HEMATOLOGY
1. Variation in shapes of RBC: Poikilocytosis
2. Variation in sizes of RBC: Anisocytosis
3. Leukoerythroblastosis is not associated with
______: Erythroblastosis fetalis (HDN)
4. Procedure employs blood w/ EDTA diluted with
0.105 M NaCitrate or NSS: Modified Westergren
5. What is the T-cell growth factor and mast cell
activating factor effect in stimulating erythroid
and myeloid proliferation: Interleukin-9 or IL-9
6. Largest of all hematopoietic stem cells:
Polyploid megakaryocyte
7. Which among RBC has figure of 8, loop
shaped: Cabot rings
8. Which among cells is the earliest erythroid
recognizable precursor: pronormoblast
9. Which of the ff mononuclear cells are w/o
specific cytoplasmic granules: Lymphocytes
10. Which ff cell is larger than monocyte w/
irregular cell membrane with blunts and
pseudopods: Megakaryoblasts
11. Common precursor for granulocytes,
monocytes, erythrocytes and megakaryocytes:
Myeloid stem cells
12. Rbc thinner than normal, peripheral rim of
hemoglobin w/ dark Hgb containing area:
Leptocytes
13. Disintegrating RBC: Schistocytes
14. Cell that has deep purple and paler nucleus
which often nearly hidden by granules: Basophils
15. Last nucleated cell: Orthochromic
Normoblast
16. Hematopoietic stem cells also known as CFU-
GEM expresses: CD34/CD33
17. Promotes differentiation and maturation of
megakaryocytes: Thrombopoietin
18. Large cell w/ single eccentric nucleus has
reticular chromatin and prominent nucleolus:
Osteoblast
19. Nutritional deficiency of Cobalamine, due to
failure of gastric mucosa produce intrinsic
factors: Pernicious Anemia
20. During fetal life, all Rbc produce HbF, in
adults, 0.2-7% are HbF: TRUE
21. Reticulocytopenia and ABN RBC are primary
findings, ABN granulocyte are rare and less than
1% blast cells: Refractory Anemia
22. Acute Myelocytic Leukemia seen in: M4
23. Earliest Thrombopoiesis w/ overlapping lobe
and small amount of basophilic cytoplasm:
Megakaryoblast
24. Degrades fibrin clot and retract fibrinogen
forms FDP: Plasmin
25. Content of eosinophilic specific granules toxic
to parasite that neutralize heparin and release
histamine: Major Basic Protein
26. Pathway using 2,3-BPG: Rapaport-
Luebering Shunt
27. Cooper Cruick Shank method is for: Absolute
Basophil Count
28. Result of PT & PTT mixing studies: mixed
plasma is normal, after 1-2 hrs it is prolonged,
suggestive of : Presence of FVIII inhibitor
29. Lab findings of DIC: (increase D-dimer,
increase PT/PTT, decrease platelet count)
30. Conjugated protein serves as a vehicle of
oxygen and carbon dioxide: Hemoglobin
31. Absorbance of spectrophotometer for
determining Hgb using HCN: 540nm
32. Quantitative measure of Carboxy Hgb: Either
(Differential spectrophotometer, gas
chromatography)
33. Problem solving: memorize corrected WBC
count
34. Young cells w/ residual RNA
polychromatophilic RBC in air dried film stained
with __?: Brilliant Cresyl Blue and New
Methylene Blue
35. Bilobed structure which recognized by size
and bright red granules: Eosinophil
36. Abundant blue cytoplasm, eccentric round
nucleus w/ light vacuoles w/ well defined golgi
zone adjacent to nucleus: Plasma Cell
37. 1 g of Hgb carries ___ mg of Iron: 3.47
38. Reveals pancytopenia, decrease
hematopoietic cell lines resulting to low all blood
levels: Aplastic Anemia
39. Genetically impairment of globin synthesis:
Thallasemia
40. Which of the ff also called CSF-1: Monocyte
macrophage CSF
41. Fastest Hgb at pH 8.4 in alkaline medium:
HbH
42. Hgb not denatured by alkaline solution: HbF
43. Variety of Acute leukemia predominant blasts
cannot classify using morphologic, cytochemical,
ultrastructural and immunologic or DNA analysis:
