HIGHER EDUCATION DIVISION

Examinations: Teaching Period: 4 2006 Faculty: Engineering & Industrial Sciences Subject Code(s): Full Subject Title: HES1905 Commercial Pilot Licence Pt 2 ID No: ______________________ Paper 2 of 2 Campus: Hawthorn

STUDENTS NAME: _____________________________________ Duration: Reading Time: Total marks on this paper 3 hours 15 minutes 104

Percentage of overall assessment covered by this paper: 30%

Number of pages in this paper (inc. this page):

28

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
Materials Allowed: Non-Programmable Calculator AIP and PCA Chart Answering Requirements: This paper is presented in three parts: Part A Aircraft General Knowledge Part B Aerodynamics Part C Meteorology Each Part should require approximately one hour to complete. Each part is worth 1/3 of the total marks for this paper or 10% of the overall assessment of this subject. Answer all questions. The answers to all questions should be entered in the workbook provided, showing all calculations and assumptions where appropriate.

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PART A HUMAN FACTORS

Part A of this examination consists of 28 questions. Each question is worth 1 mark, giving a total possible score of 28 marks for Part A. Q 1. The part of the retina which has the worst visual acuity is a. b. c. d. Q 2. The fact that the concentration of cones is greatest at the fovea, while the rods are distributed over the whole of the retina means that a. b. c. d. Q 3. The approximate time of useful consciousness for an average person engaged in moderate activity, following an oxygen supply failure at 40,000 ft will be a. b. c. d. Q 4. Which of the following statements correctly describes the alleviation of the effects of hypoxia at cabin altitudes above 10,000 ft without the use of supplemental oxygen? a. b. c. d. the effects cannot be alleviated mild exercise accompanied by regular breathing slow, deep breathing rapid shallow breathing 45 seconds 150 seconds 20 seconds 60 seconds Night vision is best achieved by looking directly at the object Colour sensitivity is best away from the fovea At night the eye effectively has two blind spots None of the above are correct the fovea, due to the greatest concentration of cones the blind spot, due to least concentration of rods the fovea, due to the greatest concentration of rods the optic spot, due to the greatest concentration of rods and cones

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Q 5. Flying while suffering from a head cold increases the risk of a. b. c. d. Q 6. If, during flight in non-VMC, you sense a descending turn to the left, the most important action to take is to a. immediately apply opposing control inputs to that which has been sensed b. Trust your body sensations implicitly c. keep your head still to reduce any disorientating sensations d. Trust your instruments implicitly Q 7. Loss of hearing due to the ageing process is termed a. b. c. d. Q 8. Which of the following statements correctly describes the effects resulting from exposure over many years to aircraft noise? a. Some loss of hearing may occur but it will last for only a few minutes after each exposure. b. Some loss of hearing may occur but total recovery will eventually take place. c. Some loss of hearing may occur but full recovery may never eventuate. d. Some loss of hearing may occur but partial recovery will eventually take place. Presbycusis Presbyopia Presbytinnitus Presbyterianism Hypoxia Pressure vertigo Carbon monoxide poisoning Decompression sickness

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Q 9. A pilot showing the symptoms of dizziness, tingling at the fingertips and blurred vision may be suffering from a. b. c. d. Q 10. Alcohol can be detected in the blood after ingestion of alcohol after a. b. c. d. e. Q 11. The part of the retina which has the greatest visual acuity a. b. c. d. Q 12. Visual acuity decreases away from the fovea because a. b. c. d. Q 13. How long is needed for full dark adaptation? a. b. c. d. 5-10 min 20-30 min 10-20 min 35-45 min The number of rods decrease The number of cones decrease The number of cones increase The number of rods increase The fovea, due to the greatest concentration of cones The blind spot, due to the least concentration of rods. The fovea, due to the greatest concentration of rods. The optic spot, due to the greatest concentration of rods and cones. 8 hours 10 hours 24 hours 14 hours 48 hours hyperventilation hypoxia hypertension hyperthermia

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Q 14. The eye moves in what are termed saccades (jerks and rests). In visual searching, a saccade/rest cycle usually occupies roughly a. b. c. d. Q 15. The ideal pilot in an emergency is a. b. c. d. Q 16. What percentage of aircraft accidents have been deemed to have been directly attributed to human factors-related related causes? a. b. c. d. Q 17. An untrained pilot in IMC engaged in a prolonged constant bank and in a balanced turn, will perceive himself to be flying a. b. c. d. Q 18. The oxygen demand of muscles during activity increases by a factor ofa. b. c. d. 20 2 10 7 At a constant angle of bank Straight and Level Pitched down In a turn in the opposite direction 80-90% 25-30% 40-50% 75% P+G+ P-GP-G+ P+G1.0 seconds 0.3 seconds 2.0 seconds 3.0 seconds

