Who observed cells in plant material?

Hooke

Who proved that microorganisms caused Koch disease? Viruses cannot reporduce outside of a _____ ____ What finding was essential for Jenner's vaccination process? Recombinant DNA technology can be used to make what? You are observing a cell through a microscope and note that it has no apparent nucleus. You conclude that it mostl likely has a........... A nucleated, green cell that moves by means of flagella is.... An agent that reproduces in cells but is not composed of cells and contain RNA as its genetic material is a.... A multicellular organism that has a mouth and lives in an animal host is a In the name Escherichia coli, coli is the specific..... host cell A weakened microorganism may produce immunity human hormones, vaccines, drugs

peptidoglycan cell wall.

an algae virus helminth epithet

You are looking at a white cottony growth - has DNA enclosed in a nucleus on a culture medium. Microscopic has cell walls -absorbs organic examination reveals it is multicellular. nutrients -is eukaryotic You can conclude that the organism...... Members of what groups contain DNA? What groups have cell walls? You are observing a cell through a microscope and note that it has no apparent nucleus. You conclude that it mostl likely has a........... What is true about enzymes? -bacteria -helminths -fungi protozoa -bacteria -fungi -plantae peptidoglycan cell wall. - lover activation energy of reactionare not used up in a reaction- are

made of proteins What type of bond is between molecules Hydrogen bond of water in a beaker of water? What type of bond holds hydrogen and oxygen atoms in a molecule of H2O? What type of molecule contains the alcohol glycerol? What type of molecule is composed of CH2O units? Structurally, ATP is most like what type of molecule? Which molecule is composed of a chain of amino acids? What are the primary molecules making up plasma membranes in cells? Starch, dextran, glycogen, and cellulose are polymers of... What structure does light pass through after leaving the condenser in a compound light microscope? What are the steps of the Gram Stain? covalent bond lipids carbohydrates nucleic acids

What molecule has chemicals in genes? nucleic acid proteins lipids glucose specimen 1. Alcohol-acetane -2. Crystal violet -3. Safranin -4.Iodine

The counterstain in the acide-fast stain is dye a basic... The purpose of a mordant in the Gram stain is to prevent the.. The best uses of a negative stain is to determine... Simple staining is often necessary to improve contrast in what microscope? What microscope is used to see internal structures of cells in a natural state? crystal violet from leaving the cells cell size and shape electron microscope phase-contrast microscope

What microscope achieves the highest magnification and greatest resolution? The light that hits the specimen is scattered and does not come directly from the light source in what microscope? What microscope takes advantage of differences in the refractive indexes of cell structure?

electron microscope

darkfield microscope

phase-contrast microscope

What is the appearance of gram-positive bacteria after addition of the first dye in purple the Gram stain? What is the appearance of gramnegative bacteria after addition of the decolorizing agent in the Gram stain? coloreless

What is the total magnification of a chloraplast viewed with a 10X ocularlens 450X and a 45X objective lens? You suspect a 100 nm structure is present in a cell. What provides the lowest magnification that you can use to see this structure? Assume you stain Bacillus by applying malachite green with heat then counterstaining with safranin. Through the microscope, the green structures are... (51)You find colorless areas in cells in a Gram-stained smear. What should you do next? What Gram reaction do you expect from acid-fast bacteria? scanning electron microscope

endospores

an endospore stain Gram-positive

Bacteria smears are fixed before staining kill the bacteria and affix the cells to to... the slide The purpose of the occular lens is to magnify the image from the.... objective lens

What is true about gram-positive cell walls?

-maintains shape -sensitive to lysozyme -contains teichoic acids

What happens when a bacterial cell is water will move out of the cell placed in a solution containing 5% NaCl? Force of which a solvent moves across a semi-permeable membrane from a osmotic pressure higher to a lower concentration is.... By what mechanism can a cell transport a substance from a lower to a higher concentration? Characteristic of the plasma membrane: The mitochondrion most closely resembles what type of cell? What is true of prokaryotic cells? What are some structures found in prokaryotic cells? What are some parts of the active transport process? What Gram reaction do you expect from acid-fast bacteria? active transport 1.selectively permeable -2. site of cell wall formation -3.compoed of phospholipid bilayer -4.contains proteins prokaryotic 1.motile by means of flagella 2.reproduce by binary fission 3.have a semirigid cell wall 1.axial filament -2.peritrichous flagella -3.flagella -4.Pili 1.transports protein -2.ATP 3.plasma membrane -4.fungi Gram-positive

Bacteria smears are fixed before staining kill the bacteria and affix the cells to to... the slide The purpose of the occular lens is to magnify the image from the.... What is true about gram-positive cell walls? objective lens -maintains shape -sensitive to lysozyme -contains teichoic acids

What happens when a bacterial cell is water will move out of the cell placed in a solution containing 5% NaCl? In bacteria, photosynthetic pigments are found in... chromatophores

The difference between simple diffusion and facilitated diffusion is that facilitated diffusion requires (67)What cell structure has a role in the initiation of disease?

transporter proteins Fimbria

Fimbria and pili differ in that pili are used DNA to transfer... Where are phospholipids most likely found in a prokaryotic cell? What is found in mitochondria and prokaryotes? What is found in archaea? What is found in mycoplasmas? plasma membrane -the circular chromosome -the ATP generating mechanism -70S ribosomes Pseudomurein Sterol-rich cell membranes

(73) What will happen if a bacterial cell is the cell will undergo osmotic lysis placed in distilled water with lysozyme? What will happen if a bacterial cell is placed in 10% NaCl with penicillin? What are some energy reserves? The bacteria on the outside of termite protozoa.. What compounds are enzymes? the cell will plasmolyze -sulfur ganules -lipid inclusions metachromatic granules polysaccharide granules propel the protozoan -dehydrogenase -cellulase -B galacttosidase

How many molecules of ATP can be generated from the complex oxidation of 38 glucose to CO2 and H2O? 1.involves the Krebs cycle 2.requires cytochromes -3.involves What is true about anaerobic respiration? the reduction of nitrate -4.generates ATP What is the fate of pyruvic acid in an organism that uses aerobic respiration? it is oxidized in the Krebs cycle

Fatty acids are catabolized in the... According to the chemiosmotic mechanism, ATP is generated when... What are some end products of fermentation? A strictly fermentative bacterium produces energy by...

