QLaurenn and A Lecture O. Lacbanes, D.M.D.

Gen Anat/Oral Anat/Physio

Right Subclavian and Right common carotid arteries arise from the?
a) b) c) d)

Arch of the aorta Ascending aorta Brachiocephalic artery Thoracic aorta

Right Subclavian A.

Brachiocephalic A.

Arch of the Aorta

Right Common Carotid A.

Left Common Carotid A. Left Subclavian A.

Which of the following is the prime extensor of the forearm?

a) b) c) d) e)

Triceps brachii Biceps brachii Latissimus dorsi Brachioradialis Extensor digitorum communis

Which of the following muscles adducts the vocal cords?

a) b) c) d)

Lateral cricoarytenoid Posterior cricoarytenoid Cricothyroid Tensor veli palatine

Ependymal cells constitute the tissue that?

a)
b) c) d) e)

Lines the ventricles of the brain

Lines the ventricles of the heart Forms a part of peripheral neuroglia Covers nerve cell bodies in a ganglion All of the above

Cribiform plate of ethmoid is found in the?

a)
b) c) d)

Anterior cranial fossa

Middle cranial fossa Posterior cranial fossa Temporal fossa

Anterior Cranial Fossa

Foramen cecum

Middle Cranial Fossa

Optic canal

Posterior Cranial Fossa

Foramen magnum

Cribiform plate of ethmoid

Crista galli

Superior orbital fissure

Foramen rotundum Foramen ovale Foramen spinosum Foramen lacerum

Hypoglossal canal
Jugular foramen Internal acoustic meatus Condylar canal

Carotid canal

Union of superficial temporal and maxillary vein:

a) b)

retromandibular vein common facial vein

c)
d)

internal jugular
pterygoid venous plexus

The three usual primary branches of the celiac artery are the?
a) b) c) d)

Common hepatic, splenic, left gastric Common hepatic, splenic, right gastric Gastroduodenal, splenic, left gastric Right gastroepiploic, splenic, left gastruc

e)

Common hepatic, right gastroepiploic, left gastric

Impulses representing taste from the tongue are back to the brain via
a) b)

CN VII, CNIX, CN X CN I, CN II, CN VIII

c)
d)

CN V, CN VII, CN XI
CN V, CN VII, CN X

The facial nerve innervates the

a)
b) c) d) e)

Stylohyoid
Posterior belly of digastric Anterior belly of digastric A and B A and C

f)

B and C

The lingula of the mandible serves as an attachment for the

a) b)

Temporalis muscle Stylomandibular ligament

c)
d)

Sphenomandibular ligament
Temporomandibular ligament

e)

Tendon of digastric muscle

A muscle that acts to protrude the mandible

a)
b) c) d)

Masseter
Digastric Lateral pterygoid Temporalis

Muscles of mastication
Muscle Temporalis Internal/ medial pterygoid Masseter External/lateral pterygoid Origin Temporalis fossa medial surface of lateral pterygoid Zygomatic process Lateral surface of lateral pterygoid Insertion Coronoid process medial surface of ramus and angle of mandible angle of the Mandible Neck of condyle

Which recurrent laryngeal nerve loops around the arch of the aorta?
a) b)

Right recurrent laryngeal nerve Left recurrent laryngeal nerve

c)
d)

External laryngeal nerve

Inferior laryngeal nerve

Hypomineralized structures which extend from the DEJ to the surface of enamel are called?
a) b) c) d)

Enamel rods Enamel lamellae Enamel spindles Enamel tuft

The infraorbital nerve is a branch of the?

a)
b) c) d) e)

Optic nerve
Oculomotor nerve Opthalmic nerve Maxillary nerve Mandibular nerve

In the mandibular block anesthesia, which of the following is penetrated if the tip of the needle is resting well below the mandibular foramen?
a)

Masseter

b)
c) d) e)

Lateral pterygoid
Temporal

Medial pterygoid
Sternocleidomastoid

All of the following structures lie superficial to the hyoglossus muscle except the?
a) b) c) d) e)