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Q 19. What is the approximate time of useful consciousness for an average pilot engaged in moderate activity at 25,000 feet? a. b. c. d. e. Q 20. With age, the lens of the eye generally becomes a. b. c. d. Too loose Too elastic Too stiff Cracked 30 sec 1 min 2 min 15 sec 45 sec

Q 21. The part of the eye which bends incoming light the most is a. b. c. d. e. Q 22. On approach to a long thin runway, with rising terrain towards the threshold will provide which of the following apparent visual effects a. b. c. d. Q 23. A pilot should not fly with a common cold. What drug causes side effects related to the common cold? a. b. c. d. Pseudo-ephedrine, causing heart weakness at high altitudes Anti-histamines, causing drowsiness Antibiotics, causing diarrhoea Tranquilizers, increases pilot fatigue No effect, a normal approach path will be experienced Undershooting Overshoot, then undershoot when on short final Overshooting The lens The cornea The iris The pupil The tympanic membrane

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Q 24. A good Captain will encourage the Co-pilot to use communication styles which are a. b. c. d. Q 25. A rise in carbon dioxide concentration in the blood causes a. b. c. d. No change in respiration rate An increase in respiration rate A reduction in respiration rate An increase or decrease in respiration rate depending on the corresponding oxygen concentration in the blood Aggressive and supportive Assertive and supportive Assertive and submissive Supportive and submissive

Q 26. The recommended precaution regarding flying following a period of scuba-diving in excess of four hours which was limited to a depth not requiring decompression stops is a. The four-hour period after diving should be spent at sea level. b. Supplemental oxygen should be available for all flights for the four-hour period following the diving. c. In the 24-hour period following the diving, total flight time should not exceed four hours. d. Flight altitude should be limited to 8,000 ft for the four-hour period following the diving. Q 27. Under the Holmes-Rahe scale, the most stressful life event is a. b. c. d. e. Divorce Death of a spouse Pregnancy Jail term Death of a mouse

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Q 28. While in flight you notice the other pilot is breathing heavily, his speech is slurred and he complains from feeling dizzy. You notice that his lips and fingertips are blue-tinged. He is probably suffering from a. b. c. d. Hyperventilation CO poisoning Emphysema Hypoxia

END OF PART A-HUMAN FACTORS PART B-AIR LAW BEGINS NEXT PAGE

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PART A AIRCRAFT GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

Part A of this examination consists of 30 questions. Each question is worth 1 mark, giving a total possible score of 30 marks for Part A. 1. For a normally aspirated engine running at full power on an ISA day at sea level, the MP gauge should read: a) b) c) d) 29.92 slightly more than 29.92 slightly less than ambient slightly more than ambient

2. The battery compartment in an aircraft is vented to allow: a) b) c) d) e) transfer of water vapour in and out of the area room for cables and wiring and allow for a lighter circuit the escape of hydrogen and oxygen, produced during charging birds to nest none of the above

3. During a very high speed dive a constant speed propeller may hit its a) b) c) d) fine pitch stop and then under speed fine pitch stop and then over speed course pitch stop and then under speed course pitch stop and then over speed

4. Hydraulic pressure is controlled by a) b) c) d) a hand pump and an engine driven pump a hand pump and a pressure regulator the accumulator and a pressure relief valve a pressure relief and a pressure regulator valve

5. For most light aircraft with retractable undercarriages the gear warning horn will sound if the undercarriage is not down and locked when a) b) c) d) IAS is reduced below a certain value The aircraft is in the circuit area MP is reduced below a certain value Rpm is reduced below a certain value

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6. During the landing roll there is a firm feel to the brakes but at constant pressure the pedals move further toward the cockpit floor. The likely cause is a) b) c) d) Overheated brakes Brake fluid level low Air in the braking system Master cylinder leak

7. Rate gyros such as those employed in turn coordinators rely on which fundamental property of gyroscopes a) b) c) d) Space rigidity Precession Inertia Nausea

8. An aircraft is cruising with throttle with the propeller pitch control set for 2300 rpm. If a failure locks the propeller pitch setting then movement of the throttle can a) b) c) d) Vary the rpm below 2300 but not above it Vary the rpm above 2300 but not below it Vary rpm both above and below 2300 Have no effect on the rpm

9. The wastegate in a turbocharger system is used to a) b) c) d) Control turbine rotational speed Control manifold pressure in the induction manifold Control the pressure in the exhaust manifold Bleed the exhaust gases downstream of the turbine

10. Lower than specified gas accumulator pressure causes a) b) c) d) Increasing friction and vibration between moving parts Increased system operating pressure Reduced damping of pressure surges Reduced fluid storage capacity

