APSC111. Problems and solutions for the extra tutorial.

November 2010


Problem 1. A ball starts falling with zero initial velocity on a smooth inclined plane forming
an angle α = 35o with the horizontal. Having fallen the distance h = 0.7m, the ball rebounds
elastically off the inclined plane. At what distance from the impact point will the ball rebound

for the second time?

Solution. Our solution is comprised of two parts. In the first part we describe motion of

the ball before it hits the inclined plane. The second part contains description of motion of the
ball when it starts bouncing off the plane.

Part1. Before the ball hits the plane first time, it is released from height h with zero initial
velocity and therefore moves straight down. Our objective on this step is to find the velocity the
ball hits the sufcafe with. Since there is nothing said about time of flight, one needs to use the

following equation of motion of the ball:

vf 2 − vi 2 = 2gh (1)

Recalling that vi =0, Eq.(1) yields:

q
vf = 2gh (2)

Part 2. In this part we desctibe how the ball moves after the first collision with the plane. It
is more convenient to choose directions of coordinate axes as shown in Fig.1. The problem tells

us that the ball rebounds elastically. It implies that the initial velocity the ball starts moving
with right after the collision equals to its final velocity right before the one. Incidentally, the
angle between velocity vector before collision is equal to that after the collision. These are the

”properties” of elastic bouncing. We now write down equations of motion along each axis:
1
x(t) = x0 + vox t + ax t2 (3)
2

1
 Fig.1

1
y(t) = y0 + voy t + ay t2 (4)
2
Note that y-axis is not parallel and x-axis is not perpendicular to the direction of free fall
acceleration vector ~g . Therefore acceleration of the ball will have components along both axes.
We then see that after time t (time between two subsequent collisions) x(t) = AB, x0 = 0 and

y(t) = 0, y0 = 0. Also: vox = vo sinα, voy = vo cosα; ax = gsinα and ay = −gcosα. Thus, Eqs.
(3) and (4) can be rewritten in the following form:

1
AB = (vo sinα)t + (gsinα)t2 (5)
2
1
0 = (vo cosα)t + (−gcosα)t2 (6)
2
In order to find the distance AB, we first use Eq.(6) to express time and then plug it back into
Eq.(5).
1
0 = (vo cosα) + (−gcosα)t (7)
2
1
0 = vo − gt (8)
2
2v0
t= (9)
g

2
We now plug the expression for time into Eq.(5):
!2
2v0 1 2v0
AB = (vo sinα) + (gsinα) (10)
g 2 g

Simplifying the last equation one obtains the result:

4(v0 )2 sinα
AB = (11)
g

At this point we recall that the velocity v0 is actually vf that we found in Eq.(2) due to the
properties of elactic bouncing. Then

4 · 2ghsinα
AB = (12)
g

Finally
AB = 8hsinα (13)

This is our final result.

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Problem 2. In the arrangement shown in Fig.2 the mass of body 1 is n=4 times as great as
that of body 2. The height h = 20cm. The masses of the pulleys and the threads, as well as
friction, are negligible. At a certain moment body 2 is released and the arrangement is set into

motion. What is the maximum height body 2 goes up to?

Solution. We begin with drawing Free-Body Diagrams and writing the 2nd Newton’s Laws

for both blocks.

For block 1 (accelerates down):
T1 − m1 g = −m1 a1 (14)

For block 2 (accelerates up):

T2 − m2 g = m2 a2 (15)

Now let’s explore the relation between tensions and accelerations of both blocks. It is seen
from Fig.2 that two rope lengths ”support” block 1 that is connected by another rope to pulley.
Therefore:

T1 = 2T2 (16)

So it turns out that tension T2 is two times less than T1 . According to the ”golden rule of
mechanics” advantage in force (in our case smaller tension) gives rise to disadvantage in distance.
It implies that

T1 · h = T2 · h? , (17)

where h? is the distance that block 2 will have traveled through by the time block 1 touches the
floor. It turns out that
2T2 · h = T2 · h? (18)

then

h? = 2h (19)

Having found the relationship between tensions we must also find the relationship between ac-

celerations a1 and a2 .