Acute undifferentiated Leukemia
44. Normal value of reticulated platelet count: 3-
20%
45. Term used if RBC is hypochromic and
normochromic: Anisochromia
46. This are the Pro-Tcell markers except? CD3,
CD 7, CD2, CD17
47. Which of the ff refers to total red cell mass:
absolute polycythemia vera
48. Normal Retic count at birth? 3-7%
49. Not required for RBC production: Folic Acid,
Iron, Protein or Vitamin E
50. Rare autosomal dominant shows pale blue
inclusion resembling Dohle bodies: May Hegglin
Anomaly
51. Autosomal dominant that failure normal
segmentation of neutrophils: Pelger Huet
Anomaly
52. AML w/ minimal differentiation: M0
53. A molecule of Hgb is consist of ___
polypeptide chain: 2
54. A mixture of oxidized denatured Hgb during
oxidative hemolysis: SulfHgb
55. Principle involved in automated counting:
Electric Impedance
56. Measures fibrin clot from activation of F7 to
fibrin stabilizing clot: PT
57. Lymphoreticular neoplasm involved in skin:
mycosis fungoides
58. Global test adequacy of primary hemostasis:
template BT
59. Activator that initiates the fibrinolysis and
convert plasminogen to plasmin: t-PA
60. Primary test in diagnosis of hairy cell
leukemia: ACP
61. Decrease function of F2, 7, 10 (Protein C,
Protein S): warfarin
62. Prolonged pt and normal ptt seen in patients
with deficiencies in which factor in intrinsic factor:
F8,9, 11, 12
63. Prolonged pt and normal ptt seen in patients
with deficiencies in which factor in extrinsic
factor: F7
64. Cofactor of required in activation of F2 by
activated F8: F5
65. Diluting fluid in platelet count in phase
contrast: 1%NH4Oxalate
66. In phase contrast microscope, how many
squares in platelets in improved neubauer: 25
small squares
67. Light angle scatter in laser-based cell
counting chamber is used to measure:
cytoplasmic granularity
68. Patients with infectious mononucleosis, this
blood cell is infected: B-lymphocyte
69. Inhibits factor 2,9,7,11,10, enhances the
activity of anti-thrombin as natural anticoagulant:
Heparin
70. Which of the ff not function of spleen as
hematopoietic origin: secretion of mitogen
71. Immature non-nucleated RBC with RNA
granules: Reticulocytes
72. Not associated with sickle cell: promotes
spleen destruction
73. Tissue extract with phospholipid and tissue
factor that activates F7 in extrinsic pathway:
thromboplastin
74. Use to connote the appearance of neoplastic
cell w/ non-hodgkins lymphoma:
lymphosarcoma cell leukemia
75. This altered of immune response against host
own immune system that produce Antibody
against itself: AutoImmune Hemolytic Anemia
76. Useful in identifying w/ Beta-Thalassemia trait
that elevated upto 7%: HbA2
77. Chronic progressive panmyelosis
characterized by triad findings vary in fibrosis in
the marrow, splenomegaly and
leukoerythroblastic anemia: Myelofibrosis w/
myeloid metaplasia
78. Sensitive test in folate or cobalamine
deficiency. Measures ability of marrow cells in
vitro to utilize deoxyuridine in DNA synthesis:
deoxyuridine suppression test
79. Life span of basophil in bone marrow: 7 days
80. Hematopoiesis begins at the 6 week of fetal
th
life: Liver
81. Majority of iron bound to _____ which has
capacity to bind 331 mg of iron/dl: Transferrin
82. Abnormal RBC due to abnormal radium
potassium ratio in the RBC: Stomatocytes
83. F8 deficiency: Hemophilia A
84. Average concentration HgB in a given RBC:
MCHC
85. Not considered myeloproliferative disorder:
AML
86. Cytokines produced by macrophages and
kupffer cell: IL-18
87. HgB constituent that may degraded and
return to amino acid pool: Globin
88. Last stage of granulocytic that capable of
mitosis: Myelocyte