Lingual nerve Lingual artery Hypoglossal nerve Submandibular duct All of the above

Which of the following muscles is supplied by the CN XI?

a)
b) c) d) e)

Levator scapulae
Latissimus dorsi Trapezius Major rhomboid Minor rhomboid

CN XI Trapezius raises shoulder ewan ko

inserts in inion and superior nuchal line

The tendon of the tensor veli palatini muscle curves around the
a)
b) c) d)

Angular spine
Styloid process Pterygoid hamulus Neck of the condyle

The platysma is supplied by

a)
b) c) d)

CN V
CN VII CN IX CN X

The palatine shelf is a medial extension of the_______ process.

a)
b) c) d) e)

Lateral nasal
Intermaxillary Maxillary Medial nasal mandibular

The communication between the infratemporal fossa and the pterygopalatine fossa is the
a) b) c) d) e)

Pharnygeal canal Pterygopalatine canal Sphenopalatine foramen Pterygomaxillary fissure Pterygomaxillary foramen

When the permanent maxillary arch is viewed occlusally, generally the

a) b)

Distobuccal angle of the first molar is acute 2nd molar is wider mesiodistally than the first molar

c)
d) e)

Second premolar is wider buccolingually than the 1st molar

Lingual embrasures are wider than are the buccal embrasures Buccal embrasures are wider than are the lingual embrasures

What is the usual relation of the lingual cusp tips of the maxillary premolars to the buccal cusp tips?
a) b) c) d)

Buccal Lingual and distal Exactly lingual Lingual and mesial

The_____ pterygoid is the prime mover in effecting a left working movement.

a) b)

Left lateral Right lateral

c)
d)

Left medial
Right medial

Which of the following is not a mixed nerve:

a)
b) c) d)

Trochlear
Facial CN9 CN10

 Sensory: CN 1,2,8

Motor: CN 3,4,6,11,12

Mixed: CN 5,7,9,10

Innervation of stapedius muscle:

a) facial nerve
b) trigeminal nerve c) olfactory nerve d) nerve to the stapedius

The facial n. enters the internal acoustic meatus together with CN 8 and divides into three in bone:
-greater petrosal n. foramen lacerum -nerve to the stapedius -chorda tympani

Facial nerves are derived from the ___ branchial arch

a)
b) c) d) e)

First
Second Third Fourth Fifth and sixth

 CN V 1st branchial arch

CN VII 2nd branchial arch

Digitalis is prescribed to persons with atrial fibrillation because it

a)
b) c) d)

Depresses A-V conduction

Ameliorates A-V conduction Inc. no. of discharges from S-A node Dec. no. of discharge from S-A node

In a compensation acidosis, the pH of blood plasma is normal but the total carbon dioxide content is low. The compensation is achieved by
a) b) c) d) e)

Excretion of an alkaline urine Decreasing the volume of respiration per minute Increasing the volume of respiration per minute Excretion of acid urine Increasing the carbon dioxide production

Compensation acidosis metabolic acidosis

Hyperventilation: respiratory alkalosis

metabolic acidosis

Administration of heparin is similar to Vit. K deficiency in symptoms because both result in

a) b) c) d)

Release of lipoprotein lipase to the blood and rapid clearance of chylomicrons An inc. in bleeding time due to lack of thrombin formation Retardation of fibrinogen synthesis by the liver Elevated non-esterified fatty acids which chelate serum calcium, thus retarding blood clotting

Activation of the membrane and development of the spike potential most likely relates to the
a) b) c) d)

Rapid influx of K+

Rapid influx of Na+

Rapid outflow of K+ Rapid outflow of Na+

Under physiologic conditions, the lowest partial pressure of oxygen is found in

a) b)

Normal atmospheric air Humidified atmospheric air

c)
d) e)

Alveolar air
Expired air

Venous blood

Linolenic acid and arachidonic acids are precursors of

a)
b) c) d)

Prostaglandins
Steroid hormones Lecithin and other phospholipids Isoprenoid chains required for cholesterol and vit. A synthesis

Which part of the nervous system contains cardiac, vomiting, and vasomotor centers?
a) b)

