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Name: ______________________ Class: _________________ Date: _________ ID: A

Chapter 3 study test

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. The cells of the nervous system that do the work of receiving, integrating, and transmitting
information are the
a. neurilemma
b. glia
c. neuroblasts
d. neurons
____ 2. Which of the following is NOT one of the main functions of neurons?
a. receiving information
b. generating information
c. transmitting information
d. integrating information
____ 3. The basic links that permit communication within the nervous system are the
a. glia
b. bones
c. muscles
d. neurons
____ 4. The basic parts of a neuron are
a. vesicles, terminal buttons, synapses
b. cell body, axon, dendrites
c. myelin, nodes, axon terminals
d. hindbrain, midbrain, forebrain
____ 5. Branches are to trees as ____ are to neurons.
a. axons
b. cell bodies
c. dendrites
d. nuclei
____ 6. The insulating material that encases some axons is referred to as the
a. soma
b. corpus callosum
c. myelin sheath
d. dendritic tree
____ 7. The cells that provide structural support and insulation for neurons are called
a. glia
b. somata
c. neuromodulators
d. dendrites
____ 8. Glia cells
a. release neuromodulators
b. provide structural support for neurons
c. release neurotransmitters
d. form the primary components of the spinal cord

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____ 9. The difference in the flow rates of sodium and potassium ions across the cell membrane leads to
a. a slightly higher concentration of negatively charged ions inside the cell.
b. a negatively charged action potential.
c. a slightly lower concentration of negatively charged ions inside the cell.
d. both a negatively charged action potential and a slightly lower concentration of
negatively charged ions inside the cell.
____ 10. The tiny electrical charge that exists when a neuron is not receiving and/or sending information is
called
a. an action potential.
b. a synaptic gap.
c. a resting potential.
d. a post synaptic potential.
____ 11. The electrical charge that exists between the inside and the outside of a neuron when the neuron is
neither receiving nor sending is approximately
a. -1000 millivolts
b. +60 to +70 millivolts
c. -60 to -70 millivolts
d. +1000 millivolts
____ 12. Bradley is deeply relaxed and his muscles are not moving at all. This suggests that, for Bradley's
motor neurons
a. sodium ions are concentrated inside the neurons and potassium ions are
concentrated outside the neurons
b. sodium ions and potassium ions are both concentrated inside the neurons
c. sodium ions and potassium ions are both concentrated outside the neurons
d. sodium ions are concentrated outside the neurons and potassium ions are
concentrated inside the neurons
____ 13. When sodium channels open, allowing sodium ions to flow into a neuron, it causes
a. the likelihood of an action potential to decrease.
b. the axon hillock to become inactivated.
c. the likelihood of an action potential to increase.
d. the neuron to return to its resting potential.
____ 14. The firing of a neuron is most similar to:
a. a bowl overflowing as more water slowly drips into it.
b. the increase in sunlight as the sun rises.
c. a plane taking off or landing.
d. light coming on as a light switch is flipped.
____ 15. The electrical charge inside a neuron when it is in its resting state is approximately
a. +600 volts
b. +60 millivolts
c. -700 volts
d. -70 millivolts
____ 16. Neurotransmitters are secreted from the
a. myelin sheath
b. terminal buttons
c. neuromodulators
d. dendrites

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Name: ______________________ ID: A