Krebs cycle protons are moved across a membrane -glycerol -acetone -ethyl alcohol lactic acid glycolysis only

What percent of the total ATP produced from the complete catabolism of glucose 89% is produced by aerobic respiration? What is true about beta oxidation? 1.it is the method of catabolizing fatty acids- 2.involves the formation of acetyl CoA- 3.involves the formation of 2 carbon units

The oxidation of glucose with organic molecules serving as electron acceptors fermentation is... Aerobic respiration differs from anaerobic the final electron acceptors are respiration in what respect? different In green and purple bacteria, electrons to CO2 reduce CO2 come from... What uses CO2 for carbon and H2 for energy? What uses glucose for carbon and energy? What has bacteriochlorophylls and uses alcohols for carbon? Cyanobacteria are an example of what? Chemoautotroph Chemoheterotroph Photoheterotroph Photoautotroph

An enzyme, citrate synthase, in the -noncompetitive inhibition-feedback Krebs cycle is inhibited by ATP; this is an inhibition-allosteric inhibition example of what types of inhibitions? A bacterial culture grown in a glucosepeptide medium causes the pH to increase. The bacteria are most likely using the peptides

When oxygen is unavailabel, Halobacterium produce ATP by

photophosphorylation

The addition of what to a culture medium buffers will neutralize acids? Salts and sugars work to preserve foods hypertonic environment by creating a The term facultative anaerobe refers to an organism that uses What are some disadvantages of the standard plate count? oxygen or grows without oxygen -cells may form aggregates chemical and physical requirements are determined by media and incubation -requires incubation time -no incubation time -enumerate dead cells -large number of cells is required -some organisms are motile -decreased dissolved oxygen -NO2 produced from the electron transport chain -CO2 produced from the Krebs cycle -acid production from fermentation 36 7 selective medium and a differential medium

What are some disadvantages of the direct microscopic count?

What is used to determine metabolic activity? Thirty-six colonies grew in nutrient agar from 1.0 ml of undiluted sample in a standard plate count. How many cells were in the original sample? Most bacteria grow best at pH of A culture medium on which only grampositive organisms grow and a yellow halo surrounds Staphylococcus aureus colonies is called a... A culture medium consisting of agar, human blood, and beef heart is a __________ medium During which growth phase will grampositive bacteria be most susceptible to penicillin?

complex

log phase

The length of time it takes for a cell to divide is What group of microorganisms is most likely to spoil a freshwater trount preserved with salt? Name an organic growth factor. What is an example of a metabolic activity that could be used to measure microbial growth? An experiment began with 4 cells and ended with 128 cells. How many generations did the cell go through?

generation time Halophiles NAD+ Glucose consumption

The source of nutrients in nutrient agar is peptone and beef extract Producers in the hydrothermal vents on the ocean floor use CO2 for their carbon sulfide source and what for energy? What best describes the pattern of microbial growth? What is a substance that can sterilize? What is used for surgical hand scrubs? Name some heavy metals. Phenolics differ from phenol in that phenolics are ... (126) What substances achieve sterilization? What is a limitation of the autoclave? What is a direct result of heat? What substance is the least effective antimicrobial agent? The cells in a population die at a constant rate Ethylene oxide Chlorhexidine -silver nitrate -Merthiolate Mercurochrome -relatively odorless -more effective antibacterial agents -nonirritating -Ethylene oxide -autoclave formaldehyde -dry heat Use with heat-labile materials -breaking sulfhydryl bonds breaking hydrogen bonds denaturing enzymes soap

What are effective against nonenveloped -Ethylene oxide -Chlorine -Ozone viruses?

Which concentration of ethyl alcohol is the most effective bactericide? What could be used to sterilize plastic Petri plates in a plastic wrapper? (136) Foods are preserved with... What is the most useful for disinfecting medical instruments? What is most resistant to chemical biocides? A sequence of nucleotides in DNA that codes for a functional product is a The lagging strand of DNA is started by an ______ primer. The leading strand of DNA is made.....

70% Gamma radiation -potassium sorbate -sodium propionate -sodium nitrate Quats Mycobacteria Gene RNA continuously

Multiple replication forks are possible on chromosome a bacterial ____________ ________ joins nucleotides in one direction only. DNA polymerase

What are some products of transcription? mRNA, rRNA, tRNA, rDNA -Bacteria that produce bacteriocins are resistant to their own bacteriocins -the genes coding for them are on plasmids -Nisin is a bacteriocin used as a food preservative an inducible enzyme by a bacteriophage

What is true about bacteriocins?

An enzyme produced in response to the presence of a substrate is called Transformation is the transfer of DNA from a donor to a recipient cell

The initial effect of ionizing radiation on a higly reactive ions cell is that it causes the formation of... According to the operon model, for the synthesis of an inducible enzyme to substrate; repressor

occur, the _______ myst bind to the __________ Synthesis of a repressible enzyme is stopped by the ______________ binding corepressor-repressor to the operator Conjugation differs from reproduction because conjugation transfers __________horizontally to cells in the same _________ DNA; generation

The necessary ingredients for DNA synthesis can be mixed together in a test tube. The DNA polymerase is from human DNA Thermus aquaticus and the template is from a human cell. The DNA synthesized would be most similar to What is the mechanism by which the presence of glucose inhibits the arabinose operon? An enzyme that covalently bonds nucleotide sequences in DNA is.. An enzyme that copies DNA to make a molecule of RNA is... catabolic repression DNA ligase RNA polymerase

An enzyme that cuts double stranded the restriction enzyme DNA at specific nucleotide sequences is An enzyme that cuts and seals DNA is In transcription, ______ is copied to ______ transposase DNA; RNA

