1. Keratosis obturans is commonly associated with 1. Dextrocardia 2. Appendicitis 3. Renal failure 4. Bronchiectasis 2. In Potter's syndrome the Pinna is 1.

Flattened and compressed 2. Shrivelled and looks like a cauliflower 3. Rudimentary 4. Deformed and cup shaped 3. Repair of microtia is delayed till the patient is 6 years because 1. To allow for growth of rib cartilage 2. To allow for growth of pinna 3. To allow fro growth of middle ear 4. To allow for growth of mastoid 4. Pinna deformity in Potter's syndrome is caused by 1. Genetic disorder 2. Oligohydramnios 3. Hydramnios 4. Sex linked disorder 5. Alcohol syringing is indicated in 1. Removal of vegetable foreign bodies 2. Removal of impacted foreign bodies 3. Removal of metallic foreign bodies 4. Removal of wax 6. The other name for Singapore ear is 1. Aural seroma 2. Diffuse otitis externa 3. CSOM 4. ASOM 7. What is not true regarding the management of frost bite of pinna ? 1. It should be thawed 2. Any blister's / blebs should be opened 3. Pain killers to be given 4. Antibiotics must be given 8. In furunculosis the pinna is displaced 1. Upwards 2. Downwards 3. Forwards 4. Backwards 9. Warfarin administered during pregnancy causes 1. Microtia 2. Macrotia 3. Aural seroma 4. Darwin's tubercle 10. Darwin's tubercle is homologous to 1. The tip of reptilan ear 2. To the tip of amphibian ear 3. To the tip of mammalian ear 4. To the lobule of mammalian ear

11. Darwin's tubercle of the Pinna is seen 1. As a small depression on the postero inferior part of the Helix 2. As a small elevation on the postero inferior part of the Helix 3. As a small depression on the postero superior part of the Helix 4. As a small elevation on the postero superior part of the Helix 12. Malignant otitis external is caused by 1. Staphylococcus 2. Otomycosis 3. E coli 4. Pseudomonas 13. Jahrsdoerfer's criteria is used to 1. Grade patients with hyperostosis of external canal 2. Select patients with malignant otitis externa who could benefit from surgery 3. Grade patients with malignant otitis externa 4. Select patients with meatal atresia who would benefit from sugery 14. Pseudocyst of the auricle occurs commonly in the 1. Lower portion of the Helix 2. Over the upper half of the anterior portion of the auricle 3. Over the tragus 4. Lobule of the ear 15. Which portion of the temporal bone is prone for radionecrosis 1. Squamous portion 2. Tympanic plate 3. Mastoid portion 4. Zygomatic portion 16. The presence of ear lobe crease indicates 1. Diffuse otitis externa 2. High serum cholesterol 3. Singapore ear 4. Gout 17. Levenson's criteria is used to diagnose 1. Aural seroma 2. Hyperostosis of external canal 3. Microtia 4. Malignant otitis externa 18. Multiple exostosis of external auditory canal is common in 1. Pilots 2. Surfers 3. Athlets 4. Persons involved in contact sports 19. Gouty tophi in the Pinna occurs commonly in 1. Tragus of the ear 2. Over the concha 3. Lobule of the ear 4. Helix and antihelix of the ear 20. In Wildermuth's ear is characterised by 1. Prominence of antihelix and an under developed helix 2. Prominence of lobule of the ear 3. Prominence of Helix with an under developed antihelix