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11. While operating a CSU equipped aircraft, and maintaining a set manifold pressure. The tendency for the engine to detonate will: a) b) c) d) decrease, with a decrease in RPM increase, as mixture is enriched increase, with a decrease in RPM decrease, with the application of carburettor heat

12. In most aircraft equipped with retractable undercarriages, the squat switch is attached to a) b) c) d) A mainwheel gear strut A nosewheel gear strut The hydraulic accumulator Nosewheel axle

13. During a ground power check, the blade angle of a constant speed propeller should be fully fine so that a) b) c) d) Propeller thrust does not become excessive The engine does not overspeed Rpm can be used to assess power output Rpm will remain constant throughout the check

14. The idling jet in a carburettor is designed to maintain, a) b) c) d) An adequate supply of fuel with the engine at idling RPM A proper fuel/air mixture at idling RPM Excess air supply to the carburettor at idling RPM Linear engine acceleration during abrupt power changes

15. An aircraft with a non-turbocharged engine and a CSU is in cruising flight with 22 / 2300 rpm set. If rpm is increased to 2500 with the prop pitch control then a) b) c) d) BHP will increase MP and BHP will increase MP will decrease but BHP will increase MP will decrease but BHP will remain constant

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16. What will be the effect on turbocharger operation if a significant exhaust gas leak develops upstream of the waste gate a) b) c) d) Engine will overboost Power surges will occur Power output reduced No effect

17. If the wastegate is jammed (closed) shut and the throttle is advanced a) b) c) d) MP increases normally MP increases slowly MP fails to increase above ambient pressure MP increases rapidly

18. Which of the following combinations is most likely to produce charge detonation a) b) c) d) High MP high rpm and low octane fuel High MP high rpm and high octane fuel Lean mixture high MP and low octane fuel Rich mixture high MP and high octane fuel

19. In flight accumulation of ice in an aircrafts induction system will a) b) c) d) Increase MP and decrease IAS Decrease both MP and IAS Not effect MP but will decrease IAS Decrease MP but will not effect IAS

20. What is the primary purpose of a hydraulic accumulator? a) b) c) d) Relieve excess pressure from the hydraulic system Accumulate hydraulic fluid downstream of the reservoir Alleviate hydraulic pressure surges Filter contaminants from the hydraulic fluid

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21. In most throttle-operated wastegate applications: a) Throttle movement first closes the wastegate, then opens the butterfly valve b) Throttle movement first opens the butterfly valve, then closes the wastegate c) Wastegate position is controlled automatically d) Wastegate position cannot be altered in flight. It must be preset on the ground. 22. Ice forms in the carburettor of an engine fitted with a CS prop during the cruise. What effect does carburettor heat have on MP and rpm a) Both MP and rpm decrease slightly then increase b) Both MP and rpm decrease slightly then remain steady c) MP decreases slightly and then increases, whilst rpm remains steady d) MP increases and then remains steady whilst rpm remains steady 23. You are in cruising flight in an aircraft equipped with a non-super charged engine and a CSU. The propeller pitch control is set to 2000 rpm, which is fully coarse. If the throttle is advanced to increase the MP, then rpm will a) b) c) d) Decrease Increase Remain constant Decrease then increase

24. An exhaust system leak downstream of the turbocharger wastegate will a) b) c) d) Decrease power output if the wastegate is open Cause an overly lean mixture Not alter engine power output Cause an overly rich mixture

25. During a full power run up of a non-supercharged engine on the ground, the MP gauge should register a MP value that is a) b) c) d) Slightly greater than ambient pressure Slightly below ambient pressure Significantly greater than ambient pressure Significantly below ambient pressure

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26. What should you test prior to flight in respect to a fire protection system? (a) (b) (c) (d) System wiring Annunciators and warnings Thermocouples Firewall Protection

27. As an unsupercharged aircraft with a constant speed propeller climbs: a) volumetric efficiency will increase if the throttle setting is kept constant. b) volumetric efficiency will increase if the throttle is advanced. c) volumetric efficiency will decrease if the throttle setting is kept constant. d) volumetric efficiency will decrease if the throttle is advanced. 28. The pitch of a propeller is the angle between: a) b) c) d) the chord and the direction of rotation. the chord and direction of the relative airflow. the direction of the relative airflow. the chord angle and the angle of attack of the blade.

29. An aircraft fitted with a fixed pitch propeller is put into a dive without altering the throttle: a) the engine RPM, propeller RPM and helix angle all increase. b) the engine RPM and propeller RPM increase but helix angle decreases. c) the engine RPM and propeller RPM increase as the angle of advance and propeller torque decrease. d) the engine RPM and propeller RPM increase as angle of advance and propeller torque increase. 30. Blade angle of a constant speed propeller is the angle between the: a) mean chord of a blade and the plane of rotation and varies automatically with a change in airspeed. b) mean chord of a blade and the relative airflow and varies automatically with a change in airspeed. c) relative airflow and the plane of rotation and varies automatically with a change of airspeed. d) mean chord of the blade and plane of rotation and remains constant with a change of airspeed.