A cell that cannot make _______, cannot tRNA; proteins make _______ If you have inserted a gene in the Ti, the next step in genetic engineering is Agrobacterium inserting Ti into___________ What is a "hit or miss" method of making protoblast fusion rDNA? Pieces of DNA stored in yeast cells are Library

called a .... A population of cells carrying a desired plasmid is called a..... Self-replicating DNA used to transmit a gene from one organism to another is a ... A technique used to identify bacteria carrying a specific gene is called a.... What technique is used to alter one amino acid in protein? (169) What organism naturally possesses the Ti plasmid? clone vector Southern blot site-direct mutagenesis Agrobacterium tumefaciens

What organism degrades PCB's and has Pseudomonas been engineered to produce BT toxin? An example of gene therapy is insertion of the _______gene in a diabetic person's _________ cells The use of antibiotic resistance gene on a plasmid used in genetic engineering makes ____ ______ possible A specific gene can be inserted into a cell by what means? insulin; pancreas

direct selection 1.a gene gun -2.electroporation 3.microinjection -4.agrobacterium

PCR can be used to identify an unknown RNA primer is specific bacterium because the... Foreighn DNA can be inserted into cells by what means. -electroporation, -transformation, -a gene gun, -protoplast fusion -they lack peptiglycan in their cell walls, -they are prokaryotes, -some produce methane from carbon dioxide and hydrogen, -some are thermoacidophiles, -others are extreme halophiles Prokaryotic cells; ester linkages in phospholipids absorption of dissolved organic

What is true of archaea?

What characterizes Domain Bacteria? The outstanding characteristic of the

Kingdom Fungi is.... What is true about members of the Kingdom Plantae? What is true about the Kingdom Animalia? A taxon comprised of one or more species and below family is a.... The phylogenetic classification of bacteria is based on ____ sequences In the scientific name Enterobacter aerogenes, Enterobacter is the....

matter -can photosynthesize, -are multicellular, -use inorganic energy sources, -have eukaryotic cells -use organic carbon sources, -are multicellular, -have eukaryotic cells, -use organic energy sources genus rRNA genus

Bacteria and archaea are similar in which Possess prokaryotic cells of the following ways? A group of cells all derived from a single parent is a.... Serological testing is based on the fact that _______ react specifically with an ________ Phage typing is based on the fact that _______viruses attack specific ________ strain antibodies; antigen

bacterial; cells

Genetically identical cells derived from a clone single cell is a.... Into which group would you place a Bacteria photosynthetic cell that lacks a nucleus? Into which group would you place a multicellular heterotroph with chitin cell walls? You discovered a unicellular organism that lacks a nucleus and peptidoglycan. You suspect the organism is in which group? Into which group would you place a Fungi

Archaea Proteobacteria (Gram-negative

photosynthetic organism that lacks a bacteria) nucleus and has a thin peptidoglycan wall surrounded by an outer membrane? What indicates that two organisms are closely related? What is found primarily in the intestines of humans? What is most resistant to high temperatures? You discovered a unicellular organism that lacks a nucleus and peptidoglycan. You suspect the organism is in which group? their DNA can hybridize facultatively anaerobic gramnegative rods Bacillus subtilis

Archaea

Into which group would you place a photosynthetic organism that lacks a Proteobacteria (Gram-negative nucleus and has a thin peptidoglycan bacteria) wall surrounded by an outer membrane? What indicates that two organisms are closely related? What is found primarily in the intestines of humans? What is most resistant to high temperatures? You discovered a unicellular organism that lacks a nucleus and peptidoglycan. You suspect the organism is in which group? their DNA can hybridize facultatively anaerobic gramnegative rods Bacillus subtilis

Archaea

Into which group would you place a photosynthetic organism that lacks a Proteobacteria (Gram-negative nucleus and has a thin peptidoglycan bacteria) wall surrounded by an outer membrane? What indicates that two organisms are closely related? What is found primarily in the intestines of humans? their DNA can hybridize facultatively anaerobic gramnegative rods

What is most resistant to high temperatures? You discovered a unicellular organism that lacks a nucleus and peptidoglycan. You suspect the organism is in which group?

Bacillus subtilis

Archaea

Into which group would you place a photosynthetic organism that lacks a Proteobacteria (Gram-negative nucleus and has a thin peptidoglycan bacteria) wall surrounded by an outer membrane? What indicates that two organisms are closely related? What is found primarily in the intestines of humans? What is most resistant to high temperatures? You discovered a unicellular organism that lacks a nucleus and peptidoglycan. You suspect the organism is in which group? their DNA can hybridize facultatively anaerobic gramnegative rods Bacillus subtilis

Archaea

Into which group would you place a photosynthetic organism that lacks a Proteobacteria (Gram-negative nucleus and has a thin peptidoglycan bacteria) wall surrounded by an outer membrane? What indicates that two organisms are closely related? What is found primarily in the intestines of humans? What is most resistant to high temperatures? What are some characteristics of spirochetes? their DNA can hybridize facultatively anaerobic gramnegative rods Bacillus subtilis -difficult to culture in vitro, -helical shape, -possess an axial filament, gram negative

You have isolated a bacterium that grows in a medium containing an organic anaerobic respiration substrate and nitrate in the absence of

oxygen. The nitrate is reduced to nitrogen gas. This bacerium is using _________ _________ What lacks a cell wall? What forms conidiospores? Requirements for X and V factors are used to identify Mycoplasma Actinomycetes and related organisms Haemophilus

You have isolated a bacterium that grows in a medium containing only inorganic nutrients. Ammonia is oxidized chemoautotroph to nitrate ion. This bacterium is a ____________ Escherichia coli belongs to the.... proteobacteria -gram negative, -transmitted by What is true about the causative agent of ticks, -in the genus Rickettsia, -an Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever? intracellular parasite The bacteria responsible for more infections and more different kinds of infections are.... The nonsulfur photosynthetic bacteria use organic compound as... What is the best reason to classify Streptococcus in the Lactobacillales? Salmonella, Shigella, Yersinia, and Serratia are all ..... Streptococcus electron donors to reduce CO2 rRNA sequences gram negative facultatively anaerobic rods

You have isolated a prokaryotic cell. The gram stain first step in identification is a... Actinomycetes differ from fungi because membrane bounded nucleus actinomycetes laca a... Caulobacter are different from most bacteria because they have ______ What should you do if you suspect a patient has tuberculosis? stalks Do an acid-fast stain

What is true about fungi?