4. Prominence of tragus with under developed antitragus 21. Clefts and deformities of the auricle is commonly caused by 1. Trotter's bands 2. Genial bands 3. Teller's bands 4. Streeter's bands 22. One thing to be remembered before excising auricular appendages is 1. It is very superficial containing just a skin tag but can bleed alarmingly 2. It is very superficial, and just contains skin tag and hence can be easily removed 3. These appendages are known to contain a bar of elastic cartialge, which can extend deep into the underlying tissues 4. Auricular appendages are commonly seen in the middle ear 23. Accessory auricles occur 1. Near the mental prominence 2. Near the medial canthus of the eye 3. Near the lateral canthus of the eye 4. Along an imaginary line extending from the tragus to the angle of the mouth 24. Multiple exostosis of external auditory canal commonly occurs in 1. Cartilagenous portion of the auditory canal 2. Matoid tip 3. Outer third of the bony canal 4. Inner third of the bony canal 25. Keratosis obturans is caused by 1. Accumulation of soft cerumen 2. Faulty migration of sqamous epithelial cells 3. Accumulation of wax over a foreign body 4. Otomycosis 48- On otoscopic examination, a patient is found to have a 2-cm mass protruding from a retraction pocket in his right tympanic membrane. The lesion is removed and determined to be a cystic mass lined by squamous epithelium containing desquamated cellular debris and a mononuclear infiltrate. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this lesion? (A) barotrauma (B) chronic otitis media (C) exostosis formation in the external auditory canal (D) squamous cell carcinoma of the external auditory canal (E) tympanosclerosis
1. Paracusis is seen in a. otosclerosis, b. Otogenic deafness c. CSOM d. Menieres disease

26. The correct answer is A Otosclerosis is a primary disease of the otic capsule and the ossicles. It is not known to occur outside the human temporal bone. It is characterized by a progressive hearing loss that may be conductive, sensorineural, or mixed. Histologically, it is seen as abnormal resorption and then deposition of bone in the labyrinthine capsule and middle ear. Otosclerosis is an important cause of auditory and, to a lesser extent, vestibular symptoms, and both can be treated effectively in most cases
2. Nasopharyngeal Angiofibroma is most commonly seen in a. Young female, b. Elderly female, c. Infants, d. Young boy. j uvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma (JNA) is a rare, benign, vascular neoplasm that accounts for less than 0.5% of all head and neck tumors. JNAs occur almost exclusively in the nasopharynx of adolescent males. Histologically, JNAs originate from myofibroblasts. The tumor lacks a capsule and spreads submucosally. It is composed of a fibrous abundance of single endothelial cell lined vascular spaces or channels. These channels are surrounded by a collagenous tissue network and lack a complete muscular layer. 3. betahistine is given in a. Otosclerosis, b. Menieres disease, c. CSOM,

histamine-like drug generically designated as betahistine hydrochlorideThe chemical name is 2 (2' meihylaminoethyl) pyridine dihydrochloride. There is some similarity in structure between betahistine and histamine. Betahistine hydrocholoride which is also known as Serc is the most common drug prescribed for Meniere's Disease.This drug improves the blood flow of the small blood vessels in the inner ear. The vasodilating properties of histamine were the basis for treatment of vertigo and other inner ear dysfunctions.Tags: MCQ, Pharmacology, Betahistine, MAHE, Meniere's Power of microscope used in microlaryngoscopy a.400mm b.200mm c.300mm d.250mm Cholesteatoma is most commonly found in a. Tubotympanic CSOM, b. Atticoantral CSOM, c. Serous otitis media, d. Foreign body in ear

Caldwell luc operation is done in a. Frontal sinus, b. Maxillary sinus, c. Ethmoid, d. Sphenoid sinus Ludwigs angina is seen in a. Submandibular region, b. Sublingual region, c. submental region, d. Deep neck space Myiasis is a. Maggots is nose, b. Maggots in sinus, c. Maggots in mouth, d. None of the above Middle ear pressure is measured by a. Tuning fork, b. Pure tone audiometry, c. Electrocochleography, d. Impedance Audiometry Tumor which is friable and bleeds on touch is a. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma, b. Maxillary antrum tumor, c. Rhinosporidosis, d. Angiofibroma. Male voice does not break at puberty it is called as a. Pubophonia, b. Spastic dysphonia, c. Esophageal voice, d. Dysphonia plica ventricularis True regarding vocal cord is a. Rima glottis is diamond shape during phonation, b. Partial lesion of recurrent laryngeal nerve causes adduction of vocal cord, c. Posterior cricoarytenoid causes adduction of vocal cords, d. Lateral cricoarytenoid causes abduction of vocal cords.

he Correct Answer is A Microlaryngoscopy can be performed using the hands-free laryngoscope and an operating microscope with a 400 mm objective lens or using a Hopkins rod telescope. It is the most precise means of operating on the vocal folds and allows the use of two of the most essential and important tools in voice surgery: the microscope and microscopic instruments. Microlaryngoscopy requires general anesthesia, but patients generally go home the same day as the procedure.