END OF PART A - AIRCRAFT GENERAL KNOWLEDGE PART B AERODYNAMICS BEGINS ON NEXT PAGE

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PART B AERODYNAMICS
Part C of this examination consists of 30 questions. Each question is worth 1 mark, giving a total possible score of 30 marks for Part B. Question 1 During flight if a change is made in pitch attitude, an aeroplane will rotate about its: a) b) c) d) Question 2 The net effect of all forces acting on an aerofoil can be attributed to a single imaginary force called: a) b) c) d) Question 3 The force of drag during flight always acts parallel to the: a) b) c) d) Question 4 The term 'coefficient' when applied to lift and drag for a particular aerofoil is most closely related to: a) b) c) d) angle of attack camber speed wing area thrust line wing chord longitudinal axis relative airflow lift the total reaction induced drag total drag Centre of Pressure Longitudinal Axis Lateral Axis Chordline

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Question 5 The aspect ratio is calculated by the expression: a) b) c) d) Question 6 Pick the statement winch best describes the term 'lift'. a) b) c) d) The force produced by an aerofoil at right angles to the longitudinal axis The force produced by an aerofoil at right angles to the chord The force produced by an aerofoil at right angles to the relative airflow The force produced by an aerofoil which is equal and opposite to weight the span divided by the chord the chord divided by the wing area the chord squared divided by the wing area the span squared divided by the chord

Question 7 For a piston engine aircraft, the maximum rate of climb possible at a given gross weight is governed by-. a) b) c) d) Question 8 The recommended IAS to achieve the maximum angle of climb at sea level is 74 kts for a particular aircraft. Which of the following would reduce the angle of climb? a) b) c) d) a decrease in IAS a headwind a reduction in density height a reduction in take-off weight the maximum lift possible the minimum drag possible excess thrust excess power

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Question 9 The effect of fitting an aeroplane with a more powerful engine would be most noticeable during: a) b) c) d) Question 10 The speed at which produces the maximum lift/drag ratio angle of attack in level flight is also the speed which requires: a) b) c) d) Question 11 An aircraft takes off in calm conditions climbs through a wind shear where a strong tail wind is encounted. What initial effects will this have on IAS and flight path ? a) b) c) d) IAS will decrease and the flight path will be steeper IAS will increase and the flight path will be steeper IAS will decrease and the flight path will be shallower IAS will increase and the flight path will be shallower maximum thrust minimum thrust maximum power minimum power a maximum rate of climb a maximum angle of climb maximum speed during level flight minimum speed during level flight

Question 12 If bank is increased and power kept constant during a level turn, what will be the effect on turn performance ? a) b) c) d) rate and radius of turn will increase rate of turn will increase and radius of turn will decrease rate of turn will decrease and radius of turn will increase radius and rate of turn will decrease

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Question 13 As the pilot raises the tail of a tailwheel aircraft during take off run : a) b) c) d) the tendency to swing to the left will increase there will be a tendency to swing to the right there will be a tendency to overpitch there will be no noticeable change in the tendency to swing

Question 14 Wake turbulence will increase with: a) b) c) d) an increase in aspect ratio an increase in weight a increase ion IAS a decrease in AOA

Question 15 An aircraft flying with a constant heading shows the balance ball deflected to the left. The ground adjustable trim tab: a) b) c) d) on the left aileron should be bent up on the right aileron should be bent up on the rudder should be bent left on the rudder should be bent right

Question 16 For an aircraft to remain in the air for the greatest possible time per litre of fuel consumed, it must be flown at a speed which requires: a) b) c) d) the best lift/drag ratio the smallest AOA the least amount of power the least amount of drag

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Question 17 The application of high power with low IAS is accompanied by: a) b) c) d) slipstream effect producing a roll engine torque producing a roll gyroscopic effect producing a roll engine torque producing a yaw

Question 18 The term washout refers to wing design in such a way that: a) b) c) d) its riggers angle at the tip is less than at the root one wing is set at a different angle of incidence to the other the riggers angle is negative the angle of incidence increases outboard from the root

Question 19 Floating during landing can be caused by ground effect when within how many wing spans of the ground ? a) b) c) d) 3 1.5 2 1

Question 20 The primary function of rudder, while entering a turn from straight and level flight is to: a) b) c) d) overcome the yaw caused by the lowered aileron on the higher wing overcome the yaw caused by the lowered aileron on the lower wing make the aeroplane turn overcome he yaw caused by the raised aileron on the higher wing

