1-medications that can prevent appellants from atrial fibrillation after restoration of sinus rhythm is:

a. flecainide
b. amiodarone
c. nifedipine
d. captopril

2. Which of the following are complications of thrombolysis in acute myocardial infarction:

a. hemorrhagic stroke
b. Severe hypotension
c. allergic reactions
d. occlusion of the coronary branches other than the affected

3. Which of the following medicines Avoid in patients with aortic dissection

a. hydralazine
b. diazoxide
c. labetalol
d. nitroprusside

4. which of the following are characteristics of malignant hypertension

a. papilledema
b. fundus stage 1
c. diastolic blood pressure over 130 mmHg
d. decreased cerebral blood flow

5. Which of the following is not component of treatment in pulmonary edema

a. oxygen
b. morphine
c. dopamine
d. beta blocker

6. metabolic X-syndrome is given by the combination of

a. hyperinsulinemia, diabetes, obesity, dyslipidemia
b. aarteriala hypertension, diabetes, obesity, dyslipidemia
c. hypertension, diaber mellitus, obesity, hyperinsulinemia
d. hypertension, obesity, dyslipidemia

7. in clinically, consists of primary hyperaldosteronism

a. hypotension
b. oligorie
c. asthenia
d. paresthesia

8. hydralazine to treat hypertensive emergencies

a. is administered orally
b. its main indication eclampsia
c. be administered as drugs of choice in aneurysm of the aorta
d. may be administered intravenously or intramuscularly

-9. Choose the correct association between hypertensive and emergency medicine indicated
a. hypertensive encephalopathy - clonidine
b. dissection of the aorta - labetalol
c. ACS - hydralazine
d. Acute heart failure - labetalol

10. Killip class 3 left ventricular dysfunction in acute myocardial infarction is characterized by
a. The absence of signs of pulmonary venous congestion
b. rales at the lung bases stasis
c. pulmonary edema
d. cardiogenic shock

11. The following statements relating to the management of acute myocardial infarction beta-blockers are true

a. lower overall mortality

b. Previn sudden death
c. Beta-blockers are indicated in most patients after AMI
d. history of asthma is not a contraindication for administration

12. extremely efficient analgesic for pain in myocardial infarction is the

a. Morphine
b. paduden
c. ibuprofen
d. diclofenac

13. precipitant factors of acute myocardial infarction include

a. sustained physical effort
b. emotional stress
c. Surgical diseases
d. Sleep

14. determinants of atrioventricular blocks can be considered

a. myocardial infarction
b. digitalis intoxication
c. the excess beta blockers
d. cardiac neurosis

15.symptoms that characterize hypertensive encephalopathy symptoms that characterize include

a. increased intracranial pressure
b. dureru chest
c. Anxiety
d. retinopathy with papill edema

16. pheochromocytoma screening is the most effective performs

a. dosing plasma renin
b. determination of urinary catecholamines
c. dosage urinary catecholamine metabolites
d. dosing of angiotensin 2

17 of the side effects of thiazide diuretics and loop part

a. hyperkalaemia
b. hyperuricemia
c. hypernatremia
d. disorders of acid-base balance

18. maneuver should be performed immediately after the diagnosis of ventricular fibrillation is
a. oro-tracheal intubation
b. providing an intravenous line
c. the administration of an electric shock
d. obtaining an electrocardiogram

19 contraindications converting enzyme inhibitors belong to

a. asymptomatic left ventricular dysfunction
b. congestive heart failure
c. renal artery stenosis
d. severe renal impairment

20. transesophageal echocardiography is performed under the following conditions required for the evaluation
of a patient with suspected infective endocarditis exception
a. the patient gets a myocardial revascularization
b. the patient has a valvular prosthesis
c. transthoracic examination is dissatisfaction in terms of ethnic
d. transthoracic examination visualizes multiple vegetation

21. arrhythmogenic mention that the biochemical mechanisms of acute myocardial infarction
a. electrolyte disturbances
b. imbalance of the autonomic nervous system
c. the pain
d. driving slow

22. equivalents anginal equivalents consist of

a. dyspnea effort
b. heartburn
c. belching effort
d. polyuria
23. angina pain disappears
a. rest after a few minutes
b. the administration of nitroglycerin
c. administration of Miofilin
d. after administration of analgesics

24.Nonselective of beta-blockers contraindications are

a. vasospastic angina
b. symptomatic peripheral arterial disease
c. Raynaud's phenomenon
d. cirrhotic

25. unstable angina is a clinical syndrome characterized by

a. 20 minutes prolonged angina occurring at rest
b. angina of effort: de novo: recently installed
c. crescendo angina worse or
d. The effort angina installed a year

