following activities occurs during the charging process
of a lead-acid storage battery? Ans: A Ans: B
A. stop current flow once the capacitor is fully charged A. The specific gravity of the acid increases. 6121 If a 6 volt battery were connected in series with a 24 volt battery by 6122 You can determine if a circuit breaker has tripped by
B. allow current flow in only one direction B. Both plates change chemically to lead sulfate. putting their negative terminals together, what would be the result? ________________.
C. oppose any change in circuit voltage C. The specific gravity of the acid decreases.
D. rectify the current D. Hydrogen gas is absorbed. A. "Zero" volts A. examining the position of the handle
Ans: C Ans: A B. 12 volts of the opposite polarity B. checking for which of the breakers is warm
6103 Magnet chatter or "pumping" occurring in a magnetic contactor can 6104 Which of the following characteristics is most critical in determining C. 18 volts, positive on the 24 volt battery C. looking for a burned-out link
be caused by ______________. the size of the cable to be used in a particular circuit? D. 30 volts, negative on the 24 volt battery D. all of the above
Ans: C Ans: A
A. dirt or grease on pole faces A. voltage rating 6123 Which of the following statements describes what will happen when 6124 A slow continual loss of electrolyte level from one cell of a storage
B. mechanical interference in the contacts B. weight per unit length both the polarity of the field poles, and the direction of current to the battery could be due to _______________.
C. chattering contacts on the control relay C. current rating brushes of a DC motor are reversed?
D. magnetic lock out of the contacts D. inductance per unit length
Ans: C Ans: C A. The motor will not start. A. a cracked casing
6105 Shunt, series, and compound wound motors, are all DC motors 6106 Motor starter or controller contacts may become welded together if B. The direction of rotation of the armature will be reversed. B. too low a charging rate
designed to operate from _____________. the contacts _____________. C. The direction of rotation of the armature will remain the same. C. the specific gravity being higher than normal
A. constant potential, variable current DC sources A. open too quickly and arc D. The field pole windings will become overheated. D. one filler cap installed too tightly
B. variable potential, constant current DC sources B. close under excessive pressure Ans: C Ans: A
C. variable potential, variable current DC sources C. open or close too quickly 6125 The basic meter movement responds to the flow of current through 6126 When power is restored after a complete power failure, a steering
D. constant potential, constant current DC sources D. close under excessive starting current its coil. Therefore, this meter movement may be used as a/an gear pump motor will ____________.
Ans: A Ans: D _____________.
6107 Which of the following devices are protected from being motorized 6108 An advantage of DC motors over AC motors is that they A. voltmeter by placing a resistance in parallel with the coil A. have to be restarted
by a reverse-power relay? _____________. B. ohmmeter by placing another meter movement in parallel with the B. have to be reset
A. Alternators A. are less expensive coil
 Page 341 Page 342

C. wattmeter by placing a battery in parallel with the coil C. restart automatically Ans: A Ans: A
D. ammeter by placing a low resistance in parallel with the coil D. trip its overload relays 6145 When troubleshooting a console circuit card suspected of being 6146 A useful instrument for checking A.C. motor performance by
Ans: D Ans: C faulty, first check for proper voltages to the card and then measuring possible unbalanced currents is the _____________.
6127 When an alternator is to remain idle for even a few days 6128 Proper storage battery maintenance includes ____________. _______________.
_________________. A. test transistors or integrated circuits for gain and compare with A. hand or battery-operated megger
A. lift the brushes and disconnect the pigtails A. keeping connections tight and casing surfaces clean manufacturer's specifications
B. insulate the collector rings with strips of cardboard B. making sure electrolyte level is below the separator plates B. blow any accumulated dust from the card with at least 2kg/cm2 air B. vibrating-reed frequency meter
C. energize the heater circuit C. insulating the terminals with naval jelly from the ship's service air system
D. open the equalizing bus disconnect switch D. maintaining a high charging rate at all times C. pull the card, clean the sliding connections with a pencil eraser, and C. hook-on voltmeter-ammeter
Ans: C Ans: A remove accumulated dust
6129 The true power indicated by the pointer movement of a wattmeter 6130 The shunt of a DC ammeter should be connected in __________. D. de-energize the card and check the printed circuit traces for D. D'Arsonval iron-vane probe
depends on the current flow through the load, the magnitude of the continuity with an ohmmeter
potential across the load, and the ____________. Ans: C Ans: C
6147 What is the approximate voltage produced by a nickel-cadmium 6148 You are using a mechanical voltage tester to check the fuses in a
A. power factor of the load A. series with the load and in parallel with the meter movement battery cell? three-phase circuit supplying an electric motor. For which of the
B. angle of coil displacement B. parallel with the load and in series with the meter movement following reasons must the motor be stopped during the test?
C. inertia of the movable coil C. parallel with the load and in parallel with the meter movement
D. high resistance from the load D. series with the load and in series with the meter movement A. 1.25 volts A. Testing an energized circuit presents a hazard to the testing
Ans: A Ans: A personnel.
6131 Due to the operating characteristics of the system, time lag fuses (or 6132 Loss of or weak residual magnetism in an alternator or generator B. 1.50 volts B. A faulty fuse could go undetected with the motor energized.
dual-element fuses) are necessary for use in _____________. can be corrected for by _________________. C. 2.20 volts C. Reversed polarity of the circuit would be indicated by the voltage
tester with the circuit energized.
A. main lighting circuits A. running the rotor in the opposite direction for 5 minutes D. 6.05 volts D. All of the above.