____ 17. The space between a terminal button and a dendrite is referred to as the
a. midsynaptic potential range
b. transmission gap
c. neuromodulator
d. synaptic cleft
____ 18. An impulse moves from one neuron to another through the action of
a. neurotransmitters
b. hormones
c. action potentials
d. neuromodulators
____ 19. Which statement most accurately describes the process of synaptic transmission?
a. As depolarization progresses the firing threshold is reached and an action potential
occurs.
b. Synaptic vesicles secrete neurotransmitters which diffuse over to the receptor sites
on the dendrites of another neuron.
c. After firing potassium ions rush out of the neural membrane in a process called
repolarization.
d. The action potential jumps from one node to the next until it reaches the terminal
buttons.
____ 20. An electric potential that increases the likelihood that the postsynaptic neuron will fire is called an
a. all-or-none potential.
b. inhibitory postsynaptic potential.
c. excitatory postsynaptic potential.
d. excitatory presynaptic potential.
____ 21. If IPSP's did not exist
a. it would be "easier" for a neuron to fire its action potential.
b. it would be "harder" for a neuron to fire its action potential.
c. since the action potential happens according to the all-or-none principle there would
be no effect on the ease at which the neuron fired its action potential.
d. action potentials would not occur.
____ 22. Reabsorption of neurotransmitters into the presynaptic neuron is referred to as
a. cyclomyosis
b. regrading
c. uploading
d. reuptake
____ 23. Which of the following neurotransmitters is primarily involved in the activation of motor neurons
controlling skeletal muscles?
a. GABA
b. dopamine
c. serotonin
d. acetylcholine
____ 24. Jeremy is sitting quietly when the muscles in his left leg begin to "twitch." This activation of
movement in his voluntary muscles is most likely due to the release of the neurotransmitter
a. serotonin
b. dopamine
c. acetylcholine
d. norepinephrine

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Name: ______________________ ID: A

____ 25. Nicotine functions as an agonist when it


a. stimulates some of the acetylcholine synapses
b. inhibits some of the acetylcholine synapses
c. occupies the acetylcholine receptor sites, thus blocking the action of the
neurotransmitter
d. prevents the release of acetylcholine into the synapse, thus blocking the action of the
neurotransmitter
____ 26. When nicotine acts on the brain it acts like acetylcholine and binds to ACh receptor sites causing
postsynaptic potentials. Nicotine is
a. an antagonist.
b. an agonist.
c. a monoamine.
d. a reuptake agent.
____ 27. An agonist
a. blocks the action of neurotransmitters
b. prevents reuptake of neurotransmitters
c. mimics the action of a neurotransmitter
d. extends the absolute refractory period of neural transmission
____ 28. Caitlin has taken a drug that has reduced the levels of GABA in her nervous system. One of the side
effects that Caitlin is likely to experience will be
a. depression
b. motor tics and other involuntary motor movements
c. hallucinations
d. increased levels of anxiety
____ 29. Dr. Athorp has just discovered a new drug named P3X that is an agonist for GABA. It is likely that
this new drug will produce side effects such as
a. general stimulation within the body and an increase in heart rate
b. anxiety reduction and general relaxation
c. a reduction in pain and a sense of euphoria
d. hallucinations and disrupted sleep patterns
____ 30. Two neurotransmitters that are notable in that they seem to produce only inhibitory post synaptic
potentials are
a. GABA and dopamine
b. monoamines and endorphins
c. acetylcholine and norepinephrine
d. glycine and GABA
____ 31. Opiate drugs bind onto the same receptor sites as the body's own endorphins. Therefore, opiate drugs
tend to
a. reduce anxiety
b. produce sleepiness
c. increase anxiety and agitation
d. relieve pain
____ 32. The two most basic divisions of the nervous system are the
a. sympathetic division and the parasympathetic division
b. central nervous system and the peripheral nervous system
c. somatic nervous system and the autonomic nervous system
d. brain and the spinal cord

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Name: ______________________ ID: A