89. Production of azurophilic granules:
Promyelocyte
90. Water soluble complex of ferric salt and
protein: Ferritin
91. Platelet survival: 8-11 days(in vivo) 3-5
days(in vitro)
92. Provides initial hemostasis due to injury:
platelet plug
93. Condition of panmyelosis with increase
megakaryocytes, granulocytes, erythrocytes:
Polycythemia vera
94. General measure in intrinsic and common
pathway: PTT
95. General measure in extrinsic and common
pathway: PT
96. An 18- Kda produce by activated T-cell and
mast cell: IL-4
MICROBIOLOGY
1. Cell wall that has large amount lipids:
Mycobacterium
2. Characteristic of lactose (-) citrate (-) urease
(-), non motile, lysine decarboxylase (-):
Shigella dysenteriae
3. Primary test to differentiate S. aureus and S.
epidermidis: Coagulase Test
4. Helicobacter pylori is associated with: ulcer
of gastric mucosa
5. Campylobacter is associated with:
gastroenteritis
6. Pulmonary form of anthrax is known as:
Woolsorter’s Disease
7. Eaton’s Agent is another name of what genus:
Mycoplasma pneumonia
8. Organism loss of ability to synthesize
peptidoglycan cell wall: L-form
9. Freis Test is for: Lymphogranuloma
venereum
10. Method of typing Klebsiella is use in
clinical lab: K antigen
11. Susceptible in ethylhydrocupreine HCl
is test for: Streptococcus pneumoniae
12. Species that is soluble to Na-
Desoxycholate: Streptococcus pneumonia
13. Positive to gelatin reaction: Serratia
liquefaciens
14. Positive to malonate reaction:
Enterobacter aerogenes
15. Species that have buff(light brown)
colony: Flavobacterium meningosepticum
16. Strains of Mycoplasma that produce
small colonies required urea and cholesterol for
growth: T-strain
17. Selective medium in recovery of Vibrio
cholera from stool: TCBS and alkaline
peptone water
18. Voges-Proskauer test detects which end
product of glucose fermentation: acetoin
19. pH where methyl red test is +: pH 4.5
20. Genera that is positive to Phenylalanine
Deaminase: Morganella, Proteus, Providencia
21. Media used to isolate Brucella for blood
and bone marrow as specimen: Biphasic-
Castaneda with Brucella broth
22. Agent for conjunctivitis or known as
pink eye: Hemophilus influenzae biotype III
23. Majority of H. influenza infection are
caused by capsular serotype: b
24. Which of the ff cause Lyme Disease:
Borrelia burgdorferi
25. Using Loeffler’s methylene blue, it
shows various letter shapes and metachromatic
granules, it is most likely: Corynebacterium sp.
26. Which Clostridium sp. Can cause
pseudomembranous colitis: C. difficile
27. Antimicrobial susceptibility test for
anaerobes: Microtube broth dilution
28. Mycobacterium that can grown in
MacConkey Agar: M. chelonae-fortuitum
complex
29. Bacitracin test is susceptible which
group of streptococcus: Group A
30. Mycobacterial catalase test differs from
catalase test from S. aureus as it uses the
reagent: 30% H2O2
31. Which of the ff is best rapid non cultural
test for G. vaginalis with vaginosis: 10% KOH
32. Sulfone-Dapsone Test used to treat:
Leprosy
33. Concentration of Ca and Mg in
susceptibility medium is significant when testing
the susceptibility of P. aeruginosa to: 50. Fungi where mycelium lacks septaceous
Gentamicin portion is: Coccidiodes, Trichophyton, Phizopus,
Candida sp.
34. Which antibiotic has cell wall inhibition:
Vancomycin 51. Fungi of dermataceous can be obtain
from skin by what method: scrap tissue from
35. Which antibiotic act inhibit protein the infected area
synthesis: Gentamicin
52. Germ tube test +: Candida albicans
36. Heat shocking of an original culture
may be needed for the recovery of : Anaerobic 53. Fungi grows into 2 different forms:
sporeforming G(+) bacilli Dimorphic fungi