B. motor starting circuit B. allowing the generator to run at 10% of normal speed for 5 minutes Ans: A Ans: B
6149 The voltage of an operating AC turbogenerator is raised or lowered 6150 To properly seat the brushes on slip rings, you should use
C. emergency lighting circuits C. running the generator at normal speed with the field rheostat fully by adjusting the _____________. ____________.
counterclockwise A. exciter generator governor controls A. sand paper
D. general alarm circuits D. using a storage battery or battery charger to "flash" the field B. synchronizing switch B. crocus cloth
Ans: B Ans: D C. phase sequence switch C. emery cloth
6133 Cleaning of electrical insulation should be _____________. 6134 The plates of a NiCad storage battery are made of ________. D. generator field exciter D. all of the above
A. done every six months A. potassium hydroxide with a small amount of sulfuric acid Ans: D Ans: A
B. accomplished every 12 months B. lead and lead peroxide 6151 When a battery-charging panel is being used, the batteries will 6152 Routine A.C. motor maintenance should include periodic
C. determined by need and not the calendar C. silver oxide and lead sulfate discharge if _____________. ______________.
D. performed whenever the electrician is not otherwise busy D. combinations of nickel powder and nickel & cadmium salts A. DC voltage is supplied A. thermometer readings at normal loads to detect abnormal
Ans: C Ans: D temperature rises
6135 Relative to the direction of rotation, a D.C. motor commutating pole 6136 One method of troubleshooting digital circuits in a console is to B. the polarity is reversed B. inspection of the motor's internals for loose rotor bars or field poles
has the same polarity as the _____________. ___________.
C. the voltage fluctuates C. bearing replacement each year using sealed units if available
A. main pole following A. supply alternate logic levels at the input(s) and test for change of
state conditions at the output D. too little current is supplied D. all of the above
B. interpole following B. ground all inputs and test for a logic "1" at the output Ans: B Ans: A
C. main pole preceding C. open all inputs and test for a logic "0" at the output 6153 When replacing fuses, always make sure _______________. 6154 Periodic testing of circuit breakers is necessary to assure that a
D. interpole preceding D. vary each input smoothly from 0-10 volts and test for similar correctly rated and properly installed unit _________________.
variance at the output
Ans: C Ans: A A. to stand on a rubber mat and use rubber gloves A. can trip faster as it increases in age
6137 Which of the following meters uses a shunt connected in series with 6138 Electrical machinery insulation will break down more rapidly due to B. to use insulated pliers or screwdriver B. will continue to provide the original degree of protection
the load, but parallel with the meter movement? _________________. C. the fuse clips are straight, tight, and in good contact C. does not exceed its interrupting capacity
A. voltmeter A. low loading of motors and generators D. to increase the fuse rating 10% to guard against "nuisance blowing" D. be able to withstand at least 125% of applied voltage
B. power factor meter B. frequent megger testing
C. wattmeter C. high temperatures and vibration Ans: C Ans: B
D. ammeter D. high operating frequencies 6155 You are attempting to parallel two AC generators and the 6156 Periodic testing by a shoreside support technician using a special
Ans: D Ans: C synchroscope pointer is revolving in the slow direction. This camera which can detect potentially dangerous loose or corroded
6139 Which of the listed ranges represents specific gravity corrected for 6140 The operator of electrical motors should keep a constant check on indicates that the frequency of the incoming machine is bus bar and controller connections is termed ______________.
temperature for the electrolyte of a fully charged portable lead-acid the loads they carry because _____________. _____________.
battery? A.
higher than the bus frequency A. heat sensitive thermography
A. 1.100 to 1.150 A. low loads necessitate frequent insulation cleaning B.
lower than the bus frequency B. visual pyrotronics
B. 1.180 to 1.200 B. exceeding nameplate values shortens useful life C.
the same as the bus frequency but out of phase with it C. corrosion electrolysis
C. 1.280 to 1.300 C. energy is wasted if full loading is not utilized D.
the same as the bus frequency, and the circuit breaker may be D. electric vibroanalysis
D. 1.750 to 2.000 D. power factor correction methods are load dependent closed at any pointer position
Ans: C Ans: B Ans: B Ans: A
6141 When troubleshooting a console circuit card which is suspected of 6142 The amount of mechanical force or torque produced by an electric 6157 When troubleshooting a motor controller, all indications are that a 6158 Materials that retain a large part of their magnetization, after the
being faulty, the first step would be to _____. motor depends on the ________________. relay coil should be energized. If there were no magnetic pull, with magnetizing force is removed, are said to have _____________.
A. pull the card and measure the value of all resistors A. strength of its magnetic field rated voltage measured across the coil, the most probable cause
B. check for the correct value and polarity of all power connections to B. amount of armature current flow would be that the _________________.
the card
C. pull the card and visually inspect for burned components C. length of conductor in the field A. coil is open A. low hysteresis loss
D. check for continuity of circuit board traces and then the gain of each D. all of the above B. control fuse is open B. high flux density
transistor C. auxiliary contact in series with the coil is defective C. high permanence
Ans: B Ans: D D. relay armature is stuck D. high permeability
6143 The life expectancy of electrical insulation, is approximately halved 6144 Under normal conditions, storage batteries used for starting the Ans: A Ans: C
for an increased operating temperature of _______________. emergency diesel generator are maintained in a charged state by 6159 Which of the following procedures represents the best method to 6160 Ambient temperature is the _____________.
which of the following methods? prevent the freezing of batteries continuously exposed to low
A. 10° C A. Trickle charging temperatures?
B. 25° C B. Fast charging A. The battery caps should be removed. A. amount of temperature rise with no load
C. 50° C C. Equalizing charge B. The battery cap vents should be sealed. B. temperature of the compartment where the motor is located
D. 100° C D. Reverse charging C. The battery should be kept in a fully charged condition. C. normal operating temperature, less the room temperature
 Page 343 Page 344

D. The battery should be disconnected from its charging source. D. amount of temperature developed by an operating motor B. will probably burn out immediately B. securely cover the battery
C. will operate on reduced current C. keep the battery fully charged
Ans: C Ans: B D. temperature will drop D. disconnect the battery
6161 Electric circuits are protected against overloads and short circuits by 6162 In addition to testing the calibration of a circuit breaker, maintenance Ans: B Ans: C
means of a/an ______________. should include all of the following EXCEPT ______________. 6179 The purpose of the reverse power relay, provided on a ship's service 6180 Which of the following conditions indicates that a lead-acid battery is
alternator panel, is to trip the circuit in the event of being charged too rapidly?