26. The serum markers of myocardial necrosis are

a. myoglobin
b. glycosylated hemoglobin
c. Specific cardiac troponin
d. lactate dehidrogeneza

27. The following statements related to antihypertensive treatment in diabetic patients are true:
a. The target blood pressure was greater than 130-80 mmHg
b. blockers of the kidney - angiotensin-label are indicated by election
c. not mandatory statin
d. because of the risk of orthostatic hypotension, blood pressure should be measured and standing

28. The causes of secondary hypertension include

a. pheochromocytoma
b. Asthma
c. oral contraceptives
d. polycystic kidney

29. Measures related to life style that are known for lower blood pressure
a. the stabilization of body weight
b. reducing the consumption of alcohol
c. increasing salt intake
d. Increased intake of fruits and vegetables

30. hypertension in pregnancy can be used

a. labetalol
b. Calcium antagonists
c. diuretics
d. converting enzyme inhibitors

31. in heart failure, NYHA functional class II, appropriate medical treatment are represented by:
a. converting enzyme inhibitor
b. dobutamine
c. a diuretic
d. digoxin

32. a poor ventricular diastolic filling may occur

a. abnormal mitral valve stenosis with aortic
b. mitral stenosis
c. mitral regurgitation
d. insufficiency aortic

33. Which of the following is characteristic rhythm disturbances digitalis intoxication

a. bigeminism supraventricular
b. sinus tachycardia
c. non paroxysmal atrial tachycardia with atrioventricular block variable ventricular
d. Ventricular tachycardia

34 patients with very severe congestive heart failure (anasarca). diuretic treatment plan includes
a. combination with low-dose hydrochlorothiazide sipronolactona
b. spironolactonar only in small doses
c. the combination of a loop diuretic and a thiazide diuretic spironolactone
d. the combination of spironolactone with triamrereri

35. precipitating factors of heart failure are:

a. lowering dietary sodium
b. infections
c. anemia
d. arrhythmias

36. pulmonary edema as a clinical manifestation of heart failure has the following signs and symptoms
a. fever
b. dyspnea intense
c. purulent sputum
d. rales in both lung fields

37 patients with heart failure and the following additional risk factors should receive anticoagulant therapy
a. Atrial Fibrillation
b. venous thrombosis
c. systemic or pulmonary embolism
d. pulmonary infection
38. The administration of beta-blockers graduated (metoprolol, carvedilol, bucindolol) in heart failure
a. is contraindicated
b. relieves symptoms of heart failure
c. improves exercise tolerance
d. late evolution of heart failure

39. The most common presentation accused of patients with acute myocardial infarction is represented by
a. pain
b. palpitations
c. embarrassment chest
d. fainting

40. an essential element in the treatment of patients with suspected acute myocardial infarction is the
a. digoxin
b. quinidine
c. xiline
d. aspirin

41. A positive exercise test in coronary patients is characterized by

a. significant ST segment depression
b. T wave abnormalities
c. the occurrence of any driving
d. Ventricular arrhythmias

42. Prinzmetal angina electrocardiography(ECG) is characterized by

a. Q-wave appearance
b. wide QRS complex than 0.13 seconds
c. ST segment depression
d. ST- elevation

43.Which is most often used to reactive effects of nitroglycerin administration

a. palpitations
b. headache
c. retrosternal pain
d. vomiting

44. beta-blockers are contraindicated in

a. hypertension
b. Acute aortic dissection
c. atrio ventricular blocks
d. hyperthyroidism

45. Which of the following blood tests have the highest value in the diagnosis of pulmonary thromboembolism
a. The arterial blood gases
b. pressure o2
c. the plasma of D dimer
d. dosing TGO

46. Which of the following laboratory investigations is the most sensitive in assessing left ventricular hypertrophy
a. electrocardiogram
b. radiographs
c. echocardiography
d. coronarogragie

47. The atrial hypertension in cauze of endocrine may occur in

a. polycystic kidney disease
b. Cushing syndrome
c. pheochromocytoma
d. myxedema

48. The risk factors that indicate a poor prognosis of hypertension are:
a. females
b. smoking
c. hypercholesterolemia
d. diabetes mellitus

49. some shipped to the historical aspect physical examination or laboratory explorations may suggest a common
secondary hypertension ...
a. dubutul hypertension in patients under 25 years
b. occipital headache present predominantly morning
c. the presence of an abdominal breath
d. retinal hemorrhages and exudates

50 contraindications and precautions in administering beta - blockers in hypertensive patients are

a. extrasystoles and ventricular fibrillation
b. sick sinus syndrome
c. heart block grade 2 or 3
d. stable angina