____ 33. If you hit your thumb with a hammer, which nervous system sends the message to your brain?
a. the somatic nervous system
b. the central nervous system
c. the autonomic nervous system
d. the corpus callosum
____ 34. Nerves outside the skull and spine comprise the
a. peripheral nervous system
b. vascular nervous system
c. vagus nervous system
d. skeletal nervous system
____ 35. The somatic nervous system and the autonomic nervous system comprise the
a. central nervous system
b. peripheral nervous system
c. skeletal nervous system
d. afferent nervous system
____ 36. Sensory information is carried from your eyes to your brain by way of
a. afferent fibers
b. autonomic fibers
c. efferent fibers
d. motor fibers
____ 37. ____ nerves receive information, while ____ nerves carry out instructions.
a. Afferent; efferent
b. Motor; sensory
c. Somatic; autonomic
d. Autonomic; skeletal
____ 38. When you are walking, the brain sends messages to the skeletal muscles in the legs by way of
a. efferent fibers
b. sensory fibers
c. afferent fibers
d. central fibers
____ 39. The movement of voluntary skeletal muscles involved in doing calisthenics is under the control of the
a. somatic nervous system
b. parasympathetic nervous system
c. sympathetic nervous system
d. autonomic nervous system
____ 40. The central nervous system consists of
a. the body's sensory and motor neurons
b. the brain and the spinal cord
c. the somatic and autonomic nervous systems
d. the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems
____ 41. The enclosing sheaths that protect the brain and spinal cord are referred to as
a. meninges
b. glia
c. ventricles
d. cerebrospinal sheaths

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Name: ______________________ ID: A

____ 42. If brain damage is suspected, a patient may be tested with which of the following methods?
a. the electrocardiograph
b. lesioning
c. the electroencephalograph
d. electrode implantation
____ 43. A neurologist believes that Hillary may have epilepsy. To confirm this diagnosis the neurologist
needs to record the overall electrical activity in Hillary's brain. The best way for the neurologist to
obtain this information would be to use
a. a positron emission tomography (PET) scan
b. electrical stimulation of the brain (ESB)
c. an electroencephalograph (EEG)
d. a computerized tomography (CT) scan
____ 44. Paul is wide awake and studying for an upcoming exam. While he is studying his brain activity is
being recorded using an electroencephalograph (EEG). The EEG recording is most likely to be
dominated by
a. low voltage, low frequency brain waves
b. low voltage, high frequency brain waves
c. high voltage, high frequency brain waves
d. high voltage, low frequency brain waves
____ 45. Sigourney's doctors think she might have a tumor, and they would like to use a brain-imaging
technique that will provide them with an accurate image of her brain structure. The technique that they
are most likely to use would be
a. a positron emission tomography (PET) scan
b. a computerized tomography (CT) scan
c. electrical stimulation of the brain (ESB)
d. an electroencephalograph (EEG) recording
____ 46. The technique in which radioactively tagged chemicals are introduced into the brain and then
equipment monitors where the chemicals appear in the brain is
a. computerized tomography
b. positron emission tomography
c. magnetic resonance imaging
d. electrographic tomography
____ 47. The brain imaging technique that permits scientists to temporarily enhance or depress activity in a
specific area of the brain is known as
a. computerized tomography
b. positron emission tomography
c. magnetic resonance imaging
d. transcranial magnetic stimulation
____ 48. Which of the following structures is NOT part of the hindbrain?
a. cerebellum
b. thalamus
c. medulla
d. pons

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Name: ______________________ ID: A

____ 49. The brain structure that controls unconscious but essential functions such as breathing and circulation
is the
a. pons
b. medulla
c. cerebellum
d. corpus callosum
____ 50. Ian has been in a coma since he was in a serious dive accident. He is still on medical life support
because he is unable to breathe and his heart will not beat without assistance. It is likely that the
accident caused damage to Ian's
a. medulla
b. hypothalamus
c. cerebellum
d. midbrain
____ 51. The portion of the human brain that mediates simple reflexes, such as sneezing, coughing, and
salivating is the
a. hindbrain
b. midbrain
c. cerebellum
d. thalamus
____ 52. Which of the following brain structures, when damaged, would lead your heartbeat and respiration to
stop instantly?
a. cerebellum
b. medulla
c. cerebrum
d. pons
____ 53. The brain structure responsible for the coordination of motor movements and sense of equilibrium is
the
a. hypothalamus
b. cerebrum
c. pons
d. cerebellum
____ 54. Which brain structure appears to play an active role in integrating sensory information?
a. hypothalamus
b. limbic system
c. thalamus
d. cerebrum
____ 55. Elizabeth just caught sight of a red hummingbird. The neural impulses from her eye will eventually
travel to her occipital lobe, but first they must pass through
a. the hypothalamus
b. the thalamus
c. the reticular formation
d. the amygdala