A. circuit breaker A. changing out of magnetic elements and thermal heaters yearly ______________.
A. main circuit overload A. Sparks occurring at the positive terminal.
B. amplifier B. checking for corrosion, accumulation of dirt and thermal fatigue B. high power transfer B. Unusually high electrolyte specific gravity.
C. generator overspeeding C. Low plate potentials being developed.
C. diode C. inspecting for loose or missing parts D. alternator motorization D. Excessively high temperatures and gassing rates.
D. capacitor D. making sure foreign matter does not block tripping element Ans: D Ans: D
Ans: A Ans: A 6181 Which of the listed faults cannot be eliminated, EXCEPT by turning 6182 The dielectric strength of a vacuum or dry air is approximately
6163 When a megohmmeter is being used to test insulation resistance, 6164 While paralleling two (2) AC generators using synchronizing lamps or grinding a commutator with a rigidly supported tool? ________________.
current leakage along the surface of the insulation is indicated by only, both lamps will go dark when the generators are
the megohmmeter pointer _____________. ____________. A. Sparking brushes A. 450 volts/inch
B. Eccentricity B. 1000 volts/inch
A. fluctuating around a constant resistance reading A. running at the same speed C. High mica C. 20-kv/inch
B. dipping towards "zero", then rising slowly B. grounded D. Blackened commutator D. 50-kv/inch
C. kicking slightly downscale as voltage is applied C. of the same polarity Ans: B Ans: C
D. continually rising as the test voltage is applied D. in phase 6183 When a megohmmeter is used to test the insulation of a large motor, 6184 For routine cleaning of a commutator, you should apply
Ans: C Ans: D the initial dip of the pointer toward "zero" is caused by _____________.
6165 A lead-acid battery cell sustaining a short circuit _______. 6166 The propeller shaft speed in a turbo-electric, synchronous, ____________.
propulsion drive motor is changed by varying the __________. A. good insulation A. course sandpaper in a slow back and forth motion across the
commutator slots
A. will be indicated by lime accumulation on the terminal posts A. turbine speed B. the capacitance of the windings B. an emery cloth parallel to the axis of the machine
B. will have unusually high cell voltage B. number of motor poles C. the leakage of the current along the surface of dirty insulation C. a canvas wiper to the machine while running
C. will become excessively heated while being charged C. field strength of the generator
D. cannot be completely discharged under load D. field strength of the motor D. the dielectric-absorption effect of the insulation D. cotton swabs between the commutator bars
Ans: C Ans: A Ans: B Ans: C
6167 A fuse will blow for all the listed reasons EXCEPT ________. 6168 Two contributors of electronic console failures are heat and 6185 The air gap in an induction motor should be periodically checked 6186 Undervoltage trips are frequently installed on switchboard circuit
vibration. To combat some of their effects, preventive maintenance with a feeler gage to prevent possible ___________. breakers to trip ____________.
procedures should include ______________.
A. excessive vibration A. systematic rotation of circuit cards with those from spares to allow A. rotor contact with the stator A. out generators in the event of severe arcing or sparking
component cooling B. axial misalignment of the rotor B. out generators when there is reversal of power in the main circuit
B. extremely hot surroundings B. periodic changing or cleaning of console ventilation and control room
air conditioning filters C. damage to the motor bearings C. the breaker if the generator overspeeds by 5%, but continues to run
C. loose fuse clips C. weekly tightening of console foundation bolts and changing of the air
in the control room D. electrical damage to the bearings D. out generators when there is low voltage in the main circuit
D. low contact resistance within the fuse D. all of the above Ans: A Ans: D
Ans: D Ans: B 6187 A shore power circuit breaker should be closed only 6188 When a resistor is used as a shunt and is connected in parallel with
6169 In general, D.C. propulsion motor brush sparking can be caused by 6170 Automatic voltage regulators provided on switchboards function to _____________. a meter movement coil, it will provide _____________.
_______________. _____________.
A. incorrect brush grade, pressure or position A. regulate the AC load on the generator A. when the ship's generators have been paralleled to those on shore A. a measurement of circuit resistance
B. a concentric commutator B. protect the switchboard from high voltage
C. a dark chocolate colored commutator C. govern prime mover speed to control voltage B. in a shipyard B. an increased accuracy of approximately 1.5 percent
D. all of the above D. vary the field excitation to the generators C. if a quick disconnect coupling is used C. an extended meter range
Ans: A Ans: D D. when the ship's generators have been removed from the bus D. none of the above
6171 In which of the situations listed will a megohmmeter give the most 6172 You are attempting to parallel two AC generators, and the Ans: D Ans: C
accurate readings? synchroscope pointer is revolving in the fast direction. This indicates 6189 You can determine if a circuit breaker is tripped by ______. 6190 In addition to undercutting the mica, proper maintenance of a D.C.
that the frequency of the incoming machine is _____________. motor's commutator includes _______________.
A. examining the position of the handle A. side-cutting the copper segments and insulating the slots
A. While the machine is in operation. A. higher than the bus frequency B. checking for the warm breaker B. coating the copper surface with light machine oil for the first four
B. While the machine is discharging static electricity. B. lower than the bus frequency hours of operation
C. Immediately prior to restarting the machine. C. the same as the bus frequency but out of phase with it C. looking for a burned-out link C. baking the armature in an oven at a maximum of 95‚ C for not over 8
D. When the machine has been shut down and grounded for a period D. the same as the bus frequency and the circuit breaker may be hours
of 15 minutes. closed at any pointer position D. looking for the tripped breaker light D. all of the above
Ans: D Ans: A Ans: A Ans: A
6173 The most practical way to control the voltage output of an AC 6174 Which of the instruments listed could be use to locate a grounded 6191 If there is a reduction in the normally supplied frequency to a 6192 Which of the following electric meter movements uses a stationary
generator is to vary the _____________. field coil in a synchronous motor? 120/240 volt, three-phase AC current motor from 60 hertz to 55 permanent magnet and movable coil?