The Correct Answer is B Cholesteatoma is an abnormal accumulation of keratin-producing squamous epithelium in the middle ear, epitympanum, mastoid or petrous apex. It has been further defined as a three dimensional epidermoid structure exhibiting independent growth, replacing middle ear mucosa, and resorbing underlying bone. Although it is not a neoplastic lesion, it can be insidious and potentially dangerous to the patient. The term cholesteatoma was first used by Johannes Mller in 1838 to describe a true neoplasm he thought was a pearly tumor of fat...among sheets of polyhedral cells.

The correct answer is B Caldwell-Luc operation or Radical or Sublabial Antrostomy relieves chronic sinusitis by improving the drainage of the maxillary sinus, one of the cavities beneath the eye. The maxillary sinus is entered through the upper jaw above one of the second molar teeth. A window is created to connect the maxillary sinus with the nose, thus improving drainage. The operation is named after American physician George Caldwell and French laryngologist Henry Luc and is most often performed when a neoplasm is present in the sinus cavity.Indications for Caldwell Luc Operation Chronic Maxillary SinusitisAntro Choanal Polyps and Cysts of MaxillaBiopsy of Maxillary Antral GrowthRemoval of Foreign bodies in AntrumRepair of Oro Antral FistulaTransantral Ligation of Maxillary ArteryTransantral Ligation of Vidian NerveTransantral EthmoidectomyBlowout fractures of OrbitElevation of Fronto Nasal Fractures Contraindications of Caldwell Luc Operation Children Tit Bits The Correct Answer is A Ludwig's Angina is a cellulitis of the submandibular space, frequently occurring as a result of infections of the second or third lower molars. presents a swelling of the floor of mouth, tongue and submandibular region-leads to restricted neck movement, dysphagia, sore throat, dyspnea and possibly respiratory obstruction secondary to laryngeal edema In his original description in 1836, Ludwig noted the absence of concomitant pharyngeal inflammation, the woody induration of the neck and floor of mouth, the limitation of involvement in the neck to the submental and submandibular triangles and the lack of cervical lymphadenopathy. Some authors now recommend that the term Ludwigs angina be reserved for those infections that meet the following five criteria: The correct Answer is A Nasal myiasis is a manifestation of the nasal cavities by larvae of the fly of genus Chrysomia. It is prevalent in tropical countries. Atrophic rhinitis is the most commonest predisposing factor for this condition. The maggots can cause extensive erosion of the nose, face and intra-cranial structures occasionally causing meningitis and death. Tags: MCQ, ENT, MAHE, Myiasis The Correct Answer is D The primary purpose of impedance audiometry is to determine the status of the

tympanic membrane and middle ear via tympanometry. The secondary purpose of this test is to evaluate acoustic reflex pathways, which include cranial nerves (CN) VII and VIII and the auditory brainstem. This test cannot be used to directly assess auditory sensitivity, although results are interpreted in conjunction with other threshold measures. Source Tags: MCQ, ENT, Middle Ear Pressure Posted in MAHE 2000 MCQs | |By Dr.Vishaal Bhat ViewPost The Correct Answer is C Rhinosporidiosis is a chronic granulomatous infection of the mucous membranes that usually manifests as vascular friable polyps which occurs in the New World, Europe, Africa and Asia, but is most common in the tropics (India and Sri Lanka). The disease was first described in Argentina around 1890 by Malbran and Guillermo Seeber (the subject of his thesis). The disease is characterised by slow-growing, painless polyps or tumour-like masses, which are usually found on the nasal mucosa, lacrymal sac, conjunctivae, palate, larynx or penis. Chronic rhinitis and/or epistaxis may occur. Posted in MAHE 2000 MCQs | |By Dr.Vishaal Bhat ViewPost The Correct Answer is A Functional problems of the vocal cords such as pubophonia (a condition wherein men have high-pitched feminine voice). Tags: MCQ, ENT, MAH The correct Answer is A During normal phonation, the rima glottidis is quite narrowed. Tags: MCQ, ENT, Vocal Cord

Which of the following is associated with congenital sensorineural hearing loss? Atretic ear. Otitis externa. Perforated tympanic membrane. Cochlear nerve hypoplasia. QUESTION 2 Which of the following imaging modalities may be contraindicated in patients with cochlear implants? CT. MRI. PET. SPECT.