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Name: ______________________ ID: A

____ 56. Bonnie has a disease that disrupts the functioning of her hypothalamus. With which of the following
areas of functioning is she likely to have serious difficulty with?
a. reading, writing, and tasting
b. thinking, problem solving, and hearing
c. eating, drinking, and body temperature control
d. sexual motivation, tasting, and controlling fine motor movements
____ 57. The brain structure that appears to play a vital role in the regulation of temperature regulation, hunger,
thirst, and sexual motivation is the
a. hypothalamus
b. limbic system
c. thalamus
d. cerebrum
____ 58. Amy has lost her senses of sight, hearing and touch. Her symptoms are found to be caused by
pressure applied to the brain by a tumor. Where is the tumor likely to be found?
a. cerebrum
b. amygdala
c. thalamus
d. medial forebrain bundle
____ 59. Which of the following brain structures is most closely associated with the regulation of emotion?
a. cerebellum
b. reticular formation
c. brainstem
d. limbic system
____ 60. A patient's fear outbursts are found to be caused by pressure applied to the brain by a tumor. Where
is the tumor likely to be found?
a. reticular formation
b. cerebrum
c. amygdala
d. medial forebrain bundle
____ 61. The rewarding effects of electrical stimulation of the brain seem to be mediated by
a. excitation of the reticular formation
b. activation of dopamine-releasing neurons
c. activation of endorphins
d. stimulation of the hypothalamus
____ 62. Aretha had severe epilepsy, and surgeons removed portions of her hippocampus to control the
severity of her seizures. It is quite likely that Aretha will find that the surgery has also affected her
ability to
a. form new memories
b. control her urges to eat and drink
c. interpret sensory information accurately
d. express emotions appropriately

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Name: ______________________ ID: A

____ 63. Imagine that you have stumbled across a secret laboratory where an evil scientist is conducting
unauthorized brain research. By altering brain structures he has created superheroes that have
specialized powers or abilities. One of these superheroes has a fantastic memory and is able to
remember new information almost instantly. In this case, one of the brain structure that the scientist
most likely altered would be
a. the amygdala
b. the pons
c. the hippocampus
d. the reticular formation
____ 64. The largest and most complex part of the human brain is the
a. medulla
b. cerebrum
c. cerebellum
d. limbic system
____ 65. The brain structure which is responsible for the human ability to engage in higher mental activity such
as thinking and philosophizing is the
a. corpus callosum
b. cerebrum
c. cerebellum
d. hypothalamus
____ 66. The structure that connects the two cerebral hemispheres is the
a. corpus callosum
b. pineal gland
c. thalamus
d. parietal lobe
____ 67. Vivian has been experiencing unexplained flashes of light and color, even when her eyes are closed.
She recently saw a neurologist who located a small brain tumor. In this case, it is likely that the tumor
is located in Vivian's
a. temporal lobes
b. right frontal lobe
c. occipital lobes
d. left parietal lobe
____ 68. When Jeffrey slipped on the stairs and hit his head he saw "stars" for several minutes. The "stars"
were most likely a result of activity in Jeffrey's
a. temporal lobes
b. prefrontal cortex
c. occipital lobes
d. primary somatosensory cortex
____ 69. The lobe of the brain with primary responsibility for processing bodily sensations is the
a. parietal lobe
b. occipital lobe
c. frontal lobe
d. thalamic lobe

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Name: ______________________ ID: A