Medulla Thalamus

c)
d) e)

Cerebral cortex
Cervical region of spinal ganglia

None of the above

A deficiency of which of the following vitamins would most likely elicit oral symptoms?
a) b)

Pyridoxine (B6) Cobalamine (B12)

c)
d) e)

D
E

The role of liver in edema may be a result of

a)
b) c) d) e)

Decreased aldosterone secretion

Decreased vasopressin secretion Diminished albumin synthesis All of the above Only a and b

Extracellular fluid:
a)
b)

Is composed mainly of transcellular fluids

Makes up the major proportion of total body water

c)
d)

Has a higher sodium/potassium ratio than intracellular fluid

Contains less glucose than intracellular fluid

Bodys water

2/3 ICF

ECF

Soln of potassium and organic anions, proteins, etc.

interstitial fluid

plasma

Which amino acid become hydroxylated in the synthesis of collagen?

a) b)

Serine Tryptophan

c)
d)

Proline
Phenylalanine

e)

Arginine

Process by which genetic information flows from RNA to protein is

a)
b) c) d) e)

Mutation
Translation Replication Transcription None of the above

Sympathetic stimulation affects carbohydrate metabolism because

a)
b) c) d) e)

Peripheral tissues require epinephrine to take up glucose

Sympathetic nerves to the pancreas regulate insulin release Insulin cannot act on the liver in the absence of epinephrine Epinephrine increases glycogenolysis None of the above

Receptors

Parasympathetic and Sympathetic PREGANGLIONIC neurons cholinergic

Parasympathetic POSTGANGLIONIC cholinergic Sympathetic POSTGANGLIONIC adrenergic (norepinephrine and epinephrine)

Carotid Body receptors are stimulated most effectively by

a)
b) c) d) e)

Elevated Ph
Low oxygen tension High oxygen tension Low carbon dioxide tension Increased arterial blood pressure

Calcium binds to which of the following for contraction of smooth muscle?

a) b)

Troponin c Calmodulin

c)
d)

Myosin
Actin

e)

Desmosomes

Which of the following produces inhibin?

a)
b) c) d)

Sertoli cells
Leydig Cells Vas deferens epididymis

The parathyroid hormone acts on the

a)
b) c) d)

Distal tubule of the kidney

Proximal convoluted tubule Ascending loop Descending loop

Resto/Comm Dent

Of the following materials, the one MOST likely to cause an adverse pulpal reaction when placed directly in a deep cavity preparation is
a)

Silver amalgam

b)
c)

Calcium hydroxide
Silicate cement

d)
e)

Zinc-oxide eugenol
Zinc phosphate cement

Organization from highest to lowest position :

a) ranking
b) central tendency c) Scalar d) practice management

What is the predominant collagen in dentin?

a) Type I
b) type II c) Type III d) type IV

Pulp capping is an indicated procedure when there is

a)
b)

An accidental mechanical exposure in a clean, dry field

No hemorrhage from the exposure

c)
d) e)

pain response to cold

A large exposure

All of the above

Dental wax patterns should be invested as soon as possible after fabrication on order to minimize change in the shape caused by
a) b) c) d) e)

Reduced flow Drying-out of the wax Relaxation of internal stresses Continued expansion of the wax Increased flow

Which of the following is the weakest phase of the set amalgam?

a)

beta-2

b) c) d) e)

Gamma-2 Gamma Beta-1 Gamma-1

The retention for any class V restoration is placed

a)
b) c) d)

in mesial and distal areas

In occlusal and gingival areas At the expense of the axial wall None of the above

The most effective means of providing maximum protection against caries activity for a great number of people is through
a) b) c) d) e) f)

Plaque control programs School dental health programs Meticulous brushing Topical application of a solution of fluoride Fluoridation of the communitys drinking water A community program using pit and fissure sealant

Optimal amt. of fluoride for public drinking 1 ppm

What percent is the reduction of caries in fluoridation:

a)
b) c) d)

70%
80% 60% 90%

Preparations of class I cavities for the restoration of amalgam, direct filling gold and the gold inlay have in common
a) b) c) d)