A. number of windings A. Ammeter hertz, the motor would _____________.
B. speed of the rotating field B. Voltmeter A. run at a slower speed A. D'Arsonval
C. strength of the rotating magnetic field C. Megohmmeter B. operate at a lower current B. Electrodynamometer
D. power factor of the load D. Frequency meter C. overheat C. Moving iron-vane
Ans: C Ans: C D. trip off the line D. Inclined coil iron-vane
6175 One important difference between wye-connected and delta- 6176 A megohmmeter is used to measure _____________. Ans: A Ans: A
connected generators is that delta connections have ____________. 6193 When paralleling two alternators the synchronizing lamps grow dim 6194 D.C. motor brush adjustment includes attention to _________.
and are totally darkened as the synchroscope pointer approaches
A. line voltages equal to the vector sum of the phase voltages A. voltage the 0‚ position. This indicates the ____________.
B. phase voltages 90° out of sync B. dielectric strength
C. line current equal to the phase current C. current A. alternator voltages are 180‚ apart A. angle with the commutator and clearance within the holder
D. line voltage equal to the phase voltage D. power B. incoming alternator is running too fast B. brush length and pigtail tightness
Ans: D Ans: B C. incoming alternator is in phase with the bus voltage C. grade of material and surface dirt conditions
6177 If many turns of an alternating current coil for a contactor become 6178 When a battery is continuously exposed to low temperatures, the D. synchroscope pointer is defective or broken D. all of the above
short circuited, the coil _____________. best procedure to keep it from freezing is to _________. Ans: C Ans: D
A. will continue to operate A. remove the battery caps
 Page 345 Page 346

6195 If all three ground-detection lamps continue to burn at equal 6196 One of the generator bearing shells is generally insulated from the 6213 Fuses are usually rated in _____________. 6214 When used for taking resistance measurements, a volt-ohm-
intensity after the test button is depressed and released, which of end housing in order to prevent _____________. milliammeter is normally powered by _____________.
the listed conditions is indicated? A. watts A. a hand cranked generator
A. No grounds exist A. rapid brush wear B. amps only B. internal storage batteries
B. All three phases are grounded B. residual magnetism leak off C. volts only C. the current in the circuit being tested
C. The test switch is faulty C. excessive field winding heat D. amps and volts D. a step down transformer
D. The current transformers are shorted out D. circulation of shaft currents Ans: D Ans: B
Ans: A Ans: D 6215 Which of the following materials is a good insulator? 6216 Electrical power is expressed in _____________.
6197 You are calibrating a multimeter using internal batteries to supply 6198 When paralleling two alternators, the synchronizing lamps remain lit A. steel A. ohms
power for resistance measurements. However, you are unable to as the synchroscope pointer approaches the 0°. This indicates the B. aluminum B. volts
adjust the pointer to "zero" using the adjustment knob. Therefore, _____________. C. glass C. amps
you should _____________. D. copper D. watts
A. replace the batteries in the instrument A. incoming alternator is running too fast Ans: C Ans: D
B. measure resistance by dividing the voltmeter indication by the B. alternator voltages are 180 degrees apart 6217 An electrical connection between the wiring of an electric motor and 6218 Prior to closing the breaker when paralleling two AC generators, the
ammeter indication its metal frame is known as a/an _____________. recommended practice is to have the frequency of the incoming
C. set the pointer using a bridge C. synchroscope is defective or broken machine _____________.
D. change scales to the R X 100 scale and adjust using the "zero D. alternator power factors are in phase A. eddy current A. slightly less than the line frequency
ohms" adjusting knob B. ground B. the same as the line frequency
Ans: A Ans: C C. impedance C. slightly greater than the line frequency
6199 A multimeter may be damaged by taking a _____________. 6200 When two AC generators are being paralleled, the breaker should D. flux leakage D. all of the above
be closed with the synchroscope pointer rotating in the Ans: B Ans: C
____________. 6219 In addition to short circuits and sustained overloads, fuses are likely 6220 The greatest single cause of electrical failures is ______.
A. voltage reading while in the ammeter mode A. "slow" direction, just before the 12 o'clock position to blow due to _____________.
B. current reading while in the voltmeter mode B. "fast" direction, just after the 12 o'clock position A. loose fuse clips A. the breakdown of insulation
C. resistance reading while in the ammeter mode C. "fast" direction, just before the 12 o'clock position B. low ambient temperatures B. overcurrent
D. resistance reading while in the voltmeter mode D. "slow" direction, just after the 12 o'clock position C. low contact resistance C. high inductance
Ans: A Ans: C D. all of the above D. too frequent testing
6201 If two AC generators have just been placed in parallel, the true 6202 Which of the following types of insulation will begin to deteriorate Ans: A Ans: A
power load is initially distributed evenly by _____________. FIRST as a result of the heat generated in the conductor it 6221 You are reconnecting a three-phase induction motor to the supply 6222 Current flowing in only one direction is called ___________.
surrounds? line. To prevent possible damage to the load, due to the wrong
A. a balance coil A. Varnished cloth direction of rotation, you should ____________.
B. changing field excitation B. Rubber A. connect the motor and then use the "jog" button to determine the A. alternating current
C. adjusting the governor control settings C. Silicon direction of rotation
D. a rheostat D. Asbestos B. connect the phase indicator to the motor leads, rotate the motor by B. omnidirectional current
Ans: C Ans: B hand and then connect to the supply voltage
6203 A multimeter can be used to measure _____________. 6204 The KW load is evenly distributed between two alternators just C. connect the phase indicator to the supply voltage then connect the C. direct current
placed in parallel by adjusting _____________. motor
A. resistance A. a balance coil D. check the supply line phase sequence and motor rotation with D. sinusoidal current
B. voltage B. the governor settings appropriate indicators, then connect correspondingly marked leads
C. current C. the field excitation
D. all of the above D. a rheostat Ans: D Ans: C
Ans: D Ans: B 6223 Why is it a good practice to have the frequency of the incoming 6224 In an alternating current electrical system, a low system power factor
6205 Before using an all-purpose electric measuring instrument 6206 When paralleling two AC generators, the frequency of the incoming alternator adjusted slightly higher than that of the loaded alternator is a direct sign of _____________.