____ 70. The occipital lobe of the brain consists primarily of the
a. motor cortex
b. primary somatosensory cortex
c. auditory cortex
d. visual cortex
____ 71. In which of the lobes of the cerebrum is the somatosensory cortex located?
a. frontal
b. parietal
c. temporal
d. occipital
____ 72. When this lobe of the brain is electrically stimulated people report physical sensations, as if they had
been touched, for example, on the arm.
a. frontal
b. parietal
c. temporal
d. occipital
____ 73. Which of the following is NOT one of the key research findings related to the plasticity of the brain?
a. Emphasizing intuitive thought processes will increase neural connections in the right
hemisphere.
b. Various aspects of experience can sculpt features of brain structure.
c. Damage to incoming sensory pathways can lead to neural reorganization.
d. Adult brains can generate new neurons.
____ 74. If you experience damage to Broca's area, you can expect to have difficulty
a. being creative
b. controlling your arms and legs
c. speaking
d. hearing
____ 75. The area of the frontal lobe that plays an important role in the production of speech is called
a. Wernicke's area
b. Broca's area
c. Cannon's area
d. Sperry's area
____ 76. Zeke has no problem understanding what other people say to him, but he has difficulty producing
spoken language. If Zeke's problem stems from damage to the cerebral cortex, the damage would
most likely be in
a. an area known as Wernicke's area
b. an area known as Broca's area
c. the cerebellum
d. the right parietal lobe
____ 77. If you have difficulty understanding the meaning of someone's speech, you may suspect damage to
a. the pituitary gland
b. Wernicke's area
c. the corpus callosum
d. Korsakoff's area

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Name: ______________________ ID: A

____ 78. Monique is not able to understand spoken language. If Monique's problem stems from damage to the
cerebral cortex, the damage would most likely be in
a. an area known as Broca's area
b. the cerebellum
c. an area known as Wernicke's area
d. the right parietal lobe
____ 79. Chase is using a single earphone to listen in on a conversation. Based on the research which
investigated hemispheric specialization in intact brains, you might suggest that he will recognize the
words he hears most quickly if he
a. puts the earphone in his left ear
b. closes his eyes while he listens to the conversation
c. keeps switching the earphone from ear to ear
d. puts the earphone in his right ear
____ 80. In both split-brain people and neurologically intact people, the left hemisphere specializes in
a. verbal processing
b. visual recognition
c. spatial perception
d. verbal processing and spatial perception
____ 81. The system of glands that secrete hormones directly into the bloodstream is known as the
a. atopic system
b. exocrine system
c. endocrine system
d. blood-brain system
____ 82. A hormone is
a. a chemical secreted into the blood by a gland
b. a brain structure below the hypothalamus
c. a location in the brain where a specific memory is stored
d. a neurotransmitter that crosses into the bloodstream
____ 83. People who have hormonal imbalances have problems with their
a. endocrine system
b. reticular formation
c. limbic system
d. left brain/right brain communication
____ 84. Hormones are transported throughout the body via the
a. nervous system
b. limbic system
c. bloodstream
d. lymph nodes
____ 85. The gland located below the hypothalamus that produces a number of hormones, many of which
trigger other endocrine glands to release hormones, is the
a. gonads
b. adrenal gland
c. pituitary gland
d. thyroid gland

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Name: ______________________ ID: A