-are heterotrophic, -have eukaryotic cells, -few are pathogenic to humans, -most are aerobic -some have male and female reproductive organs in one animal, -have eukaryotic cells, -are heterotrophic, -are multicellular -may have flagella or cilia, -may reproduce sexually, -have eukaryotic cells, -are unicellular fungal; algal holdfast carbohydrates soil the gastrointestinal route -dorsoventrally flattened, -divided into flukes and tapeworms, -are hermaphroditic nematodes

What is true about helminths?

What is true about protozoa? A lichen doesn't exist if the ______ and ______ partners are separated. In lichen, the fungus provides the _________ In lichen, the alga produce_______ Lichens are important to ________ producers Transmission of helminthic diseases to humans is usually by... What characteristics of parasitic platyhelminths? Cercariae, metacercaria, miracidia, and rediae are stages in the life cucle of...

What arthropods transmit diseases while -lice, -fleas, -kissing bugs, sucking blood from a human? mosquitos -some are capable of sexual reproduction, -use CO2 as their carbon source, -use light as their energy source, -produce oxygen from hydrolysis of water

What is true about algae?

A definitive host harbors which stage of a adult parasite? The microspora and archaezoa are mitochondria unusual eukaryotes because they lack...

What is the most effective control for malaria? What multinucleated amoebalike cells produce fungus-like spores? What organism can grow photoautotrophically in the light and chemoheterotrophically in the dark? The cells of plasmodial slime molds can grow to several centimeters in diameter because they distribute nutrients by... If larvae of Echinococcus granulosus is found in humans, humans are the.... Yeast infections are caused by... Leishmania is an euglenozoa. What is true about this organism? What way does viruses differ from bacteria? What provides the most significant support for the idea that viruses are nonliving chemicals? What is true about spikes? What is the criterion to classify viruses?

vaccination Plasmodial slime mold Euglena

cytoplasmic streaming intermediate host Candida albicans -is flagellated, -is transmitted by sandflies, -a human parasite viruses are not composed of cells They cannot reproduce themselves outside of a host -only found on enveloped viruses, used for absorption, -may cause hemagglutination -morphology, -size, -Nucleic acid, number of capsomeres

Phage DNA is incorporated into host cell lysogeny DNA is A naked infectious piece of RNA is a... viroid A clear area against a confluent "lawn" of plaque bacteria is called a... Lysogeny can result in.. -acquisition of new characteristics by the host cell, -transduction of specific genes, -immunity to reinfection by the same phage

An infection protein is a An envelope is acquired during which of the following steps? An example of a latent viral infection is The most common route of accidental AIDS transmission to health care workers is...

prion release cold sores needlestick

To which group does a small, nonenveloped single stranded RNA virus Picornavirus most likely belong? Bacteriophages derive what from the host cell? Generally, in DNA-containing virus infection, the host animal cell supplies.. Viruses that have reverse transcriptase are in _______ and _______ What is true of viruses? -nucleotides, -amino acids, -tRNA -tRNA, -RNA polymerase, nucleotides Hepadnaviridae; Retrovirdae contain a protein coat, -use the anabolic machinery of the cell, contain DNA or RNA but never both

To which group does a small, nonenveloped single stranded RNA virus Picornavirus most likely belong? Bacteriophages derive what from the host cell? Generally, in DNA-containing virus infection, the host animal cell supplies.. Viruses that have reverse transcriptase are in _______ and _______ What is true of viruses? Nontoxic strains of Vibrio cholerae can become toxic when they are in the human intestine with toxic strains of bacteria. This suggest that the toxin -nucleotides, -amino acids, -tRNA -tRNA, -RNA polymerase, nucleotides Hepadnaviridae; Retrovirdae contain a protein coat, -use the anabolic machinery of the cell, contain DNA or RNA but never both transduction

genes are acquired by An oncogenic RNA virus must have what reverse transcriptase enzyme? Most RNA viruses carry what enzyme? A commensal bacterium may be an RNA-dependant RNA polymerase opportunistic pathogen

_____ refers to different organisms living Symbiosis together A nosocomial infection is acquired during hospitalization the course of Koch's postulates don't apply to disease because all diseases aren't caused by.. What are some diseases that spread by doplet infection? Mechanical transmission differs from biological transmission in that mechanical transmission doesn't What infection can cause septicemia? Transient microbiota differ from normal microbiota because transient micrbiota are One effect of washing regularly with antibacterial agents is the removal of normal microbiota. This can result in .. What is a fomite? microorganisms Diptheria, -tuberculosis, -common cold, -measles involve specific diseases focal infection present for a relatively short time

increased susceptibility to disease A hyperdermic needle the pathogen may require the vector as a host, -pathogens may be injected by the bite of the vector, -pathogen may enter the host in the vector's feces, -the pathogen reproduces in the vector chronic primary infection acute

What is true of biological transmission?