37. Corynebacterium diphtheriae is: either 54. All genera are dermatophytes except:
toxigenic or non-toxigenic Sporothrix

38. Listeria monocytogenes is: catalase 55. Presence of encapsulated fungi in CSF:
+, motile, VP +, don’t produce acid from Cryptococcus neoformans
mannitol
56. Common is Gardeners or Rose Fever:
39. Confirmation of diagnosis of diphtheria, Sporothrix
it is essential to: demonstrate toxin
production 57. Tissue phase of Paracoccidiodes
braziliense is: yeast cell with multipolar
40. Pasteurization is process of in which: budding around the periphery
total bacterial count is lowered by heating
at 62 degree Celsius for 30 mins. 58. Chickenpox: Varicella Zoster virus

41. Paper strip for H2S producer is 59. Human herpes Type6: Roseola
impregnated with: Lead acetate
60. When should pregnant women concern
42. Flagellar staining technique: Leifson in Rubella infection: 1st trimester

43. Porphyrin test is for identification of: 61. Steps involved in replication of virus
Haemophilus sp. except: Mitosis

44. Selective Enrichment broth: Selenite 62. Kopliks spot: Measles

broth
63. Quellung Reaction: Capsule
45. Positive result of Arylsulfatase: Red
64. In bacterial growth, growth ceases,
46. Infectious jaundice is one symptoms of while toxic products accumulated in: stationary
Weil Disease : leptospirosis phase

47. Infectious body of Chlamydia: 65. Which of the ff Quality control for dry
Elementary body heat oven: B. subtilis v. niger

48. Which of the ff grow in artificial 66. Iodophores compose of iodine and:
medium: Rickettsia typhi, Chlamydia detergents
trachomata, R. rickettsii, Rochalimaea Quintana
67. Ordinary NH4disinfectants are easily
49. Chlamydospore structures seen in: inactivated by: organic material
Coccidiodes, Mucor, Microspores, Candida
albicans 68. Which of the ff is not G(-):
Peptococcus, Salmonella, Branhamella,
Aeromonas
69. Which of the ff is not anaerobe:
Veilonella, Fusobacterium, actinomyces,
Campylobacter
70. Most abundant normal flora in throat
cultures: Alpha hemolytic Streptococcus
Parainfluenza, human papilloma virus, respiratory
syncitial virus
84. Among this bacteria, which is least
biochemically reactive of Enterobacteriacea:
Shigella

71. Most common pathogen in throat
cultures: Group A streptococcus
72. Staphylococcal protein A coated with
Antiserum is used which of ff sero test in CSF:
Coagglutination
73. Using sheep blood agar, it eliminates
beta hemolytic: Hemophilus
85. ff specimen accepted for anaerobic:
gastric washings, midstream urine, stool,
aspiration biopsy
86. each of the ff antibiotic is use to isolate
pathologic fungi from contaminants: penicillin-
streptomycin, vancomycin-nystatin,
cycloheximide-chloramphenicol, nystatin-
streptomycin

74. UTI in old women: Staph. 87. quality control in monitor reagent in
Saprophyticus antibiotic disk is: container first open, once a
week, once a month
75. Differentiate of Thayer martin medium
and Modified Thayer: Nystatin 88. gram (–) anaerococcus seen as red
fluorescence under UV light: veilonella, neisseria,
76. Propionibacteria is: Aerobes gram + fusobacterium, peptococcus
rods
89. tubular cells of human kidney shed this
77. Viruses contain: either DNA or RNA virus: EBV, CMV, adenovirus, rubella

78. German measles: Rubeola 90. intracellular inclusion of epithelial cells

of urine of infants w/ symptoms jaundice,
79. The ff specimen is acceptable for neurologic defects, low birth rate: EBV infection,
microbiology culture: with swab and specimen CMV infection, Variola virus, Rubella virus
with catheter
91. HBV and HIV are similar in: nucleic acid
80. Grape-like microconidia: composition, mode of transmission, cross-reacting
Trichophyton mentagrophytes ag, req’d of reverse transcriptase

81. Media for pigment development for T. 92. Scalp infection in children are from this
rubrum: Cornmeal agar epidemic ringworm: trichophyton, dermaphitus,
microsporum gypseum, microsporum aldonei
82. Transport medium for Neisseria
gonorrhea 93. Concentration methods for AFBS:
digestion of bleach, centrifugation, digestive of
83. Most important cause of respiratory mucus alkali, AOTA
viral infection in children: Influenza,
94. + toxic subs for niacin test: Cyanogen
bromide