____ 86. The interdisciplinary field that studies the influence of genetic factors and behavioral traits is called
a. ethology
b. cross-cultural anthropology
c. physiological psychology
d. behavioral genetics
____ 87. The carriers of genetic information in the form of DNA are the
a. chromosomes
b. ribosomes
c. nucleotides
d. rizomes
____ 88. Assume that developing a sixth toe is a recessive trait that is controlled by a single pair of genes. If a
child has six toes, but both the child's biological parents have normal feet, you can conclude that
a. one parent is heterozygous for the trait, and the other parent is homozygous
b. both parents are heterozygous for the trait in question
c. the child has been adopted
d. both parents are homozygous for the trait in question
____ 89. The specific pattern of genes inherited at conception defines an individual's
a. phenotype
b. polygenic inheritance
c. stereotype
d. genotype
____ 90. Family studies, twin studies, and adoption studies are primarily designed to
a. disentangle the effects of genetics and experience on behavioral traits
b. establish the groundwork for genetic engineering programs
c. demonstrate the empirical nature of psychological research
d. assess the effects of modern child-rearing methods
____ 91. We would expect the greatest degree of phenotypic similarity among
a. fraternal twins
b. identical twins
c. siblings
d. parents and their children
____ 92. Stephanie and her four sisters are all artistically inclined and enjoy working on creative projects.
When she meets her three cousins for the first time, Stephanie is somewhat surprised to find that
none of them have any interest at all in art. The differences between Stephanie's sisters and her
cousins could be used as evidence to suggest that
a. environmental factors have more influence than genetic factors in artistic interest
b. both genetic and environmental factors contribute equally to artistic interest
c. neither genetic nor environmental factors contribute to artistic interest
d. genetic factors have more influence than environmental factors in artistic interest
____ 93. Londra and Sondra are identical twins who have been raised together in the same home. Londra has
developed a psychological disorder, but Sondra does not appear to have the same disorder. This
information could be used as evidence to suggest that
a. genetic factors have more influence than environmental factors in this disorder
b. environmental factors have more influence than genetic factors in this disorder
c. both genetic and environmental factors contribute equally to this disorder
d. neither genetic nor environmental factors contribute to this disorder

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Name: ______________________ ID: A

____ 94. Which of the following statements most accurately reflects the roles of heredity and environment in
shaping our behavior?
a. Genetic factors have little influence on behavior.
b. Researchers have identified genes for specific behaviors such as sarcasm.
c. Hereditary endowment plays an indirect role in molding our behavior.
d. Genes exert their influence on behavior with little impact from environmental
factors.
____ 95. Which of the following statements about Charles Darwin and the theory of evolution is NOT
accurate?
a. He was the first person to describe the process of evolution.
b. He identified natural selection as the mechanism that orchestrates the process of
evolution.
c. He noted that some of the characteristics of organisms are passed down from one
generation to the next.
d. He suggested that variations in hereditary traits might affect organisms' ability to
obtain resources.
____ 96. An inherited characteristic that, through natural selection, increases in a population because it helps to
solve a survival problem at the time it emerges, is called
a. an adaptation
b. a genetic mutation
c. a dominant gene
d. a homozygous pairing
____ 97. Studying the evolution of behavior is more difficult than studying the evolution of physical traits
mainly because
a. behaviors tend to evolve more slowly.
b. natural selection generally does not operate on behaviors.
c. behaviors are more susceptible to genetic drift.
d. behaviors may occur infrequently and may not last very long.
____ 98. In this chapter, we saw that schizophrenia may be a function of abnormalities in neurotransmitter
activity, structural defects in the brain, and genetic vulnerability. These findings support which of the
following unifying themes of your textbook?
a. Psychology is empirical.
b. Psychology evolves in a sociohistorical context.
c. Behavior is determined by multiple causes.
d. Our behavior is shaped by our cultural heritage.
____ 99. Kim is good at reading maps and enjoys listening to music. Some researchers would suggest that
these characteristics indicate that Kim is probably
a. left-brained
b. right-brained
c. mid-brained
d. hemispheric
____ 100. The seminal research on critical periods in neural development was conducted in the 1960s on which
of the following subjects?
a. rats
b. adult monkeys
c. preschool children
d. newborn kittens