A disease that develops slowly and last for months is A inital illness is a A short lasting primary infection is

Infection characteristic of a carrier state is The science that deals with the point in time when diseases occur and how they are transmitted is called... A cold transmitted by facial tissue is an example of... Influenza transmitted by an unprotected sneeze is an example of... A sexually transmitted disease is an example of Gastroenteritis acquired from roast beef is an example of A needlestick is an example of a The yeast Candida albicans does not usually cause disease because of What contributes to the incidence of nosocomial infections? The most frequently used portal of entry for pathogens is the

inapparent epidemiology vehicle transmission droplet transmission direct contact vehicle transmission fomite antagonist bacteria lapse in aseptic techniques, -lack of insect control, -lack of hand washing, -formation of biofilms mucous membranes of the respiratory tract

What diseases are usually contracted by measles, -tuberculosis, -pneumonia the respiratory route? How do most pathogens gain access through the skin? Kinase destroys ________ breaks down substances between cells. ________ destroys neutrophils _______ lyse red blood cells What is true of exotoxins? enter through hair follicles and sweat glands fibrin clots Hyaluronidase Leukocidins Hemolysins have specific methods of action, composed of proteins, -more potent than endotoxins, -produced by gram positive bacteria

Cytopathic effects are changes in host cells due to What contributes to symptoms of fungal disease? Methods of avoiding host antibodies Siderophores are bacterial proteins that compete with animal

viral infections allergic response to the host, toxins, -capsules Invasims, -IgA protease, -antigenic change transferrin

Botulism is caused by an exotoxin; boiling food prior to consumption therefore, it could easily be prevented by (298) What organisms can produce exotoxin? The symptoms of tetanus are due to the exotixin produced by What is true of staphylococcal enterotoxin? Septic shock due to gram positive bacteria is caused by A needlestick is an example of what portal of entry? Staphylococcus aureus, corynebacterium diphtheriae, clostridium tetani, -clostridium botulinum Clostridium tetani causes vomitting, -diarrhea, -is an exotoxin superantigens parenteral route

The mechanism by which gram negative bacteria can cross the blood brain barrier indusing TNF is by Injectable drugs are tested for endotoxins by the Endotoxins in injectable drugs could cause Antibiotics can lead to septic shock if used to treat... Limulus amoebocyte lysate test nerve damage gram negative bacterial infections

The body's defenses against any kind of innate immunity pathogen is What are some physical factors to tears, -saliva, -layers of cells

protect the skin and mucous membranes from infection? Removing microorganisms from the lower respiratory tract is the function of the What are some characteristics of inflammation? The complement protein cascade is the same for the classical pathway, alternative pathway, and lectin pathway beginning with the activation of_____ ciliary escalator pain, -swelling, -redness, -local heat C3

Adherence of phagocytes to the lining of margination blood vessels is What is normally found in serum? What is an effect of complement activation? Defensive cells such as T cells identify pathogens by binding What are some effects of histamine? A _____ is a sign the body temperature is rising Complement fixation results in complement increased blood vessel permeability, -opsonization, bacterial cell lysis, -increased phagocytic activity toll like receptors redness, -pain, -vasodilation, swelling chill activation of C3b, -cell lysis, opsonization, -immune adherence

Neutrophils with defective lysosomes are toxic oxygen products unable to produce Activation of C5-C9 results in What is involved in adaptive immunity? leakage of cell contents lymphocyte

What is involved in resistance to parasitic Eosinophil helminths? Macrophages arise from what? Bacteria have siderophores that capture monocyte transferrins

iron; humans counter this by What are some effects of fever? Bacterial enzymes such as a catalase and superoxide dismutase can protect bacteria from A type of immunity resulting from vaccination is increases production of T cells, increases interferon activity, increases transferrin production phagocytic digestion artificially acquired active immunity

The type of immunity resulting from transfer of antibodies from one individual artificially acquired passive to a susceptible individual by means of immunity injection is Immunity resulting from recovery from mumps is naturally acquired active immunity

Newborns immunity due to the transfer of naturally acquired passive immunity antibodies across the placenta is T-cells are activated by The specificity of an antibody is due to interaction between CD$ and MHC II the variable portions of the H and L chains --it can inhibit the immune response, --the cells originate in bone marrow,--cells are processed in the thymus gland an antigen IgE

Characteristics of cellular immunity Plasma cells are activated by The antibodies that can bind to large parasites are

In addition to IgG, the antibodies that can IgM fix complement are Definition of antigen Definition of antibody A chemical that elicits an antibody response and can combine with these antibodies a protein made in response to an antigen that can combine with that

antigen (346) Patients with an inherited type of colon cancer called familial adenomatous apoptosis polyposis have a mutation in the gene that codes for Chemical signals sent between leukocytes are Natural killer cells Antigens coated with antibodies are susceptible to Cell death caused by perforin and granzymes is caused by Antigen-antibody binding may result in interleukins destroy tumor cells--destroy virus infected cells--destroy cells lacking MHC-I phagocytosis cytotoxic T lymphocytes complement activation-opsonization of the antigen-agglutination of the antigens-neutralization of the antigen

Parts of bacterial cells, inactivated What are normally used in vaccinations? viruses, toxoid, live attenuated bacteria If a patient shows the presence of antibodies against diptheria toxin, this indicates Antibodies for serological testing can be obtained from A reaction between an antibody and soluble antigen-forming lattices is called A reaction between antibody and particulate antigen is called An indirect version of what test using antihuman globulin may be used to detect patient's antibodies against The patient may have been vaccinated, or a recent transfusion may have passively introduced the antibodies, or the patient may have had the disease and has recovered, or the patient may have the disease Vaccinated humans, monoclonal antibodies, vaccinated animals precipitation reaction an agglutination reaction Immunofluorescence

Treponema pallidum? Toxoid vaccines such as the vaccines against diptheria and tetanus elicit What type of vaccine involves host synthesis of viral antigens? Purified protein from B.pertusis is a What type of vaccine is live measles virus? A test used to identify Streptococcus pyogens in a patient is the an antibody response against these bacterial toxins Nucleic acid vaccine subunit vaccine Attenuated whole agent vaccine direct fluorescent antibody test

What is a pregnancy test used to find the fetal hormone HCG in a woman's uterine Passive agglutination reaction using anti HCG and letex spheres? What is a test to determine patient's blood type by mixing patient's red blood cells with antisera? direct agglutination reaction

What is a test to determine the presence precipitation reaction of soluble antigens in patient's saliva? Inactivated tetanus toxin is a toxoid vaccine To detect botulinum toxin in food, the suspect food is injected into two guinea pigs. The guinea pig that was vaccinated neutralization against botulism survives, while the one that was not vaccinated dies. This is an example of Dead Bordetella pertussis can be used in an inactivated whole agent vaccine What is the third step in a direct ELISA test? (372) What uses red blood cells as the indicator? The circumsporozite antigen of Plasmodium can be used to Hypersensitivy is due to Antihuman immune serum complement fixation produce monoclonal antibodies, decrease recurring infections, vaccinate healthy people an altered immune response