Divergence of buccal and lingual walls occlusally Divergence of the mesial and distal walls occlusally Convergence of the buccal and lingual walls occlusally Undercutting the mesial and distal walls

_____ is the discolored, corroded, superficial layer frequently seen on the surface of a dental amalgam restoration.
a) b) c) d) e)

Mercury Gamma-2 Ferrous oxide A sulfide Copper oxide

The outline form of a cavity preparation is the

a)
b) c) d)

Shape or form of the preparation after carious dentin has been excavated
Shape or form the preparation assumes after retention form has been completed Shape or form of the preparation on the surface of the tooth Next step to be accomplished in a cavity preparation after resistance form has been established.

On a carbide bur, a greater number of cutting blades results in ____ efficient cutting and a ______ surface
a) b) c) d) e)

less; smoother Less; rougher More; smoother More; rougher Less; smoother or rougher

The glass slab is chilled prior to mixing silicate cement powder and liquid primarily to
a)

Allow more powder to be incorporated in the liquid

b)
c)

Dissipate the heat of reaction

Allow greater gel formation

d)
e)

Increase the pH of the mix

None of the above

Chronic dental caries differs from acute dental caries in that

a) b) c) d)

There is greater penetration of the lesion There is greater depth than width to the lesion The unsupported enamel is usually fractured away There is usually minimal sensitivity

e)
f) g)

A, c, d
B,c,d All of the above

Pain following the placement of an amalgam restoration is most frequently related to

a)
b) c) d)

Heat
Cold Occlusal pressure Galvanic shock

The rotational instrument which leaves the roughest surface on cut tooth structure is a
a) b)

Medium grit diamond at low seed Cross cut fissure bur at ultra speed

c)
d)

Cross cut fissure bur at low speed

Garnet disc at low speed

e)

Medium grit diamond at ultra speed

Stainless Steel pins are principally used in conjunction with amalgam restorations to enhance the
a) b)

Retention Strength

c)
d) e)

Resistance form
All of the above

A and b

A minimal mercury level for amalgam varies with the brand of alloy used but it falls within the range of
a) b)

40%-50% 46%-53%

c)
d)

50%-55%
55%-60%

Asbestos is utilized to line a casting ring in order to

a)
b)

Help uniformly distribute the heat throughout the mold

Facilitate venting of the mold

c)
d)

Permit expansion of the mold

All of the above

Compared to unfilled resins, composite resins have

a)
b) c) d) e)

greater compressive strength

Less solubility Greater working time Smoother finished surface Greater color stability

Where are the assistants feet during any operative procedure when fourhanded dentistry is used?
a) b) c) d)

On the floor On the stool support On the dental chair base Wherever is convenient

The cleansing property of a toothpaste is primarily a function of its

a)

Abrasiveness

b) c) d)

Fluoride content Physical form, paste or powder Binding agents

Adjustment of dietary supplementation levels of fluoride should be a function of

a) b)

Age and sex Age and number of permanent teeth

c)
d) e)

Race and artificial fluoridation levels of water

Age and natural fluoridation levels of water Sex and natural fluoridation of water

Which of the following properties is most characteristic of the current cement bases?
a) b) c) d)

High coefficient of thermal expansion High ductility Adhesion to tooth structure Low thermal conductivity

Enamel is etched with

a)
b) c) d)

Maleic acid
Phosphoric acid Polyacrylic acid Tartaric acid

Which component of the a dentin bonding system functions primarily to penetrate through the remnant smear layer and into the intertubular dentin to form an interpenetrating network around dentin collagen?
a)
b) c) d)

Etchant
Primer Adhesive None of the above

Hybrid layer/ resin-dentin interdiffusion zone Nakabayashi

The principal reason for using a cavosurface bevel when preparing a tooth for a cast gold inlay or onlay
a) b) c)

To allow room for cement To improve marginal adaptation To compensate for shrinkage of the casting gold alloy

d)

To provide resistance form to the preparation

What is the blade width of a cutting instrument with the following formula: 10-85-8-14
a) b) c) d)