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Question 21 To achieve maximum range when a wind exists, the correct speed to use is: (a) the best lift/drag ratio speed in all conditions (b) higher than best lift/drag ratio speed in a tailwind and slower in a headwind (c) higher than best Iift/drag ratio speed in a headwind and slower in a tailwind (d) lower than best lift/drag ratio speed in both a headwind and a tailwind Question 22 The value of the minimum drag coefficient of a particular aerofoil is a factor in determining: (a) (b) (c) (d) the maximum range of the aeroplane the minimum speed in level flight the stalling speed of the aeroplane the maximum speed in level flight

Question 23 An effect of lowering flap during a descent is to: (a) (b) (c) (d) reduce the induced drag decrease the gliding angle increase the lift/drag ratio increase lift and drag

Question 24 The initial effect of propeller torque on a single engine aeroplane when power is increased is: (a) (b) (c) (d) the aeroplane will tend to yaw to the left the aeroplane will tend to yaw to the right the aeroplane will tend to roll to the left the aeroplane will tend to roll to the right

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Question 25 "P factor" refers to the displacement of the thrust line towards the 'down going blade' side of the propeller arc. The effect is greatest: (a) (b) (c) (d) at high angles of attack with low power applied at low angles of attack with high power applied at low angles of attack with low power applied at high angles of attack with high power applied

Question 26 Laminar flow in the boundary layer tends to persist: (a) (b) (c) (d) across most of the upper surface across most of the lower surface while ever the aerofoil section is thickening to the separation point

Question 27 For a body to be in a state of equilibrium there must be: (a) (b) (c) (d) no motion occurring no force acting on the body no change in its motion the minimum amount of drag acting

Question 28 Thrust stream turbulence varies with: (a) (b) (c) (d) engine power and IAS engine power and distance from the source distance from the source and IAS distance from the source and angle of attack

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Question 29 What is one advantage of an aeroplane said to be inherently stable? (a) The aeroplane will not spin (b) The aeroplane will require less effort to control (c) The aeroplane will return to its original condition after being disturbed (d) The aeroplane will be difficult to stall Question 30 If more power is required to maintain altitude when indicated airspeed is reduced, the aeroplane must be flying below: (a) (b) (c) (d) Vno (maximum structural cruising speed) the speed for maximum endurance the speed for best angle of climb the speed for minimum drag

END OF PART B AERODYNAMICS PART C METEOROLOGY BEGINS ON NEXT PAGE

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PART C METEOROLOGY
Part C of this examination consists of 44 questions. Each question is worth 1 mark, giving a total possible score of 44 marks for Part C. Q1) What is the extent of coverage of a domestic TAF? A) B) C) D) it is valid for an area of 5 nm from the centre of the airfield it is valid for an area of 5 km from the centre of the airfield it is valid for an area of 10 km from the centre of the airfield it is valid from an area of 10 km from the centre of the airfield

Q2)

The most likely situation for the occurrence of radiation fog is: A) B) C) D) a depression with no cloud cover a col with high level cloud cover a trough with no cloud cover an anticyclone with no cloud cover

Q3)

Tropical thunderstorm occurring in the hours just before dawn are most likely to form: A) B) C) D) a rapid decrease of air pressure with altitude an area of light winds an area of strong winds a rapid change of surface pressure at a particular location

Q4)

A moist airflow over a mountain range in stable atmospheric conditions is likely to result in: A) B) C) D) a lower cloud base on the windward slope a lower cloud base on the leeward slope more cloud on the lee slope than on the windward slope lower temperature on the leeward slope

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Q5)

Which of the following is most favourable for the formation of a dust storms near Adelaide? A) B) C) D) an approaching cold front with a high pressure area to the East a high pressure area over South Australia with a cold front to the East a "col" near Adelaide a ridge line passing through Adelaide

Q6)

Visibility, as reported in a METAR in the Australian region, refers to: A) B) C) D) E) visibility along the runway visibility along the landing approach path the greatest visibility over half or more of the horizon the minimum visibility over half or more of the horizon the average visibility over the whole horizon.