The chemical mediators of anaphylaxis are What may result from systemic anaphylaxis?

found in basophils and mast cells shock

Graft versus host disease will most likely a bone marrow transplant be a complication of Cancer cells may escape the immune system because Autoimmunity is due to Immunotoxins can be used to treat cancer because they Worldwide, the primary method of transmission of HIV is A hypersensitivity reaction occurs tumor cells shed their specific antigens IgG and IgM antibodies poison cells heterosexual intercourse on a second or subsequent exposure to an antigen The symptoms occur within a few days after exposure to an antigen, they contribute to the symptoms of certain diseases, they are cell mediated, the symptoms are due to lymphokines

Type IV hypersensitivities

Reactions of antigens with IgE antibodies release of chemical mediators attached to mast cells causes Hay fever is an example of Type I hypersensitivity Bone marrow can be a reservoir for future infection, HIV can be transmitted by cell to cell contact, the T cell response triggers viral multiplication, viral infection of T-h cells results in signs elswhere in the patient Glycoprotein, protein core, subunit, antibodies against streptococcus complement fixation Transfusion reactions are an example of Type II hypersensitivity

What is true of HIV

Likely vaccines against HIV What causes damage to kidney cells in

glomerulonephritis? HIV is transmitted by Drugs such as AZT and ddC that are currently used to treat AIDS act by What describes a cytotoxic autoimmune reaction? Clinical AIDS is diagnosed when Human milk, homosexual activity, heterosexual activity, hypodermic needles stopping DNA synthesis antibodies react to cell surface antigens the CD4 T cell count is <200

MMR vaccine contains hydrolyzed gelatin. A person receiving this vaccine antibodies against gelatin could develop an anaphylactic reaction if the person has Penicillin was considered a "miracle drug" because The first antibiotic discovered was Most of the available antimicrobial agents are effective against What antibiotics are bactericidal? What antimicrobial agent has the fewest side effects? Act by competitive inhibition What method of action would be bacteriostatic? What antimicrobial agent is recommended for used against fungal infections? More than half of our antibiotics are produced by Antibiotics that interfere with cell wall It inhibits gram positive cell wall synthesis, it doesn't affect eukaryotic cells, has selective toxicity penicillin bacteria Cephalosporins, penicillin, aminoglycosides, rifampin penicillin Ethambutol, Isoniazid, Sulfonamide inhibition of RNA synthesis Amphotericin B bacteria

Flucytosine would be most useful to treat candidiasis semisynthetic penicillins,

synthesis

cephalosporins, natural penicillins, vancomycin

The antimicrobial drugs with the broadest tetracylines spectrum of activity are Acyclovir inhibits Amantadine inhibits release of Fluroquinolone inhibits Protozoans and helminths diseases are difficulty to treat because DNA synthesis viral nucleic acid DNA synthesis their cells are structurally and functionally similar to human cells May be due to increased uptake of a drug, may be transferred from one bacterium to another during conjugation, may be carrier on a plasmid Lessening the toxicity of individual drugs, providing treatment prior to diagnosis, prevention of drug resistance indiscriminately Ethambutol because it inhibits mycolic acid synthesis osmotic lysis

What causes drug resistance?

Advantages of using two antibiotics together Drug resistance occurs when antibiotics are used What would be selective against the tubercle bacillus? In the presence of penicillin, a cell dies because it undergoes

Niclosamide prevents ATP generation in mitochondria. You would expect this drug helminths to be effective against What are some bactericidals? Mebendazole is used to treat cestode infections. It interferes with microtubule formation; there fore it would not affect The antibiotic actinomycin D binds between adjacent G-C pairs, thus interfering with Semisynthetic penicillin, bacitracin, streptomycin, natural penicillin bacteria------(does affect protozoa, human cells, fungi, helminths) transcription

the antibiotics kill susceptible bacteria, but the few that are Use of antibiotics in animal feed leads to naturally resistant live and antibiotic resistant bacteria because reproduce, and their progeny repopulate the host animal What are normal microbiota of the skin? The etiologic agents of warts is What are transported by respiratory route? What are causes by herpesvirus? Thrush and vaginitis are caused by Pityrosporum, staphylococcus, corynebacterium, propionibacterium papovavirus smallpox, chicken pox, german measles Keratoconjunctivitis, chicken pox, shingles Candida albicans

The greatest single cause of blindness in trachoma the world is What causes ringworm? What is sensitive to penicillin? What infections are caused by S. Aureus? What are some causative agents of conjunctivitis? Congenital rubella syndromeThe etiologic agent of fever blisters is Trifluridine is used to treat What is used to treat sporotrichosis? Scabies is a skin disease caused by a A patient has pus filled vesicles and scabs on her face, throat, and lower back. She most likely has Trichophyton, microsporum, epidermophyton streptococcus Sty, Carbuncle, furuncle, pimples herpes simplex, adenovirus, hemophilus aegyptii, chlamydia tachomatis it is contracted in utero, may result in deafness, blindness, and mental retardation, may be fatal herpes simplex epidemic herpetic keratitis fungicide mite chicken pox

Herpes gladiatorium is transmitted by

direct contact

(438) A 17 year old male pus filled cysts on his face and upper back. Microscopic acne examination reveals gram positive rods. This infection is Encephalitis and meningitis are difficult to treat because Leprosy is antibiotics cannot penetrate the blood-brain barrier rarely fatal, diagnosis may be based on the lepromin test, it is transmitted by direct contact hydrophobia is an early symptom, it is not fatal in bats, caused by Rhabdovirus, diagnosis is based on immunofluorescent techniques clostridial neurotoxin antibodies elimination of the vector

Rabies The symptoms of tetanus are due to The treatment for tetanus is The most effective control of a vectorborne diseases is

Treatment for tetanus in an unimmunized tetanus immune globulin person is Treatment for tetanus in an immunized person is tetanus toxoid