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ID: A

Chapter 3 study test


Answer Section

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Correct = 94%


REF: p. 73 OBJ: 3-1 KEY: Factual
2. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Correct = 82%
REF: p. 73 OBJ: 3-1 KEY: Concept/Applied
3. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 73 OBJ: 3-1
TOP: WWW KEY: Factual
4. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Correct = 90%
REF: p. 74 OBJ: 3-1 KEY: Factual
5. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Correct = 52%
REF: p. 74 OBJ: 3-1 KEY: Critical Thinking
6. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 74 OBJ: 3-2
TOP: WWW KEY: Factual
7. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Correct = 80%
REF: p. 74 OBJ: 3-2 KEY: Factual
8. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Correct = 88%
REF: p. 74 OBJ: 3-2 KEY: Factual
9. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 75 OBJ: 3-3
KEY: Critical Thinking MSC: ** (new or revised)
10. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 75 OBJ: 3-3
KEY: Factual MSC: ** (new or revised)
11. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 75 OBJ: 3-3
KEY: Factual
12. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 75 OBJ: 3-3
KEY: Concept/Applied
13. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 75 OBJ: 3-3
KEY: Factual
14. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 75 OBJ: 3-3
KEY: Critical Thinking MSC: ** (new or revised)
15. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 75 OBJ: 3-3
TOP: WWW KEY: Factual
16. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Correct = 60%
REF: p. 76 OBJ: 3-3 KEY: Factual
17. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Correct = 81%
REF: p. 76 OBJ: 3-4 KEY: Factual
18. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 76-77 OBJ: 3-4
TOP: WWW KEY: Factual
19. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 76-77 OBJ: 3-4
KEY: Critical Thinking MSC: ** (new or revised)
20. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 77 OBJ: 3-5
KEY: Factual

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ID: A

21. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 77 OBJ: 3-5


KEY: Critical Thinking MSC: ** (new or revised)
22. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 77 OBJ: 3-5
KEY: Factual
23. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Correct = 50%
REF: p. 79 OBJ: 3-6 KEY: Factual
24. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 79 OBJ: 3-6
KEY: Critical Thinking
25. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Correct = 60%
REF: p. 79 OBJ: 3-6 KEY: Concept/Applied
26. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 79 OBJ: 3-6
KEY: Critical Thinking MSC: ** (new or revised)
27. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Correct = 78%
REF: p. 79 OBJ: 3-6 KEY: Factual
28. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 80 OBJ: 3-7
KEY: Concept/Applied
29. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 80 OBJ: 3-7
KEY: Critical Thinking
30. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 80 OBJ: 3-7
KEY: Factual MSC: ** (new or revised)
31. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 80 OBJ: 3-7
KEY: Concept/Applied
32. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 81 OBJ: 3-8
KEY: Factual
33. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 81 OBJ: 3-8
KEY: Concept/Applied MSC: ** (new or revised)
34. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Correct = 76%
REF: p. 81 OBJ: 3-8 KEY: Factual
35. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 81 OBJ: 3-8
KEY: Factual
36. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 82 OBJ: 3-8
TOP: WWW KEY: Factual
37. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Correct = 50%
REF: p. 82 OBJ: 3-8 KEY: Factual
38. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Correct = 32%
REF: p. 82 OBJ: 3-8 KEY: Concept/Applied
39. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Correct = 63%
REF: p. 81 OBJ: 3-8 KEY: Concept/Applied
40. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 83-84 OBJ: 3-9
KEY: Factual
41. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 83 OBJ: 3-9
KEY: Factual
42. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Correct = 81%
REF: p. 84 OBJ: 3-10 KEY: Factual
43. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 84 OBJ: 3-10
KEY: Concept/Applied