Q7)

An approaching idealised (fast moving) cold front may generally be recognised by the accompanying: A) B) C) D) E) overcast Nimbostratus cloud and heavy rain extensive low Stratiform cloud and widespread drizzle extensive middle level Stratiform cloud and steady rain broken Cumuliform cloud and rain showers widespread fog

TAF refers to questions 8 to 10: TAF AMD YSSY 142215Z 0024 30015KT 9999 SCT100 FM 08 18018KT 9999 SH FEW010 SCT020 FM 14 20012KT 9999 SCT030 INTER 0410 3000 TS SCT050CB T 22 24 24 21 Q 1012 1010 1008 1008 Q8) For what period is the forecast valid? A) B) C) D) for 24 hrs commencing at midnight local time for 24 hrs commencing at midnight UTC for 24 hrs commencing at midnight on the 24th for 12 hrs commencing at midnight on the 24th

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Q9)

During what period does the forecast indicate the possibility of cloud with a 1000 ft base at YSSY? A) B) C) D) between 0800 and 1000 UTC between 0800 and 1400 UTC between 0800 and 1600 UTC between 0800 and 2400 UTC

Q10) Which statement is correct concerning the forecast wind velocity? A) B) C) D) at 0500 UTC it will be 300/15 with the chance of short term variations if thunderstorms are present. at 0800 UTC there will be a rapid wind change associated with the arrival of thunderstorms. at 1100 UTC it will be 190/15 at 1200 UTC it will be 200/12

Q11) Strong horizontal wind shear would most likely be encountered: A) B) C) D) at a strong surface inversion boundary within a decaying thunderstorm cell near a low pressure system in cirrus cloud

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AREA 23 AREA FORECAST 142300 TO 151100 Overview: WIND: 2000 5000 7000 10000 14000 18500 28020 27030 27030 26050 MS04 26055 MS12 26070 MS21 CLOUD: SCT CU 4000FT/8000FT WEATHER: ISOL RA SH IN SE TILL 02Z VISIBILITY: 40KM DTRT 6KM RA SH FREEZING LEVEL: 6000FT ICE: MOD RIME INC ABV FZL TURBULENCE: MOD ALL LEVELS Questions 12 to 15 refer to Area Forecast above: Q12) You are flying in Area 23 and you find there is little cloud. Is this consistent with the forecast? A) B) C) D) yes, because the forecast is for a 50% probability of scattered cloud yes, because the forecast is for scattered cloud and you are obviously in the 4/8 of the sky with no cloud yes, because weather forecasters always deliberately mislead the public no, because there is cloud forecast, but none is seen

Q13) Cloud heights in ARFORS are given as: A) B) C) D) height above 1013 hpa datum height above mean sea level height above the highest point in the area height above ground level

Q14) Would VFR flight be permissible in AREA 23 at A065? A) B) no yes

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Q15) What is the forecast Outside Ait Temperature (OAT) at 10000ft in Area 23? A) B) C) positive four degrees C negative four degrees C ISA minus four degrees C

Q16) An area QNH is routinely issued by the Meteorology Office every? A) B) C) D) 3 hours 1 hour 4 hours 2 hours

Q17) Turbulence within a thunderstorm cell is greatest? A) B) C) D) in the growing stage because of the largest size and concentration of water droplets in the growing stage because of the strong updrafts in the mature stage because of the large size and concentration of water droplets in the mature stage because of the strong updrafts and downdrafts

Q18) From the list of weather situations given below, select that one which would be favourable for the formation of fog A) B) C) D) movement of warm moist air over a cool surface frontal uplift near a depression extremely low dew points in a deep southerly stream an anticyclonic circulation of cold air over a warm land surface

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Q19) With reference to the TAF below, which of the following conditions are forecast to occur at time 0800 UTC? TAF YSSY 270648Z 0024 16012KT 9999 SH BKN025 PROB40 INTER 0006 5000 TS SCT040CB T 22 24 26 21 Q 1020 1021 1022 1025 A) B) C) D) the visibility is 9999 m, with 2/8 cloud at 800 ft probability of thunderstorms with 4/8 CB at 4000 ft showers from cloud with a base of 2500 ft visibility 10 km or greater reducing to 5000 m, for periods up to 30 minutes.

Q20) Which statement correctly describes the presentation of information in a METAR? A) B) C) D) height of the cloud base is expressed as a three figure group height of Cumulus cloud is expressed as six figure group giving the height of both base and tops wind speed is expressed as a five figure group the period of validity is expressed as a four figure group.

Q21) A shear thunderstorm is most likely to form A) B) C) D) in the tropics at a frontal boundary at an inversion at high latitude

Q22) The cloud type most commonly associated with an approaching idealised (fast moving) cold front is A) B) C) D) broken cumulus nimbostratus stratus altostratus

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Q23) You are flying in thick altostratus cloud with an OAT of -3C. The type of ice (if any) you would be most likely to encounter is A) B) C) D) rime a mixture of rime and clear clear nil

Q24) Cloud will form when A) B) C) D) the temperature falls below 0 degrees C an air mass is heated to above its dew point air is cooled below its dew point evaporation occurs

Q25) A feature of the dissipating stage of a thunderstorm is A) B) C) D) strong updraughts severe vertical windshear downdraughts formation of the anvil