The most common route of central nervous system invasion by pathogens is the circulatory system through The most common cause of meningitis in Haemophilus influenzae children is A 30 yo female was hospitalized after she experienced convulsions. One examination, she was alert and oriented and complained of a fever, headache, and stiff neck. What is most likely to provide rapid identification of the cause of her symptoms? What are caused by prions

Gram stain of cerebrospinal fluid

sheep scrapie, kuru, transmissible

mink encephalopathy, Creutzfeldt Jakob disease (452) A diagnosis of rabies is confirmed by a direct Streptococcal pneumonia is treated with Microscopic examination of cerebrospinal fluid reveals amoeba. What is the organism? fluorescent antibody test antibiotics Naegleria

Microscopic examination of cerebrospinal fluid reveals gram-positive Listeria rods. What is the organism? A vaccine is available for What are acquired by ingestion? tetanus, neisseria meningitis, Haemophilus meningitis, rabies Poliomyelitis, listeriosis, botulism Symptoms are due to bacterial endoxin, symptoms include fever and decreased blood pressure, it may be aggravated by antibiotics, lymphangitis may occur pericarditis, anthrax, listeriosis Undulant fever Brucellosis, listeriosis, anthrax found in soil, forms endospores, gram positive proteolytic enzymes, necrotizing exotoxins, hyaluronidase, microbial fermentation endemic murine typhus, epidemic typhus, plague, relapsing fever can be congenital, caused by protozoan, the reservoir is cats, is transmitted by the gastrointestinal route

Septicemia

What are treated with penicillin? What is a symptom of brucellosis? What are transmitted in raw milk? Characteristics of Bacillus anthracis Symptoms of gangrene are due to High incidence of what diseases is increased by unsanitary and crowded conditions? (466) Toxoplasmosis

Caused by bacterium

plague, epidemic typhus, relapsing fever, tickborne typhus contamination through the parenteral route, pneumonia, a focal infection, a nosocomial infection the intermediate host is an aquatic snail, a parasite of birds causes swimmers itch in humans, the cercariae penetrate human skin, it is caused by a flatworm

Septicemia may result from

Schistosomiasis

Human to human transmission of plague respiratory route is usually by A characteristic symptom of plague is A predisposing factor for infection by Clostridium perfreinges is Arthropods can serve as a reservoir for Diseases transmitted to humans from domestic cats What can be treated with antibiotics bruises on the skin gangrene Brucellosis Bartonella, Toxoplasmosis, plague Lyme disease, Tularemia, plague

A patient complains of fever, severe muscle and joint pain and a rash. The patient reports returning from a Dengue Caribbean vacation one week ago. What do you expect? What is evidence that the arthritis afflicting children in Lyme, Connecticut, was due to bacterial infection? Treatable with penicillin

What is the usual cause of septic shock? Endotoxin What is true about Group B streptococci A patient persents with inflammation of the heart valves, fever, malaise, and subcutaneous nodules at the joints; the they cause gram positive sepsis, they are present in healthy carriers, they cause neonatal sepsis anti inflammatory drugs

recommended treatment is What is true about otitis media? caused by Staphylococcus aureus, caused by streptococcus pyogens, transmitted by swimming pool water, a complication of tonsillitis serological test, gram stain, hemolytic reaction, bacitracin inhibition scarlet fever, streptococcal sore throat, diptheria, pneumococcal pneumonia histoplasma she has been vaccinated, she has tuberculosis, she is immune to tuberculosis, she has had tuberculosis Mycobacterium tuberculosis parakeets cattle humans streptococcus pyogenes, corynebacterium diptheriae, bordetella pertussis Corynebacterium diptheriae

A diagnosis of strep throat is confirmed by Penicillin is used to treat What microorganism causes symptoms most like tuberculosis? A person can have a positive tuberculin skin test because What causes an infection of the respiratory system that is transmitted by the gastrointestinal route? What is the reservoir for Psittacosis? What is the reservoir for Tuberculosis? What is the reservoir for Pneumocystis? What produces exotoxin? What produces the most potent exotoxin?

What is the reservoir for Histoplasmosis? soil

The recurrence of influenza epidemics is antigenic shift due to What etiologic agents results in the formation of abscesses? Infection by what is often confused with Blastomyces Mycoplasma

viral pneumonia? What causes a disease characterized by Streptococcus a red rash? Inahalation of arthroconidia is responsible for infection by what? Legionella is transmitted by Infection that begins in the lungs and spreads to the skin Coccidioides airborne transmission Blastomyces

Microscopic examination of a lung biopsy shows thick walled cysts. What is the Pneumocystis etiology? A patient has a paroxysmal cough and mucus accumulation. What is the etiology of the symptoms? What respiratory infection can be contracted by ingestion? Bordetella Tuberculosis

What produces small "fried egg" colonies on a medium containing horse serum Mycoplasma yeast extract? What is required for tooth decay? acid producing bacteria, capsule forming bacteria, sucrose it requires a large infective dose, a healthy carrier state exists, it is a bacterial infection, it is often associated with poultry products Mumps

What is true of salmonellosis? What disease of the gastrointestinal system is transmitted by the respiratory route?

The symptoms of trichinellosis are due to encystement of larval Trichinella in the muscles Poultry products are a likely source of infection by What feeds on red blood cells? What is true of staphylococcal food Salmonella enterica Entamoeba histolytica suspect foods are those not cooked

poisoning?

before eating, it can be prevented by refrigeration, it is treated by replacing water and electrolytes, it is characterized by rapid onset and short duration of symptoms Escherichia coli salmonellas, beef tapeworm, trichinellosis the large intestine vibrio

The most common cause of traveler's diarrhea is probably Thorough cooking of food will prevent Most of the normal microbiota of the digestive system are found in What organisms is likely to be transmitted via contaminated shrimp?