(multimeter) utilizing internal batteries to supply power for resistance machine immediately prior to closing its breaker should be when paralleling two alternators?
measurements, you should FIRST ____________. ____________. A. This allows the oncoming machine to accept load immediately. A. wasted energy
A. remove one of the batteries A. controlled by placing the governor switch in the automatic position
B. This prevents the machine from floating on the line. B. efficient operation
B. remove all the batteries B. adjusted with the voltage regulator C. The reverse power relay is prevented from activating. C. a short in the exciter field windings
C. calibrate using a known external resistance C. slightly greater than the bus frequency D. All of the above. D. an excessive number of minor system grounds
D. select the proper resistance range D. slightly less than the bus frequency Ans: D Ans: A
Ans: D Ans: C 6225 Two paralleled alternators are operating near rated load. If one trips 6226 Routine maintenance of dry-type transformers should
6207 If the centrifugal switch or relay used for cutting out the starting 6208 A flickering ground detection lamp on a DC system would indicate a out mechanically, which of the listed actions should be taken include______________.
winding of a split-phase induction motor fails to open once the motor _____________. FIRST?
is in operation, the _____________. A. Restart the tripped machine immediately. A. preventing the entrance of water from broken pipe lines steam lines
A. motor will overspeed A. multiple-ground condition in the distribution system
B. starting winding will burn out B. ground in an armature coil of an operating machine B. Strip the board of all non-vital circuits. B. keeping protective surfaces and insulating bushings free of dirt and
C. motor will immediately stall under load C. ground in a motor accompanied with a short conductive debris
D. motor torque will be above normal at rated speed D. short between two adjacent bars of the generator commutator C. Start the emergency generator. C. periodic testing of insulation resistance with a megger
D. Transfer all vital loads to the emergency bus. D. all of the above
Ans: B Ans: B Ans: B Ans: D
6209 D.C. propulsion motor brush pressure depends on the brush grade 6210 The unit "hertz" is equivalent to _____________. 6227 If all of the ground detection lamps burn with equal brilliance, 6228 A capacitor discolored due to excessive heat should be
used and in practice is set with a ______________. whether the test button is depressed or released, then _____________.
A. multimeter A. coulombs per second ___________.
B. manometer B. revolutions per second A. no grounds exist A. calibrated using a capactance wheatstone bridge
C. spring scale C. revolutions per minute B. all phases are grounded B. replaced and the reason for the overheating found
D. compound gauge D. cycles per second C. all lamps show a ground C. cooled with a spray can of refrigerant approved for this purpose
Ans: C Ans: D
6211 A current carrying conductor making an electrical contact with a 6212 A DC generator is used to supply direct current in order to maintain D. all of the above D. resoldered with care taken to insure that the origional cold solder
wiring metal conduit is indicated by a _____________. an AC generator field and is known as a/an _____________. joint is repaired
Ans: A Ans: B
A. low switchboard wattmeter reading A. rotor 6229 In order to change the direction of rotation of a 6230 In an A.C. generator, pitting of collector rings will cause__________.
B. reading of 1.0 on the power factor meter B. stator D.C.motor_________. I. the field leads must be changed II. the input I. sparking II. chattering
C. high switchboard voltmeter reading C. exciter leads must be changed
D. totally darkened switchboard ground-detecting light D. armature A. I only A. I only
Ans: D Ans: C B. II only B. II only
C. either I or II C. both I and II
 Page 347 Page 348

D. neither I or II D. neither I or II Ans: C Ans: A

Ans: A Ans: D 6245 Which of the listed conditions will occur if dirt and grease are 6246 A three-phase electrical system is equipped with ground detecting
6231 Air gap readings should be taken periodicly on electrical generation 6232 On some electrical generating equipment one outboard bearing allowed to accumulate between the commutator segments of a lamps. If one of the lamp goes dark and the other two burn normally
equipment to __________. pedestal is insulated from the bedplate. This should be checked with motor? before and after the test switch is operated, this indicates
a millivolt meter and a jumper. With the millivolt meter connectd _______________.
between the shaft and the bedplate how should the jumper be A. A partial short circuit. A. the dark lamp must be replaced
B. A dead short circuit. B. there is a ground in the line with the dark lamp
A. determine the amount of varnish that can be applied to correct A. It should be placed from one end of the shaft to the other to C. Misalignment of the motor shaft. C. there are grounds in two of the three phases
insulation problems eliminate shaft currents. D. Overspeeding of the motor. D. the voltage to the dark lamp is less than that of the system
B. determine the condition of the bearings B. It is used to short the + and - in a D.C. generator or Phase A and Ans: A Ans: A
Phase C in an alternator to eleminate the effects of CEMF. 6247 Which of the listed conditions could cause a DC motor to have 6248 Which of the following statements identifies the difference between
excessively hot windings and sparking at the brushes? the primary windings and the secondary windings of a 2:1 stepdown
C. provide for the correct proper tightening of the field coil bolts and C. It should be placed across the insulating block to increase the shaft transformer?
correct lateral adjustment of the field coils current to a point where it can be measured with the millivolt meter. A. High bar-to-bar voltage A. The secondary windings have twice as much resistance as the
primary windings.