Q26) An increase in the water vapour content of a sample of air will result in A) B) C) D) a reduction in both air density and relative humidity an increase in air density and relative humidity a reduction in air density and an increase in relative humidity an increase in air density and a reduction in relative humidity

Q27) A subsidence inversion is produced by: A) B) C) D) terrestrial radiation insolation adiabatic compression expansion

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Q28) The most likely situation for the occurrence of thunderstorms is A) B) C) D) a depression with abundant moisture a col with high level cloud a trough with no cloud cover an anticyclone with no cloud cover

Q29) As part of the general circulation, the winds over South Australia and the southern part of western Australia are known as the: A) B) C) D) south-east trade winds north-east trade winds mid-latitude easterlies mid-latitude westerlies

Q30) A tropical cyclone moving south off the Queensland coast is identified on a synoptic chart. The central pressure of the cyclone is 958 HPA. Where would the strongest winds be located? A) B) C) D) in the south-east quadrant within 100 nm of the eye in the south-west quadrant within the 100 nm of the eye on the whole eastern side of the cyclone up to 300 nm from the eye in the north-east quadrant within 100 nm of the eye

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Q31) A cold front has passed through Bass Strait. Winds are from the south. Which answer best describes the type of cloud (if any) you would expect to follow behind the front and for what reason? A) Expect clear skies behind the front as the air is cold and therefore dry, preventing cloud development. B) Expect low stratified cloud and associated drizzle and possibly fog as evening approaches. C) Expect cumuliform cloud and possibly cold stream thunderstorms, due to the cold air being warmed through contact with the warmer sea surface. D) Expect high cirrus type cloud only as the air is too dry behind the cold front for any low cloud to form. E) Expect steam fog, due to the cooling of the already cold moist air to its dew point, through conduction with the relatively cold sea surface temperature. Q32) With regard to visibility in a METAR, which statement is most correct? A) Visibility at night is less than visibility by day. B) Visibility at night is more than visibility by day, due largely to the lack of convective dust in the air. C) Visibility at night remains the same as the day value, provided atmospheric transparency has not changed. Q33) A cold front has passed though Bass Straight. What type of thunderstorms could you expect behind this front, if any? A) B) C) D) E) No thunderstorms as atmosphere is cold and therefore stable. Equatorial nocturnal types Airmass type Orographic type Cold stream type

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Q34) Which of the following weather phenomena could be associated with a large cumulus cloud: A) B) C) D) a shower of hail virga drizzle intermittent rain

Q35) A cloud is described, in part, as: a generally grey cloud layer with fairly uniform base, which may give drizzle. The cloud to which this description applies is: A) B) C) D) altostratus nimbostratus stratocumulus stratus

Q36) The primary difference between rime ice and clear is determined by: A) B) C) D) the size of the supercooled water droplets. the temperature of the supercooled water droplets the height of the supercooled water droplets the size and temperature of the supercooled water droplets.

Q37) Precipitation lasting for periods of up to 50 minutes in any 1 hour period usually with sky remaining overcast is classified as: A) B) C) D) Continuous precipitation. rain or snow showers. intermittent precipitation cyclonic rainfall

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Refer to the following TAF for Mildura for Questions 38 - 40

YMIA TAF AMD YMIA 131916Z 2008 33008KT 8000 RAIN BKN010 BKN120 FM23 27010KT 8000 LIGHT DRIZZLE BKN010 BKN030 FM04 27012KT 9999 FEW015 BKN030 INTER 2205 5000 THUNDERSTORMS WITH RAIN BKN008 FEW030CB T 18 18 20 24 Q 1012 1014 1014 1013 Q38) What are the operational requirements providing if any, required for a VFR aircraft planned arrival time at 0415UTC. A) B) C) D) E) No alternate required alternate required or 15 minutes holding alternate required or 30 minutes holding alternate required alternate or 60 minutes holding

Q39) What is the visibility forecast for an arrival at Mildura time 2100UTC. A) B) C) D) 8km visibility 8km visibility reducing in rain 5km visibility reducing in thunderstorms 8km visibility reducing to 5km in thunderstorms

Q40) What are the operational requirements providing if any, require for a VFR aircraft planned arrival at 0520UTC. A) No alternate required B) alternate required or 15 minutes holding fuel C) alternate required or 30 minutes holding fuel D) alternate required E) alternate or 60 minutes holding fuel F) 10 minutes holding fuel G) holding fuel required

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Refer to the area forecast at the end of this Part B: Q41) You plan to depart Moorabbin at time 0100UTC for a flight to Bankstown via Albury. What cloud would you expect enroute near the ranges? A) B) C) D) ISOL CB 3000/3500 BKN ST 0500/2500 BKN ST 1000/3000 BKN CU/SC 3000/8000