4
 Fig.2

It is clear that time during which blocks 1 and 2 travel through distances of h and 2h respectively

is the same. Therefore for the block 2 to cover 2h it has to move with velocity that is two times
greater that that of the block 1. We may write:
vf 1 − vi1
a1 = (20)
∆t
vf 2 − vi2
a2 = (21)
∆t
As both blocks start motion from rest vi1 = 0 and vi2 = 0. Thus,
vf 1
a1 = (22)
∆t
vf 2
a2 = (23)
∆t
As we already know vf 2 = 2vf 1 then it is easy to show that

a2 = 2a1 (24)

NOTE: I have done this proof for your information only. On the exam you may just
state this result. Let’s now use Eqs. (14) and (15). Since we’re interested in motion of the

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block 2, we replace m1 with 4m2 , T1 with 2T2 and a1 with 2 /2.
a2
2T2 − 4m2 g = −4m2 · (25)
2
T2 − m2 g = m2 a2 (26)

Simplifying yields:

T2 − 2m2 g = −m2 a2 (27)

T2 − m2 g = m2 a2 (28)

Subtraction of Eq.(28) from (27) eliminates T2

−m2 g + 2m2 g = m2 a2 + m2 a2 (29)

Dividing both sides by m2 gives the final expression for a2 :

g
a2 = (30)
2
We know that block 2 travels through the distance 2h. But the question arises: is 2h the
maximum height that the block 2 reaches? To find it out, let’s find final velocity of the block 2
when it reaches the height of 2h.

(vf 2 )2 − (vi2 )2 = 2a2 · (2h) (31)

As it was mentioned before vi2 = 0. Then

q
vf 2 = 2a2 · (2h) (32)

or
q
vf 2 = 2gh (33)

Therefore velocity of the block 2 when it has reached the height of 2h is NOT zero. This implies
that it still has velocity (and therefore, momentum) in the upward direction. But as the block 2

moves further up, all ropes becomes slack which means tensions and accelerations are now zero.
So what happens after the block 2 has traveled through 2h? It keeps moving up and covers extra
distance of h0 until its final velocity is zero. We can therefore write:

0 − (vi? )2 = −2gh0 , (34)

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 √
where vi? is initial velocity at height 2h. Sure enough, vi? = vf 2 = 2gh
Finally from Eq.(34) one finds
−2gh = −2gh0 , (35)

thus

h = h0 (36)

So having traveled the distance of 2h the ball moves up even further and covers h. Therefore

maximum height is
H = 2h + h = 3h (37)

This is the final answer.

7
 Fig.3

Problem 3. Two bars of masses m1 and m2 connected by a non-deformed light spring rest on a
horizontal plane as shown in Fig.3. The coefficient of friction between the bars and the surface

is equal to µ. What minimum constant force F has to be applied in the horizontal direction to
the bar of mass m1 in order to shift the other bar?

Solution. From FBD for the bar 1 one may write (taking positive x-direction to the right):

F − µm1 g − kx = 0 (38)

For the bar 2:

−µm2 g + kx = 0 (39)

From Eq.(39) we see that despite the bar 2 is NOT moving, spring force on m2 is equal to the
limiting friction between the bar m2 and the horizontal floor. Therefore forces that do work are:

F , µm1 g and kx acting on the bar 1. Net work is made up of works by the aforementioned forces:
1
WN ET = F x − kx2 − µm1 gx = 0 (40)
2
The net work is zero since the bar 2 is not moving and hence difference in its kinetic energy is
zero.

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From Eq.(40) one may find:
1
F = kx + µm1 g, (41)
2
where the value of k is found from Eq.(39):

µm2 g
k= (42)
x

Finally:
m2
 
F = µg m1 + (43)
2
This is the final answer.


If you have any questions about these problems and/or solutions, feel free
to contact me via e-mail: kanoshkin@physics.queensu.ca