D. increase machine efficiency D. It should be placed from the shaft to the pedestal while one reading B. Reversed interpole polarity B. The secondary windings give off twice as much heat as the primary
is taken, then removed to take a second reading. This eliminates the windings.
insulating effect of the bearing. C. Loose brushes C. The secondary windings require half as much current as the primary
Ans: B Ans: D windings.
6233 After closing the circuit breaker to place two similar alternators in 6234 The failure of ball bearings used in electric motors can result from D. Excessive humidity D. The secondary windings have half as many turns as the primary
parallel, the NEXT step is to balance the _____________. _____________. windings.
Ans: A Ans: D
A. power factor A. failure to clean the bearing before repacking 6249 When troubleshooting an amplifier, you measure an output of 30 6250 If an electric motor fails to start, you should FIRST check the
B. voltage load B. failure to maintain proper alignment volts. If the gain of the amplifier is 2, what must the input voltage be _____________.
C. kilowatt load C. excess lubrication forcing the bearing full of grease and eliminating for the amplifier to work properly?
all areas of expansion A. 32 volts A. phase sequence
D. ampere load D. all of the above B. 30 volts B. ampere load
Ans: C Ans: D C. 28 volts C. fuse or circuit breaker
6235 Air gap readings should be taken on electrical generation equipment 6236 On some electrical generating equipment one outboard bearing D. 15 volts D. line frequency
periodicly to ________. I. check machine effeciency II. determine pedestal is insulated from the bedplate. To check this insulation with Ans: D Ans: C
the need for cleaning the machine assembled you should use a____________. 6251 If a DC motor runs faster than designed, with all other conditions 6252 The formula for computing impedance in a series circuit containing
being normal, the possible cause could be a/an ______________. resistance, capacitance, and inductance is _____________.
A. I only A. millivolt meter and a jumper [ NOTE: the symbol * stands for 'multiplied by' ]
B. II only B. ohmmeter
C. both I and II C. megohm meter A. shorted shunt field coil A. Z = RT + XL + XC
D. neither I or II D. high potential tester B. open armature coil B. Z = R + XL - XC
Ans: D Ans: A C. reversed commutating pole C. Z * Z = R * R + (XL - XC) * (XL - XC)
6237 Air gap readings should be taken on electrical generation machinery 6238 If the driving torque, such as that produced by a diesel engine, D. overload D. Z = R * R + (XL * XC) - (XL * XC)
periodicly to _________. I. determine the need for cleaning II. creates pulsations when coupled with a synchronous generator Ans: A Ans: C
check the condition of the bearings operating in parallel; the generator rotor may beperiodically pulled 6253 Which of the listed conditions might contribute to very rapid wearing 6254 The prime mover of an AC two pole main propulsion generator
ahead or behind its normal position as it rotates. This cond of a DC machine's commutator bars? drives the generator at 3600 RPM. If the main propulsion motor has
80 poles, what will be the propeller speed?
A. I only A. hunting
B. II only B. direct coupling A. A grounded commutator bar A. 45 RPM
C. both I and II C. peaking B. Using improper carbon brushes B. 80 RPM
D. neither I or II D. harmonic coupling C. Aligning the front and rear mica V-rings improperly C. 90 RPM
Ans: B Ans: A D. An open circuit in the armature D. 180 RPM
6239 If the bearings of an electrical generator are failing more frequently 6240 On electrical generators one of the bearings is isolated from the Ans: B Ans: C
than expected and the lubricating oil is sludging then you should bedplate. This insulating block should not be painted and must be 6255 If a single-phase induction motor fails to start, the problem may be 6256 A single-phase induction motor starts, comes up to about 75% rated
______________. kept clean to ___________. _____________. speed, slows down to a lower speed, and accelerates again. The
A. check the connections to the output leads A. protect operating personnel from shock problem is most likely in the ____________.
B. check the bearing insulating block on one end of the unit B. create an isolated ground for the instrumentation
C. replace the bearing with a sealed roller type C. allow for the expansion of the generator away from the prime mover A. an open in the main winding A. starting winding
as it warms up B. a shorted shunt field B. running winding
D. replace the thrust bearing of the prime mover D. eliminate shaft currents to prevent damaging the bearings C. a closed centrifugal switch C. starting capacitor
Ans: B Ans: D D. low circuit frequency D. running centrifugal switch
6241 A single-phase induction motor will only start if you spin the rotor 6242 When testing for blown fuses in a three-phase supply circuit to a Ans: A Ans: B
rapidly with the line switch closed. After starting, its speed fluctuates motor, you should first ___________________. 6257 A motor enclosure which protects against falling liquids is classified 6258 As a result of a mechanical malfunction in one of the ship's service
between very slow and half-speed. The problem probably lies in the as ____________. generators operating in parallel, you must secure that generator. In
________. order to prevent a possible overload to the remaining generator,
A. starting winding A. apply the megger across the tops of the line fuses which of the following sequential courses of action
B. centrifugal mechanism B. apply an ammeter diagonally across the top of the first line fuse and
the bottom of the third line fuse A. waterproof A. Trip the malfunctioning generator's circuit breaker and prime mover
C. centrifugal switch C. apply the voltage tester across the bottoms of the line fuses throttle trip.
D. running winding D. ensure the circuit is de-energized, and then use a continuity tester B. drip proof B. Trip all nonvital distribution feeder circuit breakers, the
malfunctioning generator's circuit breaker, and the prime mover
Ans: D Ans: D throttle trip.
6243 A short circuit in the armature of a DC motor will cause the motor to 6244 In a three-phase electrical system, three ground detecting lamps are C. spray tight C. Trip the malfunctioning generator's circuit breaker and distribution
_____________. provided. One lamp goes dark and the others increase in feeder circuit breakers.
brightness. When the test button is pushed, all lamps have equal D. spray proof D. Trip all nonvital distribution feeder circuit breakers, the
illumination. You should conclude that ____________. malfunctioning prime mover turbine throttle trip, and the generator
circuit breaker.