10 mm 1 mm 0.85 mm 0.6 mm

4# formula width of the blade in tenths of a millimeter primary cutting edge angle in centigrade blade length in millimeter blade angle in centigrade WALA

The retention of a pin:

a) b) c)

Decreases as the diameter of the pin increases Increases as the diameter of the pin increases Increases as the diameter of the pin decreases

d)

The retention of the pin has nothing to do with the diameter of the pin

The most retentive style of pin is:

a)
b) c)

Cemented pins
Friction-locked pins Self-threaded pins

The optimal interpin distance depends on the size of the pin to be used. The minimal interpin distance is ___ for Minikin pin and _____ for minim pin.
a) b) c)

0.5mm, 2 mm 1.0mm, 3mm 3mm, 5mm

d)

5mm, 7mm

Rule of Thumb
Pins should be 2mm into dentin, 2mm within amalgam, and 1mm from the DEJ Pins are placed parallel to the external tooth surface

Which rubber dam frame provides more retraction of the soft tissues?
a)
b) c)

Woodbury
Youngs Both are the same

The pH of acidulated phosphate fluoride (APF) gels is?

a)

1-4
4-7

b) c) d)

7-10 10-12

pH: APF 3-3.5 NaF9.2 SnF2 2.1-2.3

Knutson Sodium Fluoride

Muhler Stannous fluoride

Oral Surg/Oral Diag/Radio

A sudden swelling of the lip which comes and goes without apparent cause is most likely
a) b)

A mucocele Angioneurotic edema

c)
d) e)

A lymphangioma
A hemangioma

An aneurysm

The most common disorder causing pain about the masticatory apparatus including the TMJ is
a) b) c) d) e)

Myofascial pain dysfunction Trigeminal neuralgia Degenerative arthritis Traumatic arthritis Temporal arteritis

Loss of tooth surface at the cervical areas of teeth caused by tensile and compressive forces during tooth flexure is referred to as:
a)

Erosion

b)
c) d)

Abfraction
Attrition

Abrasion

Which type of amelogenesis imperfecta is characterized by having enamel so soft that it can be removed during a prophylaxis?
a) b)

Type I (Hypoplastic Amelogenesis Imperfecta) Type II( Hypocalcified Amelogenesis Imperfecta)

c)

Type III (Hypomaturation Amelogenesis Imperfecta)

Hypoplastic defective formation of enamel matrix Hypocalcifiednormal quantity but enamel matrix has defective mineralization
Hypomaturation immature crystallites; can be pierced by an explorer tip w/ firm pressure

Leukemia which accounts for about 2/3 of cases among children is?
a)
b) c) d)

Acute lymphocytic leukemia

Acute myeloid leukemia Chronic lymphocytic leukemia Acute monoblastic leukemia

CML Philadelphia chromosome (22)

AML malignant; hematopoietic precursors are arrested in an early stage of development myeloblast contains AUER RODS

Surgery on the articular eminence:

a)
b) c) d)

Eminectomy
Condylectomy Condylotomy odontectomy

When was the dental x-ray invented?

a)1862
b)1805 c)1897 d)1895

In determining the location of IAN in relation to apices of teeth, _____ method is used.
a) Clark shift b) Frank shift

c) Richards method
d) paralleling

Alveoloplasty consists f the following: I. Compression of the lateral walls of the extraction site II. Removal of intraseptal bone and repositioning of the cortical bone III. Recontouring bony irregularities using rongeur and bone file IV. Gross removal of bone to increase interarch space a) I,II,III
b) c) d)

II, III, IV I,III,IV IV

Electromagnetic waves are:

a) alpha
b) beta c) gamma

d) cathode

Radiographic examination is useful in diagnosing all but one of the following cysts.
a) b)

Globulomaxillary Nasoalveolar

c)
d) e)

Traumatic bone
Follicular

radicular

Bony ankylosis of the TMJ is treated by

a)
b) c) d) e)

steroid injections into the joint

Surgical procedures Immobilizing jaws with wires Rest, soft, diet, heat, and aspirin Occlusal equilibration