What organism is likely to be transmitted Trichinella via contaminated pork? What are transmitted by water? "Rice water stools" are characteristic of Most gastrointestinal infections are treated with Cryptosporidium, Hepatitis A virus, Salmonella, Cyclospora cholera water and electrolytes

Vibrio parahaemolyticus gastroenteritis is tetracycline treated with The most common mode of HAV transmission is The easiest way to prevent outbreaks of gram negative gastroenteritis is to Microscopic examination of a patient's fecal culture shows spiral bacteria. The bacteria probably belong to the genus contamination of food during preparation cook food thoroughly Campylobacter

Feces from a patient with diarrhea lasting for weeks with frequent, watery stools Cyclospora should be examined for Helicobacter can grow in the stomach because it makes NH-3

Eukaryotes that cause gastroenteritis Hepatitis C Delicatessen meats Milk Oysters Beef

Entamoeba, Giardia, Cryptosporidium, Cyclos pora --diagnosed by PCR--incubation of 4 to 22 weeks--transmitted by the parenteral route--it is a flavivirus Listeria Campylobacter Vibrio E.Coli

(528)Predisposing factors to urinary tract diabetes mellitus, toxemia, tumors, infections kidney stones Pyelonephritis may result from Cystitis is most often caused by The reservoir for leptospirosis is Trichomoniasis is primarily a Syphillis is treated with What can cause congenital infections or infections of the newborn? (535)Genital warts recurs at the cystitis, ureteritis, urethritis, systemic infections gram negative rods domestic dogs sexually transmitted disease penicillin genital herpes, gonorrhea, nongonococcal urethritis, syphilis initial site of infection

Trichomonas vaginalis, Nongonococcal urethritis can be caused Mycoplasma homini, streptococci, by Candida albicans Candidiasis can be caused by an opportunistic infection Most nosocomial infections of the urinary E. coli tract are caused by Glomerulonephritis is an immune complex disease The most common reportable disease in gonorrhea the United States is What is the most difficulty to treat with chemotherapeutic agents? Leukocytes at the infected site is a Genital herpes trichomoniasis

symptom of What is caused by Chlamydia? What forms lesions similar to those of tuberculosis? What disease causes a skin rash, hair loss, malaise, and fever? Staphylococcus saprophyticus causes Lymphogranuloma venereum Syphilis Syphilis cystitis

Nongonococcal urethritis can be caused ureaplasma, mycoplasma, by chlamydia A patient is experiencing profuse greenish yellow foul smelling discharge form her vagina; she is complaining of itching and irritation. What is the most likely treatment? A 25 year old male presents with fever, malaise, and a rash on his chest, arms, and feet. The etiology could be

Metronidazole

Rickettsia, Borrelia, Streptococcus, Treponema

A 25 year old male presented with fever, malaise, and rash on his chest, arms, and feet. Diagnosis was made based on serological testing. The patient then penicillin reported that he had an ulcer on his penis tow months earlier. This disease can be treated with A pelvic examination of a 23 year old female showed vesicles and ulcerated lesions on her labia. Cultures were negative for Neiseeria and Chlamydia; the VDRL test was negative. What is probable? (552)Whare are some habitats for extremophiles? What animal would you expect to find a specialized organ that holds cellulose degrading bacteria and fungi? The addition of untreated sewage to a

Genital herpes

inside rocks, 100 degree water, salt evaporating pond, acid mine wash termite increase

freshwater lake would cause the biochemical oxygen demand to Sludge digestion takes place under When does primary sewage treatment take place? anaerobic conditions the amount of oxygen doesn't make any difference

Eighty one percent of microorganisms in bacteria the soil are Most of the microorganisms in the soil are found at a depth of Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter are capable of between 3 and 8 nitrification

What process is done by Rhizobium and Nitrogen fixation certain cyanobacteria? What wastewater treatment process is responsible for removal of most of the BOD in sewage? Residual chlorine must be maintained in Sedimentation of sludge occurs in Secondary sewage treatment water treatment primary sewage treatment

The product of what process contains the Primary sewage treatment highest BOD? Zoogloea form flocculent masses in Anaerobic respiration occurs in Filtration to remove protozoa occurs in Bacteria can increase the Earth's temperature by The bacteria contributing most of the bacterial biomass to soil are The bacteria that grow first in the microbial succession in a compost pile are The release of phosphate containing detergents into a river would What is true about releasing untreated secondary sewage treatment anaerobic sludge digestion water treatment producing CH4, which is a greenhouse gas actinomycetes anaerobic mesophiles increase algal growth it decreases the dissolved oxygen,

sewage into a river? Spoilage due to can leakage after processing is Spoilage of canned foods stored at high temperatures, accompanied by gas production is Spoilage of canned foods due to inadequate processing NOT accompanied by gas production is

it is a health hazard, it increases BOD spoilage by mesophile bacteria thermophilic anaerobic spoilage

flat sour spoilage

What alternative fuels (energy source) is methyl alcohol, hydrogen, ethyl produced by bacteria? alcohol, methane What food additives are produced by microorganisms? Wine is made from fruit juices by Citric acid, amylase, protease, Glutamic acid anaerobic fungal growth

Commercial sterilization differs from true sterilization in that commercial the survival of thermophiles sterilization may result in Microbial products can be improved by Cellulase attached to a membrane filter will What are produced using microbial fermentation? Methane made from biomass is produced by Ethanol for automobile fuel is produced from corn by As cheese ages it gets more modifying culture conditions, mutating existing strains, isolating new strains, genetically engineering strains degrade cellulose yogurt, sour cream, blue cheese anaerobic respiration fermentation acidic

Your friend says he had stored a semisoft cheese (blue cheese) in his fungi have been growing refrigerator for three weeks. He asks you why the outer "skin" of the cheese is so

much thicker than it was when he originally purchased the cheese. You tell him that You are growing Bacillus subtilis in a bioreactor and notice that the growth rate Add oxygen slowed and the pH has decreased. What could you do? Radiation is used for Canning preserves food by Canning works to preserve foods because of Radiation works to preserve foods because of Fermentation works to preserve foods because of killing Trichinella, killing insects eggs and larva, for foods that cannot be heated, preventing sprouting heating anaerobic environment and heat lethal mutations pH