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ID: A

44. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 84-85 OBJ: 3-10


KEY: Concept/Applied
45. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 86 OBJ: 3-11
KEY: Concept/Applied
46. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 86-87 OBJ: 3-11
KEY: Factual
47. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 86 OBJ: 3-11
KEY: Factual
48. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Correct = 77%
REF: p. 89 OBJ: 3-12 KEY: Factual
49. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Correct = 57%
REF: p. 89 OBJ: 3-12 KEY: Factual
50. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 89 OBJ: 3-12
KEY: Critical Thinking
51. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 89 OBJ: 3-12
TOP: WWW KEY: Factual
52. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 89 OBJ: 3-12
KEY: Factual MSC: ** (new or revised)
53. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 90 OBJ: 3-12
KEY: Factual MSC: ** (new or revised)
54. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Correct = 40%
REF: p. 90 OBJ: 3-13 KEY: Factual
55. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 90 OBJ: 3-13
KEY: Critical Thinking
56. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 90 OBJ: 3-13
KEY: Critical Thinking MSC: ** (new or revised)
57. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 90 OBJ: 3-13
KEY: Factual MSC: ** (new or revised)
58. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 90 OBJ: 3-14
KEY: Concept/Applied MSC: ** (new or revised)
59. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 92 OBJ: 3-14
KEY: Factual
60. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 92 OBJ: 3-14
KEY: Concept/Applied MSC: ** (new or revised)
61. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 92-93 OBJ: 3-14
TOP: WWW KEY: Factual
62. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 92 OBJ: 3-14
KEY: Concept/Applied
63. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 92 OBJ: 3-14
KEY: Critical Thinking
64. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Correct = 61%
REF: p. 93 OBJ: 3-15 KEY: Factual
65. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 93 OBJ: 3-15
KEY: Factual
66. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Correct = 91%
REF: p. 93 OBJ: 3-15 KEY: Factual

3
ID: A

67. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 93 OBJ: 3-15


KEY: Concept/Applied
68. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 93 OBJ: 3-15
KEY: Concept/Applied
69. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Correct = 67%
REF: p. 93 OBJ: 3-15 KEY: Factual
70. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 93 OBJ: 3-15
KEY: Factual MSC: ** (new or revised)
71. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 93 OBJ: 3-15
KEY: Factual MSC: ** (new or revised)
72. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Correct = 75%
REF: p. 93 OBJ: 3-15 KEY: Concept/Applied
73. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 95-96 OBJ: 3-16
KEY: Factual
74. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 96 OBJ: 3-17
KEY: Factual
75. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Correct = 78%
REF: p. 96 OBJ: 3-17 KEY: Factual
76. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 96 OBJ: 3-17
KEY: Concept/Applied
77. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Correct = 39%
REF: p. 96 OBJ: 3-17 KEY: Concept/Applied
78. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 96 OBJ: 3-17
KEY: Concept/Applied
79. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 97-98 OBJ: 3-18
KEY: Critical Thinking
80. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Correct = 72%
REF: p. 97-98 OBJ: 3-18 KEY: Factual
81. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 99 OBJ: 3-19
KEY: Factual
82. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Correct = 94%
REF: p. 99 OBJ: 3-19 KEY: Factual
83. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 99 OBJ: 3-19
KEY: Factual
84. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Correct = 46%
REF: p. 99 OBJ: 3-19 KEY: Factual
85. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Correct = 46%
REF: p. 100 OBJ: 3-19 KEY: Factual MSC: ** (new or revised)
86. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Correct = 79%
REF: p. 101 OBJ: 3-20 KEY: Factual
87. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Correct = 95%
REF: p. 101 OBJ: 3-20 KEY: Factual
88. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 101 OBJ: 3-21
KEY: Critical Thinking
89. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Correct = 75%
REF: p. 102 OBJ: 3-21 KEY: Factual

4
ID: A

90. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Correct = 94%


REF: p. 103 OBJ: 3-22 KEY: Factual
91. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Correct = 87%
REF: p. 102-103 OBJ: 3-22 KEY: Critical Thinking
92. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 103 OBJ: 3-22
KEY: Critical Thinking
93. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 104-105 OBJ: 3-22
KEY: Critical Thinking
94. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Correct = 68%
REF: p. 106 OBJ: 3-23 KEY: Concept/Applied
95. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 106-107 OBJ: 3-23
KEY: Critical Thinking
96. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 108 OBJ: 3-24
KEY: Factual
97. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 108 OBJ: 3-25
KEY: Concept/Applied
98. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Correct = 83%
REF: p. 110 OBJ: 3-26 KEY: Factual
99. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 111-112 OBJ: 3-27
KEY: Critical Thinking
100. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 114 OBJ: 3-28
TOP: WWW KEY: Factual

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