QUESTION 3 Regarding cochleovestibular malformations, which of the following is a contraindication to cochlear implantation? Labyrinthine (Michel) aplasia. History of prematurity. Apert syndrome. History of cytomegalovirus infection.

QUESTION 4 Regarding cochleovestibular malformations, which of the following describes an incomplete partitioning type II (IP-II)?

Cochlear aplasia and enlarged vestibules. Cystic cochlear apex, large vestibular aqueduct, and enlarged vestibule. , Modiolar hypoplasia and bulbous internal auditory canal. Cochlear hypoplasia. QUESTION 5 Which of the following describes an incomplete partitioning type I (IP-I)? Cochlear cyst and cystic vestibule. Cystic cochlear apex, large vestibular aqueduct, and enlarged vestibule. Modiolar hypoplasia and bulbous internal auditory canal. Cochlear hypoplasia.

solution to Question 1

Ear atresia, otitis externa, and perforated tympanic membrane cause conductive hearing loss. In general, disease of the external and middle ear will cause conductive

hearing loss, whereas sensorineural hearing loss involves the inner ear structures. Option D is the best response [1].
Solution to Question 2

CT is the best imaging technique to confirm implant positioning. PET and SPECT imaging are valuable in functional mapping of auditory response pathway implantation surgery. Depending on the manufacturer, certain cochlear implants may be MRI compatible. It is, however, recommended that MRI in implant patients should only be performed if absolutely necessary and after contacting the manufacturer. Option B is the best response [2].
Solution to Question 3

In labyrinthine (Michel) aplasia, the labyrinth has not formed, and this finding is a contraindication for cochlear implantation. All other options represent possible causes of sensorineural hearing loss and require clinical evaluation to assess the indication for an implant. Apert syndrome is usually associated with incomplete partitioning as the cause of hearing loss. Option A is the best response [3].
Solution to Question 4

The definition of IP-II (Mondini) is the combined pathology of incomplete partitioning of the cochlear apex, forming a cyst, in combination with an enlarged vestibule and vestibular aqueduct. Option B is the best response

Which of the following is typically associated with nasal dermal sinus? Skin nevus. Dermoid or epidermoid. Hemangioma. Cleft palate. QUESTION 14 All of the following are synonymous with nasal glioma EXCEPT: Benign congenital nasal neuroectodermal tumor. Nasal cerebral heterotopia. Glial heterotopia. Nasal glioblastoma.

QUESTION 15 Which of the following lesions has fatty density values on CT? Nasal dermoid. Nasal epidermoid. Nasal encephalocele. Nasal glioma.
Solution to Question 5

The definition of IP-I is combined incomplete partitioning of the cochlear, forming a cyst, in combination with a cystic vestibule. Option A is the best response [4].
Solution to Question 11

Initially, a transient dural diverticulum extends through the plane of the foramen cecum. Later, normal regression of the dural diverticulum occurs and a blind-ending foramen cecum is left anterior to the crista Galli. Option A is the best response [10].
Solution to Question 12

Trigonocephaly is caused by premature closure of the metopic suture in the frontal midline. Option D is the best response [5].
Solution to Question 13

An incomplete separation of the dura (neuroectoderm) from the skin during regression of the dural tract can lead to dermal elements entering the tract and give rise to dermal sinus and congenital inclusion cysts. Option B is the best response [10].
Solution to Question 14

Nasal glioma is a misnomer for this benign entity. It may be considered as a small encephalocele that has lost intracranial connectiona conglomerate of heterotopic neuronal tissue. Option D is the best response [10].
Solution to Question 15

Nasal dermoids can have fatty contents that can be detected with Hounsfield unit measurements. Option A is the best response [11]. Epidermoid lesions tend to be of fluid density, nasal encephalocele and glioma are typically of soft tissue density. Therefore Options B, C, and D are not the best responses