Which of the following is considered to be the normal prothrombin time (PT)

a)
b) c) d)

< 7 seconds +/- 2 seconds

< 11 seconds +/- 2 seconds < 14 seconds +/- 2 seconds < 25 seconds +/- 2 seconds

PTT: 25-36 seconds

Bleeding time: less than 9 minutes Platelet counts: 150,000- 450,000 per 1 cu mm *50,000 minimum count for oral surgery

The propylene glycol in IV valium can cause:

a)
b) c) d)

Cellulitis
A unilateral facial paralysis Phlebitis syncope

The most common direction in which the articular disc in the TMJ can be displaced is:
a) b)

Lateral Medial

c)
d)

Posterior
Anteromedial

Which nerve is the largest of the 12 cranial nerves and is the principal general sensory nerve to the head, particularly the face?
a)
b) c) d)

Vagus
Glossopharyngeal Facial Trigeminal

The Caldwell-Luc procedure is done by making an opening into the facial wall of the antrum above the:
a) b) c) d)

Maxillary tuberosity Maxillary lateral incisor Maxillary premolar roots Maxillary third molar

More than 90% of all diagnosed malignant oral cancers are:

a)
b) c) d)

Squamous cell carcinoma

Hodgkins disease Keratoacanthosis salivary gland tumors

How many milligrams of epinephrine are in each cartridge (1.8cc) of 2% lidocaine with 1:100,000 epinephrine?
a)

0.018 mg

b)
c) d)

18 mg
0.036 mg

36 mg

 Lidocaine : 36 mg
Epinephrine : 0.018mg

occur as a consequence of hematogenous spread of maxillary odontogenic infection via the venous drainage of the maxilla. The causative agent is generally:
a)

Staphylococcus aureus

b)
c)

Streptococci
Pneumococci

d)

fungi

Trismus caused by an inferior alveolar injection is the result of injecting below the mandibular foramen into the:
a)

Buccinator muscle

b)
c) d) e)

Masseter muscle
Temporalis muscle

Medial pterygoid muscle

Lateral pterygoid

Bifid ribs, multiple radiolucent lesions of the jaws, multiple basal cell nevi, and calcification of the falx cerebri are found in
a)

Horner syndrome

b)
c) d) e)

Gardner syndrome
Sturge-weber syndrome

Basal cell nevus syndrome

Hereditary intestinal polyposis

Which of the following diseases is characterized by normal serum calcium and phosphorus and elevated serum alkaline phosphatase?
a)
b) c) d) e)

Osteomalacia
Pagets disease Hyperthyroidism Renal rickets hypoparathyroidism

A major radiographic finding in ectodermal dysplasia is

a)
b)

A ground-glass appearance of the bone

Many congenitally missing teeth

c)
d) e)

Calcification of the falx cerebrum

Hutchinsons teeth

osteoporosis

Some microorganisms produce a diffuse, spreading inflammatory reaction due to the elaboration of
a) b) c) d) e)

Coagulase Bradykinin

Hyaluronidase
Peroxidase Leukotaxine

Hyperplasia associated with the border of an ill-fitting denture(epulis fissuratum) is most similar histologically to
a)

Papilloma

b)
c)

Verruca vulgaris
Pyogenic granuloma

d)
e)

Irritation fibroma
Peripheral odontogenic fibroma with calcification

A horizontal fracture of the maxilla below the level of the orbits is classified as a
a)
b) c) d) e)

Le Fort I fracture
Le fort II fracture Le Fort III fracture Zygomatico-maxillary complex fracture

Caldwell-Luc

Masticatory space infections have ____ as their hallmark.

a)
b) c) d) e)

Dyspnea
Erythema Myxoedema Trismus hematemesis

A herringbone or diamond effect will appear on the processed film when:

a)

The film is bent

b)

The film is placed backwards in the mouth

c)
d)

An improper vertical angulation is used

An improper horizontal angulation is used

Which of the following errors in radiographic technique is the most likely reason that an image on a radiograph would appear elongated?
a) b) c) d)

Too much vertical angulation Too little vertical angulation Incorrect horizontal angulation Beam not aimed at the center of film