A. run fast A. there is a ground on the line with the dark lamp Ans: B Ans: B
B. hum when energized B. the dark lamp must be replaced 6259 A turbogenerator has a rated output of 1200 KW at 60 Hertz, with a 6260 If an alternator is to be inactive for a considerable period of time,
C. spark at the brushes C. there are grounds on the lines with the bright lamps no load frequency of 61.5 Hertz. What is its speed droop? which of the following actions should be taken?
D. fail to start D. this is a normal condition
 Page 349 Page 350

A. 0.01025 A. It should be disconnected from the prime mover and raised off its Ans: D Ans: D
bearing supports. 6275 Etched or burned bands on the contact faces of the brushes in a 6276 If only one brush on a commutator is sparking excessively, you
B. 0.015 B. Insulation resistance readings should be taken weekly to ensure direct current generator can be caused by ____________. should look for _____________.
resistance is not deteriorating.
C. 0.02439 C. The brushes should be lifted off the slip rings to prevent pitting of the A. high mica segments A. a high commutator bar
metal by electrolytic action. B. copper drag on the commutator B. copper imbedded in the brush
D. 0.025 D. The windings and collector rings should be protected with a thin coat C. brushes improperly positioned C. a loose commutator bar
of grease or oil. D. copper embedded in the brushes D. flux in the commutating zone
Ans: D Ans: C Ans: C Ans: B
6261 Which of the following materials is recommended for finishing the 6262 A megger is being used to test the insulation of an AC generator. 6277 Which of the following statements describes the effects of ambient 6278 Diesel generators #1 and #2 are operating in parallel at near full load
slip rings after grinding or turning? The resistance value of a dry, clean winding will _____________. temperature on local action within lead-acid storage batteries? capacity. Diesel generator #1 suddenly trips out mechanically due to
low lube oil pressure. The reverse power relay functions properly
A. grade 00 sandpaper A. continue to rise as test potential is maintained, becoming fairly and trips generator #1 electrically off the boa
steady as the dielectric-absorption effect of insulation stabilizes
A. Increasing ambient temperature increases local action. A. Start the emergency generator.
B. canvas wiper B. remain constant as the temperature of the windings increases B. Increasing ambient temperature decreases local action. B. Ascertain cause of the low lube oil pressure.
C. Ambient temperature has no effect on local action. C. Strip the board of all nonvital circuits.
C. crocus cloth C. continue to drop as test potential is maintained, becoming fairly D. At 32°C all local action virtually ceases. D. Secure alarms, reset reverse power relay, and restart #1 engine.
steady after 5-7 minutes
D. smooth file D. stabilize after approximately 2-4 minutes of fluctuation Ans: A Ans: C
Ans: C Ans: A 6279 Which of the following losses is/are present in every direct current 6280 Upon failure of the normal power supply, the emergency generator
6263 Brushes in a generator must be positioned in the neutral plane to 6264 If the connections for the field and the armature on a DC motor are generator armature? is placed on the line by the _____________.
avoid sparking between the brushes and the _____________. reversed, _____________. A. Winding copper loss A. bus tie feeder
B. Core eddy current loss B. automatic bus transfer device
A. yoke A. the motor will run as a generator C. Magnetic hysteresis loss C. line connection feeder
B. armature windings B. the motor will not run D. All of the above. D. power failure alarm bus
C. field pole windings C. the direction of rotation will be the same Ans: D Ans: B
D. commutator D. the direction of rotation will be reversed 6281 Which of the spaces listed is defined as a "locationrequiring an 6282 The source of emergency lighting and power at loss of normal ship's
Ans: D Ans: C exceptional degree of protection" whenconsidering the installation of power on a cargo vessel should be obtained from the
6265 A series wound DC motor has its armature and field connected in 6266 Uneven wear of the commutator surface on a direct current shipboard electricalequipment? ______________.
series with a resistor. When the motor is disconnected from its propulsion motor can be caused by _____________. A. Machinery space A. emergency generator supply to the emergency switchboard
power supply, this motor will exemplify __________. B. Chart room B. emergency generator supply to the main switchboard
C. Console room C. battery supply to the main switchboard
A. the proper connections for across the line starting A. rapid change in load D. Accommodation space D. turbogenerator supply to the emergency switchboard
B. the proper connections for an automatic strip heater B. excessive operation at light load Ans: A Ans: A
C. a reversing controller circuit C. incorrect brush staggering 6283 Which of the following statements represents the FIRST precaution 6284 Which of the listed safety features should be provided in small
D. dynamic braking D. unequal pole spacing to be taken prior to working on any installed electrical component? rooms or lockers where batteries are stored?
Ans: D Ans: C
6267 Unnecessary and frequent applications of varnish to the generator 6268 The insulation of electric generators during short idle periods should A. Wear rubber gloves and boots. A. Installation of a fixed CO2 system.
windings to repair defective insulation will result in ____________. be _____________. B. Use only approved nonconducting tools. B. An exhaust duct is to be provided and led from within three inches of
the deck.
A. heavy coatings of varnish interfering with heat dissipation A. allowed to cool slowly to ambient temperatures C. Ground the case of the machine before beginning any repairs. C. Power ventilation is to be provided if trickle charging is utilized.
B. deficient air gap clearance and eventual damage to the casing B. flashed with direct current to remove any residual magnetism
D. Open the supply circuits and tag the switches. D. An exhaust duct is to be provided and led from the top of the locker
C. failure of the rectifier assembly C. kept warm by using strip or space heaters to the open air.
D. a built-up of varnish without changing generator operation D. relieved of all capacitive charge by grounding the conductors Ans: D Ans: D
6285 Which of the following precautions should be taken when a blown 6286 Before any work on electrical or electronic equipment is performed,
Ans: A Ans: C fuse, rated at 10 amperes, is replaced? which of the following precautions should be carried out?