Q42) What would be the freezing level during the time of your departure: A) B) C) D) 7000 feet 11,500 feet 10,000 feet 20,000 feet

Q43) In the Area forecasts how is cloud and wind measured? A) B) C) D) CLOUD (AGL), WIND (MAGNETIC) CLOUD (AGL), WIND (TRUE) CLOUD (AMSL), WIND (TRUE) CLOUD (AMSL), WIND (MAGNETIC)

Q44) What is the lowest cloud forecasted west of the tough? A) B) C) D) BKN CU/SC 3000/8000. BKN ST 1000/3000 BKN CUSC 2500/8000 SCT ST 0500/2500

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2006 HUMAN FACTORS 1. b 2. c 3. c 4. a 5. b 6. d 7. a 8. c 9. a 10. d 11. a 12. b 13. d 14. b 15. c 16. a 17. b 18. a 19. c 20. c 21. b 22. d 23. b 24. b 25. b 26. a 27. b 28. d

AGK 1. c 2. c 3. d 4. d 5. c 6. d 7. b 8. c 9. a 10. c 11. c 12. a 13. c 14. a 15. d 16. c 17. d 18. c 19. b 20. c 21. b 22. c 23. b 24. c 25. b 26. b 27. c 28. a 29. a 30. a

AERODYNAMICS 1. c 2. b 3. d 4. a 5. a 6. c 7. d 8. a 9. a 10. b 11. c 12. b 13. a 14. b 15. d 16. c 17. b 18. a 19. d 20. a 21. c 22. d 23. d 24. a 25. d 26. c 27. c 28. b 29. c 30. b

MET 1. a 2. d 3. d 4. a 5. a 6. c 7. d 8. b 9. b 10. a 11. a 12. d 13. b 14. b 15. b 16. . 17. d 18. d 19. c 20. a 21. b 22. a 23. b 24. c 25. c 26. c 27. c 28. a 29. d 30. a 31. c 32. c 33. e 34. b 35. d 36. a 37. . 38. d 39. a 40. c 41. b 42. b 43. c 44. b

AREA FORECAST
AREA30 AREA QNH 22/01 AREA 30/32 N OF YLAO/MNG/YMCO 1012 REST 1009

AREA30 AMEND AREA FORECAST 132300 TO 141100 AREAS 30/32 AMD OVERVIEW: TROUGH NEAR RENMARK/CAMUS 23Z, BALRANALD/FLINDERS ISLAND 05Z AND COROWA/ORBOST 11Z. RA/DZ AND FG AREAS PARTICULARLY ON AND N OF RANGES WITH EXTENSIVE LOW CLOUD NEAR AND E OF TROUGH. ISOL TSRA NEAR TROUGH. DRIZZLE PATCHES / ISOLATED SHOWERS W OF TROUGH. SMOKE PATCHES IN E. FOG PATCHES OVER SEA E OF 146E AND GIPPSLAND TILL 24Z. SUBDIVISIONS: A: E OF TROUGH B: W OF TROUGH WIND: 2000 5000 7000 10000 14000 18500 A: 340/25 320/30 320/25 320/25 PS01 320/30 MS04 300/40 MS14 B: 270/15 270/20 280/25 290/30 ZERO 300/35 MS06 300/40 MS16 REMARK: WIND ABOVE 10000FT 10/15KNOTS STRONGER IN SW AFTER 05Z CLOUD: A: ISOL CB 3000/35000 NEAR TROUGH. BKN ST 0500/2500 ON AND N OF DIVIDING RANGE, SCT TO SOUTH BUT BKN WITH RAIN/TSRA NEAR TROUGH AND OVER SEA E OF 146E. BKN CUSC 2500/8000 ISOL TOPS 12000. BKN ACAS ABOVE 10000. B: BKN ST 1000/3000 NEAR TROUGH AND IN SHRA/DZ, BUT TENDING SCT FROM W. AREAS BKN CU/SC 3000/8000. SCT ACAS ABOVE 12000 CLEARING E. WEATHER: TSRA, FG, DZ, RA, SHRA, FU VISIBILITY: 500M FG, 3000M TSRA/DZ, 6KM FU/RA/SHRA FREEZING LEVEL: 11500 BUT 10000 W OF TROUGH ICING: MOD ACAS/CU TOPS TURBULENCE: MOD AC/CU. ISOL MOD BLW 7000 LEE RANGES. AMD CRITICAL LOCATIONS: [HEIGHTS ABOVE MSL] KILMORE GAP: 0500 FG RA BKN ST 1200 BKN ACAS 10000 [CLOUD ON GROUND] FM05 6000 SHRA BKN ST 1400 BKN CUSC 2500 INTER 2302 4000 TSRA FEW030CB

END OF PART C METEOROLOGY END OF EXAM

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