Which of the following projections is best for examination of the condyles and neck of the mandible (from an anterior-posterior projection)
a)

Waters projection

b)
c)

Transcranial projection
Townes projection

d)

Submentovertex projection

When PID length is changed from 8 to 16 inches, the source-to-film distance is doubled. According to the inverse square law, the resultant beam is:
a) b) c)

as intense 1/8 as intense 4 times as intense

d)

8 times as intense

Target film distance original time = original distance2 new time new distance2

Inverse square Law

original intensity = new distance2

new intensity

original distance2

Sialoliths are most commonly found in the

a)
b) c) d)

Sublingual
Submandibular duct Minor salivary Parotid gland

After an orthognatic procedure, the patient 24 hrs later developed a temperature of 102F without local edema or tenderness, the cause is likely
a)
b) c) d)

Atalectasis
Infected hematoma Sinusitis dehydration

What radiographic change in the skull may be seen in patients suffering from sickle cell anemia:
a) b)

Sunburst appearance Hair on end effect

c)
d)

Punch out appearance

Honey comb appearance

After receiving an injection of local anesthetic containing 2% lidocaine with 1:100,000 epinephrine, the patient loses consciousness. Which of the following is the most probable cause?
a)

Acute toxicity

b)
c)

Allergic response
Syncope

d)

Hyperventilation syndrome

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An incisional biopsy is indicated for which of the following lesion?

a)

A 0.5 cm papillary fibroma of the gingiva

b)

A 2.0 cm exostosis of the hard palate

c)
d) e)

A 2.0 cm area of fordyces disease of the cheek

A 3.0 cm hemangioma of the tongue A 3.0 cm area of leukoplakia of the soft palate

Which of the following is the primary direction of luxation for extracting maxillary deciduous molars?
a)

Buccal

b)
c)

Palatal
Mesial

d)

Distal

The computer tomography (CT) scan is the gold standard for evaluation of:
a) b)

Mandibular fractures at the angle Fractures of the mandibular condyle

c)
d) e)

Le fort I fractures
Zygomatic fractures

All of the above

The image of the coronoid process of the mandible often appears in periapical x-rays of:
a) b)

The incisor region of the mandible The molar region of the mandible

c)
d)

The incisor region of the maxilla

The molar region of the maxilla

Which of the following focuses the electrons into a narrow beam and directs the beam across the tube toward the tungsten target of the anode?
a) b) c) d)

Copper stem Filament Vacuum Molybdenum cup

X-ray tube
a) Cathode (-)
-tungsten filament - molybdenum focusing cup b) Anode (+)

- tungsten target
- copper stem

When purpura spots are very small, they are called:

a)
b) c) d)

Pimples
Petechiae Ecchymoses Varicose veins

A dentist is often consulted first by a patient with pernicious anemia for relief of
a) b) c) d)

Denuded gingiva Glossitis Edematous buccal mucosa Severe gingivitis

Currently, the most popular used implants are:

a)
b) c) d)

Blade form implants

Subperiosteal implants Transosseus implants Root form implants

3 categories of implants based on their relationship to the oral tissues:

1.

Endosseous implants- surgically inserted into the jawbone; most frequently used implant; subdivied into root form and blade form Subperiosteal implant- rides on bone
Transosseous implants- similar to endosseous implants but penetrate the entire jaw; for atrophic mandible

2.
3.

The most commonly used allogenic bone is?

a)
b) c) d)

Demineralized freeze-dried bone

Fresh frozen Freeze-dried None of the above

Allogenic- tissue from same species but genetically different individuals; synthetic
Autograft- tissue from the same individual Xenogenic- another species e.g. animals Isograft- same species and genetically identical

An endosseous dental implant has between the bone and implant a?

a) b)

Periodontal ligament Epithelial ligament

c)
d)

Peri-implant ligament
A bone-implant interface

10 mm minimum bone height to place endosseous implant

2mm minimum distance from implant to the inferior alveolar canal

2mm distance between an implant and natural tooth

3mm- minimum distance between two implants

God Bless!