6269 If an AC generator experiences voltage failure, the cause may be 6270 A wire is being used as a replacement having twice the length and
_____________. one-half the cross-sectional area of the original wire. The resistance A. Short out the fuse before removing it from the circuit. A. De-energize the applicable switchboard bus.
of this new wire, when compared to that of the original wire, is B. Use needle-nose pliers to remove fuse from the circuit. B. Bypass the interlocks.
_____________. C. Replace blown fuse with one of equal voltage and ampere capacity. C. Secure and tag the supply circuit breaker in the open position.
A. an open in the field circuit A. four times as great
B. the brushes shifting out of the neutral plane B. twice as much D. Fuses of 10 ampere rating and less are virtually harmless when D. Station a man at the circuit supply switch.
C. excessive locked-rotor current C. the same as the original resistance energized and may be handled freely.
D. a rotating slip ring D. one-half of the original resistance Ans: C Ans: C
Ans: A Ans: A 6287 Receptacle outlets aboard ship should be designed so those 6288 Regulations require that an indicating light at the propulsion control
6271 An open occurring within the field rheostat of an AC generator can 6272 If three AC generators are operating in parallel, and one of them mounted have _____________. station will operate if overloading or overheating occurs in a
be detected by short circuiting its terminals and observing a were to "pull out" of synchronism with the other two generators, the _______________.
____________. ____________. A. there must be a sufficient number of receptacle outlets in the crew A. forced draft blower motor
A. negative deflection of the wattmeter pointer A. normally operating AC generators will vibrate severely accommodations for an adequate level of habitability
B. positive deflection of the wattmeter pointer B. AC generator pulling out of synchronism will vibrate severely B. each receptacle outelt must be compatible with the voltage and B. steering gear motor
C. buildup of alternator voltage C. normally operating AC generators will overspeed and unload current of the circuit in which it is installed
D. low, but constant alternator voltage D. AC generator pulling out of synchronism will become motorized C. a receptacle outlet must not have any exposed parts with the plug C. fuel pump motor
opening uncovered
Ans: C Ans: B D. all of the above D. condensate pump motor
6273 A loss of field excitation to an AC generator while operating in 6274 An AC generator operating in parallel loses its excitation without Ans: D Ans: B
parallel will cause it to ____________. tripping the circuit breaker. This will __________. 6289 According to Regulations , which of the following is an acceptable 6290 According to Regulations, the motor controller for a submersible
A. absorb more and more load due to decreased armature reaction A. not affect the faulty generator due to the compensation of the other lining for battery trays containing alkaline batteries? electric motor driven bilge pump should be installed _____________.
generators
B. lose its load due to the inherent speed droop built into the governor B. cause the slip rings to melt A. Brass A. in the shaft alley
B. Lead B. at the submersible bilge pump
C. smoke and overload due to field flashover as residual field flux C. cause a low voltage differential to develop between the armature C. Steel C. above the uppermost continuous deck
changes polarity and the bus D. Zinc D. at the engine room emergency control panel
D. lose its load, begin to motorize, trip out on reverse power relay, and D. cause high currents to be induced in the field windings Ans: C Ans: C
possibly overspeed
 Page 351

6291 In accordance with Regulations , a steering gear feeder circuit from 6292 In accordance with Regulations , the capacity of each branch circuit
the emergency switchboard or alternate power supply must have providing power to a fire detection or alarm system must not be less
the capacity for continuous operation of the rudder 15‚side-side in than what percent of the maximum load?
not more than 60 seconds for a period of

A. 1/4 hour A. 0.5

B. 1/2 hour B. 1
C. 1 hour C. 1.25
D. 2 hours D. 1.5
Ans: B Ans: C
6293 Regulations require the minimum number of ships service 6294 Regulations require overcurrent protection for steering gear feeder
generators for ocean vessels to be _____________. circuits and shall be protected by _____________.
A. 1 A. circuit breaker with an instantaneous trip only
B. 2 B. motor-running overcurrent protection only
C. 3 C. nonrenewable link cartridge fuse only
D. 4 D. renewable link cartridge fuse only
Ans: B Ans: A
6295 When power ventilation is required in a battery compartment, 6296 Regulations require each motor controller to have a wiring diagram
Regulations require _____________. located ____________.
A. the power ventilation system to be separate from ventilation systems A. on the inside of the controller door
for other spaces
B. electric ventilation motors to be inside the vent duct B. in the engineering department office
C. electric ventilation motors to be inside the compartment C. in the spare parts locker
D. all of the above D. all of the above
Ans: A Ans: A
6297 In accordance with Regulations , receptacles for refrigerated 6298 Regulations require that the emergency lighting and power system
containers must ____________. _____________.
A. have a switch near the receptacles that disconnects all power to A. emergency generator must be tested under load before sailing
those receptacles
B. have a sign stating that the switch should be opened before cables B. must be tested and inspected weekly and the date recorded
are disconnected from the receptacles
C. be designed for circuit breaking service C. batteries must be tested annually and the date recorded
D. all of the above D. must be capable of sustaining the emergency load for 48 hours

Ans: D Ans: B
6299 Regulations require emergency diesel engine starting systems to 6300 Which of the following statements is a Regulation concerning
have sufficient capacity to provide power for at least emergency generator diesel engines?
____________.
A. three continuous starting sequences A. The fuel must have a flash point not less than 24°C.
B. six consecutive cranking cycles B. Emergency diesel engines must be capable of operating under full
load in not less than 30 seconds after cranking.
C. nine repeated starts under load C. The starting battery must produce 12 consecutive cranking cycles.

D. twelve cranking periods of 5 seconds D. Emergency diesel engines must operate satisfactorily up to a 22.5°
list.
Ans: B Ans: D